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SmartyPance:Reproductive > Reproductive CME - Sheet1 > Flashcards

Reproductive CME - Sheet1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?

A

Pregnancy

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2
Q

What are the two most common causes of secondary amenorrhea in patients with normal estrogen?

A

Asherman syndrome and polycystic ovarian syndrome

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3
Q

What is another name for gonadal dysgenesis?

A

Turnerís syndrome

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4
Q

What lab test is diagnostic for menopause?

A

FSH > 30mIU/mL

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5
Q

What is the most common presentation of a leiomyomata (uterine fibroid)?

A

Vaginal bleeding

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6
Q

What is recommended in most cases of a leiomyomata?

A

Observation

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7
Q

What is the most common gynecological cancer?

A

Endometrial cancer (adenocarcinoma)

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8
Q

What is the cardinal symptom of endometrial cancer?

A

Vaginal bleeding

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9
Q

What patient population is most common in endometriosis?

A

Nulliparous 30 years old

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10
Q

What are the most common ovarian growths?

A

Cysts

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11
Q

What is the most common cause of androgen excess and hirsutism?

A

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

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12
Q

Bilateral enlarged cystic ovaries, amenorrhea and infertility are the key features of this disease?

A

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

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13
Q

How will the ultrasound appear in a patient with Polycystic ovarian syndrome?

A

Sting of pearls or oyster ovaries

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14
Q

How is infertility of polycystic ovarian syndrome treated?

A

Clomiphene

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15
Q

When is Cervical itraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) most common to occur?

A

Women in their 20s

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16
Q

When has the CDC recommend patients receive the HPV vaccine?

A

Boys and girls age 11-12. Three injections over 5 months.

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17
Q

What kind of cancer are women exposed to diethylstilbestrol (DES) at increased risk for?

A

Clear cell adenocarcinoma

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18
Q

What bug most commonly causes mastitis?

A

S. Aureus

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19
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for mastitis?

A

Penicillinase resistance antibiotics (dicloxacillin)

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20
Q

What is the most frequent benign condition of the breast?

A

Fibrocystic Breast Disease

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21
Q

What benign breast lesion is more common in black woman?

A

Fibroadenoma

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22
Q

What is the most common cancer in woman and what kind is the most common?

A

Breast, Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

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23
Q

What ductal carcinoma presents with eczematous lesions of the nipple?

A

Paget disease

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24
Q

What is the best screen test for breast neoplasms?

A

Mammography

25
Q

What is the most effective form of contraception?

A

Oral contraception

26
Q

What is the black box warning for IM depo injections?

A

Osteoporosis ñ thus only to be used for 2 years

27
Q

What is the most common cause of infertility?

A

Ovulatory disorders

28
Q

What is the physical exam finding of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

A

Chandelier sign

29
Q

Where should the uterus be at 20 weeks of gestation?

A

Umbilicus

30
Q

When should we hear fetal heart tones (FHT)?

A

10 weeks

31
Q

What is bluish discoloration of the vagina and cervix called that is seen in pregnancy?

A

Chadwick sign

32
Q

Where are most ectopic pregnancies located?

A

Fallopian tube

33
Q

What is the most common cause of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Adhesions

34
Q

What is the classic triad of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Unilateral ABD pain, amenorrhea and tenderness/mass on exam

35
Q

What hCG level should show evidence of an IUP?

A

1,500 mU/mL

36
Q

What patients should receive RhoGam with an abortion?

A

Rh-negative woman

37
Q

How does a hydatiform mole present on ultrasound?

A

ìgrapelike vesiclesî or a ìsnow storm patternî

38
Q

What is the most common cause of non-congenital malformation deaths in a neonate?

A

Preterm delivery

39
Q

What is a major risk factor of premature rupture of membranes?

A

Infection

40
Q

What test can confirm rupture or membranes and spilling of amniotic fluid?

A

Nitrazine paper and the fern test

41
Q

What is administered to enhance fetal lung maturity if under 34 weeks gestation?

A

Betamethasone

42
Q

What is the classic triad of preeclampsia?

A

HTN, edema and proteinuria

43
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

Hemolysis, elevated liver function and low platelets

44
Q

What is the most common risk factor for pre-eclampsia?

A

Nulliparity

45
Q

What is the first line medication to decrease the risk of seizure in mild pre- eclampsia?

A

magnesium sulfate (MGSO4)

46
Q

What BP medication should be given to decrease the BP in a pregnant woman?

A

Hydralazine or labetalol

47
Q

What is administered to Rh-negative Moms at 28 weeks?

A

Rho-Gam

48
Q

What is the test to measure fetomaternal hemorrhage?

A

Kleihauer-Betke (KB) stain

49
Q

What is the condition that develops if Rh-incompatibility leads to severe fetal anemia and death?

A

Fetal hydrops

50
Q

What is the most common cause of third trimester bleeding and when does it occur?

A

Abruptio placenta, after 20 weeks

51
Q

What is the major symptom in abruptio placenta?

A

Painful vaginal bleeding

52
Q

What is contraindicated in a patient with placenta previa?

A

Digital exam

53
Q

What is the key differentiating feature of placenta previa from abruption?

A

Previa is painless

54
Q

At what time interval is the APGAR assessed?

A

1 and 5 minutes

55
Q

What medication decreases blood loss by stimulating contractions?

A

Oxytocin

56
Q

What is the leading indication for cesarean section?

A

Dystonia

57
Q

When is endometritis most common?

A

After C-section or PROM for more than 24 hours before delivery

58
Q

What is the first line treatment for endometritis?

A

Clindamycin + gentamycin

SmartyPance:Reproductive (4 decks)

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