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Republic KV prep > Republic KV Prep > Flashcards

Republic KV Prep Flashcards

1
Q

Republic alcohol policy

A

12 hours and < .02% BAC

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2
Q

What is needed for reporting for duty?

A

Power brick, iPad 90% charged, Comply365 and Jepp updated, Pilot cert, medical, passport, flashlight, radio license

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3
Q

When is show time?

A

45 minutes prior

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4
Q

If FO will be late, notify captain within how much time?

A

30 minutes

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5
Q

Inflight APU shuts for

A

UFO: Underspeed, FADEC critical, Overspeed

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6
Q

On ground, APU shuts for

A

UFO, SHELF: Underspeed, FADEC critical, Overspeed; Sensor fail, high oil temp, EGT high, low oil temp, fire

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7
Q

What does APU provide

A

Electrical and bleed

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8
Q

What happens when APU EMER STOP button pressed

A

Fuel SOV closes and immediate shutdown

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9
Q

Where do packs distribute air to?

A

Pack 1: Flight deck and cabin; Pack 2: Cabin

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10
Q

Number of fans in AFT electronics bay

A

0

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11
Q

How many recirc fans to move air into cabin and flight deck?

A

2

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12
Q

What keeps the 3 avionics e-bays cool?

A

Forward and center: 3 fans; Aft: natural air flow

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13
Q

Wing span with extended winglets?

A

93’ 11”

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14
Q

When is FD displayed?

A

TOGA pressed; any LNAV or VNAV; AP on and windshear detected

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15
Q

SPDe modes?

A

Both FLCH modes and Overspeed

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16
Q

APPR2 requirements

A

Both mins set on RA between 800 and 1500; both NAV tuned to correct LOC; Both PFD show correct course; both PFD show valid mins; flaps 5

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17
Q

SPDt modes

A

PTH; VS; FPA; ALT; ASEL; GS

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18
Q

Takeoff mode - min and max pitch?

A

8-18 degrees

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19
Q

GA does not transition to ASEL/ALT if selected ALT is within xxx of TOGA hit?

A

400 feet

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20
Q

VNAV approach temp comp adjusts FMS waypoints for:

A

Approach transition; MIssed approach

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21
Q

Windshear detection available at what altitudes?

A

Between 10’ and 1500’

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22
Q

Batteries will provide power for essential loads for how long?

A

10 minutes

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23
Q

What would we use DC GPU for?

A

APU start if Batt2 unavailable

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24
Q

What is source priority for electrical power?

A

Respective IDG, APU, Ground, Opposite IDG

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25
Q

How many networks make up electrical system?

A

2

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26
Q

Arrive at plane with GPU powering plane.
Start APU. How can you tell if APU is powering aircraft

A

GPU button shows AVAIL and MFD electrical page shows APU

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27
Q

When would amber IDG light illuminate

A

High oil temp, Low oil temp, test

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28
Q

IDG LED purpose

A

Shows which IDG to disconnect when EICAS message appears

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29
Q

What does AVAIL indicate?

A

Voltage, Amperage and Frequency good

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30
Q

What should pilot do when switching from GPU to APU for power?

A

Push AVAIL button out to prepare for next time

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31
Q

What charges battery?

A

Any AC source

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32
Q

What is powered when Batt1 is off?

A

Hot batt bus

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33
Q

When is hot batt bus powered

A

Always

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34
Q

What are some items on hot batt bus?

A

Engine oil indications, Fire extinguishers, Fuel and Hydraulic SOV’s, Courtesy lights, refueling panel, Water and waste systems, CMC (Central Maintenance Computer)

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35
Q

If aircraft at gate with GPU connected and engine started, is electrical system split?

A

Yes

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36
Q

What is available during an electrical emergency?

A

Compass backlight, CA CCD, FO MCDU, clock, DU2/3, both audio control panels, guidance panel

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37
Q

During normal operations, are both detector loops required to receive a warning?

A

Yes

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38
Q

Bottle discharge for FWD Cargo fire in flight with ANNUNCIATED fire?

A

Must push button for HRB. LRB goes automatically 1 minute later

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39
Q

On ground, how long for APU to shut automatically if there is a fire?

A

10 seconds

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40
Q

What indications exist for Lav fire extinguisher discharging?

A

None

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41
Q

How is cabin protected from fire?

A

4 Halon extinguishers

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42
Q

What does pulling fire handle do?

A

Closes: Fuel SOV, Hydraulic SOV, bleed, xbleed

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43
Q

What are indications of an APU fire?

A

FIre bell and triple chime, 2 master warning, red stripe on emergency stop button, EICAS message

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44
Q

Will APU shut inflight for fire?

A

No

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45
Q

If APU EMER STOP hit after fire detected, what happens?

A

SOV closes, APU shuts immediately, red stripe turns white

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46
Q

What happens if APU EMER STOP not hit after fire is detected?

A

After 1 minute red stripe illuminates. If on ground, APU shuts in 10 seconds

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47
Q

What does it take for APU FIRE EXT light to illuminate?

A

1) EMER STOP pushed after fire detected; or 2) Fire detected and no action taken for 60 seconds

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48
Q

When does red bar on APU EMER STOP button illuminate

A

APU fire

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49
Q

Pressing APU FIRE EXT causes what to happen?

A

SOV closes, APU shuts, bottle fires

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50
Q

Can LRB be fired prior to 1 minute in flight?

A

Yes, by pushing extinguisher second time

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51
Q

How can LRB be fired if on ground?

A

Push extinguisher second time

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52
Q

Will LRB discharge automatically on ground?

A

No

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53
Q

If no smoke detected, what is cargo fire extinguisher logic IN FLIGHT

A

Button must be pushed TWICE

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54
Q

If no smoke detected, what is cargo fire extinguisher logic ON GROUND

A

3 pushes required. 1 to arm HRB, 1 to fire HRB. 1 to fire LRB (if desired)

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55
Q

If smoke IS detected, what is cargo fire extinguisher logic ON GROUND

A

2 pushes required

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56
Q

If smoke IS detected, what is cargo fire extinguisher logic IN FLIGHT

A

1 push required

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57
Q

What are the indications that smoke is detected in the lav?

A

EICAS and 2 master warnings. FA orange light. Won’t know which lav though

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58
Q

Difference between Normal and Direct mode?

A

Direct bypasses FCM and has no high level functions

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59
Q

Will speed brakes and ground spoilers work in direct mode?

A

No

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60
Q

Does autopilot work if elevator in direct mode?

A

No

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61
Q

What are rudder high level functions?

A

Yaw damper, airspeed gain scheduling, turn coordination

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62
Q

Will multifunction spoilers work in direct mode?

A

Yes, but with default gain

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63
Q

What is priority for trim?

A

Backup, Captain, FO, FCM (AP)

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64
Q

What are elevator high level functions?

A

Airspeed gain scheduling, AOA limit, Elevator Thrust Compensation

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65
Q

How does fly by wire work?

A

FCM connects to ACE, giving input based on pilot inputs

66
Q

With spoilers in direct mode, what MF spoiler functions will not work?

A

Speed brakes; Ground Spoilers

67
Q

What happens when you press only half of the trim switch?

A

Deactivates

68
Q

What flight controls use electrical power to actuate?

A

Slat/Flap and stab trim

69
Q

When will speed brakes automatically close?

A

Flaps >= 2; TLA >=70; Speed ,=180

70
Q

Which flaps settings approved for takeoff?

A

1, 2, 4

70
Q

What happens when stick shaker is activated?

A

Nose up control authority is limited

71
Q

What will interrupt electrical PBIT?

A

AC interruption; Hydraulic pump turned on; any mode switch pressed

72
Q

How long are the PBIT’s?

A

Electric: 3 minutes; Hydraulic: 1 minute

73
Q

Which displays can be reverted?

A

PFD (DU 1/5); EICAS (DU3)

74
Q

What do the takeoff crossbars provide?

A

Extended centerline; pitch attitude

75
Q

What is the operating range for the radar altimeter?

A

-20 to 2500

76
Q

How many IRS (Inertial Reference Systems) does the aircraft have?

A

2

77
Q

When will the FD automatically display?

A

TOGA pressed; AP on; Wind shear detected

78
Q

When is TOGA mode deactivated?

A

Another vertical mode selected; AP activated

79
Q

When will the AC fuel pump turn on automatically?

A

Ejector pump fails; Crossfeed ops; engine start; APU operation if ejector pump not operating

80
Q

When can DC pump be used?

A

On ground and in flight

81
Q

Why do we have the DC pump?

A

Provides pressurized fuel for engine start and APU operation when no AC power or AC pump operating

82
Q

What is fuel pump logic?

A

Primary ejector; AC pump; DC pump

83
Q

Each hydraulic system has an EDP and ACMP (T/F)?

A

False

84
Q

If both engines fail, what provides hydraulic pressure until the RAT comes online

A

Hydraulic 3 accumulator

85
Q

Will the PTU operate on the ground if in AUTO?

A

No

86
Q

Which systems use hydraulic power?

A

Flight controls and spoilers; brakes; gear; nosewheel steering; thrust reversers

87
Q

What are primary and backup source for hydraulic system 3?

A

ACMP 3A and ACMP 3B

88
Q

When will hydraulic ACMP activate automatically ON GROUND?

A

Flaps > 0 and TLA T/O or Flaps > 0 and GS>50

89
Q

Can we disable EDP by pressing SYS1 or SYS2 Engine pump shutoff?

A

No

90
Q

What happens when pushing HYD SYS1 or SYS2 ENGINE PUMP SHUTOFF buttons?

A

SOV closes

91
Q

Why does HYD ACPM 3A have ON position?

A

It is primary for system 3

92
Q

Why does HYD ACPM 3B have AUTO position?

A

It is backup for system 3

93
Q

What items on hydraulic system 2 different from hydraulic system 1?

A

Nosewheel steering; inboard brakes; landing gear

94
Q

When will hydraulic PBIT run?

A

On ground when all 3 system pumps turned on

95
Q

What will interrupt hydraulic PBIT

A

Moving flight controls

96
Q

What happens if there is a bleed source failure?

A

Crossfeed automatically opens

97
Q

How long will the anti icing system remain on if icing detected?

A

2 or 5 minutes, depending on EPIC load?

98
Q

What does selecting ALL on MCDU T/O dataset menu provide for ENGINE, and how long if no ice detected and in AUTO mode?

A

AI until 1700 AFE or 2 minutes

99
Q

What does selecting ALL on MCDU T/O dataset menu provide for WINGS, and how long if no ice detected and in AUTO mode?

A

AI from wheelspeed > 40 until 1700 AFE or 2 minutes

100
Q

With ice detection selector in AUTO and T/O dataset ref AI set to OFF, how long is wing and engine AI inihibited?

A

1700 AFE and 2 minutes

101
Q

What is max speed if wiper is failed unparked?

A

Vmo

102
Q

What happens if wiper turned on for dry windshield?

A

Won’t operate

103
Q

Autobrakes will be disarmed for what conditions?

A

Autobrake switch turned off; brakes pressed, Thrust levers not idle, BCM failure

104
Q

When is LG WARN INHIB switch used?

A

To inhibit gear warning for DUAL RA failure

105
Q

When would you use alternate gear extension procedure?

A

If hydraulic not available or electrical system fails

106
Q

When would you use the electrical override switch?

A

When gear lever control box fails. Bypass PSEM

107
Q

When is anti-skid protection deactivated?

A

Wheel speed < 10

108
Q

What conditions required for autobrakes to engage during rejected takeoff?

A

Thrust levers idle; Wheel speed < 60; no brakes applied

109
Q

What conditions required for green towing light to illuminate?

A

Steering disengaged; brakes off

110
Q

What determines minimum turn radius with standard winglets?

A

Horizontal stabilizer tip

111
Q

When does touchdown protection deactivate for braking?

A

3 seconds after WOW; wheelspeed > 50

112
Q

What disengages rudder pedal steering?

A

Activation of nosewheel steering

113
Q

What are the 4 levels of EICAS alerts

A

Warning, caution advisory, status

114
Q

TO Config checks for what?

A

Parking brake, flaps, pitch trim

115
Q

What does EICAS full button do?

A

Out declutters; in gives full info

116
Q

When does EICAS de clutter happen?

A

30 seconds after gear and flaps retracted

117
Q

What is DUMP button used for?

A

Emergency evacuation; smoke evacuation; rapid decompression

118
Q

What happens when DUMP button is pressed?

A

Packs and fans off; outflow valve set to 2000 FPM climb then continues by natural leak

119
Q

Is the pressurization system still in normal when LFE is manual?

A

Yes

120
Q

The pressurization system consists of:

A

Outflow valve; static pressure port; negative and positive relief valves; cabin pressure controller

121
Q

Will the DUMP button work when pressurization system is in manual mode?

A

No, but packs and fans will be commanded off

122
Q

How can you determine position of the outflow valve?

A

MFD ECS synoptic page

123
Q

What color is the LFE on the EICAS?

A

Green=FMS
Cyan=Manual

124
Q

What does the overheat detection system monitor?

A

Bleeds, packs, plumbing, APU bleeds

125
Q

What provides air for the AMS?

A

Engine bleed, APU bleed, external

126
Q

Air from the pneumatic system provides:

A

Engine start; ECS; anti-ice; water pressure

127
Q

What allows oxygen into mask to remove smoke and fumes?

A

Purge valve

128
Q

Where would you find oxygen system parameters and indications?

A

MFD Status page

129
Q

What are the minimums for oxygen on flight deck?

A

Green: 3 crew
Cyan: 2 crew
Amber: no dispatch

130
Q

What activates when oxygen masks removed from storage?

A

Oxygen flows to mask; headsets off; speaker on; mask microphone on

131
Q

What happens if test/reset button pressed while masks not stowed?

A

Oxygen stops and mask microphone turns off. Headsets turn back on

132
Q

What type of oxygen is provided in each setting?

A

Emergency: 100 percent under pressure
100 percent: Pure oxygen
Normal: 100 percent mixed with cabin air

133
Q

What is indication of successful universal DVDR test?

A

No fail on EICAS and steady green light at end of test

134
Q

If not selected on MCDU, when does DVDR start recording?

A

First engine start

135
Q

Inhibit button lasts for how long?

A

500 seconds

136
Q

When will cockpit door automatically open?

A

30 seconds after emergency entry button pressed if inhibit is not pressed

137
Q

How many halo on fire extinguishers on the aircraft?

A

5

138
Q

How many portable oxygen bottles?

A

2

139
Q

Once illuminated how long will the emergency lights last?

A

10 minutes

140
Q

What emergency equipment is on the flight deck?

A

Crash ax; 2 flashlight; 2 escape rope; fire resistant gloves; 3 oxygen masks; 3 life vests; 2 PBE; halon fire extinguisher 

141
Q

What data does the IRS calculate for navigation

A

Position; ground speed; heading; altitude 

142
Q

What will trigger an ATTCS event?

A

N1 diff > 15%
Wind shear
Engine failure during takeoff or GA

143
Q

What happens if a thrust Reserver deploys inflight?

A

FADEC idles engine

144
Q

What does ATTCS provide

A

Max thrust reserve

145
Q

What powers hydraulics when we are waiting for the RAT?

A

Hydraulic three accumulator

146
Q

What is the difference between oxygen gauge inside and outside the plane?

A

The inside one on the MFD includes compensation for temperature

147
Q

Which parts of the wings an engine are heated

A

Outboard three slats on wings and engine cowl

148
Q

Can airplane be fueled with no power on?

A

Yes using hot battery bus 2

149
Q

What is timeframe for a CDL deferral?

A

120 days

150
Q

Can you tell from the outside whether a passenger door is armed?

A

No you can only see the position of the vent flap

151
Q

What is the minimum fuel temperature on the ground and at altitude?

A

-37c and -65c

152
Q

What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?

A

Maintain fuel level in collector tanks

153
Q

When do the masks automatically drop?

A

Between 14,000 and 14,750 cabin elevation

154
Q

How many TRU’s are there and what do they do?

A
  1. Convert AC to DC
155
Q

How many inverters are there and what does an inverter do?

A

One and it converts DC to AC

156
Q

What happens if the EICAS fails?

A

If reversionary panel display switch is in auto it displays on the MFD

157
Q

What are the braking protections?

A

Locked wheel protection
anti-skid protection
automatic wheel braking touchdown protection

158
Q

What is the difference between factored and unfactored landing distance

A

Factored accounts for stopping Within 60% of available. Wet or slippery adds 15 percent. Unfactored is exact amount of runway needed to stop

159
Q

What provides electrical power during the eight seconds prior to the RAT coming online?

A

Batteries via the DC essential bus and the AC stand by bus

Republic KV prep (1 decks)

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