REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM PHYSIOLOGY COPY Flashcards

1
Q

What is the age of a neonate?

A

First month after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the age of an infant?

A

First year after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Details of the organs of the fetus are established when?

A

2nd-3rd month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When the organs of the fetus will be the same as that of neonate?

A

4th month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When cellular development takes place in fetal development?

A

5th month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fetal development starts when?

A

First month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The heart begins to beat at fourth week after fertilization. What is the HR?

A

65 beats/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

At 3rd month onwards of fetal development, what will be the principal source of RBC and most of the WBC?

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

At 6th week of fetal development, what will begin to form blood cells?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At 3rd month of fetal development, what organs will begin to form blood cells?

A

Spleen and other lymphoid tissues of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What system cannot occur during fetal life, it is inhibited to prevent fluid and debris to fill in?

A

Respiratory system. There is no air to breathe in the amniotic fluid. Inhibition of this system prevents filling of fluid and debris (meconium) into the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Stool of fetus excreted into amniotic fluid?

A

Meconium. It is a residue form swallowed amniotic fluid and mucus, epithelial cells and other residues of excretory products from the GI mucosa and glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Impairment of this organ leads to oligohydramnios?

A

During 4-6 months of pregnancy, fetal kidneys begin to excrete fetal urine which is 70-80% of amniotic fluid. Impairment of fetal kidneys lead to reduced fetal urine > reduced amniotic fluid > oligohydramnios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Reflexes of fetus are present when?

A

3rd to 4th month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

It is a switch from intrauterine to extrauterine. It requires higher metabolic needs (anabolism. It is a period of rapid growth and development. The systems are immature at this period.

A

Neonatal physiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Normally, how many minutes will the neonate start to breathe?

a. ) Within one hour
b. ) Within 30 seconds
c. ) Within one minute
d. ) Within one second

A

C.) Within one minute. Loss of placental support so respiratory system starts to function. Neonate starts to breathe. Begins to breathe within seconds. Normal RR within 1 min after birth. Breathing is initiated by sudden exposure to outside world.

When the newborn progressively becomes hypoxic, hypercapnic, and acidotic, these provide stimulus to respiratory center and usually causes breathing within an additional minute after birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What would be the consequence to the neonate for giving excessive anesthesia to the mother during delivery?

a. ) Increased heart rate
b. ) Delayed urinary function
c. ) Meconium is increased
d. ) Delayed onset of respiratory

A

d.) Delayed onset of respiratory.

Other causes:

  1. ) Umbilical cord compression,
  2. ) Premature separation of the placenta
  3. ) Excessive contraction of the uterus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The neonate can tolerate delayed breathing up to 15 minutes.

A

FALSE. The neonate can tolerate up to 10 minutes while adult can tolerate only 4 minutes delay of breathing. Permanent brain damage may occur after atleast 8 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Required pressure to oppose the surface tension in the collapsed alveoli of newborn?

A

25mmHg of negative inspiratory pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bypasses the liver during fetal life?

a. ) Ductus venosus
b. ) Ductus arteriousus
c. ) Ductus ovale

A

a.) Ductus venosus. Within 1-3 hrs after birth muscle wall of ductus venosus constricts shutting off blood flow, and causes blood to flow to the liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Due to production of vasodilating

prostaglandins specifically PGE2, the closure of this duct is prevented?

A

Ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Least role in reoxygenation during fetal life?

a. ) placenta
b. ) fetal lungs
c. ) maternal lungs
d. ) tissues of the fetus

A

b.) fetal lungs

- TAKE NOTE: REOXYGENATION OF FETAL BLOOD HAPPENS AT THE
PLACENTA OF THE MOTHER
55% GOES TO PLACENTA
45% GOES TO TISSUES OF THE FETUS
12% GOES TO FETAL LUNGS BEFORE BIRTH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Blood glucose concentration during first day of neonate after birth?

A

30 to 40 mg/dl of plasma (less than half the normal value)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Things that will happen least during first few days of neonate after birth?

a. ) Physiologic weight loss
b. )Blood glucose concentration frequently falls the first day
c. ) Has no sufficient fats and protein stores during first 3 days

A

c.) has no sufficient fats and protein stores during first 3 days

Neonatal Nutrition:
Blood glucose concentration frequently falls the first day =
30 to 40 mg/dl of plasma (less than half the normal value)
• Has stored fats and proteins for metabolism until mother’s
milk can be provided 2 to 3 days later
• Special problems: adequate fluid supply to the neonate
because the infant’s rate of body fluid turnover averages
seven times that of an adult, and the mother’s milk supply
requires several days to develop.
• Physiologic weight loss = decrease of 5 -10 % (as much as
20%) within the first 2 to 3 days of life due to fluid loss
• After birth liver and muscle glycogen is sufficient only for a
few hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Macrosomal babies common cause?

A

Macrosomal babies (large babies) born to Type II DM
mothers
▪ The high levels of insulin are believed to stimulate fetal
growth and contribute to increased birth weight
▪ Increased supply of glucose and other nutrients to the
fetus may also contribute to increased fetal growth
▪ Associated with organomegaly
▪ When blood supply is cut off, glucose levels drop, if
insulin is still high, causing hypoglycemia,
▪ Neonates can be at risk for respiratory distress syndrome

o In the mother with uncontrolled type I diabetes (caused by
lack of insulin secretion), fetal growth may be stunted
because of metabolic deficits in the mother and growth and
tissue maturation of the neonate are often impaired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Placenta and colostrum can protect the infant for how many months?

A

Passive Immunity from the mother
(through the placenta and colostrum in milk)
- Can protect the infant for about 6 months against most
major childhood infectious diseases, including diphtheria,
measles, and polio
- Decrease of antibodies to less than half at age 1 month
- Gradual return of gamma globulin concentration to normal
by the age of 12 to 20 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Start of complimentary feeding for

the neonate?

A

Note: 6th month is the start of complimentary feeding for
the neonate before then, it is advised that neonates be
given only breast milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Required for proper formation of cartilage,

bone, and other intercellular structures of the infant?

A

Vitamin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If the mother had anemia, severe anemia is likely to occur in the infant after about 3 months. What shall you do?

A

Necessity for Iron in the Diet
o May have stored enough iron to keep forming blood
cells for 4 to 6 months after birth
o If the mother had anemia, severe anemia is likely to occur
in the infant after about 3 months of life
o May feed infant with egg yolk or give iron supplement by
the second or third month of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Humans have how many pairs of chromosomes?

A

Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes
o 22 pairs of autosomes
o 1 pair of sex chromosomes
Male: XY Female: XX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

gametes or sex cells contain how many sets of chromosomes?

A

Haploid (n) contain one complete set of chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Also called Equational Division?

A

Equational Division
because it brings back or restore the amount of DNA in a
cell, from double stranded DNA it ensures that it will form
a single strand of DNA only. At the end of meiosis you’ll
have four non-identical haploid daughter cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. During 6th month of pregnancy, diploid state of organism is restored and genetic sex determination occurs.

A

Sex Determination - process of genetic inheritance that sets the gender of an
individual at the moment of fertilization. Remember that at fertilization, there are 2 important genetic events that occur. It is when the male and female nuclei unites:
1.) Diploid state of organism is restored and
2.) Genetic sex of organism can now be identified. (Male: XY Female:XX)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

development of differences between males and females

from an undifferentiated zygote?

A

Sex Differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

GnRH is produced in the

A

Arcuate nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In hair root test, presence of fluorescent body means?

a. ) the patient is male
b. ) the patient is female
c. ) the patient is pregnant
d. ) the patient is hungry

A

A. The patient is male. A fluorescent body is Y chromosome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What secretes Mullerian Inhibiting Factor (MIF)?

A

Sertoli cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What secretes testosterone?

A

Leydig cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Largest somatic chromosome?

A

Chromosome 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Smallest somatic chromosome?

A

Chromosome 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cells in meiosis II are?

a. ) haploid
b. ) diploid
c. ) mongoloid

A

A.) Haploid. After meiosis II, four daughter cells (haploid) are produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Milk producing hormone

A

Prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Presence or absence of SRY gene?

A

Gonadal sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A XX fetus was injected with testosterone. She will be,

a. ) genetically male, phenotypically male
b. ) genetically female, phenotypically male
c. ) genitically female, phenotypically female

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Stage of oocyte when the sperm invites the follicle?

A

Secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Opposite of telophase?

A

Prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which comes from wolffian duct?

a. oviduct
b. clitoris
c. scrotum
d. vas deferens

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

During pregnancy, fetal blood is ______ , maternal blood is ___________.

A

Alkaline, acidic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What encodes for SRY protein?

A

Chromosome Y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Lyon hypothesis states that

A

One of the 2X chromosomes in the female will be inactivated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

This organ is slightly colder to make optimum sperm activation

A

Scrotum

52
Q

Heterogametic pattern leads to

A

Male baby

53
Q

A patient underwent sex chromatin test, the result shows 1 X chromosome in excess. The interpretation of this is…

A

The patient is female.
If 2 Barr bodies = super female
If no barr body - male

54
Q

Presence of testes, what type of sex?

A

Gonadal sex

55
Q

Are sperm cells produces in the seminiferous tubules active and motile?

A

No, they are inactive and non motile

56
Q

Where sperm cells are majorly stored?

A

Vas deferens

57
Q

Action of testosterone on Wolffian duct is an example of

A

Local paracrine

58
Q

Fetal hemoglobin causes sthe curve to shift to the \
A.) Left
B.) Right

A

A. Left

59
Q

Abundant form of estrogen found in the ovary

A

Estradiol

60
Q

Abundant form of estrogen found in adipose tissue

A

Estrone

61
Q

In the menstrual cycle, progesterone levels are highest during?

A

Secretory phase

62
Q

How are nutrients from maternal blood to fetal blood transported?

A

Diffusion

63
Q

Milky appearance of the semen?

A

Secretion of prostate gland

64
Q

Cause of menses in menstrual cycle

A

Decreased progesterone and estrogen secretion by the ovary

65
Q

This type of sex is influenced by behavior and cultural factor?

A

Psychological sex

66
Q

In Klinefelter sydrome, the person is

A

Genetically male kasi XXY

67
Q

Induces the growth of wolffian duct

A

Testosterone

68
Q

Main producer of oxytocin

A

Paraventricular nuclei

69
Q

What inhibits the secretion of milk

A

Estrogen and progesterone

70
Q

Before ovulation, the oocyte is in

A

Meiosis I

71
Q

During the first few days after fertilication, the blastocyst gets its nutrition from

A

Uterus (decidual cells)

72
Q

Oral contraceptive pills usually contain

A

Synthetic estrogen and synthetic progesterone

73
Q

If couple wants to get pregnant the natural way, what you will advise them?

A

Have sex 14 days before the secretory phase

74
Q

Which structure secrets HCG

A

Blastocyst

75
Q

Which of the ff male repro glands contains prostaglandin

A

Seminal vesicles

76
Q

Erection is due to

A

Parasymphatetic stimulation

77
Q

Sensitivity to CO2 is characterized by what hormone?

A

Progesterone

78
Q

During ovulation, a(n) ______________is released from the ovary?

A

Secondary oocyte

79
Q

Hormone helps expulsion of fetus

A

Progesterone

80
Q

Lubrication during coitus is primarily from

A

Bartholins gland

81
Q

Hormone for uterine contraction

A

Oxytocin

82
Q

Conversion of spermatids to sperm cell is aided by what hormone

A

FSH

83
Q

Wash away sperm thru the urethra

A

Seminal vesicle

84
Q

The following will increase cardiac output except

a. ) on 28th week (entering third trimester)
b. ) immediately after labor
c. ) during labor
d. ) during 1st week of puerperium
e. ) none of the above

A

E.

85
Q

Which of the following will not change during pregnancy?

a. ) systolic blood pressure
b. ) lung compliance
c. ) Tital Volume
d. ) Gastric emptying

A

A and B

86
Q

One of the key hormones that

prevents excitation during parturition

A

Progesterone

87
Q

Which of the following are responsible for stimulation phase (labor) of parturition?

a. ) oxytocin
b. ) prostaglandin
c. ) serotonin
d. ) histamine
e. ) all of the above

A

E.

88
Q

Labor is prolonged with the absence of this hormone

A

Oxytocin

89
Q
Which is NOT action of Oxytocin?
a.) for contraction of vas deferens during
ejaculation
b.) milk and uterine contraction
c.) inhibition of milk production
A

C.

90
Q

SRY codes for production of _________ which directs differentation of gonads into testis?

A

Testis-determining factor

91
Q

Most accurate method of determining genetic sex?`

A

Karyotyping

92
Q

A patient underwent buccal smear test, result shows 2% positive. What does this mean?

A

The patient is genetically male.

Female - 20% positive
male - 0-4% positive (4% error)

93
Q

It becomes ovary in female, and regresses in male

A

Embryonic cortex

94
Q

It enlarges to become testis in male, regresses become hilum of ovary in female

A

Embryonic medulla

95
Q

In males, this differentiate into vas deferens, epididymis, seminal vesicles

A

Wolffian duct

96
Q

In female, this differentiate into uterus, cervix, fallopian tube and upper vagina

A

Mullerian duct

97
Q

This differentiate into glans penis and corpus spongiosus in males and clitoris and vestibular bulb in females

A

Genital tubercle

98
Q

Genital folds will become

A

Labia minor in female, penis shaft in male

99
Q

Genital swelling become

A

Labia majora in female, scrotum and prepuce in male

100
Q

This differentiate into male urethra, cowpers gland, prostate gland in male and female urethra, lower vagina, bartholins and skenes glands

A

Urogenital sinus

101
Q

This is characterized by the following:

-short stature (< 5 feet)
-ovarian dysgenesis (streak ovary)
-Streaked ovary- yung ovary niya ay parang peklat
lang so you would expect a girl to have a problem in
menstruation when she gets into her puberty stage.
 Shield Chest with widely spaced nipples
 webbed neck
 coarctation of the aorta

A

Turner syndrome

102
Q

This is characterized by the following:

 testicular atrophy
 eunuchoid body shape
 tall, long extremities
 gynecomastia
 female hair distribution
 47, XXY
A

Klinefelter Syndrome

103
Q

only one X chromosome is active

o two Barr bodies are present

A

Superfemale

104
Q

male pseudohermaphrodites

o male genotype, female phenotype

A

Testicular Feminization (Androgen Insensitivity)

105
Q

born with both ovarian and testicular tissues

A

Hermaphroditism

106
Q

female genotype, male phenotype

A

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (Adrenogenital Syndrome)

107
Q

Exposure of normal female fetus to excess testosterone after differentiation is completed will result to

A

Enlargement of clitoris

108
Q

chromosomal fail to separate therefore both go to one of the daughter cells during meiosis, the other has none

A

Nondisjunction

109
Q

Path of sperm

A

MNEMONIC: SEVEN UP

S- eminiferous tubule
E- pididymis
V-  as deferens
E- ejaculatory duct
N- (none)
U- rethra
P-enis
110
Q

Duration of spermatogenesis

A

Duration of entire process: 64-72 days

111
Q

Primary ciliary dyskinesia, defect in flagella of sperm, leads to infertility

A

Kartegener syndrome

112
Q

Enable the sperm to penetrate the ovarian granulosa cells

A

Acrosome reaction. Mediated by hyaluronidase and proteolytic enzymes.

113
Q
Produces a thick, yellowish secretion (60% of
semen)
- Fructose (sugar)
- Vitamin C
- Prostaglandins
- Other substances that nourish and
activate sperm
A

Seminal vesicle

114
Q

The cells secrete a thin, somewhat milky fluid. It
is the main source of acid phosphatase, citric
acid and amylase of semen, clotting enzymes, profibrinolysin

A

Prostate gland

115
Q

Decrease in male sexual function, hot flushes, suffocation and psychic disorder

A

Male climacteric

116
Q

What mechanism acivates GnRH

A

IP3

117
Q

What mechanism activates LH and FSH

A

cAMP

118
Q

Pulsatile GnRH realse from hypothalamus -> FSH and LH secreted in pulsatile fashion -> GnRH upregulates its own receptor in the anterior pituitary

A

Puberty

119
Q

Prolactin inhibits the action of GnRH on the anterior pituitary results to

A

Ovulation is suppressed

120
Q

Which zone remains after menstruation?

A

Basal zone. The functional zone is lost

121
Q

Stimulates the production of scant, viscous, slightly acidic mucus that is HOSTILE to sperm

A

Progesterone

122
Q

Stimulates the production of a copious quantity of thin, watery, slightly alkaline mucus that is IDEAL environment for sperm

A

Estrogen

123
Q

In vagina, this is metabolized to lactic acid to maintain acidic environment to inhibit infection by bacteria and fungi

A

Glycogen

124
Q

The following are functions of Estrogen on non-reproductive tissues EXCEPT:

a. ) required to close epiphyseal plates
b. ) stimulates instetinal Ca++ absorption
c. ) increase circulating levels of HDL
d. promotes less CVD due to vasodilation through increased production of Nitric acid
e. ) maintain healthy skin
f. ) inhibits neuronal cell death
g. ) increased absorption of protein
h. ) decreased adipose tissue accumulation

A

G.

125
Q

A 27 female patient shows the following symptoms:
-. Depressed mood or feeling hopelessness, marked affective lability, marked anger and anxiety and breast tenderness and bloating. What disorder is this?

A

Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder

126
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. Increased body fat will increase circulating estrogen

A

TRUE. Increased body fat > increased androstenedione conversion to estrone > increased circulating level of estrogen