Repro Flashcards

1
Q

After colonising the gonad, what must germ cells do in order to complete gametogenesis?

A

Proliferate by mitosis
Reshuffle genetically and reduce to haploid by meiosis
Cytodifferentiate into mature gametes

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2
Q

List some basic differences between the nature of oocyte production and spermatogenesis

A

Oocytes - very few gametes (about 400 in lifetime), intermittent production (about 1 a month)
Spermatogenesis - huge number, (about 200 million/day), continuous production, essentially ‘disposable’ cells

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3
Q

What are the 2 main functions of meiosis?

A

Reduce the chromosome number in gamete to 23, and ensure every gamete is genetically unique

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4
Q

When is meiosis used?

A

Only in the production of eggs and sperm

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5
Q

Briefly outline the process of meiosis

A

Two successive cell divisions, meiosis 1 and meiosis 2, producing 4 daughter cells

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6
Q

How does meiosis differ in females?

A

Only 1 daughter cell develops into a mature oocyte, others form polar bodies

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7
Q

How do genetic variations arise?

A

Crossing over - exchange of regions of DNA between 2 homologous chromosomes
Random segregation - distribution of chromosome among 4
Independent assortment - 2 homologous chromosomes of a pair must go into separate gametes

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8
Q

Why is there a blood-testes barrier?

A

There is different genetic material in sperm, so may be attacked by the immune system

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9
Q

What do Sertoli cells do?

A

Nurse/nurture cells

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10
Q

What is the Sertoli cell barrier also referred to as?

A

Blood testes barrier

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11
Q

What are spermatogonia?

A

Male germ cells - the ‘raw material’ for spermatogenesis

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12
Q

What can spermatogonia divide into?

A
Ad spermatogonium (maintain stock)
Ap spermatogonium (give rise to primary spermatocytes)
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13
Q

Describe the sequence of division by meiosis by primary spermatocytes

A

Primary spermatocytes - secondary spermatocytes - spermatids

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14
Q

What is spermiogenesis?

A

The process by which a primary spermatocyte forms 4 haploid spermatids, which differentiate into spermatozoa

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15
Q

List the sequence of cells produced in spermiogenesis

A

Spermatogonium - primary spermatocyte - secondary spermatocyte - spermatid - spermatozoa (sperm)

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16
Q

How is the spermatogenic cycle defined?

A

The time taken for reappearance of the same stage within a given segment of tubule (approx 16 days in a human)

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17
Q

What is the spermatogenic wave?

A

The distance between the same stage along a tubule.

Waves follow a corkscrew like spiral towards the inner part of the lumen

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18
Q

How are sperm transported to the epididymis?

A

Non-motile - transport via Sertoli cell secretions, assisted by peristaltic contraction, until they reach the epididymis

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19
Q

How do spermatids become spermatozoa?

A

Spermatids are released into lumen of seminiferous tubules (spermiation). They remodel as they pass down seminiferous tubule, through rete testes and ductuli efferentes and into the epididymis to finally form spermatozoa.

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20
Q

Approximately how much fluid is in ejaculate?

A

2ml

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21
Q

What are the seminal vehicle secretions constituted of?

A

Amino acids, citrate, fructose, prostaglandins

70%

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22
Q

What proportion of ejaculate is seminal vesicle secretions?

A

Approx 70%

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23
Q

What proportion of ejaculate is secretions of prostate?

A

Approx 25%

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24
Q

What constitutes the prostatic portion of ejaculate?

A

Proteolytic enzymes, zinc

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25
Q

What proportion of ejaculate is sperm? (Via vas deferens)

A

2-5%

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26
Q

How many sperm are approximately in an ejaculate?

A

200-500 million per ejaculate

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27
Q

What proportion of ejaculate is bulbourethral gland secretions?

A

Less than 1% total volume

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28
Q

What constitutes bulbourethral gland secretions in ejaculate?

A

Mucoproteins, help to lubricate and neutralise acidic urine in distal urethra

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29
Q

What is sperm capacitation?

A

The final maturation step required for sperm to become fertile, stimulated by the conditions in the female genital tract.

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30
Q

What are the steps of capacitation, stimulated in spermatids by the conditions of the female genital tract?

A

Removal of glycoproteins and cholesterol from sperm membrane
Activation of sperm signalling pathways (atypical soluble adenylyl cyclise and PKA involved)
Allow sperm to bind to zona pellucida of oocyte and initiate acrosome reaction

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31
Q

What must first be done to sperm before it can be used for IVF?

A

Must be incubated in capacitation media

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32
Q

Where do germ cells arise from?

A

The yolk sac

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33
Q

Describe the migration of female germ cells embryologically

A

Germ cells arise from yolk sac, colonise the gonadal cortex and differentiate into oogonia (single oogonium). Oogonia then proliferate rapidly by mitosis. By end of 3rd month, oogonia arranged in clusters surrounded by flat epithelial cells. Majority continue to divide by mitosis, but some enter meiosis (arrest in prophase of meiosis 1 and are called primary oocytes)

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34
Q

Embryologically, what has happened to female gametes by the end of the 3rd month?

A

By end of 3rd month, oogonia arranged in clusters surrounded by flat epithelial cells. Majority continue to divide by mitosis, but some enter meiosis (arrest in prophase of meiosis 1 and are called primary oocytes).

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35
Q

When is the max number of germ cells reached in the female?

A

By mid gestation (approx 7 million)

Cell death then begins, and many oogonia and primary oocytes degenerate (atresia)

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36
Q

What occurs after the max no. Of germ cells has been reached in the female, embryologically?

A

Cell death then begins, and many oogonia and primary oocytes degenerate (atresia)

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37
Q

What embryologically has occurred with regards to gametes in the female by 7 months?

A

The majority of oogonia have degenerated. All surviving (approx 2 million) primary oocytes have now entered meiosis 1 and are individually surrounded by layer of flat epithelial cells, called follicular cells - now called primordial follicle

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38
Q

When does maturation of oocytes continue in the female, post birth?

A

Puberty

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39
Q

Approximately how many oocytes remain in the female by puberty?

A

Approx 40,000

Most undergo atresia during childhood

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40
Q

What are the 3 phases of oocyte maturation?

A

1 - preantral
2 - antral
3 - preovulatory

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41
Q

Approximately how many oocytes start to mature each month from puberty onwards?

A

Approx 15-20

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42
Q

Preantral stage - What changes occur to the surrounding follicular cells of primordial follicles, as they begin to grow?

A

Change from flat to cuboidal, and proliferate to produce a stratified epithelium of granulosa cells

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43
Q

Describe the antral stage

A

As development continues, fluid filled spaces appear between granulosa cells. These coalesce to form the Antrum. Several follicles begin to develop with each ovarian cycle. Usually one reaches maturity (rest become atretic)

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44
Q

What is the 1st polar body?

A

Meiosis 1 completes, producing 2 haploid daughter cells. One receives most of cytoplasm, the other receives practically none, and is a rememant (called the 1st polar body)

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45
Q

Describe the preovulatory phase?

A

Surge in LH induces preovulatory growth phase. Cell has now completed meiosis1 and enters meiosis 2, but arrests in metaphase approx 3hrs before ovulation. Meiosis 2 is only completed if oocyte is fertilised, otherwise cell degenerates approx 24hrs after ovulation.

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46
Q

Describe the ovulation stage

A

FSH and LH stimulate rapid growth of follicle several days before ovulation. Mature follicle now approx 2.5 cm in diameter and called gracfian follicle. LH surge increases collagenase activity. Prostaglandins increase response to LH and cause local muscular contraction in ovarian wall. Oocyte extruded and breaks free from ovary.

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47
Q

What is the corpus luteum ?

A

Remaining granulosa and theca interna cells become vascularised. Develop yellowish pigment and change into lutein cells, which form the corpus luteum.

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48
Q

What does the corpus luteum do?

A

Secretes oestrogens and progesterone
Stimulates uterine mucosa to enter secretory stage in preparation for embryo implantation.
Dies after 14 days if no fertilisation occurs

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49
Q

Describe oocyte transportation

A

Shortly before ovulation, fimbriae sweep over surface of ovary. Uterine tube begins to contract rhythmically. Oocyte carried into tube by sweeping movements of fimbriae and by motion of cilia on epithelial lining.
Oocyte then propelled by peristaltic muscular contractions of the tube and by cilia in the mucosa. If fertilised, oocyte reaches uterine lumen in 3-4 days

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50
Q

What happens to the corpus luteum if no fertilisation occurs?

A

Corpus luteum degenerates. Forms mass of fibrotic scar tissue, the corpus albicans. Progesterone production decreases, precipitating menstrual bleeding.

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51
Q

What happens to the corpus luteum if fertilisation does occur?

A

Degeneration of corpus luteum prevented by human chorionic gonadotropin, secreted by the developing embryo. The corpus luteum continues to grow and forms the corpus luteum of pregnancy (corpus luteum graviditatis). Cells continue to secrete progesterone until approx 4th month, secretion of progesterone by placenta then becomes adequate.

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52
Q

Briefly describe hormonal control of the ovarian cycle

A

Under influence of GnRH, anterior pituitary releases FSH and LH. Follicles stimulated to grow by FSH, and to mature by FSH and LH. Ovulation occurs on LH surge. LH also promotes development of corpus luteum.

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53
Q

Approximately how many sperm are formed a day?

A

Approx 200 million

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54
Q

How are sperm formed, very basically?

A

4 spermatids formed with no polar body formation and equal division of cytoplasm.

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55
Q

When does spermatogenesis begin?

A

Puberty, continues throughout adult life

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56
Q

Where does spermatogenesis occur?

A

All stages complete in testes

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57
Q

At what rate does oogenesis occur?

A

Usually 1 ovum per 28 day menstrual cycle.

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58
Q

Very briefly outline oogenesis

A

1 ovum produced with unequal division of cytoplasm and 3 polar bodies produced.

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59
Q

When does oogenesis occur?

A

Starts in foetus, ends at menopause.

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60
Q

Where does oogenesis occur?

A

Ovaries, last stage of meiosis 2 occurs in oviduct.

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61
Q

What effect does corticotropin releasing hormone CRH have on the pituitary?

A

Stimulates ACTH secretion

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62
Q

What effect does thyrotropin releasing hormone TRH have on the pituitary?

A

Stimulates TSH and prolactin secretion

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63
Q

What effect does growth hormone releasing hormone GHRH have on the pituitary?

A

Stimulates GH secretion

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64
Q

What effect does somatostatin have on the pituitary?

A

Inhibits GH (+ other hormones) secretion

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65
Q

What effect does gonadotropin releasing hormone GnRH have on the pituitary?

A

Stimulates LH and FSH secretion

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66
Q

What effect does prolactin releasing hormone PRH have on the pituitary?

A

Stimulates PRL secretion

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67
Q

What effect does prolactin inhibiting hormone (dopamine) have on the pituitary?

A

Inhibits PRL secretion

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68
Q

What type of tissue is the anterior pituitary?

A

Not nervous tissue, an amalgam of hormone producing glandular cells. Stains darker, arises from Rathke’s pouch. Connected to the hypothalamus by the superior hypophyseal artery

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69
Q

What connects the anterior pituitary to the hypothalamus?

A

Connected to the hypothalamus by the superior hypophyseal artery

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70
Q

What 6 peptide hormones does the anterior pituitary produce?

A

Prolactin, GH, TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH

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71
Q

What constitutes the posterior pituitary?

A

Nervous tissue, stains lighter.

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72
Q

What is the anterior pituitary also called?

A

Pars distalis, adreno hypophysis

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73
Q

What is the posterior pituitary also called?

A

Pars nervosa, neuro hypophysis

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74
Q

What does the posterior pituitary secrete?

A

ADH (vasopressin - urinary) and oxytocin (important in reproduction)

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75
Q

What, essentially, is the posterior pituitary?

A

An overgrowth of the hypothalamus, composed of neural tissue. Hypothalamic neurons pass through the neural stalk and end in the posterior pituitary.
The upper portion of the neural stalk extends into the hypothalamus and is called the median eminence.

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76
Q

What does GnRH stimulate?

A

The anterior pituitary gland to secrete LH and FSH

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77
Q

Describe hypothalamic control of FSH and LH

A

One releasing hormone - GnRH
GnRH release is pulsatile, every 1-3 hrs. Intensity of GnRH stimulus is affected by frequency of release and intensity of release. GnRH travels to pituitary in hypophyseal portal system.

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78
Q

What size protein is GnRH

A

10 amino acids long

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79
Q

What controls the intensity of GnRH stimulus?

A

Intensity of GnRH stimulus is affected by frequency of release and intensity of release (pulsatile release every 1-3hrs)

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80
Q

What happens in the absence of GnRH?

A

Little or no FSH of LH release

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81
Q

What proportion of anterior pituitary cells secrete FSH and LH?

A

5-10% total anterior pituitary cells

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82
Q

What controls gonadotroph synthesis and release?

A

Positive and negative feedback by gonadal steroids and gonadal peptides. Controlled by gonadotroph cells in anterior pituitary.

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83
Q

How do gonadal hormones decrease gonadotrophin release?

A

Decrease GnRH release from hypothalamus and by affecting ability of GnRH to stimulate gonadotropin secreting from anterior pituitary

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84
Q

In the male, LH and FSH primarily work via which receptors?

A

GalphaS

PCR to adenylyl cyclase

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85
Q

In the male, upon which cells do LH and FSH primarily act upon?

A

Testicular sertoli cells, leydig cells

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86
Q

What effects do LH and FSH have in the male?

A

Stimulate sex hormones synthesis (steroidgenesis) and control gamete production

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87
Q

Where does LH act in the male, and what effect does it have?

A

Leydig cells of the testis, causing secretion of testosterone

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88
Q

Describe negative feedback of LH in the male

A

Negative feedback control - testosterone reduces LH from AP and reduces GnRH secretion, thus anterior pituitary LH and FSH decrease

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89
Q

What stimulates spermatogenesis?

A

FSH receptor activation on Sertoli cells of seminiferous tubules

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90
Q

What effects does FSH have on Sertoli cells?

A

Causes them to grow and secrete spermatogenic substances, but needs testosterone, which diffuses in to seminiferous tubules

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91
Q

What does inhibit do in the male?

A

Reduces FSH secretion selectively - related to developing gametes

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92
Q

Describe briefly the male HPG axis

A

In median long term testosterone levels constant

Circadian rhythm, highest early morning, and effects of environmental stimuli, driven by the brain

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93
Q

When are testosterone levels generally highest in the male?

A

Early morning

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94
Q

Via which receptors do FSH and LH act primarily on in the female?

A

GalphaS PCR (adenylyl cyclase)

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95
Q

Which cells do FSH and LH target in the female?

A

Ovarian granulosa cells, theca interna

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96
Q

What do FSH and LH stimulate in the female?

A

Stimulate sex hormone synthesis (steroidgenesis, oestrogen, progesterone, inhibin). Control gamete production (folliculogenesis and ovulation)

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97
Q

What does oestrogen do in the female?

A

Moderate titres of oestrogen reduce GnRH secretion (negative feedback)
High titres of oestrogen alone promote GnRH secretion (positive feedback, LH ‘surge’)

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98
Q

What effects does progesterone have in the female?

A

Increase inhibitory effects of moderate oestrogen

Prevents positive feedback of high oestrogen (no LH surge)

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99
Q

What effect does oestrogen have upon the pulses of GnRH?

A

Reduces GnRH quantity in pulse

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100
Q

What effect does progesterone have upon the pulses of GnRH?

A

Decreases the frequency of pulses

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101
Q

What effect does inhibin have on FSH in the female?

A

Inhibits the secretion of FSH. Has a small inhibitory effect on LH also

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102
Q

Where is inhibin released from in the female?

A

From granulosa cells of corpus luteum

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103
Q

What does the menstrual cycle enable the preparation of?

A
The gamete (ovarian cycle)
The endometrium (uterine cycle)
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104
Q

What are the key points of the menstrual cycle?

A
Ovulation 
Waiting (pause, maintaining endometrium until a signal is received to indicate that fertilisation has occurred)
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105
Q

What controls the menstrual cycle?

A
Gonadotrophins (acting on the ovary)
Ovarian steroids (acting on tissues of reproductive tract, to control the cycle)
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106
Q

Where do gonadotrophins act in the female?

A

Act on ovary, promoting follicular development and production of ovarian hormones (steroid hormones an inhibin). Controlled by effects of gonadal hormones (negative and positive feedback).

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107
Q

Describe the start of the menstrual cycle

A

No ovarian hormone production. Early development of follicles begins. Low steroid and inhibin levels. Little inhibition at the hypothalamus of anterior pituitary. Free from inhibition (FSH levels rising)

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108
Q

Describe the role of FSH at the start of the menstrual cycle

A
FSH binds to granulosa cells
Follicular development continues
Theca interna appears
Follicle now capable of oestrogen secretion
Inhibin secretion begins
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109
Q

Describe the mid follicular phase of the menstrual cycle

A

Need to nominate a dominant follicle, and prevent recruitment o any further follicles. 2 things happen.
Follicular oestrogen now at a concentration when it can exert POSITIVE feedback at the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary.
Gonadotrophin levels can rise - effect seen on LH only.
Follicular inhibin rising, selective inhibition on FSH production by anterior pituitary

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110
Q

What does inhibin do in the mid follicular phase in the female?

A

Follicular inhibin rising, selective inhibition on FSH production by anterior pituitary

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111
Q

Describe the preparation for ovulation phase of the menstrual cycle

A

Circulating oestradiol and inhibin rise rapidly - oestradiol production no longer dependent on FSH. Surge in LH production. Progesterone production begins (granulosa cells become responsive to LH). Modulation of GnRH pulse generator.

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112
Q

What effect does high oestradiol concentration have on the anterior pituitary?

A

Enhances sensitivity of anterior pituitary gonadotrophins to GnRH

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113
Q

Describe the ovulation phase of the menstrual cycle

A

Meiosis 1 completes and meiosis 2 starts.
Mature oocyte extruded through the capsule of the ovary.
After ovulation, the follicle is luteinised. Secreted oestrogen and progesterone in large quantities. Inhibin continues to be produced. LH is now suppressed because of negative feedback due to presence of progesterone. Further gamete development suspended - waiting phase established.

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114
Q

What inhibits LH production after ovulation?

A

The presence of progesterone, released by the follicle

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115
Q

Describe the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle

A

Corpus luteum produces progesterone and oestrogens from androgens. Produces inhibin (promotes production of progesterone). Regresses spontaneously in the absence of a further rise in LH

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116
Q

Describe the end of the menstrual cycle, in the absence of a pregnancy

A

In the absence of a further rise in LH, corpus luteum regresses. Dramatic fall in gonadal hormones. Relieving negative feedback. Resets to start again

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117
Q

Describe the end of the menstrual cycle, in the presence of a pregnancy

A

If fertilisation has occurred, syncytiotrophoblast produces human chorionic gonadotropin (approx same effect as LH). Exets luteinising effect

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118
Q

Describe what the corpus luteum does at the start of pregnancy to support it

A

Corpus luteum, supported by placental hCG, produces steroid hormones to support pregnancy. Eventually, the placenta is capable of production of sufficient quantities of steroid hormones to control the HPO axis throughout pregnancy

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119
Q

Describe the actions of oestrogen in the follicular phase

A
Fallopian tube function
Thickening of endometrium
Growth and motility of myometrium
Think alkaline cervical mucus
Vaginal changes
Changes in skin, hair and metabolism
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120
Q

Describe the actions of progesterone in the luteal phase

A

Further thickening of endometrium into secretory form
Thickening of myometrium, but reduction of motility
Thick, acid cervical mucus
Changes in mammary tissue
Increased body temperature
Metabolic changes
Electrolyte changes

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121
Q

What is the normal duration of the menstrual cycle?

A

21-35 days

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122
Q

What are variations in menstrual cycle length due to?

A

Variation in length of follicular phase

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123
Q

What is the length of the luteal phase?

A

Strictly controlled to 14 +/- 2 days

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124
Q

What factors affect the menstrual cycle?

A

Physiological factors (pregnancy/lactation)
Emotional stress
Low body weight

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125
Q

What is thelarche?

A

Development of breast

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126
Q

What is puberarche?

A

Development of axillary pubic hair

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127
Q

What is menarche?

A

The first menstrual period

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128
Q

What is adrenarche?

A

The onset of an increase in the secretion of androgens

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129
Q

What is puberty?

A

When sexual maturation and growth are completed and result in ability to reproduce. Primary sexual characteristics established before birth, but reproductive system inactive until puberty

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130
Q

Describe th basic sequences of events in puberty

A

Accelerated somatic growth
Maturation of primary sexual characteristics (gonads and genitals)
Appearance of secondary sexual characteristics (pubic and exillary hair, female breast development, male voice change)
Menstruation and spermatogenesis begin

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131
Q

How is puberty initiated?

A

By the brain. Onset of puberty associated with steady rise in FSH and LH secretion, due to a rise in GnRH secretion.

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132
Q

What is early onset puberty also termed?

A

Precocious puberty

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133
Q

Describe the growth spurt in puberty

A

Occurs in both sexes. Earlier and shorter in girls, males larger as growth spurt longer and faster. Depends on growth hormones and steroids in both sexes.

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134
Q

What does the growth spurt depend on?

A

Depends on growth hormones and steroids in both sexes.

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135
Q

Why are males bigger, with regards to the growth spurt?

A

Growth spurt longer and faster. Oestrogen closes the epiphyses earlier in girls.

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136
Q

What ends the growth spurt?

A

Closing of the epiphyseal growth plates. Epiphyseal fusion. Oestrogen closes the epiphyses earlier in girls

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137
Q

What generally determines when a girl will undergo menarche?

A

Critical weight (usually 47kg)

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138
Q

What is the critical weight, at which girls generally undergo menarche?

A

47kg

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139
Q

What factors might influence when a girl undergoes menarche?

A

Significant weight loss (reproductive cycle ceases)
Nutrition important
Leptins may be involved in signalling
Body weight most important factor

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140
Q

What kind of tumours may influence puberty in humans?

A

Pineal tumours

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141
Q

What are the first changes seen in puberty?

A

Hormonal changes

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142
Q

Describe the hormonal changes seen during puberty

A

Increased stimulation of hypothalamo-pituitary-gonadal axis
Gradual activation of GnRH
Increased frequency and amplitude of LH pulses
Gonadotrophins stimulate secretion of sexual steroids (oestrogen and androgens)
Extragonadal hormonal changes (elevation of IGF-1 and adrenal steroids)

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143
Q

Describe the effects of GH secretion from the pituitary during puberty

A

Increased TSH
Increased metabolic rate
Promotes tissue growth
Increased androgens - retention of minerals in body to support bone and muscle growth

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144
Q

What is the first phenotypic changes seen in the female?

A

Breast development

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145
Q

What is the first phenotypic changes seen in the male?

A

Testicular enlargement

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146
Q

What is the very first changes that occur in puberty (proceeding phenotypic changes by several years)

A

Nocturnal GnRH pulsatory LH secretion

Sleep related LH increase, stimulates a nocturnal rise of testosterone/oestrogen

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147
Q

Why is there no gonadal function in young children?

A

Levels of LH and FSH are insufficient to initiate gonadal function

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148
Q

Describe the male hormonal changes that occur during puberty

A

LH and FSH increase at approx 10yrs
Adrenals also secrete androgens
Androgens initiate growth of sex accessory structures (e.g. Prostate), male secondary sex characteristics (facial hair growth of larynx)

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149
Q

Describe the female hormonal changes that occur during puberty

A

Oestrogen induces secondary ex characteristics (growth of pelvis, deposit of subcutaneous fat, maturation of internal reproductive organs, external genitalia)
Androgens release by adrenal glands increases growth of pubic hair, growth of bone, increased secretion from sabaceous glands

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150
Q

What initiates the first ovarian cycle?

A

LH surge. Usually not sufficient to cause ovulation during 1st cycle. Brain and endocrine system mature soon thereafter. Oestrogen levels increase due to growing follicles.

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151
Q

Describe the tanner classification system for pubertal development of girls

A

Breast B 1-5
Pubic hair PU 1-5
Axillary hair A 1-5
Menarche

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152
Q

Describe the tanner classification system for pubertal development of boys

A
Testicular volume over 4ml Te
Penis enlargement G 1-5
Pubic hair PU 1-5
Axillary hair A 1-5
Spermarche
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153
Q

At what approximate speed is the pubital growth spurt?

A

Growth velocity is 2-3 times greater than prepupertal.

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154
Q

What is the normal age for the start of pubertal development in boys?

A

10 to 14

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155
Q

What is the normal age for the start of pubertal development in girls?

A

9 to 13

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156
Q

What is usually the 1st sign of puberty in boys?

A

G2 (testicular volume up to 4ml)

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157
Q

What is usually the 1st sign of puberty in girls?

A

B2

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158
Q

What is usually the growth velocity during puberty in boys?

A

10.3 cm/yr

Tanner 3-4

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159
Q

What is usually the growth velocity during puberty in girls?

A

9.0 cm/year

Tanner 2-3

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160
Q

What is the normal duration of puberty (in years) in boys?

A

3.2 +/- 1.8

Adult size of testes

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161
Q

What is the normal duration of puberty (in years) in girls?

A

2.4 +/- 1.1

Menarche

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162
Q

What is precocious puberty?

A

Defined as occurring younger than 2 SD before the average age.

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163
Q

What is the prevalence of precocious puberty?

A

1 in 5000 to 1 in 10,00

5 to 10 times more common in girls

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164
Q

At what age, in girls, would onset of puberty be considered to be precocious?

A

Less than 8 yrs

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165
Q

At what age, in boys, would onset of puberty be considered to be precocious?

A

Less than 9yrs

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166
Q

What causes precocious puberty?

A

Majority unknown cause.
Could be:
Gonadotrophin dependant (central) - hormone secreting tumour.
Gonadotrophin independent (neurological) early stimulation of central maturation, pineal tumours, meningitis

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167
Q

What might cause gonadotrophin dependant precocious puberty?

A

Tumours
Gonadotrophin secreting tumour (rare)
Gliomas, astrocytomas, harnartomas, pineal tumours, HCG secreting germ cell tumours
CNS trauma or injury (infection, radiation, surgery)
Hamartomas of the hypothalamus
Congenital disorders e.g. Hydrocephalus and arachnoid cysts

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168
Q

What is precocious pseudopuberty?

A

Appearance of secondary sexual characteristics due to an increased producing of female/male hormones. Occurs independently to HPG axis. Gonads mature without GnRH stimulation - levels of testosterone/oestrogen raised whilst LH and FSH are suppressed

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169
Q

What might cause precocious pseudopuberty?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Testotoxicosis (or familial male precocious puberty) - autosomal dominant condition. Rapid physical growth, sexual maturation and sexually aggressive behaviour in first 2/3 yrs of life.
Exogenous oestrogen or androgen exposure (therapeutic or accidental)
Tumours:
HCG secreting tumours in liver
Choriocarcinomas of gonads, pineal gland, mediastinum (ovarian tumours may cause either masculinisation or feminisation. Testicular leydig-cell tumours may cause early virilisation in males)
Adrenal tumours (rare)

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170
Q

What tumours may cause precocious pseudo puberty?

A
HCG secreting tumours in liver
Choriocarcinomas of gonads, pineal gland, mediastinum (ovarian tumours may cause either masculinisation or feminisation. Testicular leydig-cell tumours may cause early virilisation in males)
Adrenal tumours (rare)
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171
Q

At what age would delayed puberty be declared if initial physical changes of puberty are not present by in girls?

A

13

Or primary amenorrhea by 15.5yrs

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172
Q

At what age would delayed puberty be declared if initial physical changes of puberty are not present by in boys?

A

14

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173
Q

How long should the interval between first signs of puberty and completion of genital growth/menarche be?

A

Less than 5yrs

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174
Q

What might cause gonadal failure? (Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism)

A

Post malignancy chemo/radiotherapy/surgery
Polyglandular autoimmune syndromes
Hereditary e.g. Turner’s syndrome

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175
Q

What might cause gonadal deficiency?

A

Congenital hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism (+anosmia)
Hypothalamic/pituitary elisions (tumours, post radiotherapy)
Rare gene mutations inactivating FSH/LH at their receptors

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176
Q

What are the symptoms of menopause?

A

Itchy, twitchy, sweaty, sleepy, bloated, moody, forgetful…

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177
Q

What happens pre-menopause?

A

Changes in menstrual cycle, follicular phase shortens. Ovulation early or absent, less oestrogen secreted. LH and FSH levels rise (FSH moreso).
Reduced feedback, reduced fertility

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178
Q

At what age does menopause generally occur from?

A

Approx 40 yrs

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179
Q

What is menopause?

A

Cessation of menstrual cycles. Average age 49-50, but variable. No more follicles develop.
12 months of no menstruation.

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180
Q

What happens to the hormones in menopause?

A

Oestrogen levels fall dramatically, FSH and LH levels rise. (FSH dramatically, no inhibin)

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181
Q

What are hot flushes?

A

Vascular changes seen in menopause, affect cerca 80% to some degree. Transient rises in skin temp and flushing.

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182
Q

What might relieve hot flushes?

A

Oestrogen trestment

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183
Q

What occurs to the up uterus during menopause?

A

Regression of endometrium. Shrinkage of myometrium

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184
Q

What occurs to the female reproductive tract during menopause?

A

Thinning of cervix
Vagina rugae lost
Uterus - Regression of endometrium. Shrinkage of myometrium

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185
Q

What changes outside of the female reproductive tract occur in menopause?

A

Changes in skin.
Involution of some breast tissue
Changes in bladder, loss of pelvic tone (urinary incontinence)
Bone - reduced in mass by 2.5% per year henceforth

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186
Q

What changes occur to bone structure in menopause? Why?

A

Bone - reduced in mass by 2.5% per year henceforth
Reduced oestrogen enhances osteoclasts ability to absorb bone. Osteoporosis (greater in some than others). Fractures later in life, can be limited by oestrogen therapy

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187
Q

Describe hormone replacement therapy in treatment of menopause

A

Relieves symptoms of menopause. Can improve well being. Oestrogen given orally of topically by patch or gel. Can limit osteoporosis, current advice no longer recommended as 1st line treatment. Not advices for cardioprotection

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188
Q

Is there a male menopause?

A

No obvious event. Sperm production continues

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189
Q

What is the menstrual cycle?

A

Th interaction of the CNS, namely hypothalamus and pituitary and the ovaries, resulting in the cyclic and ordered sloughing of the uterine endometrial lining

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190
Q

What are the key hormones of the menstrual cycle?

A

GnRH gonadotrophin releasing hormone
FSH follicle stimulating hormone
LH luteinising hormone
Estradiol and progesterone

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191
Q

What is the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?

A

Begins at the onset of menses until ovulation taken place

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192
Q

What takes place during the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?

A

Folliculogenesis. A dominant follicle is selected from a pool of growing follicles that are destined to ovulate. Growth of follicles at this stage depends on pituitary hormones. Growth of follicle leads to production of estradiol from the layers of granulosa cells surrounding it. Estradiol is responsible for the proliferation of the endometrial lining of the uterus.

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193
Q

What does growth of follicle lead to?

A

Growth of follicle leads to production of estradiol from the layers of granulosa cells surrounding it. Estradiol is responsible for the proliferation of the endometrial lining of the uterus.

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194
Q

What does estradiol do?

A

Estradiol is responsible for the proliferation of the endometrial lining of the uterus.

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195
Q

When does ovulation occur?

A

At the peak of follicular growth, in response to LH surge

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196
Q

Approx what size are follicles prior to ovulation?

A

Over 20mm in average diameter

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197
Q

Describe the ovulation phase of the menstrual cycle

A

LH is released in a positive feedback mechanism from the anterior pituitary due to prolonged exposure to estradiol. For this positive feedback to take place, levels of estradiol above 200 pg/ml for approx 50h are necessary

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198
Q

What is required to initiate the positive feedback response of LH release in the LH surge?

A

For this positive feedback to take place, levels of estradiol above 200 pg/ml for approx 50h are necessary

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199
Q

By what mechanism is the oocyte released from the follicle?

A

Several proteolytic enzymes and prostaglandins are activated, leading to digestion of the follicle wall collagen

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200
Q

Describe what happens during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle?

A

The remaining granulosa cells that are not released with the oocyte during the ovulation process enlarge and acquire lutein (carotenoids), which is yellow.
These granulosa cells are now called the corpus luteum and predominantly secrete progesterone. Peak progesterone production is noted 1 week later after ovulation takes place.

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201
Q

What does the lifespan of the corpus luteum depend on?

A

Continued LH support from the anterior pituitary, or, if a pregnancy occurs then HCG of pregnancy would maintain corpus luteum

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202
Q

What does the corpus luteum predominantly secrete?

A

Progesterone

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203
Q

What will happen to the corpus luteum if no pregnancy occurs?

A

Luteolysis occurs and the corpus luteum is converted to a white scar called the carpus albicans

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204
Q

What happens to the remaining granulosa cells that are not released in ovulation?

A

Enlarge and acquire lutein (carotenoids), which is yellow. Now called the corpus lutein, and predominantly secrete progesterone.

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205
Q

Approximately how long is a menstural cycle?

A

24-32 days

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206
Q

When might the menstrual cycle be longer?

A

After menarche

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207
Q

When might the menstrual cycle be shorter?

A

In pre menopause

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208
Q

When is regularity of the menstrual cycle generally best?

A

Between the ages of 20-40 yrs

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209
Q

What is the median blood lost per cycle?

A

37-43ml/cycle. Mostly in the first 48hrs

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210
Q

What is most important with regards to menstrual cycles?

A

Pattern/amount. What is normal.

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211
Q

What is menorrhagia?

A

Heavy periods

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212
Q

What might cause menorrhagia?

A

Abnormal clotting, pathology, fibroids, IUCD, medical disorders, cancer, progesterone contraception

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213
Q

List 5 types of uterine fibroids

A

Intracavitary, pedunculated, subserosal, submucosal, intramural

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214
Q

What is DUB

A

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

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215
Q

What is dysfunctional uterine bleeding DUB?

A

60% heavy bleeding. No recognisable pelvic pathology, pregnancy or general bleeding disorder

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216
Q

What might cause irregular bleeding?

A

Hormonal contraceptives
Missed combined pills/missed progesterone only pill
Vomiting/diarrhoea whilst on the COCP
Certain prescription medicines or St Johns wort (a herbal remedy) whilst using the pill, patch, ring or implant

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217
Q

Irregular bleeding is common during the 1st 3 months of starting hormonal contraception, such as?…

A
COCP
Progesterone only contraceptive pill
Contraceptive patch (transdermal patch)
Contraceptive implant or injection
Intrauterine system IUS
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218
Q

What types of amenorrhoea are there?

A

Prepubertal, pregnancy, menopause, uterine/endometrial, ovarian, pituitary, hypothalamic

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219
Q

What is the possible impact of menstrual disorders?

A

Physical - tiredness, anaemia
Psychological - depression, irritability, mood swings, anxiety
Social - impact on ability to socialise, swim, perform sports

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220
Q

What makes up the linea terminalis?

A

The arcuate line, pectineal line and pubic crest

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221
Q

What type of pelvis is good for childbirth?

A

Gynecoid

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222
Q

Describe the features of a gynecoid pelvis

A
Round inlet
Straight side walls
Ischial spines not too prominent 
Well rounded greater sciatic notch
Well curved sacrum
Sub pubic arch over 90 degrees
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223
Q

What is the ‘true’ pelvis?

A

The lesser pelvis. Bony canal. Solid and immobile

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224
Q

What is the ‘false’ pelvis?

A

The greater pelvis. No obstetric relevance

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225
Q

What are the 4 pelvic planes?

A

Pelvic inlet
Plane of greatest diameter
Plane of least diameter
Pelvic outlet

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226
Q

How might you clinically assess the pelvic inlet?

A

Anteroposterior diameter

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227
Q

How might you clinically assess the mid pelvis?

A

Check for straight side walls. Bispinous diameter

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228
Q

How might you clinically assess the pelvic outlet?

A

Infrapubic angle. Distance between ischial tuberosities

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229
Q

Where is the obstetric conjugate measured from?

A

Measured from the sacral promontory to the midpoint of the pubic symphysis

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230
Q

Where do you measure the diagonal conjugate from?

A

Measured from the sacral promontory to the inferior border of the pubic symphisis

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231
Q

What are the ligaments of the pelvis?

A

Sacrospinous ligament

Sacrotuberous ligament

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232
Q

Describe a gynecoid pelvis

A

Circular pelvic inlet
80-85 degrees
Well rounded greater sciatic notch

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233
Q

Describe an android pelvis

A

Heart shaped inlet
Prominent projecting promontory
Prominent medically projecting ischial spines
50-60 degrees

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234
Q

What is the scrotum?

A

Cutaneous sac developed from labioscrotal folds. Contains the testes, epididymis and first part of the spermatic cord.

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235
Q

What is the scrotum developed from?

A

labioscrotal folds.

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236
Q

What does the scrotum contain?

A

Contains the testes, epididymis and first part of the spermatic cord.

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237
Q

What surrounds the testes?

A

Tunica vaginalis. Enclosed by tunica albuginea

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238
Q

Are the testes enclosed in peritoneum?

A

No

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239
Q

What organises the testes into lobules?

A

Fibrous septae

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240
Q

Describe the descent of the testes

A

Gonads develop within the mesonephric ridge. Descend through the abdomen. Testes cross the inguinal canal. Testes exit the anterio lateral abdominal wall

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241
Q

Describe the arterial supply to the testes

A

Direct branches from the abdominal aorta

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242
Q

Describe the venous drainage of the testes

A

Right - right testicular vein to the IVC

Left - left testicular vein to the left renal vein

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243
Q

What is the epididymis?

A

Connects the seminiferous tubules via efferent ductules and fete testes. Head, body and tail.

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244
Q

What is the spermatic cord?

A

Contains the structures running to and from the testes, neurovascular structures and duct system.
From the deep inguinal ring, lateral to inferior epigastric vessels, via the inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring, to the posterior border of the testis.

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245
Q

Describe the course of the spermatic cord

A

From the deep inguinal ring, lateral to inferior epigastric vessels, via the inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring, to the posterior border of the testis.

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246
Q

Describe the contents of the spermatic cord

A
Lymphatic
Processes vaginalis
Vas deferens
Pampiniform plexus
Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
3 arteries - testicular, cremasteric, artery to vas deferens
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247
Q

Describe the coverings of the spermatic cord

A

External spermatic fascia (aponeurosis of external oblique)
Cremasteric muscle and fascia (internal oblique and transversalis)
Internal spermatic fascia (transversalis fascia)

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248
Q

What is hydrocoele?

A

Serous fluid in vaginalis

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249
Q

What is haematocoele?

A

Blood in tunica vaginalis

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250
Q

What is varicocoele?

A

Varicosities of pampiniform plexus

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251
Q

What is spermatocoele?

A

AKA epididymal cyst

Retention cyst within epididymis

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252
Q

What is epididymitis?

A

Inflammation of the epididymis

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253
Q

Why is transillumination important when analysing the scrotum?

A

Light passes through liquid but not solid

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254
Q

What is an indirect hernia?

A

Reopening of the processus vaginalis. Potential continuity between peritoneal cavity and the tunica vaginalis (between abdomen and scrotum). Via canal

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255
Q

What is testicular torsion?

A

Twisting normally occurs just above upper pole. Risks of necrosis of testis

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256
Q

Describe the innervation of the testis

A

Anterior surface - lumbar plexus

Posterior and inferior surfaces - sacral plexus

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257
Q

Describe the lymphatic drainage of the testis

A

Drains to paraaortic nodes

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258
Q

Describe the lymphatic drainage of the scrotum

A

Drains to superficial inguinal nodes

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259
Q

Describe the course of the ductus vas deferens

A

Ascends in spermatic cord. Traverses inguinal canal. Tracks around pelvic side wall. Passes between bladder and ureter. Forms dilated ampulla. Opens into ejaculatory duct.

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260
Q

Where does the seminal vesicle lie?

A

Between the bladder and the rectum

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261
Q

Is the seminal vesicle a storage site?

A

No

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262
Q

What forms the ejaculatory duct?

A

Duct of seminal vesicle combine with the vas deferens to form ejaculatory duct

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263
Q

Approx how much of ejaculate comes from diverticulum of vas deferens? (Seminal vesicle)

A

70-80%

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264
Q

What is the important anatomical relationship of the prostate base?

A

Neck of bladder

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265
Q

What is the important anatomical relationship of the prostate apex?

A

Urethral sphincter and deep perineal muscles

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266
Q

What is the important anatomical relationship of the prostate muscular anterior surface?

A

Urethral sphincter

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267
Q

What is the important anatomical relationship of the prostate posterior?

A

Ampulla of rectum

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268
Q

What is the important anatomical relationship of the prostate infero lateral surface

A

Levator ani

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269
Q

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Increased sized middle lobule. Obstruction of internal urethral orifice.

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270
Q

What are the symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Dysuria, nocturia, urgency

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271
Q

How might prostatic malignancies metastasise?

A
Via lymphatic route (internal iliac and sacral nodes)
Venous routes (internal vertebral plexus to vertebrae and brain)
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272
Q

Describe the structure of the penis

A

Consists of a root, body and glands. Internal structure consists of a pair of corpora cavernosa dorsally, and a single corpus spongiosum ventrally

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273
Q

What arteries supply the penis?

A

Branches of internal pudendal arteries

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274
Q

Describe the blood supply to the male perineum

A

Internal pudendal artery is a branch of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery

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275
Q

What does bulbospongiosus do?

A

Helps expel last drops of urine, and maintain erection

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276
Q

What does ischiocavernosus do?

A

Compresses veins, therefore helping maintain erection

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277
Q

Describe the divisions of the male urethra

A

Pre prostatic, prostatic, membranous (pierces through peroneum), spongy

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278
Q

Which part of the male urethra pierces through the peroneum?

A

Membranous portion

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279
Q

What type of cells form the blood testis barrier ?

A

Sertoli cells. Also cells of germ cell lineage

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280
Q

What type of tumours are 90-95% of testicular neoplasms?

A

Germ cell tumours

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281
Q

How do seminiferous tubules converge on the rete testis?

A

Via the tubule recti

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282
Q

What type of cells form the exit duct system for male germ cells?

A

Simple cuboidal

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283
Q

What does the efferent duct of the male reproductive tract connect?

A

The rete testis with the head of the epididymis

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284
Q

What epithelium does the efferent duct of the male reproductive tract have?

A

Characteristic scalloped epithelium

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285
Q

How is sperm transported along the efferent duct of the male reproductive tract?

A

Combined ciliary action and myoid contraction

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286
Q

What is the epididymis?

A

Smooth muscle tube lined by pseudostratified epithelium. Characterised by the presence of stereocilia. Sperm maturation is completed (mobile)

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287
Q

What type of cells lines the epididymis?

A

Pseudostratified epithelium. Characterised by the presence of stereocilia

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288
Q

Describe the layers of the vas deferens

A

4 layers tube, epithelium and 3X smooth muscle

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289
Q

What is the function of the vas deferens?

A

Connects epididymis with ejaculatory duct. Smooth muscle contracts powerfully during ejaculation

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290
Q

What is the seminal vesicle?

A

Secretory epithelium, contributes 85% ejaculate volume. Smooth muscle layer. Sympathetic innervation enables discharge of contents into duct.

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291
Q

What proportion of ejaculate volume is from the seminal vesicle?

A

85%

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292
Q

What type of innervation enables discharge of seminal vesicle contents?

A

Sympathetic

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293
Q

What is the prostate?

A

Collection of 30-50 tubule-alveolar glands draining into prostatic urethra. Ejaculatory ducts merge with urethra within the prostate. Characteristic fibromuscular stroma.

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294
Q

Where does the ejaculatory duct merge with the urethra?

A

Within the prostate

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295
Q

In which zone does benign prostatic hyperplasia occur?

A

Transition zone

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296
Q

In which zone does adenocarcinoma of the male reproductive tract generally occur?

A

Peripheral zone

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297
Q

List the sequence of ovarian follicular development

A

Primordial, primary, pre-antral, early antral, mature, corpus luteum

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298
Q

What is a primordial follicle?

A

Small oocyte with flat follicular cells

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299
Q

What is a primary follicle?

A

Oocyte with maximum diameter with one or more layers of cuboidal granulosa cells. Zona pellucida develops.

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300
Q

Where does 90% of ovarian cancer arise?

A

Epithelium

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301
Q

What is stroma?

A

Theca and granulosa cells, may also give rise to tumours

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302
Q

What is the endometrium comprised of? (Layers)

A

Stratum basalis
Stratum functionalis, which is comprised of
Stratum spongiosum
Stratum compactum

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303
Q

Describe the histiological appearance of the uterus in the early proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle

A

Glands sparse, straight

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304
Q

Describe the histiological appearance of the uterus in the late proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle

A

Functionalis has doubled, glands now coiled

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305
Q

Describe the histiological appearance of the uterus in the early secretory phase of the menstrual cycle

A

Endometrium max thickness, very pronounced coiled glands

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306
Q

Describe the histiological appearance of the uterus in the late secretory phase of the menstrual cycle

A

Glands adopt characteristic ‘saw tooth’ appearance

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307
Q

Describe the histology of the cervix

A

Endocervical canal with mucus secreting, simple columnar epithelium. Ectocervix with stratified squamous non-keratinised epithelium. Squamocolumnar junction SCJ can be located at any point across the cervix

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308
Q

What is the transformation zone in the cervix? Why is it significant?

A

Adjacent to the SCJ (squamocolumnar junction). Absolute junction between one type of epithelium and another. Where the majority of neoplasms arise.

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309
Q

Describe the histology of the vagina

A

3 layered fibromuscular canal. Glycogen producing non keratinised squamous epithelium. Submucosa rich in elastin fibres and highly vascular. No glands.

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310
Q

Describe the histology of the breast

A

A single lactiferuos duct opens from each of multiple (15-20) lobes. Main duct branches repeatedly. Terminal ducts. Lobular unit, consisting of multiple acini.
Approx 70% breast malignancies are infiltrating ducts carcinoma

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311
Q

What’s the most common type of breast malignancy?

A

Approx 70% breast malignancies are infiltrating ducts carcinoma

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312
Q

Describe the appearance of inactive breast tissue

A

Limited development of duct alveolar system. Relatively dense fibrous interlobar tissue

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313
Q

Describe the appearance of lactating breast tissue

A

Highly developed with milk secretions in alveolar lumen. Interlobular tissue reduced to thin septa

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314
Q

Describe the descent of the female gonads

A

Gonads develop in the mesonephric ridge. Descend through abdomen, but stop in the pelvis

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315
Q

What is the arterial supply to the ovary?

A

Direct branches from the abdominal aorta

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316
Q

Describe the venous drainage of the right ovary

A

Right ovarian vein to the IVC

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317
Q

Describe the venous drainage of the left ovary

A

Left ovarian vein to left renal vein

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318
Q

What is the top of the uterus called? (Palpable in pregnancy)

A

Fundus

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319
Q

What is the anterior peritoneal pouch called?

A

Uterovesical pouch

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320
Q

What is the posterior peritoneal pouch called in the female?

A

Rectouterine pouch AKA pouch of Douglas

Posterior formix of the vagina

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321
Q

What is the posterior peritoneal pouch called in the male?

A

Rectovesical peritoneal recess

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322
Q

Describe the development of the peritoneal pouches

A

Paramesonephric ducts, a pair of ducts that are open cranially and connect to the urogenital sinus caudally. Persist in the absence of MIH. Fusion of the ducts in the midline creates a broad transverse fold draped by peritoneum.

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323
Q

What is the broad ligament?

A

Peritoneal fold in the female pelvis. Mesentery of the uterus, uterine tube and ovary.

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324
Q

What is the round ligament?

A

Attached to ovary and labium majus, travels through inguinal canal. Consequences for lymphatic drainage

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325
Q

What is the round ligament embryologically?

A

Gubernaculum

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326
Q

What is an anteverted uterus with respect to?

A

Vagina

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327
Q

What is an anteflexed uterus with respect to?

A

The cervix

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328
Q

What constitutes then uterine tube?

A

Abdominal ostium, fimbria, infundibulum, ampulla and isthmus

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329
Q

What is the function of the uterine tube?

A

To conduct the oocyte into the uterine cavity. Normally the site of fertilisation

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330
Q

Is the lining of the uterine tube similar to that of the uterine cavity?

A

No - consequences for ectopic implantation

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331
Q

How is the female peritoneal cavity open?

A

Via the ostium of the uterine tube

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332
Q

Describe the support of the pelvic viscera

A

Transverse cervical ligament - thickening at the base of broad ligament. Lateral stability of cervix. Uterosacral ligament opposes anterior pull of round ligament, assists in maintaining anteversion.

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333
Q

Describe the blood supply to the female internal genitalia

A

Ovarian artery - branches from abdominal aorta
Uterine artery - anterior division of internal iliac
Internal pudendal - anterior division of internal iliac

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334
Q

Describe the lymphatic drainage of the ovaries

A

Drains to paraaortic nodes

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335
Q

Describe the lymphatic drainage of the uterus

A

Fundus - to aortic nodes (and inguinal nodes)
Body - to external iliac nodes
Cervix - external and internal iliac nodes and sacral nodes

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336
Q

Where is the labia majora?

A

Enclosing the pudendal cleft

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337
Q

Where is the labia minora?

A

Enclosing the vestibule of the vagina (bulb of vestibule, clitoris)

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338
Q

What is enclosed in the vestibule?

A

Orifices of urethra, vagina, greater and lesser vestibular glands

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339
Q

What are the greater vestibular glands also called?

A

Bartholin glands (barthdinitis, bartholin gland cyst)

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340
Q

Describe the vagina orifice

A

Vagina orifice opens into the vestibule along with the external urethral orifice and the ducts of the greater and lesser vestibular glands.
Vaginal fornices - recesses if vagina around the cervix

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341
Q

What are Vaginal fornices?

A

recesses if vagina around the cervix

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342
Q

Describe the innervation of the vagina

A

Inferior 1/5 of vagina receives somatic innervation from pudendal nerve
Superior 4/5 of vagina and uterus receives innervation from uterovaginal plexus

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343
Q

Describe the pain afferents of the vagina

A

Vary depending on pelvic pain ripe thoracic lumbar spinal ganglia
S2 to S4 spinal ganglia

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344
Q

Describe the innervation of the perineum

A

Pudendal nerve, plus ilioinguinal nerve

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345
Q

Describe the course and distribution of the pudendal nerve

A

Exits pelvis via greater sciatic foramen. Enters perineum via lesser sciatic foramen. Travels through pudendal canal.

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346
Q

What is the pelvic floor?

A

Muscular and fibrous tissue diaphragm. Fills the lower part of the pelvic canal. Closes the abdominal cavity. Defines the upper border of the perineum. Supports the pelvic organs. Pierced by the urethra, vagina and rectum.

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347
Q

Describe the pelvic side wall

A

Ischium of pelvis, sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments, obturator nerve and membrane, obturator internus. Piriform and coccygeus, branches of sacral plexus. Fascia (including tendineus), levator ani muscles. Internal iliac vessels and branches, ureters.

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348
Q

Describe the pelvic floor

A

Levator ani - puborectalis, pubococcygeus, iliocococcygeus.

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349
Q

What is attached to the pelvic side wall?

A

Ischial spine, arcus tendineus fascia pelvis, urogenital hiatus allows passage of urethra, vagina and rectum.

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350
Q

Describe the main blood vessels of the pelvis

A

Branches of posterior trunk of internal iliac artery (pudendal artery, vaginal artery, inferior rectal artery)

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351
Q

Describe the major nerves of the pelvis

A

Pudendal nerve S2,3,4 ‘keeps your guts off the floor’

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352
Q

What is the perineum?

A

Fibromuscular sheet which closes the pelvic outlet. Lower limit of perineal space. Perineal space continues with ischiorectal fossa. Perineal muscles. Perineal body.

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353
Q

What constitutes the perineum?

A

Urogenital diaphragm, transverse perineal muscles, ischiocavernosus, perineal body, bulbospongiosus

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354
Q

What is the perineal body?

A

Connective tissue mass in centre of perineum. Anchors the perineal muscles and rectum. Central fulcrum for pelvic support.

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355
Q

What does the pelvic floor do?

A

Supports the pelvic organs - retains uterus and bladder in correct positions
Contributes to continence - sphincter mechanism directly and indirectly
Contributes to the process of childbirth
Contributes to ‘truncate stability’

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356
Q

Describe some of the possible effects of childbirth on the woman’s anatomy

A

Stretch of pudendal nerve (neuropraxia and muscle weakness)
Stretch and damage of pelvic floor and perineal muscles (muscle weakness)
Stretch/rupture of ligaments support of muscles (ineffective muscle action)

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357
Q

Describe some consequences of the effects of childbirth on a women

A

Lack of support of pelvic organs - prolapse

Contributions to continence - incontinence

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358
Q

What other factors affect the effects of childbirth on a women

A

Age, menopause (atrophy of tissues after oestrogen withdrawal), obesity, chronic cough, intrinsic connective tissue laxity (defined conditions, constitutional)

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359
Q

What are the treatment options for urinary incontinece?

A

Pelvic floor muscle exercise

Surgery

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360
Q

Describe some continence procedures used to treat urinary incontinence

A

Increase support to sphincter mechanism and prevent descent of bladder neck (colposuspension, tension free vaginal tape). Effective. Side effects, voiding difficulty/retention, overactive bladder disease (obstruction)

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361
Q

Describe possible treatments for a vaginal prolapse

A

Remove prolapsed organs. Restore connective tissue supports. Maintain function. Side effects, recurrence, new incontinence, dysparenuria.

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362
Q

What is pelvic inflammatory disease PID?

A

The result of infection ascending from the endocervix, causing endometritis, salpingitis, parametritis, oophoritis, tube-ovarian abscess and/or pelvic peritonitis.

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363
Q

What is endometritis?

A

Inflammation and infection of the endometrium (lining of the uterus)

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364
Q

What is salpingitis?

A

Inflammation of Fallopian tube

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365
Q

Briefly outline the pathophysiology of pelvic inflammatory disease PID

A

Ascending infection from the endocervix and vagina. Infection causes inflammation, which causes damage. Therefore damaged tubal epithelium, adhesions form

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366
Q

List some complications of pelvic inflammatory disease PID

A

Ectopic pregnancy, infertility, chronic pelvic pain, fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome (RUQ pain and peri-hepatitis following chlamydia PID)

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367
Q

Briefly outline the aetiology (cause) of PID

A

Often polymicrobial. Sexually transmitted infections (c. Trachomatis, n. Gonorrhoea). Also gardnerella vaginalis, mycoplasma, anaerobes.

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368
Q

Briefly outline the epidemiology of PID

A

Understimated. Sexually active women, peak 20-30yrs old. Incidence rate in primary care approx. 280 per 100,000

369
Q

What are the risk factors for PID?

A

As for STIs

Young age, lack of use of barrier contraception, multiple sexual partners, low socioeconomic class

370
Q

What are the clinical features of PID?

A

Pyrexia (fever), pain (lower abdominal, deep dysparaunia (pain when having sex), abnormal vaginal/cervical discharge, abnormal vaginal bleeding, sexual history, prior STIs, contraceptive history

371
Q

What might be on a differential diagnosis for PID?

A

Gynaecological - ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, ovarian cyst complication
GI - IBS, appendicitus
Urinary - UTI
Other - Functional pain

372
Q

Describe the clinical features of PID

A

Fever, lower abdominal tenderness (usually bilateral).
Bimanual examination - adnexal (area around ovary) tenderness. Cervical motion tenderness.
Speculum examination - purulent cervical discharge. Cervicitis

373
Q

What investigations might you do for PID?

A

Urinary and/or serum pregnancy test.
Endocervical and high vaginal swabs (presence of NG/CT supports diagnosis, but absence doesn’t exclude it)
Blood tests - WBC and CRP
Screening for other STIs including HIV
Diagnostic laparoscopy is gold standard (bus risky) - could also perform adhesidysis and drain abscesses

374
Q

What management would be done for PID?

A

Low threshold for empirical treatment - delayed treatment increases long term sequelae
Severe disease requires IV antibiotics and admission for observation and possible surgical intervention

375
Q

Describe outpatient treatment of PID

A

Antibiotic therapy 14 days
IM ceftriaxone 500mg STAT + PO doxycycline 100mg BD + PO
Metronidazole 400mg BD

376
Q

Describe inpatient treatment for PID

A

IV ceftriaxone 500mg STAT + IV/PO doxycycline 100mg BD + IV metroniadazole 400mg BD
Progresses to
PO doxycycline 100mg BD + PO metroniadazole 400mg BD

377
Q

When would surgical treatment of PID be considered?

A

Laparoscopy/laparotomy may be considered if
- no response to therapy
- clinically severe disease
- presence of a tube-ovarian abscess
Ultrasound guided aspiration of pelvic collections is less invasive

378
Q

Define sexually transmitted infection STI

A

Includes both symptomatic and asymptomatic cases. Sexual activity is the principal mode of transmission

379
Q

Define sexually transmitted disease STD

A

Symptomatic cases only

380
Q

What groups of people are particularly at risk of STIs?

A

Young people, certain ethnic groups, low socioeconomic status, specific aspects of sexual behaviour (age at 1st sexual intercourse, number of partners, orientation, unsafe activity)

381
Q

Why is there an increasing incidence of STIs?

A

Increased transmission - changing sexual and social behaviour, increasing density and mobility of populations, increased GUM attendance. Greater public, medical and national awareness (elgl campaigns). Improved diagnostic methods, including screening programs.

382
Q

What is the possible effects of stigma associated with STIs?

A

Impact on diagnosis and tracing contacts

383
Q

How may patients with STIs present?

A

Patient presentation with genital lesions/problems to GP or GUPI clinic (ulcers, vesicles, warts, urethral discharge, pain, vaginal discharge, clinician notes of features suggestive of an STI). Detection of asymptomatic case (contact tracing/screening)

384
Q

Outline general management of STIs

A

Treatment preferably single dose/short course. Co-infections are common, screen and consider empiric treatment for other STIs
Contact training. Patient and public health management. Sexual health education, advice and instruction on safe sex.

385
Q

What is the most common viral STI?

A

Human papillomavirus. Over 100 HPV types of this DNA virus.

386
Q

Describe presentation of HPV infection

A

Cutaneous, mucosal and anogenital warts (mainly HPV 6 and 11). Benign, painless, varrucous epithelial or mucosal outgrowths

387
Q

What are the high risk types of HPV?

A

HPV16 and HPV18. Oncogenic. Associated with cervical and anogenital cancer
Cervical cancer most common cancer in woman aged 15-34, associated with over 70% of cases

388
Q

Describe diagnosis of HPV infection

A

Clinical. Biopsy and genome analysis, hybrid capture.

389
Q

Describe the treatment of HPV infection

A
None
Spontaneous resolution (70% 1yr, 90% 2yrs).
390
Q

How is screening for HoV carried out?

A

Cervical pap smeer cytology. Colposcopy + acetowhite test. Cervical swab, HPV hybrid capture (40% 20-24yr olds +ve)

391
Q

What is the HPV vaccine used in the UK, and against what strains is it effective?

A

Gardasil, HPV 6, 11, 16 and 18

392
Q

Describe the nature of the causative organism of chlamydia

A

Obligate intra-cellular bacterium. Non specific genital chlamydia infections (serotype D-K)

393
Q

Describe symptoms of chlamydia in males

A

Urethritis, epididymitis, prostatitis, proctitis

394
Q

Describe symptoms of chlamydia in females

A

Urethritis, cervicitis, salpingitis, perihepatitis

395
Q

How is chlamydia diagnosed?

A

Endocervical and urethral swabs NAAT. 1st void urine.

Neonatal infection, conjunctival swab.

396
Q

What is the treatment for chlamydia?

A

Doxycycline or azithromycin. Erythromycin in children

397
Q

Describe the symptoms of herpes simplex virus

A

Primarily genital herpes - extensive painful genital ulceration, dysuria, inguinal lymphadenopathy, fever

398
Q

Which herpes simplex virus causes genital herpes, and which causes cold sores?

A

HSV1 - cold sores

HSV2 - genital herpes

399
Q

Why is herpes recurrent?

A

Asymptomatic to moderate recurrent genital herpes. Latent infection in dorsal root ganglion.

400
Q

How is herpes diagnosed?

A

PCR of vesicle fluid and/or ulcer base

401
Q

What is the treatment for herpes?

A

Aciclovir (primary and severe disease).

Aciclovir prophylaxis for frequent recurrences

402
Q

What sort of orangish causes gonorrhoeae?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Gram negative intracellular diplococcus

403
Q

What are the symptoms of gonorrhoeae in males?

A

Urethritis, epididymitis, prostatitis, prodtitis, pharyngitis

404
Q

What are the symptoms of gonorrhoeae in females?

A

Asymptomatic, endocervicitis, urethritis, PID which may lead to infertility

405
Q

What might be a result of disseminated gonococcal infection?

A

Bacteraemia, skin and joint lesions

406
Q

How is gonorrhoea diagnosed?

A

Swab from urethra, cervix (threat, rectum), or urine (NAAT). Gram stain (pus or normally sterile site). Fastidious organism requiring special media.

407
Q

What is the treatment of gonorrhoea?

A

Ceftriaxone (IM), increasing resistance to many other agents. All patients tested and tested for chlamydia with azithromycin, which may also prevent emergence of resistance to cephalosporins

408
Q

What is the aetiological agent of syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum - spirochaet

409
Q

In which group is there the highest incidence of syphilis?

A

MSM

Men generally

410
Q

Describe the stages of syphilis

A

Primary - indurated, painless ulcer (chancre)
Secondary - 6 to 8 weeks later fever, rash, lymphadenopathy, mucosal lesions.
Latent, symptom free years
Tertiary - Neurosyphilis (GPI tabes dear salis). Cardiovascular syphilis, gummas (local destruction)

411
Q

How is syphilis diagnosed?

A

Serology. Dark field microscopy. Organism can’t be grown

412
Q

Describe the serology of syphilis

A

Initial screening with EI antibody test then +ves

  • Rapid plasma region RPR titre (cross reacting antigen)
  • TP particle agglutination TPPA
  • Serologic pattern interpreted (false +ves, response to treatment ect)
413
Q

What is the treatment of syphilis?

A

Penicillin and ‘test of cure’ follow up

414
Q

What might cause inguinal lymphadenopathy?

A
LGV (lymphogranuloma venereum) 
- C. Trachoma serotypes L1, L2, L3
- Rapidly healing papule then inguinal bubo (abscess/lump in groin)
- Recent clusters in Europe in MSM
Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)
- Painful genital ulcers
Granulosa inguinale/donovanosis (klebsiella granulomatis
- Genital nodules - ulcers
415
Q

What is trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Flagellated protozoan, Trichomonas vaginitis. Thin, frothy, offensive discharge. Irritation, dysuria, vaginal inflammation.

416
Q

How is trichomonas vaginalis diagnosed?

A

Vaginal wet preparation +/- culture enhancement

417
Q

What is the treatment of trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Metroniadazole

418
Q

Briefly outline the stages of sperm production

A

Spermatozoa are produced in the siminiferous tubules of the testis
Spermatogonia to mature spermatozoa - up to 74 days (50 days in testis, 12-24 days in epididymis)

419
Q

When does sperm production begin?

A

Starts at puberty and continues till death

420
Q

Approx how many sperm are produced a day?

A

200-300 million a day (only half become viable sperm)

421
Q

What is the effect of age on sperm production?

A

Slight decrease in quantity and quality with age.

422
Q

Describe the hormonal control of spermatogenesis

A

LH - (anterior pituitary) to leydig cells (testis) - testosterone - spermatogenesis
FSH - androgen binding protein (Sertoli cells) - formation of blood testis barrier (increasing testosterone conc) - spermatogenesis
Oestrogen (leydig cells) - increases sperm viability
Negative feedback loop - inhibin (Sertoli cells) decreases FSH

423
Q

Describe LHs role in spermatogenesis

A

LH - (anterior pituitary) to leydig cells (testis) - testosterone - spermatogenesis

424
Q

Describe FSHs role in spermatogenesis

A

FSH - androgen binding protein (Sertoli cells) - formation of blood testis barrier (increasing testosterone conc) - spermatogenesis
Negative feedback loop - inhibin (Sertoli cells) decreases FSH

425
Q

Describe oestrogens role in spermatogenesis

A

Oestrogen (leydig cells) - increases sperm viability

426
Q

If pituitary gland is removed, can spermatogenesis still occur?

A

Yes, can be initiated by FSH and testosterone alone

427
Q

Briefly describe the composition of a spermatid

A

Head - nuclear condensation
Acrosome - Golgi apparatus. Lysosomes like (hydrolytic enzymes). Enable sperm to penetrate ovum
Midpiece - mitochondria packed around contractile filaments
Tail - flagellum produced by microtubules growing from centriole to form axoneme

428
Q

Describe the final step of spermatogenesis, formation of spermatozoa

A

Cytoplasm and organelles stripped under influence of testosterone. Spermatozoa now mature, but lack mobility (infertile). Released from Sertoli cells into lumen of seminiferous tubule (spermation). Transported into epididymis in testicular fluid (produced by Sertoli cells) by peristaltic contraction. Gain mobility and become fertile in epididymis

429
Q

How long can spermatozoa be stored in the epidiymis?

A

Several months, no loss of fertility.

430
Q

Hoe do sperm leave the epididymis?

A

Sexual arousal - contraction of epididymal wall muscle - expels spermatozoa into ductus (vas) deferens

431
Q

What happens to spermatozoa if they’re not expelled?

A

Eventually phagocytosis by epididymal epithelial cells (after several months)

432
Q

Describe the male sexual response - excitement phase

A

Sensory and psychological stimulation - limbic system
Activation of sacral parasympathetic neurons
Inhibition of thoracolumbar sympathetic neurons
ACh - M3 receptors on endothelial cells - increase Ca2+ - activation of eNOS - NO production
Arterial vasodilation on corpora cavernosa
Increased penile blood flow. Penile filling (latency). Penile tumescence (erection)

433
Q

Describe the male sexual response - plateau

A

Activation of sacrospinous reflex
Contraction of ischiocavernosus (compresses crus penis and impedes venous return) - venous engorgement
Rise in intercavernosus pressure - decreased arterial inflow
Simulation of secretion from accessory glands - cowpers and littres glands
- lubricate distal urethra
- neutralise acidic urine in urethra
- 5% of ejaculate

434
Q

How is the male sexual response - emission, divided?

A

Orgasm is subdivided into emission and ejacualtion

435
Q

Describe the male sexual response - emission

A

Stimulation of thoracolumbar sympathetic reflex
Contraction of smooth muscle in ductus deferens, ampulla, seminal vesicle and prostate
Internal and external urethral sphincters contract
Semen is pooled in urethral bulb

436
Q

Describe the male sexual response - ejaculation

A

Spinal reflex (with cortical control)
Sympathetic nervous system (L1, L2)
- contraction of glands and ducts (smooth muscle)
- internal urethral sphincter contracts
Filling of the internal urethra stimulates pudendal nerve - contractions of the genital organs, the ischiocavernosus and bulbocavernosus muscles - expulsion of semen

437
Q

Describe the male sexual response - resolution

A

Activation of the thoracolumbar sympathetic pathway
Contraction of the arteriolar smooth muscle in corpora cavernosa
Increased venous return
Detumescence and flaccidity
Refractory period

438
Q

Describe the female sexual response - excitement

A
Same neuronal response as the male
Vaginal lubrication begins (due to vasocongestion)
Clitoris engorges with blood
Uterus elevates
Increase in muscle tone, HR and BP
439
Q

Describe the female sexual response - plateau

A

Further increase in muscle tone, HR and BP
Labia minora deepens in colour
Clitoris withdraws under its hood
Bartholin gland secretion lubricates vestibule for entry of penis
Orgasmic platform in lower 1/3 of vagina
Uterus is fully elevated

440
Q

Describe the female sexual response - orgasm

A

Orgasmic platform (outer 1/3 of vagina) contracts rhythmically 3 - 15 times
Uterus contacts, anal sphincter contracts
Clitoris remains retracted under hood
No refractory period - multiple orgasms possible

441
Q

Describe the Female sexual response - resolution

A

Clitoris descends and engagement subsides
Labia return to unaroused size and colour
Uterus descends to unaroused position
Vagina shortens and narrows back to unaroused state

442
Q

Describe the changes in breasts during sexual response

A

Excitement phase - breast size increases, nipple becomes erect, veins become more distinct
Plateau and orgasm phase - greater size increase, areola increases in size and causes nipple to appear less erect. Sex flush may appear on breasts and upper abdomen
Resolution phase - return to unaroused size, detumescence of areola- nipple appears more erect, disappearance of sex flush

443
Q

What is the anatomical G spot?

A

An area of erotic sensitivity located along the anterior wall of the vagina. Some women are able to experience orgasm and possibly ejaculation from G spot stimulation. Tissue similar to male prostate, therefore fluid may be similar to prostatic component of semen

444
Q

Describe the effect of ageing on the female sexual response

A

Some women report reduced desire. Reduced vasocongestion response, causing reduced vaginal lubrication. Vaginal and urethral tissue lose elasticity. Length and width of vagina decreases, reduced expansion ability of inner vagina during arousal. Number of orgasmic contractions often reduced. More rapid resolution

445
Q

Describe lack of sexual desire

A

Hypoactive, little or no interest in sex (for age). Most common sexual dysfunction.

446
Q

What is sexual aversion?

A

Revulsion or fear of one or all aspects of sex, often as a result of abuse or assault.

447
Q

What is klümer-bucci syndrome?

A

Bilateral medial temporal bone lesions. Hyperphagia, hypersexuality, hyperorality, visual agnosia and docility

448
Q

List some common psychological sexual dysfunctions

A

Hypoactive
Hyperactive
Nymphomaniac
Aversion

449
Q

What is failure of sexual arousal in the female?

A

Persistent, recurrent, inability to attain or maintain lubrication. Swelling response = lack of lubrication (especially in menopause)

450
Q

What might cause male impotence?

A

Psychological (descending inhibition of spinal reflexes)
Tears in fibrous tissue of corpora cavernosa
Vascular - atherosclerosis, diabetics
Drugs - alcohol, antihypertensives (beta blockers, diuretics)

451
Q

How does viagra work?

A

Inhibits cGMP breakdown in corpus cavernosum
Therefore increase in nitric oxide stimulated vasodilation
Therefore increase in penile blood flow - erection

452
Q

How much in volume is normally in ejaculate?

A

2-4ml

453
Q

How many sperm per ml is there normally in ejaculate?

A

20-200 X 10^6 sperm per ml

454
Q

Approx how many sperm is there in an ejaculate?

A

Over 40 X 10^6

455
Q

What is the composition of most sperm in ejaculate?

A

Over 60% swimming forwards vigorously

Less than 30% abnormal morphology

456
Q

List some common ejaculate abnormalities

A

Liquefaction should take place within 1hr

Oligozoospermia - Less than 20 X 10^6 sperm per ml

457
Q

Describe the bulbourethral/cowpers glandular component of semen

A

5% volume
Alkaline fluid
Mucous lubricates the tip of the penis and urethral lining

458
Q

Describe the seminal vesicles component of semen

A

60% volume
Alkaline fluid (neutralises the acid in male urethra and female reproductive tract)
Fructose (ATP production), prostaglandins (increase sperm motility and increase female genital smooth muscle contraction), clotting factors (particularly semenogelin)

459
Q

Describe the prostate glandular component of semen

A

25% volume
Milky, slightly acidic fluid
Proteolytic enzymes (e.g. PSA, pepsinogen break down clotting factors, from seminal vesicles, re-liquiefying semen in 10-20mins)
Citric acid (ATP production), acid phosphate

460
Q

What typically happens in menstrual cycle, days 7-14?

A

Endometrial proliferation

Ovulation approx day 14

461
Q

What typically happens during days 14-28 of the menstrual cycle?

A

Uterine secretory phase. Oestrogen and progesterone (corpus luteum). Hospitable environment for fertilisation and implantation

462
Q

Describe oocyte maturation (nuclear maturation)

A

Oocyte undergoes meiosis 1
Nuclear membrane of oocyte disappears
First polar body separates and enters the perivitelline space
Second meiotic division takes place and stops metaphase 2
This process is know as maturation of oocyte nucleus

463
Q

Describe oocyte maturation (cytoplasmic maturation)

A

Mitochondria dispersed throughout cytoplasm
Endoplasmic reticulum accumulates in oocyte cortex.
Proteins and lipid synthesis - cortical granules
Immature oocyte - corti for granules displaced throughout cytoplasm. Become cortical during maturation.
Cytoskeleton microfilaments migrate toward oocyte cortex

464
Q

What provides the energy for an oocyte?

A

Lipid droplets provide energy (meiosis, maturation, fertilisation and early embryo development).

465
Q

How many sperm does it take to fertilise an egg?

A

Approx 300 reach site of fertilisation

299 sacrificed to disperse the zona pellucida

466
Q

How long can sperm survive in the female genital tract?

A

Up to 5 days

467
Q

How long do oocytes survive before phagocytosis?

A

6-24hrs

468
Q

When is the fertile period?

A

Sperm deposition up to 3 days prior to ovulation or on day of ovulation

469
Q

How long does it take oocyte to travel from ovary to body of uterus?

A

3-4 days

470
Q

How does the oocyte travel from the ovary to the body of the uterus?

A

Cilia and Fallopian tube peristalsis

471
Q

Describe the layers through sperm penetration of the oocyte must occur

A

Sperm needs to penetrate corona radiata (follicular cells) and zona pellucida (glycoprotein membrane). Undergoes capacitation

472
Q

Describe capacitation of sperm

A

Further maturation of sperm in female reproductive tract 6-8hrs. Sperm cell membrane changes to allow fusion with oocyte cell surface (removal of protein coat of sperm and acrosomal enzymes are exposed).
Tail movement changes from beat to whip like action (3mm/hr)

473
Q

What is the most movement of sperm due to?

A

Contraction of the female genital tract

474
Q

At what rate can sperm move?

A

3mm an hour

475
Q

What initiates the acrosome reaction of sperm

A

When sperm contacts corona radiata, it has an intact acrosome. Sperm pushes through granulosa cells of corona radiata. Proteins on sperm head bind it to ZP3 proteins of zona pellucida ZP. Binding triggers acrosome reaction

476
Q

Describe the acrosome reaction of sperm

A

Binding to corona radiata triggered

  • Key signalling mechanism involves intracellular Ca2+
  • Acrosome enzymes digest path through zona pellucida
  • One sperm penetrates, fusion of plasma membranes of egg and sperm
  • Sperm moves into cytoplasm, oocyte and sperm together become zygote
  • Polyspermy blocked via cortical reaction
477
Q

Describe the oocyte plasma membrane

A

Can be divided into 2 parts:

  • Part of membrane directly overlying the metaphase chromosomes, has a smooth surface devoid of microvilli
  • Remainder of the oocyte is rich in microvillar protrusions. This is the region of the oocyte where sperm bind and fuse
478
Q

Describe the block to polyspermy, fast block

A

Electric change in oocyte membrane. Sodium channels open (resting potential from -75 to +20 mV). Wave of depolarisation starts at the site of entry of sperm and propagates across cytoplasm

479
Q

Describe the block to polyspermy: slow block

A

Ca2+ released from ER, induces local exocytosis of cortical granules. Granules release enzymes to stimulate adjacent cortical granules to undergo exocytosis. Wave of exocytosis occurs around oocyte in 3 dimensions from original site of sperm entry

480
Q

What is syngamy?

A

Union of male and female pronuclei to form diploid zygote (46 chromosomes) = syngamy
Oocyte completes meiosis 2. Expels second polar body. Male and female pronuclei migrate towards each other (23+23 chromosomes).

481
Q

What is polyploidy?

A

Embryos containing 3 or more pronuclei are polyploidy - entry of more than 1 sperm, or failure of extrusion of second polar body.

482
Q

Describe cleavage

A

A series of rapid mitotic divisions and metabolic changes. Increased number of cells (16-32 blastomeres) of decreasing size, without increase in size of fertilised ovum. Cells are totipotent. Generation of a large number of cells that can undergo differentiation and gastrulation to form organs. Increase in the number/cytoplasmic ratio. One nucleus can’t transcribe sufficient RNA to support the enormous cytoplasm of the zygote.

483
Q

What is totipotency?

A

Cell has the capacity to develop into entire individual

484
Q

What results in monozygotic twins?

A

In cleavage, totipotent cells become divided into 2 separate independent cell masses

485
Q

What causes dizygotic/non identical twins?

A

2 eggs ovulate, 2 eggs fertilised.

486
Q

Describe the mechanics of cleavage

A

No G1 (duplication of organelles and cytosol) or G2 (synthesis of enzymes and proteins) stages in cell cycle during cleavage
With each mitotic division during cleavage, the nuclear cytoplasmic ratio increases
Cleavage is asynchronous (not all blastomeres divide at the same time)

487
Q

Describe compaction

A

At the 8 cell stage, blastomeres undergo polarisation and form tight junctions to create ‘inner embryo environment’

488
Q

What is the morula?

A

16 blastomeres stage. 3-4 days after fertilisation embryo passes from oviduct into uterus.

489
Q

What is key about oestrogens feedback role?

A

Oestrogen has different feedback roles at different stages of the menstrual cycle

490
Q

What feedback effects does progesterone have at moderate/high doses?

A

Enhances the negative feedback of natural oestrogen, thus reducing LH and FSH secretion

491
Q

What feedback effects does progesterone have at moderate/high doses with regards to fertility?

A

Inhibits the positive feedback of oestrogen, no LH surge, so no ovulation

492
Q

What feedback effects does progesterone have at relatively low doses?

A

Does not inhibit LH surge, so ovulation still likely. Lower doses of progesterone will thicken cervical mucus

493
Q

Describe the natural contraceptive method of fertility awareness

A

Use of fertility indicators to identify fertile and infertile periods of the menstrual cycle - cervical secretions, basal body temperature, length of menstrual cycle.

494
Q

Describe the natural contraceptive method of lactational amenorrhoea

A

Breastfeeding delays the return of ovulation after childbirth. Only effective up to 6months after giving birth

495
Q

List some advantages of natural methods of contraception

A

No hormones

No contraindications

496
Q

List some disadvantages of natural methods of contraception

A

Unreliable

Not as effective

497
Q

What is barrier contraception?

A

Physical barrier. Prevents entrance of sperm into the cervix. Diaphragm/cap also used with spermicide so additional chemical barrier

498
Q

List positive of male/female condoms

A

Can help prevent against STIs

499
Q

Give a disadvantage of male condoms

A

Sensitivity/allergy to latex

500
Q

Give a disadvantage of female condoms

A

Not as widely available

501
Q

Give an advantage and disadvantage of a female diaphragm/cap

A

Can be inserted anytime before intercourse
BUT…
Needs to be used with spermicide (can cause a local reaction)

502
Q

What is the principle action of the COCP?

A

Prevents ovulation

503
Q

What are the secondary actions of the COCP?

A

Reduces endometrial receptivity to inhibit implantation. Thickens cervical mucus to inhibit penetration of sperm.

504
Q

Give some advantages of the COCP

A

Can relieve menstrual disorders

Reduces risk of ovarian cysts and cancer

505
Q

Give some disadvantages of the COCP

A

User dependent
Side effects - breakthrough bleeding, breast tenderness, mood disturbances
Increased risk of venous thromboembolism, myocardial infarction
Many contraindications

506
Q

What is the principle action of the progesterone depot (injection) method of contraception?

A

Prevents ovulation

507
Q

What is the secondary action of the progesterone depot (injection) method of contraception?

A

Reduces endometrial receptivity to inhibit implantation. Thickens cervical mucus to inhibit penetration of sperm

508
Q

Give some advantages of the progesterone depot (injection) method of contraception?

A

Can also relieve menstrual disorders

Convenient

509
Q

Give some disadvantages of the progesterone depot (injection) method of contraception?

A

Altered and irregular bleeding is common
Delayed return of fertility for up to 1yr after stopping
Not quickly reversible
Small loss of bone mineral density and possible increase in fracture risk

510
Q

What is the principle action of the progesterone implant method of contraception?

A

Prevents ovulation

511
Q

What is the secondary action of the progesterone implant method of contraception?

A

Reduces endometrial receptivity to inhibit implantation. Thickens cervical mucus to inhibit penetration of sperm.

512
Q

Give some advantages of the progesterone implant method of contraception

A

Long duration of action
Convenient
Can also relieve menstrual disorders

513
Q

Give some disadvantages of the progesterone implant method of contraception

A

Small procedure required to fit and remove the implant
Local adverse effects can occur
Can cause changes in bleeding pattern

514
Q

What is the principle action of the progesterone only pill method of contraception?

A

Thickens cervical mucus, making it impenetrable to sperm. Ovulation usually not prevented.

515
Q

List some advantages of the progesterone only pill method of contraception

A

Can be used where the COCP is contraindicated

516
Q

Give some disadvantages of the progesterone only pill method of contraception

A

Menstrual problems are common

Must be taken at the same time each day (error for forgotten pill is only 3hrs late)

517
Q

What are the main mechanisms of contraception?

A
Natural
Barrier
Prevention of ovulation
Inhibition of sperm transport
Inhibition of implantation
Sterilisation
518
Q

What is the principle action of intrauterine system IUS (coils)?

A

Progesterone reduces endometrial proliferation and prevents implantation

519
Q

What is the secondary action of intrauterine system IUS (coils)?

A

Thickens cervical mucus. Ovulation usually not prevented

520
Q

Give some advantages of the intrauterine system IUS (coils)

A

Convenient
Long duration of action
Can also relieve menstrual disorders

521
Q

Give some disadvantages of the intrauterine system IUS (coils)

A

Insertion may be unpleasant
IUS displacement/expulsion may occur
Menstrual irregularity common in 1st 6 months
Risk of uterine perforation (2/1000 insertions)

522
Q

What is the intrauterine system IUS?

A

Coils, small device of plastic which added slow release progesterone that is placed in the uterus, can last between 3-5 yrs

523
Q

How long would a coil last?

A

Between 3-5yrs

524
Q

What is a intrauterine device IUD?

A

Contains copper. Small device made of plastic with added copper that is placed into the uterus, can last between 5-10yrs

525
Q

How long can a intrauterine device last? IUD copper

A

Between 5-10 yrs

526
Q

What is the principle action of a intrauterine device IUD?

A

Copper is toxic to sperm and ovum, so prevents fertilisation.

527
Q

What is the secondary action of a intrauterine device IUD?

A

Copper causes endometrial inflammatory reaction, prevents implantation. Reduces penetration by sperm due to effect of copper on cervical mucus

528
Q

Give some advantages of an intrauterine device IUD? Copper

A

Convenient
Long duration of action
Can also be used as emergency contraception (up to 5 days after unprotected intercourse)

529
Q

Give some disadvantages of an intrauterine device IUD? Copper

A

Insertion may be unpleasant
IUD displacement/expulsion may occur
Periods may be heavier, longer or more painful
Risk of uterine perforation (2/1000 insertions)

530
Q

Describe a vasectomy

A

Vas deferens interrupted to prevent sperm entering ejaculate. Performed under local anaesthetic. Must confirm success by post operative semen analysis to confirm no sperm (approx 12-16wks after surgery)

531
Q

Describe female sterilisation

A

Tubal ligation/clipping
Fallopian tubes cut or blocked to stop ovum travelling from the ovary to the uterus. Can be done under local or general anaesthetic.

532
Q

Give some advantages of sterilisation

A

Permanent

No hormonal side effects

533
Q

Give some disadvantages of sterilisation

A

Male failure rate 1/2000
Female failure rate 2-5/1000
Should not be chosen if in any doubt about having children in the future

534
Q

Define infertility

A

Failure of contraception in a couple having regular unprotected coitus for one year

535
Q

What is the general fertility rate?

A

80% of couples will be pregnant after 12 cycles with regular unprotected coitus

536
Q

What is primary infertility?

A

No previous pregnancy

537
Q

What is secondary infertility?

A

Previous pregnancy, successful or not

538
Q

What is the rate of infertility?

A

Approx 1 in 7 couples may have difficulty in conceiving

Approx 3.5 million people in the U.K.

539
Q

What is important in the history of a female with infertility?

A

Age, duration of infertility, menstrual cycle (length and predictability of cycle), age of menarche. Tubal or pelvic surgery, PID, menorrhagia, pelvic pain, sexual history (STI)

540
Q

What is important in the history of a male with infertility?

A

General health, alcohol/smoking, previous surgery to testis, drug history, previous infections, sexual dysfunction

541
Q

What would be important in the examination of someone with infertility?

A

BMI, signs of secondary sexual characteristics, galactorrhoea, pelvic examination - feel for structural abnormalities.
Don’t usually perform a male examination in the absence of relevant history. Potentially look at testicular size and check for descent.

542
Q

How often do male factors cause infertility?

A

Approx 30%

543
Q

How often do ovulatory disorders cause infertility?

A

Approx 25%

544
Q

How often does tubal damage cause infertility?

A

Approx 20%

545
Q

How often does uterine or peritoneal disease cause infertility?

A

Approx 10%

546
Q

How often is infertility unexplained/other things?

A

Approx 25%

547
Q

What male factors might cause infertility?

A

Varicocele
Abnormal sperm production (e.g. Testicular disease)
Hypothalamic/pituitary dysfunction
Ductal obstruction (post infective epididymitis, post vasectomy, scarring)
Failure to deliver sperm to vagina (hypospadias, impotence)
Idiopathic digospermia (not enough sperm, most common)

548
Q

What are the 3 groups into which ovulatory disorders can be classed?

A

Hypothalamic pituitary failure
Hypothalimic pituitary ovarian dysfunction
Ovarian failure

549
Q

What is polycystic ovary syndrome?

A

Syndrome consisting of polycystic ovaries and systemic features resulting from elevated androgens. Unknown pathophysiology, but appears to have a genetic component.
Increased androgen secretion
Raised LH/FSH ratio
Insulin resistance
Multiple small ovarian cysts
Anovulation - amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea

550
Q

What are the clinical features of polycystic ovarian syndrome?

A
Hirsuitism (abnormal hair growth)
Acne
Obesity
Male pattern baldness
Oligomenorrhoea
Psychological Sx e.g. Mood swings, depression, anxiety
551
Q

What are the Rotterdam diagnostic criteria for polycystic ovarian syndrome?

A

2/3 of the following

  • Polycystic ovaries (12 or more follicles on ultrasound)
  • Oligo-ovulation of anovulation
  • Clinical and/of biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism
  • Exclusion of other causes of androgen excess
552
Q

What might cause tubal damage (resulting in infertility)?

A

Past pelvic infection e.g. Chlamydia, previous pregnancies, pelvic surgery, endometriosis, müllerian developmental anomaly

553
Q

What might cause uterine or peritoneal disease resulting in infertility?

A

Endometriosis, Ashermans syndrome, uterine fibroids (impacts implantation), cervical stenosis, cervical hostility due to infection or female sperm antibodies

554
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

The presence of endometrial tissue in sites other than the uterine cavity. Most commonly the pelvic cavity. 10-15% of women.

555
Q

What are the clinical features of endometriosis?

A

Dysmenorrhoea, dyspaurenumia, chronic pelvic pain, infertility

556
Q

What other factors might contribute to female infertility?

A

Idiopathic, poorly controlled diabetes, coital problems, multifactorial in 5-10% of cases

557
Q

When would you refer a woman for further investigations about infertility?

A

A woman of reproductive age who has not conceived after 1 yr of unprotected vaginal sex, in the absence of any known cause of infertility.
A woman of reproductive age who is using artificial insemination to conceive who has not conceived after 6 cycles of treatment, in the absence of any known cause of infertility.
Early referral for woman over 36yrs, or a known clinical cause of infertility, or a history of predisposing factors for infertility.

558
Q

What investigations might you do for an infertile woman?

A
Follicular phase LH, FSH (day 2)
Luteal phase progesterone (day 21) if ovulating regularly
Prolactin, androgens, TFTs
Cervical smear
Pelvic USS
Tests of tubal patency
559
Q

What investigations might you do for an infertile male?

A
Sperm analysis, sperm count, motility ect
Antisperm antibodies
FSH/LH/testosterone
USS
Karyotype
Cystic fibrosis
Testicular biopsy
560
Q

Describe a normal semen analysis

A
Volume: over 2ml
pH: 7.2-7.8
Sperm count: over 20 million
Motility: over 50%
Morphology: over 50%
561
Q

What management might you do for infertility cause by lack of ovulation?

A

Induction of ovulation, clonifene citrate, gonadotrophins, GnRH agonists, weight loss/gain, dopamine agonists, ovum donation

562
Q

What management might you do for infertility caused by tubal occlusion?

A

Surgery (re-anastomosis), assisted conception

563
Q

What management might you do for infertility caused by male factors?

A

Artificial insemination by donor, intracytoplasmic sperm, injection, GnRH agonists, dopamine agonists

564
Q

What takes precendence in very early embryonic development?

A

Development of the placenta

565
Q

What occurs in the 2nd embryologically week (the week of 2s)?

A

Outer cell mass to cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast

Inner cell mass to hypoblast and epiblast

566
Q

What are the 2 cavities of the embryo at the end of the second week?

A

Amniotic cavity and yolk sac

567
Q

Describe implantation

A

Is interstitial. The uterine epithelium is breached and the conceptus implants within the stroma. The placental membrane becomes progressively thinner as the needs of the foetus increase. The human placenta is haemomonochorial - one layer of trophoblast ultimately separates maternal blood from feral capillary wall

568
Q

What are the aims of embryonic implantation?

A

Anchor the placenta - establishment of the outermost cytotrophoblast shell
Establish maternal blood flow within the placenta
Establish the basic unit of exchange
- Primary villi: early finger like projections of trophoblast
- Secondary villi: invasion of mesenchyme into cord
- Tertiary villi: invasion of mesenchyme core. By foetal vessels

569
Q

Describe the basic unit of exchange established prior to the placenta

A

Establish the basic unit of exchange

  • Primary villi: early finger like projections of trophoblast
  • Secondary villi: invasion of mesenchyme into cord
  • Tertiary villi: invasion of mesenchyme core. By foetal vessels
570
Q

Describe the histology of the endometrium at the very start of pregnancy

A

The endometrium is prepared for implantation ‘pre-decidual’ cells. Elaboration of spiral arterial blood supply.

571
Q

What does decidualisation do?

A

The decidual reaction provides the balancing force for the invasive force of the trophoblast

572
Q

When is there errors in decidualisation?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

Condition characterised by excessive invasion

573
Q

Describe the purpose of the remodelling of the spiral arteries during implantation

A

Creation of new low resistance vascular bed. Maintains high flow required to meet feral demand - particularly late in. Gestation

574
Q

List some implantation defects

A

Invasion incomplete, placental insufficiency, pre-eclampsia

575
Q

When is the final disc shape of the placenta achieved?

A

Week 12

576
Q

Describe how the degree to which membranes are share in monozygotic twins can vary

A

2 amnions and 2 chorion
2 amnions, but the same choirion
Amnions and chorion are both shared

577
Q

Describe the 1st trimester placenta

A

Placenta is established
Placental ‘barrier’ is still relatively thick
Complete cytotrophoblast layer beneath syncytiotrophoblast

578
Q

Describe the term placenta

A

Surface area for exchange dramatically increased. Placental ‘barrier’ is now thin. Cytotrophoblast layer beneath syncytiotrophoblast lost.

579
Q

What occurs to the placenta during pregnancy?

A

Thinning of the ‘placental barrier’

580
Q

Describe the umbilical blood supply

A

2 umbilical arteries - deoxygenated blood from fetes to placenta
1 umbilical vein - oxygenated blood from placenta to to foetus

581
Q

What is the function of the placenta?

A

Metabolic, endocrine, exchange of substances

582
Q

Describe the placentas metabolic role

A

Placental synthesis of glycogen, cholesterol, and fatty acids

583
Q

Describe the placentas endocrine role

A

Placental production of hormones
Steroid - progesterone, oestrogen
Protein - human chorionic gonadotrophin, hCG, human chorionic somatomammotrophin, human chorionic thyrotrophin, human chorionic corticotrophin

584
Q

When is HCG produced?

A

During the first 2 months of pregnancy

585
Q

What does hCG do?

A

Supports the secretory function of the corpus luteum.

586
Q

What produces hCG?

A

The syncytiotrophoblast, therefore is pregnancy specific

587
Q

What is the basis for urine pregnancy testing?

A

hCG, produced by the syncytiotrophoblast, therefore is pregnancy specific, and is excreted in maternal urine.

588
Q

What might cause trophoblast disease?

A
Molar pregnancy (hydatidiform mole)
Choriocarcinoma
589
Q

What is the function of the placental steroid hormones?

A

Progesterone and oestrogen. Responsible for maintaining the pregnant state.

590
Q

When does placental production of steroid hormones take over form the corpus luteum?

A

By the 11th week

591
Q

What effect does placental progesterone have on maternal metabolism?

A

Increases appetite

592
Q

What effect does placental hCS/hPL have on maternal metabolism?

A

Increases glucose availability to foetus

593
Q

How does transport take place in the placenta?

A

Simple diffusion - molecules moving down a conc gradient (waters electrolytes, urea and uric acid, gases)
Facilitated diffusion - applies to glucose transport

594
Q

Describe gas exchange in the placenta

A

Simple diffusion. Flow-limited, not diffusion limited. Fatal O2 stores small, so maintenance of adequate flow essential. Adequate uteroplacental circulation required.

595
Q

Describe active transport within the placenta

A

Specific ‘transporters’ expressed by the syncytiotrophoblast- iron, amino acids, vitamins

596
Q

Describe passive immunity in the fetus

A

Feral immune system is immature, receptor-mediated process, maturing as pregnancy progresses. Immunoglobulin class-specific , IgG only. IgG concentrations in foetal plasma exceed those in maternal circulation

597
Q

What things might go wrong with regards to transport across the placenta?

A

The placenta is not a true ‘barrier’
Teratogens access the fetus via the placenta
Unintentional outcomes from physiological process

598
Q

What is a teratogenic substance?

A

One which can disturbs the development of the fetus

599
Q

What antibody transport dysfunction may occur across the placenta?

A

Haemolytic disease of the newborn. Rhesus blood group incompatibility of mother an fetus. Uncommon now due to prophylactic treatment.

600
Q

List some infectious agents which might effect the placenta/fetus

A
Varicella zoster
Cytomegalovirus
Treponema pallidum
Toxoplasma gondii 
Rubella
601
Q

What is being looked for in antenatal screening?

A

History and examination. Risk factors e.g. For gestational diabetes. Blood test - blood group, haemoglobin, infection. Urinalysis - protein

602
Q

Describe the physiological cardiovascular changes seen in pregnancy

A

Blood volume increases, CO, SV and HR all increase. BP is never normally increased, hypotension can occur in T1 and T2

603
Q

What happens to CO during pregnancy?

A

Increases by approx 40% from T1

604
Q

What happens to SV during pregnancy?

A

Increases by approx 35% from T1

605
Q

What happens to HR during pregnancy?

A

Increases by approx 15% from T1

606
Q

What happens to systemic vascular resistance during pregnancy?

A

Decreases by approx 25-30% from T1

607
Q

What happens to BP during pregnancy?

A

Decreases in T1 and T2. Returns to normal in T3

608
Q

Describe changes to BP during pregnancy

A

Systolic BP is never normally increased in pregnancy. Hypotension in T1 and T2 (progesterone effects on SVR). In T3 aortocaval compression by gravid uterus

609
Q

Describe changes to endothelium in pregnancy

A

Controls vascular permeability. Contributes to the control of vascular tone. Vasodilation of pregnancy.

610
Q

What is pre-eclampsia?

A

In a normal pregnancy, vasodilated, plasma-expanded. In pre-eclampsia pregnancy vasoconstricted, plasma contracted. Defect in placentation poor uteroplacental circulation. Wide spread endothelial dysfunction

611
Q

Outline urinary system changes in pregnancy

A

Glomerular filtration rate increases. Renal plasma flow increases. Filtration capacity intact. Functional renal reserve decreases as GFR increases.

612
Q

Describe what happens to urinary RPF in pregnancy

A

Increases by 60-80%

613
Q

Describe what happens to urinary GFR in pregnancy

A

Increases by 55%

614
Q

Describe what happens to urinary creatinine clearance in pregnancy

A

Increases by 40-50%

615
Q

Describe what happens to urinary protein excretion in pregnancy

A

Increases by up to 300mg/24hrs

616
Q

Describe what happens to urinary urea values in pregnancy

A

Decreases by 50% (approx 3.1mmol/l)

617
Q

Describe what happens to urinary uric acid in pregnancy

A

Decreases by 33%, but rises with gestation

618
Q

Describe what happens to urinary bicarbonate in pregnancy

A

Decreases by 18-22mmol/l

619
Q

Describe what happens to urinary creatinine in pregnancy

A

Decreases by 25-75 umol/l

620
Q

What are the possible consequences of the changes to the urinary system during pregnancy?

A

Urinary stasis - progesterone effect on urinary collecting system (hydroureter). Obstruction
UTI - pyelonephritis - pre term labour

621
Q

What effect can progesterone have on the urinary collecting system?

A

Urinary stasis - progesterone effect on urinary collecting system (hydroureter). Obstruction

622
Q

Outline the changes to the respiratory system during pregnancy

A

Anatomical. Diaphragm displaced. AP and transverse diameters of thorax increase. Physiological changes.

623
Q

What are the consequences of the changes to the respiratory system during pregnancy?

A

Decreased functional capacity
Vital capacity unchanged, total lung capacity approx unchanged
Increased minute and alveolar ventilation
Increased tidal volume, RR unchanged

624
Q

Describe the overall respiratory changes that occur in pregnancy

A

Physiological hyperventilation
- Increased respiratory drive effect of progesterone
- Increased metabolic CO2 production
- Resulting in respiratory alkalosis, compensated by increased renal bicarbonate excretion.
Physiological dyspnoea - due to progesterone, driven by hyperventilation

625
Q

What happens to O2 consumption during pregnancy?

A

Increases by 20%

626
Q

What happens to testing minute ventilation during pregnancy?

A

Increases by 15%

627
Q

What happens to tidal volume during pregnancy?

A

Increases

628
Q

What happens to respiratory rate during pregnancy?

A

Unchanged

629
Q

What happens to functional residual capacity during pregnancy?

A

Decreases in T3

630
Q

What happens to vital capacity in pregnancy?

A

Unchanged

631
Q

What happens to FEV1 during pregnancy?

A

Unchanged

632
Q

What happens to PaO2 during pregnancy?

A

Increases

633
Q

What happens to PaCO2 during pregnancy?

A

Decreases

634
Q

Describe what happens to carbohydrate metabolism during pregnancy

A

Placental transport of glucose - facilitated diffusion. Pregnacny increases maternal peripheral insulin resistance. Switches to gluconeogenesis and alternative fuels. Achieved by human placental lactogen. Also prolactin, oestrogen/progesterone, cortisol.

635
Q

What happens to blood glucose during pregnancy?

A

Decrease in fasting blood glucose. Increase in post-prandial blood glucose.

636
Q

What is in gestational diabetes?

A

Carbohydrate intolerance first recognised in pregnancy and not persisting after delivery. Risks associated with poor control - macrosomic fetus, stillbirth, increased rate of congenital defects. Oral glucose tolerance test required.

637
Q

What are the risks associated with poorly controlled gestational diabetes?

A

Risks associated with poor control - macrosomic fetus, stillbirth, increased rate of congenital defects. Oral glucose tolerance test required.

638
Q

What happens to lipid metabolism during pregnancy?

A

Increase in lipolysis from T2. Increase in plasma free fatty acids on fasting. Free fatty acids provide substrate for maternal metabolism leaving glucose for fetus.

639
Q

What happens to the thyroid during pregnancy?

A

Thyroid binding globulin production increased. T3 and T4 increased. Free T4 in normal range. hCG direct effect on thyroid stimulating thyroid hormone production. TSH can be decreased in normal pregnancies.

640
Q

What anatomically happens to the GI system during pregnancy?

A

Alterations in the disposition of the viscera, e.g. The appendix moves to the RUQ as uterus enlarges

641
Q

What physiologically happens to the GI system during pregnancy?

A

Smooth muscle relaxation by progesterone. GI delayed emptying. Biliary tract stasis. Pancreas increased risk of pancreatitis.

642
Q

Describe the changes in haematology which occur in pregnancy

A

Pregnancy is a pro thrombotic state. ++ fibrin deposition at the implantation site. Increased fibrinogen and clotting factors. Reduced fibrinolysis. Added to this, stasis, venodilation.

643
Q

What are the consequences of the haematological changes which occur in pregnancy?

A

Thromboembolic disease in pregnancy, but warfarin crosses the placenta and is teratogenic (disturbs development of fetus)

644
Q

Discuss anaemia in pregnancy

A

Plasma volume increases, red cell mass increases, but not by as much. Psyiological anaemia. However, anaemia due to Fe- and folate deficiency can occur. Also haemoglobinopathies

645
Q

What happens to the immune system during pregnancy?

A

Fetus is an allograft. Non specific suppression of the local immune response at the maternal feral interface. Transfer of antibodies, haemolytic disease. Graves’ disease and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

646
Q

What is bypassed in feral circulation?

A

Right ventricle and lungs

Liver

647
Q

What happens again the placenta?

A

Maternal feral exchange

648
Q

What blood vessels ar associated with the placenta?

A

Umbilical arteries, umbilical veins, gets lost capillaries, (within chorionic villi), uterine arteries, uterine veins,

649
Q

What blood vessel carries the oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus?

A

Umbilical vein

650
Q

What blood vessel carries the deoxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus?

A

Umbilical arteries

651
Q

What happens to the diffusion barrier in the placenta as the pregnancy proceeds?

A

Decreases as pregnancy proceeds

652
Q

Approx what value is feral pO2?

A

Low, approx 4kPa compared to normal adult value of 11-13 kPa

653
Q

What factors increase fetal O2 content?

A

Fetal haemaglobin variant
Fetal haematocrit is increased over that in the adult
Double Bohr effect
Increase maternal production of 2,3 DPG (secondary to physiological respiratory alkalosis of pregnancy)

654
Q

What causes maternal Increase maternal production of 2,3 DPG during pregnancy ?

A

Secondary to physiological respiratory alkalosis of pregnancy

655
Q

Describe the composition of fetal haemoglobin

A

HbF
2 alphas subunits + 2 gamma subunits
Greater affinity for O2 as it doesn’t bind 2,3 DPG as effectively as HbA

656
Q

What is the benefit of fetal haemoglobin HbF?

A

Greater affinity for O2 as it doesn’t bind 2,3 DPG as effectively as HbA

657
Q

When does fetal haemoglobin HbF form ?

A

Predominant form from weeks 12-term is HbF

658
Q

What is the double Bohr effect in the placenta?

A

Speeds up the process of O2 transfer. As CO2 passes into intervillous blood, pH decreases (Bohr effect), so decreasing maternal affinity for O2. At the same time, as CO2 is lost, pH rises (Bohr effect), so increasing affinity of fetal Hb for O2.

659
Q

What causes maternal hyperventilation in pregnancy?

A

Progesterone driven. Maternal physiological adaptation to pregnancy.

660
Q

What is the benefit of hyperventilation in pregnancy?

A

Lower pCO2 in maternal blood, aiding concentration gradient with fetus. As Hb gives up O2, it can accept increasing amounts of CO2. Fetus gives up CO2 as O2 is accepted. No alterations in local pCO2.

661
Q

What is the double Haldane effect?

A

As Hb gives up O2, it can accept increasing amounts of CO2. Fetus gives up CO2 as O2 is accepted. No alterations in local pCO2.

662
Q

What are the major fetal circulatory shunts?

A

Ductus venosus - bypasses liver
Ductus arteriosus - bypasses lungs
Foramen ovale - bypasses right ventricle and lungs

663
Q

What does the ductus venosus do?

A

Connects umbilical vein carrying oxygenated blood to IVC. Blood enters right atrium. By ensuring shunting of blood around liver, saturation is mostly maintained (drops from 70% to 65%)

664
Q

Describe the function of the free border of the septum secundum in the foramen ovale

A

Forms a crest (cresta dividens). This creates streams of blood flow, the majority of which flows into left atrium (minor proportion flows to right ventricle, mixing with deoxygenated blood from SVC)

665
Q

Why is the foramen ovale open in the fetus?

A

Right atrial pressure is greater than left atrial pressure. Forces leaves of FO apart, so blood flows into left atrium.

666
Q

What are the features of the fetal left atrium?

A

Small amount of pulmonary venous return (deoxygenated). Blood reaching left atrium has saturation of approx 60%. Pumped by LV to aorta. Heart and brain get lions share of O2.

667
Q

What does the ductus arteriosus do?

A

Shunts blood from RV and PT to aorta. Joins aorta distal to supply to head and heart. Minimises drop in O2 saturation.

668
Q

Describe the fetal adaptations to manage transient decreases in oxygen

A

HbF and increased Hb conc
Redistribution of flow to protect supply to heart and brain (reducing supply to GIT, kidneys, limbs)
Fetal heart rate slows in response to hypoxia to reduce O2 demand
Fetal chemoreceptors detecting decreased pO2 or increased pCO2 (vagal stimulation leading to bradycardia, opposite of adult where vagal stimulation leads to tachycardia)

669
Q

What can chronic hypoxia cause in a fetus?

A
Growth restriction
Behavioural changes (impact on development)
670
Q

What are the hormones necessary for fetal growth?

A

Insulin
IGF1 and 2
IGF1 nutrient independent, dominant in 1st trimester
IGF2 nutrient dependent, dominates in T2 and T3
Leptin
EGF, TGFalpha

671
Q

When do the different IGFs appear in pregnancy?

A

IGF1 nutrient independent, dominant in 1st trimester

IGF2 nutrient dependent, dominates in T2 and T3

672
Q

What effects can malnutrition have on fetal growth?

A

Malnutrition can cause symmetrical or asymmetrical growth restriction. Nutrition and hormonal status during fetal life can influence health later in life, mechanisms not well understood

673
Q

What are the dominant cellular growth mechanisms in fetal growth, when?

A

Hyperplasia 0-20wks
Hyperplasia and hypertrophy 20-28wks
Hypertrophy 28wks-term

674
Q

Approx what volume of amniotic fluid is there at 8wks?

A

Approx 10ml

675
Q

Approx what volume of amniotic fluid is there at 38wks?

A

1 litre

676
Q

What does amniotic fluid do?

A

Protects fetus and contributes to development of lungs and GI tract

677
Q

What primarily produces amniotic fluid?

A

Fetal urinary tract. Urine production by 9wks. Up to 800ml/day in T3. Effects lungs, GI tract, and also placenta and fetal membranes (intramembranous pathway)

678
Q

What is amniotic fluid constituted of?

A

98% water

Also electrolytes, creatinine, urea, bile pigments, renin, glucose, hormones, fetal cells, lanugo, and vernix caseosa

679
Q

What is meconium?

A

First opening of bowls. Contains debris from amniotic fluid (that which is not reabsorbed) plus intestinal secretions, including bile (GREEN)

680
Q

What is amniocentesis?

A

Sampling of amniotic fluid. Allows for collection of fetal cells, useful diagnostic test e.g. Fetal karyotyping. BUT is invasive, so poses risk.

681
Q

How is fetal bilirubin metabolism managed?

A

During gestation, clearance of fetal bilirubin is handled efficiently by the placenta. Fetus can’t conjugate bilirubin. Immaturity of liver and intestinal processes for metabolism, conjugation and excretion. Physiological jaundice common.

682
Q

Why are germ cells separated from the somatic cell line so early in development?

A

Germ cells need to remain undifferentiated and protected from influences arising during development of the rest of the body.

683
Q

What tissue forms the matrix of the gonads into which the primordial germ cells migrate?

A

Somatic mesenchymal tissue

684
Q

Which gene on the short arm of the Y chromosome determines the formation of the testis?

A

SRY

685
Q

What is true/primary hermaphroditism?

A

Both ovarian and testicular tissue present at birth

686
Q

Where does mullerian inhibitory substance come from?

A

Secreted by Sertoli cells

687
Q

What structures do the Müllerian ducts develop into?

A

Uterine tubes, uterus, cervix, upper vagina

688
Q

What structures do the Wolffian ducts develop into?

A

Epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles

689
Q

What does the urogenital sinus form in the male?

A

Prostate

690
Q

What does the urogenital sinus form in the female?

A

Lower part of the vagina

691
Q

What is parturition?

A

The scientific term used to describe the transition from the pregnant state to the non-pregnant state at the end of gestation (I.e. Birth). Expulsion of the products of conception after 24 weeks.

692
Q

What is labour?

A

The non-scientific term used to describe parturition when both the cervix and uterus have been remodelled. Often used instead of ‘parturition’ because lay people also use it, however labour is only a part of parturition.

693
Q

When should parturition occur?

A

Expulsion of the products of conception after 24 weeks.

694
Q

When might ‘labour’ be classed as ‘spontaneous abortion’

A

Before 24 weeks

695
Q

When might delivery be considered pre-term?

A

Before 36 completed weeks

696
Q

When is delivery considered to be ‘term’

A

Between 37 and 42 weeks

697
Q

When is delivery considered post-term?

A

More than 42 weeks

698
Q

Outline the stages of labour

A

1st stage - creation of the birth canal
2nd stage - expulsion of fetus
3rd stage - expulsion of placenta. Contraction of uterus.

699
Q

By when is the uterus palpable?

A

Approx 12 weeks

700
Q

When does the uterus reach the umbilicus in the pregnant woman?

A

Approx 20wks

701
Q

When does the uterus reach the xiphisternum in the pregnant woman?

A

Approx 36wks

702
Q

What is the ‘lie’ of a fetus, as assessed towards the end of pregnancy?

A

The relationship to long axis of uterus. Normally longitudinal. Fetus normally flexed.

703
Q

What is the ‘presentation’ of a fetus, as assessed towards the end of pregnancy?

A

Which part of fetus is adjacent to pelvic inlet. Normally the head (cephalic), but sometimes buttocks (podalic).

704
Q

What is the ‘vertex’ of a fetus, as assessed towards the end of pregnancy?

A

The relationship of the fetus along axis (orientation of presenting part). Most commonly longitudinal lie, cephalic presentation. Vertex to pelvic inlet at minimum diameter.

705
Q

What determines the maximum size of the birth canal?

A

The pelvis

706
Q

What is required to create the birth canal?

A

Structural changes and a lot of force.

707
Q

How does cervical ripening occur?

A

Cervix collagen in proteoglycan matrix. Ripening involves reduction in collagen, increase in glycosaminoglycans. Increases in hyaluronic acid. Reduced aggregation of collagen fibres. Triggered by prostaglandins PGE2 and PGF2a.
Enzymatic degradation, hormonal influences.

708
Q

How is myometrium triggered to contract?

A

Spontaneously by ‘pacemaker’ cells. Force when intracellular Ca2+ conc rises due to action potentials.

709
Q

Describe uterine contractions in early pregnancy

A

Low amplitude, approx every 30 min

710
Q

Describe uterine contractions in mid pregnancy

A

Less frequent than ‘real’ contractions. Higher amplitude. ‘Braxon-Hicks’ contractions.

711
Q

Describe uterine contractions in early labour

A

Variable but higher amplitude

712
Q

Describe uterine contractions in late pregnancy

A

More frequent and higher amplitude

713
Q

What effect does prostaglandins have on contractions in parturition?

A

More Ca2+ per action potential

714
Q

What effect does oxytocin have on contractions in parturition?

A

More action potentials (lower threshold)

715
Q

What are prostaglandins?

A

Biologically active lipids. ‘Local hormones’. Produced mainly in myometrium and decidua. Production controlled by oestrogen progesterone ratio.

716
Q

What conc of prostaglandins are there if there is low (progesterone > oestrogen) ratio?

A

Low prostaglandins

717
Q

What conc of prostaglandins are there if there is high (progesterone < oestrogen) ratio?

A

Increased prostaglandins

718
Q

What is the result of a relative fall in progesterone in a pregnant lady?

A

Increases prostaglandins, ripens cervix, promotes uterine contractions

719
Q

Where is oxytocin secreted from?

A

Posterior pituitary. Controlled by hypothalamus. Increased by afferent impulses from cervix and vagina - ‘ferguson reflex’. Acts on smooth muscle receptors. More receptors if oestrogen : progesterone ratio is high

720
Q

What controls oxytocin release?

A

Controlled by hypothalamus. Increased by afferent impulses from cervix and vagina - ‘ferguson reflex’.

721
Q

Where does oxytocin act?

A

Acts on smooth muscle receptors of uterine smooth muscle. More receptors if oestrogen : progesterone ratio is high

722
Q

What is the onset of labour?

A

More prostaglandins, cervix ripens. Uterus contractions more forceful.

723
Q

Describe the onset of labour, brachystasis

A

Uterus relaxes less than it contracts. Fibres shorten in body of uterus, drives presenting part to cervix. A ‘ratcheting’ system is created.

724
Q

Describe the changes in the cervix at the end stages of pregnancy

A

Cervix thins and flattens, ‘effacement’. Ferguson reflex stimulates oxytocin release (contractions more forceful and more frequent). Cervix begins to dilate. Rupture of the amnion ‘breaking of the waters’

725
Q

What has occurred by the end of stage 1 of labour?

A

Cervix dilated to 10cm, may take several hours.

726
Q

Describe the initiation of labour

A

Prostaglandins promote labour, but mechanisms unclear. Evidence surfactant protein A by fetal lungs causes prostaglandins production in the myometrium

727
Q

How long does the second stage of labour generally last?

A

Up to 1hr

728
Q

What occurs in the second stage of labour?

A

Urge to ‘bear down’ and ‘push’ initiated. Presenting part appears in the birth canal.

729
Q

If presenting part in the birth canal is the top of the head, what is the correct term?

A

‘Crowning’

730
Q

If presenting part in the birth canal is the buttocks, shoulder, or knee what is the correct term?

A

‘Breech position’

731
Q

If presenting part in the birth canal is the foot, what is the correct term?

A

‘Footling breach’

732
Q

Describe the motion of the head during birth

A

Initially head flexes and rotates internally. Stretches vagina and perineum (risk of tearing). Once head is delivered, head rotates and extends

733
Q

When is the second stage of labour complete?

A

Shoulders rotate and deliver. Followed rapidly by rest of the neonate.

734
Q

What occurs in the third stage of labour?

A

Effect of uterine contractions dramatically increased by expulsion of fetus. Uterus contracts down hard. Shears off placenta and expels it. Normally occurs within 10 mins.

735
Q

Why is underline contractions post birth important?

A

Compresses blood vessels to reduce haemorrhage. Enhanced by giving oxytocic drug (also manual fundal massage if needed)

736
Q

What occurs during stage 0 of labour?

A

Braxon-Hicks contractions
Oestrogen : progesterone ratio changes, produces increased prostaglandins. Fetus moves and causes local uterine stretch. Myometrium contracts slightly.

737
Q

What happens during stage 1 of labour?

A

Ferguson reflex initiated
Produces increased local prostaglandins. Myometrium
contracts slightly more. Fetal head positions over internal os of cervix, and causes local stretch. Ferguson reflex gains pace. Oestrogen : progesterone changes continue. Produces local increase in collagenases, cervical ripening. More prostaglandins. Myometrium contracts slightly more. Fetal head pushes on cervix and causes dilation and effacement.

738
Q

Describe what happens during stage 2 of labour

A

‘True’ contractions start. Myometrium contracts harder. More forceful and frequent. Fetal membranes rupture. Mother has urge to ‘bear down’ and ‘push’. Fetal head enters birth canal and rotates, shoulders then rotate. Fetus is delivered

739
Q

Describe what occurs in stage 3 of labour

A

Oestrogen : progesterone changes continue
Ferguson reflex produces even more oxytocin. Myometrium contracts really hard, reducing blood to uterus. Neonate has umbilical cord clamped. Placenta and fetal membranes delivered. Spiral arteries in the myometrium are clamped shut. Prevents post-natal haemorrhage.

740
Q

What stimulates neonate to take 1st breath?

A

Many things, trauma, cold, light, noise.

741
Q

What does clamping the umbilical cord cause?

A

Closure of the ductus venosus

742
Q

What does taking the first breath cause?

A

Reduced pulmonary vascular resistance, increase arterial pO2. Blood flows into lungs and becomes oxygenated. Net drop in pressure on the right side of the heart, higher pressure in left atrium closes foramen ovale.
Pressure imbalance results in a temporary reversal of flow through the ductus arteriosus and its muscle wall contracts in response to increased pO2, closing it.

743
Q

What closes the ductus arteriosus?

A

Pressure imbalance as a result of first breath results in a temporary reversal of flow through the ductus arteriosus and its muscle wall contracts in response to increased pO2, closing it.

744
Q

What are the main points in the establishment of independent life?

A

Placenta cut or clamped, ductus venosus closes
Left atrial pressure exceeds right, foramen ovale closes
Ductus arteriosus contracts in response to raised pO2 (normally closes)
Fetal circulation converts to adult circulation

745
Q

What are the 3Ps for parturition?

A

Power, passage, passenger

746
Q

What effect does progesterone have upon contraction in parturition?

A

Inhibits contraction

747
Q

What effect does oxytocin have on muscles of parturition?

A

Increases excitability

748
Q

What hormones does the fetus produce during labour?

A

Glucocorticoids - to placenta, inhibit progesterone

Also produce oxytocin

749
Q

What effects do prostaglandins have during parturition?

A

Powerful contractors of smooth muscle and are also involved in cervical softening
Increased oestrogen : progesterone ratio and mechanical damage stimulates prostaglandin synthesis
Placenta, decidua, myometrium and membranes can all synthesise prostaglandins
Increased synthesis of prostaglandins by amnion in 3rd trimester.
Levels of prostaglandins is amniotic fluid rise very early in labour

750
Q

What causes cervical ripening?

A

Cervical ripening is due to oestrogen, relaxin and prostaglandins breaking down connective tissue

751
Q

What effects does oxytocin have during parturition?

A

Initiates uterine contractions
Action inhibited in pregnancy by progesterone, relaxin and low number of oxytocin receptors
Pregnancy increases the number of gap junctions to aid communication between muscle cells (coordinates effective uterine activity)
Approx 36 wks, increase in number of oxytocin receptors in myometrium, therefore uterus can respond to pulsatile release of oxytocin from posterior pituitary gland.

752
Q

Describe the special properties of myometrial muscle

A

Myometrial muscle does not return to its original size. Permanent partial shortening of the muscle fibres. Contraction and retention.

753
Q

Describe the changes in the cervix as pregnancy progresses

A

Increasing levels of relaxin during pregnancy causes changes in cervix, collagen : ground substance ratio. Enzymes degrade collagen. Occurs over a period of weeks, evident from weeks 36-40. In labour cervix offers less resistance to presenting part. Known as effacement and dilatation.

754
Q

Describe the changes to the pelvic floor, vagina and perineum in the latter stages of pregnancy

A

Stretching of the fibres of the levator ani and the thinning of the central portion of the perineum transforms to almost transparent mucous structure

755
Q

Describe the 1st stage of labour

A

Interval between the onset of labour and full cervical dilation.
Latent phase - onset of labour with slow cervical dilation to approx 4 cm and variable duration
Active phase - faster rate of cervical change, 1-1.2 cm/hr. regular uterine contractions

756
Q

What occurs to the placenta once the baby has been born?

A

Marked reduction on size of uterus due to powerful contraction and retraction. Size of placental site therefore reduced (up to half before separation begins). Inelastic placenta is squeezed by contraction.

757
Q

Describe what happens to the placental bloodflow once the fetus has been delivered

A

Blood in intervillous space forced back into veins of spongy layer of decidua basilis. Veins become tense and congested, and kept under pressure by underlying muscle layer of uterus. Blood can’t drain back into maternal bloodstream as uterus has retracted and doesn’t allow it.

758
Q

Describe the main factors controlling bleeding post partum

A

Powerful contraction/retraction of uterus, espicially action of interlacing muscle fibres (‘living ligature’) which constrict blood vessels running through the myometrium.
Pressure exerted on placental site by walls of contracted uterus (apposition - once placenta and membranes delivered)
Blood clotting mechanism (sinuses and torn vessels)

759
Q

What are mammary glands?

A

Glands embedded in breast tissue. 15-24 lobulated masses of tissue, with fibrous and adipose tissue in between.

760
Q

Describe how breasts appear

A

At birth, only a few ducts present. At puberty, ducts sprout and branch (in males this is prevented by androgen excess and testosterone). Alveoli being development.

761
Q

What is mammogenesis?

A

Preparation of breasts

762
Q

What is lactogenesis?

A

Synthesis and secretion from the breast alveoli

763
Q

What is galactokinesis?

A

Ejection of milk

764
Q

What is galactopoiesis?

A

Maintenance of lactation

765
Q

Describe the changes in breasts during pregnancy (mammogenesis)

A

Substantial further development. Hypertrophy of the ductular-lobular-alveolar system. Prominent lobules form. Alveolar cells differentiate. Capable of milk production from mid gestation (2nd trimester).
Towards end of pregnancy, nipple becomes erect. Areola enlarges. Montgomery tubercles form. Breast becomes more sensitive.
During pregnancy, little milk is secreted, favours growth not secretion. High progesterone/oestrogen ratio

766
Q

Outline how lactogenesis occurs

A

In alveolar cells. Fat in smooth ER. Protein secreted via Golgi apparatus. Sugars synthesised and secreted. Neutrophils and macrophages can also enter alveolar space (lumen), and so protect against bacterial infections.

767
Q

What is the product of lactogenesis called soon after birth?

A

Colostrum

768
Q

What is colostrum constituted of?

A

Less water, fat and sugar than milk produced later. More protein, particularly immunoglobulins (IgA, IgM, IgG) that coat intestinal mucosa, preventing bacteria from entering intestinal cells. WBC that kill microorganisms

769
Q

What is in ‘intermediate milk’ (approx 2 weeks after birth)

A

90% water, 7% sugar, 3% fat, proteins (lactalbumin, lactoglobulin, lactoferrin). Minerals and vitamins, endocannabinoids

770
Q

How is milk secretion controlled?

A

High progesterone and oestrogen in pregnancy stimulates breast tissue growth. Secretions allowed by fall in steroids. Promoted by prolactin.

771
Q

Outline the role of prolactin?

A

Secreted during and after feed to produce next feed (sensory impulse from nipples stimulated). More prolactin secreted at night, suppresses ovulation.
Polypeptide hormone, secreted by anterior pituitary gland. Controlled by dopamine from hypothalamus (inhibits). Factors promoting secretion of prolactin reduce dopamine secretion.

772
Q

Where is prolactin produced?

A

Polypeptide hormone, secreted by anterior pituitary gland. Controlled by dopamine from hypothalamus (inhibits). Factors promoting secretion of prolactin reduce dopamine secretion.

773
Q

How is secretion of prolactin stimulated?

A

Promoted by suckling, potent neuro-endocrine reflex. Suckling at one feed promotes prolactin release, which causes production of the next feed, which accumulates in alveoli and ducts

774
Q

When does milk production cease?

A

Ceases gradually if no suckling, tugor induced damage to secretory cells. Free feeding every 1-3hrs recommended. Ensure sufficient suckling at each feed.

775
Q

Describe galactokinesis (milk let down)

A

Milk is not sucked out, it is ejected out by a let down reflex. Myoepithelial cells curling alveoli. Contracted by oxytocin to squeeze milk out of the breast. Oxytocin released from posterior pituitary.

776
Q

Outline how glactopoeisis occurs

A

Oxytocin release a neuro-endocrine reflex, from suckling/expressing systems (anticipation of feeding)

777
Q

List some mechanisms that cause lactation to cease

A

Lost feedback - not enough suckling
Pain - increased turf or from non suckling infant or infection (mastitis)
Menstruation - changes in breast texture, breasts feel particularly ‘lumpy’
Suppression of prolactin - ergot preparation, diuretics, or retained placenta
Age - a gradual shrinking of the mammary glands (involution), typically begins around the age of 35

778
Q

List some reasons why breast feeding is good

A
Babies have fewer infections
Bonding (through release of oxytocin)
Reduced risk of breast and ovarian cancer later in life
Further contraction of uterus
Aids loss of weight induced by pregnancy
779
Q

What essentially is normal breast tissue?

A

Modified sweat glands. Non functional except during lactation

780
Q

What constitutes the prepubertal breast?

A

Few lobules (before puberty male and female breasts are identical)

781
Q

What constitutes the pubertal/menarche breast?

A

Increase in number of lobules, increased volume of interlobular stroma

782
Q

What occurs in the breast during the menstrual cycle?

A

Follicular phase lobules quiescent, after ovulation cell proliferation and stromal oedema, with menstruation see decrease in size of lobules

783
Q

What occurs in the breast during pregnancy?

A

Increase in size and number of lobules, decrease in stroma, secretory changes

784
Q

What occurs in the breast at cessation of lactation?

A

Atrophy of lobules, but not to former levels.

785
Q

What occurs in the breast with increasing age?

A

Terminal duct lobular units (TDLUs) decrease in number and size, interlobular stroma replaced by adipose tissue (mammograms easier to interpret)

786
Q

How might breast conditions present clinically?

A

Pain, palpable mass, nipple discharge, skin changes, lumpiness, mammographic abnormalities

787
Q

What might cyclical and diffuse pain suggest, as a presenting composing of breast conditions?

A

Often physiological

788
Q

List some possible causes of a palpable mass in the breast

A

Invasive carcinoma, fibroadenoma, cysts…

Most worrying if hard, craggy and fixed

789
Q

What could a milky discharge from the breast indicate?

A

Endocrine disorders e.g. Pituitary adenoma. Side effect of medication

790
Q

What might a bloody or serous discharge from the breast indicate?

A

Benign lesions e.g. Papilloma, duct ectasia, occasionally malignant lesions

791
Q

Who is legible for mammographic screening?

A

Older woman, 47-73yrs, invited every 3yrs. Worrying findings include densities and calcifications.

792
Q

What might mammographic densities be?

A

Invasive carcinomas, fibroadenoma cysts

793
Q

What might mammographic calcifications be?

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ DCIS, benign changes

794
Q

When do fibroadenomas generally present?

A

Can occur at any age during reproductive period. Most present over 30yrs. Most common benign tumour.

795
Q

When do phyllodes tumours generally present?

A

Most present in 6th decade

796
Q

When does breast cancer generally present?

A

Rare before 25yrs. Incidence increases with age.

797
Q

List some possible disorders of breast development

A

Milk line remnants, polythelia, accessory axillary breast tissue

798
Q

When might acute mastitis occur? What is it?

A

Almost always occurs during lactation. Usually staphylococcus aureus infection from nipple cracks and fissures. Erythematous painful breast, often pyrexia. May produce breast abscesses. Usually treated by expressing milk and antibiotics.

799
Q

How might fat necrosis of the breast present?

A

Presents as a mass, skin changes of mammographic abnormality. Often history of trauma or surgery. Can mimic carcinoma clinically and mammographically

800
Q

Describe fibrocystic change, benign epithelial lesion of the breast

A

Commonest breast lesion. May present as a mass or mammographic abnormality. Mass often disappears after fine needle aspiration FNA. Histology - cyst formation, fibrosis and apocrine metaplasia. Can mimic carcinoma clinically and mammographically

801
Q

List some stroma tumours of the breast

A

Fibroadenoma, phyllodes tumour, lipoma, leiomyoma, hamartoma

802
Q

How might fibroadenoma present?

A

Present with a mass (usually mobile), or mammographic abnormality (breast mouse - mobile and elusive). Macroscopically - well circumscribed, rubbery, greyish/white. Histology - composed of mixture of stroma and epithelial elements. Localised hyperplasia rather than a true neoplasm

803
Q

What is a ‘breast mouse’?

A

Fibroadenoma

804
Q

How might phyllodes tumour present?

A

Present as masses of mammographic abnormalities. Rare before 40yrs. Benign, borderline and malignant types (most are benign).
Histology - nodules of proliferating stroma covered by epithelium (phullon = leaf). Stroma more cellular and atypical than that in fibroadenomas
Need to be excised with wide margin or will reappear. Malignant type aggressive

805
Q

What is gynaecomastia?

A

Enlargement of male breast

806
Q

What causes gynaecomastia?

A

Caused by a relative decrease in androgen effect of increase in oestrogen effect.

807
Q

Why might gynaecomastia occur in neonates?

A

Secondary to circulating maternal and placental oestrogens and progesterones

808
Q

Why might transient gynaecomastia occur in boys in puberty?

A

Oestrogen production peaks earlier than that of testosterone

809
Q

Why might gynaecomastia occur in liver cirrhosis?

A

Oestrogen is not metabolised effectively, oestrogen excess

810
Q

Why might gynaecomastia occur due to gonadotrophin excess?

A

Functioning testicular tumour e.g. Leydig and Sertoli cell tumours, testicular germ cell tumours

811
Q

List some drugs that may cause gynaecomastia

A

Spironolactone, heroine, anabolic steroids, marijuana, alcohol….

812
Q

When is there an increased risk of breast cancer in males?

A

Male to female transsexuals, klinefelters syndrome, males treated with oestrogen for prostate cancer

813
Q

What are the majority of breast cancers?

A

Adenocarcinomas 95%

814
Q

Where do most breast cancer occur?

A

In the upper outer quadrant

815
Q

What genes are linked to an increased risk of breast cancer?

A

BRCA 1, BRCA 2, p53

816
Q

How are breast cancers classified, broadly speaking?

A

In situ, invasive. Ductal of lobular

817
Q

What is an in situ breast carcinoma ?

A

Neoplasm population of cells limited to ducts and lobules by basement membrane BM, myoepithelial cells are preserved. Does not invade into vessels and therefore cannot metastasise

818
Q

Describe a breast ductal carcinoma in situ DCIS

A

Most often presents as mammographic calcifications (clutters or linear and branching), but can present as a mass. Can spread through ducts and lobules and be very extensive. Histiologically often shows central (comedo) necrosis with calcification. Non obligate precursor of invasive carcinoma

819
Q

What is Paget’s disease?

A

Cells can extend to nipple skin, without crossing BM. Unilateral red and crusting nipple. Eczematous or inflammatory conditions of the nipple should be regarded as suspicious and biopsy performed to exclude Paget’s disease.

820
Q

Describe a breast invasive carcinoma

A

Invaded beyond BM into stroma. Can invade into vessels and can therefore metastasise to lymph nodes and other sites. Usually presents as a mass, or a mammographic abnormality. By the time a cancer is palpable, more than half of the patients will have axillary lymph node metastasises.

821
Q

What is a peau d’orange ?

A

When lymphatic drainage of skin is involved with breast carcinoma

822
Q

What are the common types of invasive carcinoma in the breast?

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma - (no special type, IDC NST). 70-80%. Well differentiated type, tubules lined by atypical cells. Poorly differentiated type, sheets of pleomorphic cells
Invasive lobular carcinoma - infiltrating cells in a single file, cells lack cohesion. 5-15%. Similar prognosis to IDC NST
Other - e.g. Tubular, mucinous

823
Q

What is the pattern of breast cancer?

A

Lymph nodes via lymphatics - usually in the ipsilateral axilla. Distant metastasises via blood vessels - bones, lungs, liver, brain.

824
Q

What are the factors determining the prognosis of breast cancer?

A

In situ disease or invasive carcinoma. Histologic subtype (IDC NST has poorer prognosis). Tumour grade. Gene expression profile. Tumour stage.

825
Q

Outline the ‘triple approach’ to investigation and diagnosis of breast cancer

A

Clinical - history, family history, examination
Radiographic imaging - mammogram, USS
Pathology - fine needle aspiration cytology FNAC and core biopsy

826
Q

What might the decision between mastectomy or breast conserving surgery depend on?

A

Patient choice, size and site of tumour, number of tumours, size of breast

827
Q

What is a sentinel lymph node biopsy, with regards to breast cancer

A

Reduces risk of postoperative morbidity. Intraoperative lymphatic mapping with dye and/or radioactivity of the draining or ‘sentinel’ lymph nodes - the one most likely to contain cancer metastases. If the sentinel node/s is negative, axillary dissection can be avoided.

828
Q

What does hormonal treatment of breast cancer depend upon?

A

Oestrogen receptor status (approx 80% of cancers are ER +ve). Tamoxifen

829
Q

What does treatment wait Herceptin depend on for breast cancer?

A

Her2 receptor status (approx 20% of cancer are are Her2 +ve).

830
Q

Where might gynaecological tumours arise?

A

In the vulva, cervix, endometrium, myometrium, ovary

831
Q

What are almost all cervical cancer cases related to?

A

High risk HPVs (16 and 18)

832
Q

How do high risk HPVs cause cancer?

A

Infect immature metaplastic squamous cells in transformation zone. Produce viral proteins E6 and E7, which interfere with activity of tumour suppressor proteins (e.g. P53, RB), to cause inability to repair damaged DNA and increased proliferation of cells.

833
Q

Why is cervical screening so successful?

A

Worldwide, 3rd most common cancer in women. Cervix is relatively accessible to examination (coloposcopy) and sampling. Papanicolau (pap) test detects precursor lesions and low stage cancers. Allows early diagnosis and therapy.

834
Q

What does cervical screening involve?

A

Cells from the transformation zone are scraped off, stained with papanicolaou stain and examined microscopically. Can also test for HPV DNA in cervical cells, molecular method of screening. If abnormal referred for colposcopy and biopsy

835
Q

When does cervical screening take place?

A

Starts age 25, then every 3yrs till 50. Thereafter every 5yrs till 65yrs.

836
Q

How long does gardasil, the HPV vaccine given to girls, protect for?

A

Up to 10 yrs, the ‘critical time’

837
Q

What is cervical intraepithelial neoplasia CIN?

A

Dysphasia of squamous cells within the cervical epithelium, induced by infection with high risk HPVs. CIN 1, CIN 2, and CIN 3 (carcinoma in situ)

838
Q

What is the treatment for CIN 1?

A

Follow up cryotherapy

839
Q

What is the treatment for CIN 2 and 3?

A

Superficial excision (cone, large loop excision of the transformation zone LLETZ)

840
Q

What sort of cancer is invasive cervical carcinoma usually?

A

80% squamous cell carcinoma

15% adenocarcinoma

841
Q

How may invasive cervical carcinoma look?

A

Exophytic (stick out) or infiltrative (infiltrate into body)

842
Q

How might invasive cervical carcinoma present?

A

Screening abnormality, postcoital, intermenstrual, of post menopausal bleeding.

843
Q

What would the treatment for microinvasive cervical carcinoma be?

A

Treated with cervical cone excision. 5yr survival 100%

844
Q

What is the treatment for invasive cervical carcinoma ?

A

Treated with hysterectomy, lymph node dissection, and, if advanced, radiation and chemotherapy. Overall 62% 10yr survival

845
Q

What is the endometrium?

A

Liners internal cavity of uterus, glands within a cervical stroma

846
Q

What is endometrial hyperplasia often a precursor to?

A

Endometrial carcinoma, increased gland to stroma ratio

847
Q

What is endometrial hyperplasia associated with?

A

Prolonged oestrogenic stimulation (anovulation, increased oestrogen from endogenous sources e.g. Adipose tissue)

848
Q

What is the usual presentation of endometrial carcinoma?

A

Irregular or postmenopausal vaginal bleeding, early detection and cure often possible.
Can be polyploid or infiltrative.

849
Q

Where might gynaecological tumours arise?

A

In the vulva, cervix, endometrium, myometrium, ovary

850
Q

What are almost all cervical cancer cases related to?

A

High risk HPVs (16 and 18)

851
Q

How do high risk HPVs cause cancer?

A

Infect immature metaplastic squamous cells in transformation zone. Produce viral proteins E6 and E7, which interfere with activity of tumour suppressor proteins (e.g. P53, RB), to cause inability to repair damaged DNA and increased proliferation of cells.

852
Q

Why is cervical screening so successful?

A

Worldwide, 3rd most common cancer in women. Cervix is relatively accessible to examination (coloposcopy) and sampling. Papanicolau (pap) test detects precursor lesions and low stage cancers. Allows early diagnosis and therapy.

853
Q

What does cervical screening involve?

A

Cells from the transformation zone are scraped off, stained with papanicolaou stain and examined microscopically. Can also test for HPV DNA in cervical cells, molecular method of screening. If abnormal referred for colposcopy and biopsy

854
Q

When does cervical screening take place?

A

Starts age 25, then every 3yrs till 50. Thereafter every 5yrs till 65yrs.

855
Q

How long does gardasil, the HPV vaccine given to girls, protect for?

A

Up to 10 yrs, the ‘critical time’

856
Q

What is cervical intraepithelial neoplasia CIN?

A

Dysphasia of squamous cells within the cervical epithelium, induced by infection with high risk HPVs. CIN 1, CIN 2, and CIN 3 (carcinoma in situ)

857
Q

What is the treatment for CIN 1?

A

Follow up cryotherapy

858
Q

What is the treatment for CIN 2 and 3?

A

Superficial excision (cone, large loop excision of the transformation zone LLETZ)

859
Q

What sort of cancer is invasive cervical carcinoma usually?

A

80% squamous cell carcinoma

15% adenocarcinoma

860
Q

How may invasive cervical carcinoma look?

A

Exophytic (stick out) or infiltrative (infiltrate into body)

861
Q

How might invasive cervical carcinoma present?

A

Screening abnormality, postcoital, intermenstrual, of post menopausal bleeding.

862
Q

What would the treatment for microinvasive cervical carcinoma be?

A

Treated with cervical cone excision. 5yr survival 100%

863
Q

What is the treatment for invasive cervical carcinoma ?

A

Treated with hysterectomy, lymph node dissection, and, if advanced, radiation and chemotherapy. Overall 62% 10yr survival

864
Q

What is the endometrium?

A

Liners internal cavity of uterus, glands within a cervical stroma

865
Q

What is endometrial hyperplasia often a precursor to?

A

Endometrial carcinoma, increased gland to stroma ratio

866
Q

What is endometrial hyperplasia associated with?

A

Prolonged oestrogenic stimulation (anovulation, increased oestrogen from endogenous sources e.g. Adipose tissue)

867
Q

What is the usual presentation of endometrial carcinoma?

A

Irregular or postmenopausal vaginal bleeding, early detection and cure often possible.
Can be polyploid or infiltrative.

868
Q

What are the types of adenocarcinoma?

A

Endometrioid and serous

869
Q

Describe endometrioid endometrial carcinoma

A

More common, mimics proliferative glands. Typically arises in setting of endometrial hyperplasia. Associated with unopposed oestrogen and obesity. Spreads by myometrial invasion and direct extension to adjacent structures to local lymph nodes and distant sites.

870
Q

Describe serous endometrial carcinoma

A

Poorly differentiated, aggressive, worse prognosis. Exfoliates, travels through Fallopian tubes, implants on peritoneal surfaces.

871
Q

What is the most common tumour of the myometrium?

A

Leiomyoma (fibroid)

Benign tumour of uterine smooth muscle

872
Q

Describe leiomyomas

A

Benign tumour of uterine smooth muscle. Often multiple. Range from tiny to massive (filling the pelvis). May be asymptomatic, or can cause heavy/painful periods, urinary frequency, infertility. Malignant transformation very rare. Well circumscribed, round, firm, and whitish in colour. Bundles of smooth muscle, rambles normal myometrium.

873
Q

Describe a malignant tumour of the myometrium

A

Leiomyosarcoma

Uncommon, peak incidence 40-60yrs. Highly malignant. Arises de novo, not from leiomyomas. Metastasises to lungs.

874
Q

Outline ovarian tumours

A

Approx 80% are benign. Generally occur 20-40yrs. Malignant tumours generally occur at 45-60yrs. Have often spread beyond the ovary by the time of presentation and therefore the prognosis is often poor. Many are bilateral.
Most are non-functional, so produce symptoms when they become large, invade adjacent structures and metastasize. Mass effects - abdominal pain, abdominal distension, urinary and GI symptoms, ascites.

875
Q

Describe the features of malignant ovarian tumours

A

Approx 50% spread to other ovary. Spread to regional nodes and elsewhere e.g. Liver, lungs
CA-125 used in diagnosis and to monitor disease recurrence and progression
Some association with BRCA mutations - carriers can be treated with prophylactic salpingo-oophrectomy

876
Q

What is the cancer marker used in ovarian cancer?

A

CA-125

877
Q

Outline the classification of ovarian tumours

A

Dependent upon the tissue from which they have arisen
- Müllerian epithelium (including endometriosis)
- Germ cells (pluripotent)
- Sex cord-stroma cells (from the endocrine apparatus of the ovary)
- Metastases (from other primary sites)
All others won’t produce sex hormones

878
Q

What are the 3 main histological types of ovarian epithelial tumours

A

Serous
Mucinous
Endometrioid

All can then be classified as benign/malignant/borderline. Many are cystic.

879
Q

What are the risk factors for ovarian epithelial tumours?

A

Nulliparity or low parity, OCP protective (no ovulation, therefore no breaking of epithelium and subsequent healing), heritable mutations e.g. BRCA 1 - and BRCA2, smoking, endometriosis

880
Q

Why are serous ovarian tumours often associated with ascites?

A

Often spread to peritoneal surfaces and omentum

881
Q

Describe mucinous ovarian tumours

A

Often large, cystic, masses. Filled with sticky, thick fluid. Usually benign or borderline.
Pseudomyxoma peritonei - extensive mucinous ascites, epithelial implants on peritoneal surfaces, frequent involvement of ovaries, can cause intestinal obstruction. Most likely primary is extra-ovarian, usually appendix.

882
Q

Describe endometrioid ovarian tumours

A

Contain tubular glands resembling endometrial glands. Can arise in endometriosis. Some have associated endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma, probably arising separately.

883
Q

Describe germ call tumours

A

20% of all ovarian neoplasms. Most are teratomas, usually benign. Other types are malignant and include non-gestational choiriocarcinoma (which produces HCG, unlike gestational type)

884
Q

What are the 3 groups of ovarian teratomas?

A

Mature (benign) - most common
Immature (malignant) - rare, composed of tissues that resemble immature foetal tissue
Monodermal (highly specialised) - only 1 type of tissue present

885
Q

Describe the clinical features of a mature ovarian teratoma

A

Most are cystic. Also called dermoid cysts as they almost always contain skin-like structures. Usually occur in young women. Bilateral in 10-15% of cases. Usually contain hair and sebaceous material, can contain tooth structures. Often tissue from other germ layers also present e.g. Bone, cartilage, thyroid.

886
Q

Describe monodermal ovarian teratomas

A

Most common in struma ovarii. Benign, composed entirely of mature thyroid tissue. May be functional and cause hyperthyroidism.

887
Q

Describe ovarian secondary chord stromal tumours

A

Derived from ovarian stroma (which is derived from sex cords of the embryonic gonad). Sex cord produces Sertoli and leydig cells in testes, and theca and granulosa cells in ovaries. Tumours resembling all of these 4 cell types can be found in the ovary. Can be feminising or masculinising.

888
Q

Describe the clinical features of granulosa cell tumours

A

Occur mostly in post-menopausal women. May produce large amounts of oestrogen in pre-pubertal girls may produce precocious puberty. In adult women may be associated with endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial carcinoma and breast disease.

889
Q

Scribe the clinical features of ovarian Sertoli-Leydig cell tumours

A

Often functional - in children may block normal female sexual development. In women can cause defeminisation and masculinisation (breast atrophy, amenorrhoea, sterility, hair loss, hiruitism with male hair distribution, clitoral hypertrophy, voice changes). Peak incidence in teens/20s.
Distressing, so often present early

890
Q

Describe the features of metastasis to the ovaries

A

Most commonly Müllerian tumours - uterus, Fallopian tubes, contralateral ovary, pelvic peritoneum. Also GI tumours and breast.

891
Q

What is a krukenberg tumour?

A

Metastatic tumour to the ovary of GI origin. Often bilateral, usually from stomach

892
Q

Describe vulva carcinomas

A

Uncommon. Usually in over 60s. Usually squamous cell carcinoma. Longstanding inflammatory and hyperplastic conditions of the vulva e.g. Lichen sclerosis

893
Q

Are vulva carcinomas related to HPV?

A

Approx 30% are, 70% aren’t (often these are in older women, 80s as opposed to 60s)

894
Q

What is vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

Atypical squamous cells within the epidermis (no invasion). In situ precursor of vulval squamous cell carcinoma

895
Q

Describe vulval squamous cell carcinoma spread

A

Spreads initially to inguinal, pelvic, iliac, and para-aortic lymph nodes. Also to lungs and liver. Lesions less than 2cm. 90% 5yr survival following vulvectomy and lymphadenectomy.

896
Q

What are gestational tumours?

A

Gestational trophoblast disease - tumours and tumour like conditions which show proliferation of placental tissue. Villus and/or trophoblastic

897
Q

What are the major types of gestational tumour?

A

Hydatidiform mole (complete and partial)
Invasive mole
Choriocarcinoma

898
Q

Describe a hydatidiform mole

A

1-3/1000 pregnancies. Associated with choriocarcinoma, can become malignant. Cystic swelling of chorionic villi and trophoblast proliferation. Usually diagnosed in early pregnancy by USS, can present with miscarriage. Highest risk groups are teenagers and 40-50yrs. Two types, complete or partial. Abnormal DNA (no maternal DNA or 2 sperm).

899
Q

How is a hydatidiform mole usually diagnosed?

A

Early in pregnancy by USS or can present with miscarriage

900
Q

What is the appearance of a hydatidiform mole?

A

Friable mass of thin walled, translucent, grape like structures. Swollen oedematous villi.

901
Q

What is the treatment for a hydatidiform mole?

A

Treated with curettage followed by HCG monitoring. If HCG levels don’t fall, may indicate invasive mole.

902
Q

Describe a gestational choriocarcinoma

A

Malignant neoplasm of trophoblastic cells derived from previously normal, or abnormal pregnancy (no villi present), just trophoblast.
Rapidly invasive, metastasises widely but responds well to chemotherapy.
Non gestational choriocarcinoma arise from germ cells in the ovary of in the mediastinum

903
Q

When does gestation choriocarcinoma generally occur

A

50% in association with complete moles.

Others following abortion, following normal pregnancy, or in ectopic pregnancies.

904
Q

How might gestational choriocarcinoma present?

A

Usually with vaginal spotting. HCG levels are high (blood test, indicating placental tissue is still present).

905
Q

What is the treatment for gestational choriocarcinoma?

A

Treated with uterine evacuation and chemotherapy. Very high cure rate.
Same for non-gestational choriocarcinomas

906
Q

Describe mucinous ovarian tumours

A

Often large, cystic, masses. Filled with sticky, thick fluid. Usually benign or borderline.
Pseudomyxoma peritonei - extensive mucinous ascites, epithelial implants on peritoneal surfaces, frequent involvement of ovaries, can cause intestinal obstruction. Most likely primary is extra-ovarian, usually appendix.

907
Q

Describe endometrioid ovarian tumours

A

Contain tubular glands resembling endometrial glands. Can arise in endometriosis. Some have associated endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma, probably arising separately.

908
Q

Describe germ call tumours

A

20% of all ovarian neoplasms. Most are teratomas, usually benign. Other types are malignant and include non-gestational choiriocarcinoma (which produces HCG, unlike gestational type)

909
Q

What are the 3 groups of ovarian teratomas?

A

Mature (benign) - most common
Immature (malignant) - rare, composed of tissues that resemble immature foetal tissue
Monodermal (highly specialised) - only 1 type of tissue present

910
Q

Describe the clinical features of a mature ovarian teratoma

A

Most are cystic. Also called dermoid cysts as they almost always contain skin-like structures. Usually occur in young women. Bilateral in 10-15% of cases. Usually contain hair and sebaceous material, can contain tooth structures. Often tissue from other germ layers also present e.g. Bone, cartilage, thyroid.

911
Q

Describe monodermal ovarian teratomas

A

Most common in struma ovarii. Benign, composed entirely of mature thyroid tissue. May be functional and cause hyperthyroidism.

912
Q

Describe ovarian secondary chord stromal tumours

A

Derived from ovarian stroma (which is derived from sex cords of the embryonic gonad). Sex cord produces Sertoli and leydig cells in testes, and theca and granulosa cells in ovaries. Tumours resembling all of these 4 cell types can be found in the ovary. Can be feminising or masculinising.

913
Q

Describe the clinical features of granulosa cell tumours

A

Occur mostly in post-menopausal women. May produce large amounts of oestrogen in pre-pubertal girls may produce precocious puberty. In adult women may be associated with endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial carcinoma and breast disease.

914
Q

Scribe the clinical features of ovarian Sertoli-Leydig cell tumours

A

Often functional - in children may block normal female sexual development. In women can cause defeminisation and masculinisation (breast atrophy, amenorrhoea, sterility, hair loss, hiruitism with male hair distribution, clitoral hypertrophy, voice changes). Peak incidence in teens/20s.
Distressing, so often present early

915
Q

Describe the features of metastasis to the ovaries

A

Most commonly Müllerian tumours - uterus, Fallopian tubes, contralateral ovary, pelvic peritoneum. Also GI tumours and breast.

916
Q

What is a krukenberg tumour?

A

Metastatic tumour to the ovary of GI origin. Often bilateral, usually from stomach

917
Q

Describe vulva carcinomas

A

Uncommon. Usually in over 60s. Usually squamous cell carcinoma. Longstanding inflammatory and hyperplastic conditions of the vulva e.g. Lichen sclerosis

918
Q

Are vulva carcinomas related to HPV?

A

Approx 30% are, 70% aren’t (often these are in older women, 80s as opposed to 60s)