Reproductive Health Other Flashcards

1
Q

What causes labour pains?

A
  • Frequency of contractions: more frequent is more painful (less refractive time pain free between contractions)
  • Effectiveness of pushing: e.g. obstructed labour pushing against, or intrauterine pressure not sufficient

Pain experience depends on the

  • type of pelvis
  • the ability of the cervix to dilate
  • vaginal canal to distend
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Three factors about contractions

A

Duration
Intensity
Frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Factors relevant to pain level in labour

A
  • Pain threshold
  • Medical conditions ( cervical readiness, labour intensity, pelvis)
  • Sources of pain during labour
  • Foetal position and presentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the major pain pathway of labour pain?

A

Ist stage - visceral pain from uterine contractions and cervical dilation and the afferent impulses enter the spinal cord via the accompanying nerves that enter the spinal cord via T10- L1

2nd stage – somatic pain from vaginal and perineal region. nerve impulses travel via S2- 4 through pudental nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Consequences of pain in labour

A

• Pain is a noxious and unpleasant stimulus—produces fear and anxiety.
• Unrelieved stress in labour produces increased plasma cortisol and catecholamine concentrations.
• Leads to reduction in utero-placental blood flow.
• Effective pain relief reduces plasma nor-adrenaline, prevents
the rise during first & second stage of labour.
• Prevents metabolic acidosis by reducing the rate of rise of lactate and pyruvate.
• Decreases maternal O2 consumption by 14%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pain relief methods in labour

A
  • Non pharmacological: relaxation, thermal, positioning, distraction, hydrotherapy, touch
  • Inhalational Entonox
  • Systemic Opioids: pethidine or diamorphine
  • Epidural
  • Combined Spinal and Epidural (CSE)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Effects of systemic opioids in labour

A

 Analgesia <50%
 “Failure” > 30%

 Side effects

  • Sedation
  • Nausea
  • Decreased Labour progress

 Fetal effects

  • increased Heart rate abnormalities
  • Increased Acidosis

 Active metabolites - Norpethidine is epilepticogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Benefits of Epidural analgesia for labour

A
 Effective
 Safe
 No increased Risk C-Section 
 Satisfaction
 No fetal compromise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List potential problems of Epidural analgesia for labour

A

 Prolonged 2nd Stage

 Increased Labour augmentation

 Increased Instrumental 
Delivery 
- Perineal trauma
- Hospital stay 
- Incontinence
- Sexual dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is pethidine contraindicated as analgesic for labour?

A

It is epileptogenic

eclampsia, history epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A patient on the L&D unit has been in labor for four hours with an epidural block for pain management for the last hour. The patient’s blood pressure has been averaging 125/70 to 130/72. During a routine nursing assessment, the patient’s blood pressure has decreased to 100/60 and the fetal heart rate pattern exhibits a decrease in variability with an occasional late deceleration.

What is the physiologic basis for what is happening?

A

Likely maternal position

(flat position with regional analgesia)

aortic compression

ABCDE

change to left lateral position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

list emergency gene conditions

A
  • pelvic Infection.
  • ovarian cysts.
  • Bartholin’s abscess/cyst.
  • abdominal pain of uncertain origin. • acute unscheduled vaginal bleeding.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Outline gyne history

A

• Presenting complaint:
Abdominal pain, bleeding, vulval swelling, vaginal lump,
vaginal discharge
• Menstrual History:
LMP, no. of days/ cycle length, heavy? Soils clothes? Dysmenorrhoea, intermenstrual bleeding, irregular? amenorrhea
• Age
• Previous obstetric History:
• Gravidity, Parity, Mode of delivery / outcome, Age of Last childbirth
• Sexual History:
• Postcoital bleeding, dyspareunia deep / superficial
• Contraception:
• COCP/POP/mirena/coil/depot…
• Cervical smear:
• Date of Last smear, previous irregularity
• Medical History: medication, allergies
• Surgical History:
• Social History: smoker? Alcohol? Work? Exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

GYne examination

A

Bimanual examination
Cervix: position, attitude, texture
Uterus: size, mobility, position (Anteverted/axial/retroverted)
Speculum Examination Discharge, Cervical Os, Vaginal walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Common Gynaecological problems

A
  • Vaginal Bleeding
  • Abdominal / Pelvic Pain
  • Abdominal masses
  • Early pregnancy loss: ectopic / miscarriage • Vulval swelling
  • Vulval / Vaginal mass,
  • Foreign body in vagina, Trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lower Abdominal Pain differentials

A
  • Ectopic
  • Miscarriage •Dysmenorrhoea •Fibroid degeneration •PID
  • Ovarian cyst
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

GYne examination

A

General Condition:
PR, BP, RR, Pallor Abdominal Examination:
Abdominal tenderness, guarding, rigidity, rebound tenderness
Vaginal Examination:
Cervix soft? Tender?, Dilated?
Tender fornix?, Size of uterus?
Speculum Examination:
Cervical os, Products of conception, Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

gyne Investigations

A
  • Urine pregnancy test
  • Bloods: FBC, Group and save, b hCG • Ultrasound scan (Trans vaginal)
  • Triple Swabs and ensure follow up:
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Treatment of gyne emergencies

A
  • Venflon if suspected ectopic pregnancy if bleeding heavily
  • Discuss with senior collegue
  • Book emergency theatre
  • Inform anaesthetist
  • Keep the patient nil by mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Early pregnancy bleeding differentials

A
  • Ectopic
  • Miscarriage
  • Molar pregnancy • Cervical ectropion • Cervical trauma
  • Cervical polyp
  • Cervical cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hyperemesis Gravidarum - managment

A
  • Recurrent hyperemesis- TFT
  • Scan for viability
  • Scan for multiple gestation and molar pregnancy
  • Venflon
  • Fluids
  • Anti emetics
  • Bloods: U&E, LFT, FBC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fluid replacement and electrolyte balance post op

A

Retention of fluid and sodium resulting from the stress of surgery
redistribution of water between interstitial and intravascular compartments of extracellular space.
This process is initiated by blood loss and neuro-endocrinological response to stress, and
can be modified by anaesthesia and other administered medications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Post c-section Catheterisation is done to-

A
  • To minimise the risk of bladder damage
  • the inconvenience of a full bladder obscuring the surgical field.
  • This may also reduce the risk of patient discomfort in the acute postoperative phase
  • Should be removed -ability of the patient to mobilise to void comfortably
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the difference between active and passive drains?

A
  • Active drains are sealed systems where a vacuum removes fluid from a potential space created by the surgery.
  • Passive drains are better suited to the peritoneal cavity, where soft tissue can block the fenestrations of an active drain.
  • Source of infection
  • Hygiene of port site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When to remove the drain post op?

A

• The precise timing for the removal of a drain should be determined on an individual basis
• •
and will depend on the reasons for the insertion of the drain in the first place.
Drains that were placed prophylactically to avoid the accumulation of blood, pus or lymph can usually be removed when draining is <100 ml in 24 hours.

26
Q

Person-specific risk factors for VTE are:

A
  • age – exponential increase with age. May reflect immobility and increased coagulation activation obesity – three times the risk if BMI >30 previous VTE thrombophilia low levels of coagulation inhibitors – antithrombin, protein C or S deficiency
  • activated protein C resistance – e.g Factor V Leiden mutation
  • high coagulation factors (I, II, VII, IX, XI)
  • antiphospholipid syndrome
  • high homocysteine
  • other thrombotic states malignancy • heart failure
  • recent MI/CVA
  • sepsis
  • inflammatory diseases • polycythaemia
  • hormone therapies COCP, HRT, tamoxifen – three times increase in risk
  • pregnancy/puerperium
  • immobility bedrest
  • paralysis
  • prolonged travel
  • hospitalisation
  • anaesthesia.
27
Q

Outline methods of VTE prophylaxis

A
  • Heparin-no difference between LMWH and UFH in prevention of DVT and reduction of mortality.
  • Graduated elasticated compression stockings (GECS)
  • Intermittent pneumatic compression (IPC)
  • Aspirin – less effective than LMWH in the prevention of asymptomatic DVT
28
Q

Why is hydration important in preventing VTE?

A
  • Dehydration causing haemoconcentration increases blood viscosity and reduces blood flow
  • Therefore, adequate hydration should be ensured in immobile patients.
  • major site of clot formation is the soleal venous sinuses of the calf. Thrombi may be found in these sinuses behind the valves at the point where they drain into the collecting vessels (posterior tibial and peroneal veins)
29
Q

Post operative analgesia in obs and gyne

A
Analgesic ladder - • Paracetamol
• Codeine
• Dihydrocodeine • NSAID
• Pethidine
• Morphine
• Diamorphine
• Patient controlled analgesia (PCA)
30
Q

what is MOEWS ?

A

Modified Obstetric Early Warning Score

aim of standardising assessment of the severity of a patient’s condition and improving the quality and safety of clinical management.

31
Q

Types of multiple pregnancies Dizygotic- vs Monozygotic

A

Dizygotic-
Types of multiple pregnancies
• Fertilization of different oocytes by different sperms • May be different sex
• Not genetically similar
Monozygotic-
• Single zygote into identical twins
• Share same placenta and amnion depends on the time at which division occurred

32
Q

What is ‘The Apartement analogy’ for multiple pregnancies

A
  • DCDA- two separate apartments & two separate kitchens and two bedrooms
  • MCDA-two bedroom apartment, own bedroom but share a kitchen
  • MCMA- share one bedroom and one kitchen
33
Q

What is the aetiology of Monozygotic twins

A
  • Before day 3 Diamniotic dichorionic (DCDA) 30%
  • Division between 4 -8 Monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) 70%
  • One placenta and separate amnions
  • Division 9-13days Monochorionic monoamniotic (MCMA)
  • Shared placenta and dingle amniotic sac
  • Incomplete division leads to conjoined twins
34
Q

Aetiology of multiple pregnancy

A
  • Assisted conception
  • Genetic
  • Increasing maternal age
  • Increasing parity
  • 20% IVF and 5-10% of clomiphene assisted pregnancies
35
Q

Diagnosis of multiple pregnancy

A
  • Vomiting may be more marked
  • Uterus palpates more than expected
  • Most are diagnosed by ultrasound
36
Q

Maternal complications in multiple pregnancy

A
  • Gestational diabetes
  • Pre eclampsia
  • Anaemia
  • Postpartum haemorrhage
  • hypertensive disorders
  • haemorrhage
  • operative delivery
  • postnatal illness
  • Maternal mortality 2.5 times higher
37
Q

Fetal complications in multiple pregnancy

A
  • Increased mortality TTTS accounts for 20% of still births
  • Long-term handicap
  • Preterm labour (50% of twin are preterm)
  • IUGR
  • Congenital anomalies –common in monochorionic • Miscarriage
38
Q

Complications of Monochorionicity

A
  • TTTS-Twin-twin Transfusion syndrome-
  • This occurs due to vascular anastomosis in shared placenta
  • Occurs in MCDA twins where placenta is shared
  • One twin –donor- volume depleted/anaemic/IUGR/oligohydramnios
  • Recipient twin-volume over loaded/polycythemia/cardiac failure/polyhydramnios
  • Risk of in utero death and preterm delivery
  • Laser ablation of the entire placental interface in fetal medicine unit.
39
Q

Complications of monochorionic twins

A

TTTS-Twin-twin Transfusion syndrome-
Co-twin death- if one twin dies of an MC pair- acute transfusion of blood from the other twin and hypovolemia and neurological damage
Monoamniotic twins- IUD is common
Twin reversed arterial perfusion syndrome (TRAP)- MC twins
One twin is acardiac and is pumped by the normal twin and this twin is at risk of cardiac failure

40
Q

What is TTTS-Twin-twin Transfusion syndrome-

A
  • This occurs due to vascular anastomosis in shared placenta
  • Occurs in MCDA twins where placenta is shared
  • One twin –donor- volume depleted/anaemic/IUGR/oligohydramnios
  • Recipient twin-volume over loaded/polycythemia/cardiac failure/polyhydramnios
  • Risk of in utero death and preterm delivery
  • Laser ablation of the entire placental interface in fetal medicine unit.
41
Q

Intrapartum complications of twin pregnancy

A
  • Malpresentations of the first twin occurs in 20% -this is an indication for elective caesarean section
  • Fetal distress is common in labour
  • Second twin is at risk of death due to following-
  • Hypoxia/cord prolapse/tetanic uterine contraction/placental abruption • Postpartum haemorrhage -10%
42
Q

Antepartum management of twin pregnancy

A
  • Consultant led care
  • High risk pregnancy
  • Iron and folic acid and Aspirin
  • Early ultrasound- determine chorionicity and type of twins
  • Dichorionic twins- dividing membrane is thicker as it meets the placenta- lambda sign
  • MC twins it is thin membrane and T sign as it is perpendicular to the placenta
  • Serial ultrasound- 28 32 36 weeks to detect IUGR • Delivery indicated at 37weeks for DCDA twins
  • Delivery indicated at 36 weeks for MC twins
43
Q

How often should Monochorionic twins be scanned?

A
  • Ultrasound surveillance starts at 12 weeks
  • Ultrasound every 2 weeks till 24 weeks
  • Every 2-3weeks there after
  • TTTS is most commonly diagnosed around 16-24 weeks • Laser ablation of entire placental surface
  • Survival of twins only occurs in 50%
  • 10% have neurological disability
  • IUGR is carefully monitored and delivered when indicat
44
Q

How is High order multiple pregnancy managed?

A

Selective reduction to twin pregnancy at 12weeks • It reduces chances of preterm birth
• Increases rate of miscarriage
• Delivery usually by 36weeks

Fetal abnormality
• If one twin has abnormality – selective termination should be discussed
• DC twins- intracardiac injection of KCL
• Best before 14 weeks of gestation •
• MC twins- umbilical cord can be occluded using bipolar diathermy

45
Q

Intrapartum management of twin pregnancy

A
  • Caesarean section indicated if first twin is breech or transverse • All monochorionic twins -LSCS
  • Vaginal delivery is common if first twin is cephalic
  • CTG monitoring in labour is indicated
46
Q

Outline Delivery of second twin

A
  • First twin is delivered in normal manner
  • Good communication with team and mother
  • Scan for presentation of 2nd twin
  • ECV (External cephalic version) of breech or transverse twin can be performed
  • Delay in delivery should be avoided
  • Caesarean section may be needed if malpresentation like brow
  • Breech extraction – inserting hand into the uterus and delivering the fetus
  • Prophylactic oxytocin for third stage
47
Q

Problems with twin delivery

A
  • Scaring the mother
  • Failure to monitor second twin
  • Overstimulation of uterus
  • PPH
48
Q

Naegele’s rule

A

add one year, subtract 3 months and add 7days the last menstrual period or add 9 months and 7 days

49
Q

Define Gravida and Parity

A
  • Gravida- number of times a women has been pregnant
  • Parity- number of times she has given birth to fetus of 24 weeks or more regardless whether the child is born alive or stillborn
50
Q

Obstetric examination: Inspection

A
  • Shape-distended
  • Pigmentation-linea nigra
  • Striae gravidarum
  • Striae albicans
  • Scars
  • Umbilicus-flattened/everted
  • Fetal movements from 24 weeks
  • Distended veins
51
Q

Obstetric examination: What causes linea migraine?

A

dark vertical pigmented line from umbilicus to pubis caused by MSH (Melanocyte stimulating hormone) from placenta

52
Q

When should Symphysis–fundal height measurement be started in pregnancy?

A

24 weeks of gestation.

53
Q

Symphysis–fundal height landmarks

A
  • 12 weeks gestation – Pubic symphysis
  • 20 weeks – Umbilicus
  • 36 weeks – Xiphoid process of the sternum
54
Q

Reasons for SFH measuring more than gestation

A
  • Genetic
  • Macrosomia(big baby)
  • Polyhydramions
  • Wrong dates
  • Fibroids
55
Q

Reasons for SFH measuring less than gestation

A
  • Genetic
  • IUGR (Intra uterine growth restriction)
  • Oligohydramnios
  • Wrong dates
56
Q

Define Fetal lie

A

Relationship of longitudinal axis of fetus to the longitudinal axis of the uterus

  • Longitudinal – head / buttocks palpable at each end of the uterus
  • Oblique – head / buttocks palpable in the iliac fossae
  • Transverse – the fetus is lying directly across the uterus
57
Q

Define Fetal Presentation

A

“Is it a head or bottom coming first?”

Presentation is the part of the fetus that overlies the pelvic brim, which occupies the lower segment of the pelvis

  • Cephalic can be vertex (well flexed), face or brow
58
Q

Define Engagement of Head

A

how deep is the presenting part in the pelvis?
•Engagement is used when the widest diameter of the fetal head has descended into the pelvis

  • “Fifths palpable”
  • 2/5th 1/5th 0/5th – engaged head
  • 3/5th 4/5th 5/5th – not engaged
59
Q

Leopold’s manoeuvres

A
  • First manoeuvre: Fundal Grip- head/bump-presentation
  • Second manoeuvre: Lateral Grip-fetal back/limbs
  • Third manoeuvre: Pawlick’s Grip(1st pelvic grip)-head is engaged or not. Movable is not engaged
  • Fourth manoeuvre: 2nd Pelvic Grip-to determine degree of flexion of head/ engagement of head
60
Q

Definition of Antenatal periods

A
  • First trimester- conception- 12weeks
  • Second trimester- 13-28 weeks
  • Third trimester- 29-40 weeks
61
Q

Definition of term, post term and post date pregnancies

A
  • Term pregnancy -37-42weeks
  • Preterm < 37 weeks
  • Posterm pregnancy > 42 weeks
  • Postdates pregnancy > 40 weeks