renal treatment/dx Flashcards

1
Q

dx SIADH

A

Serum osmolality < 280 mOsm/kg (hypotonic).
■ Urine osmolality > 100 mOsm/kg in the setting of serum hypoosmolarity
without a physiologic reason for ↑ ADH (eg, congestive heart failure, cir-
rhosis, hypovolemia).
■ Urinary sodium level often ≥ 20 mEq/L.

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2
Q

tx SIADH

A

Explore and address the underlying cause.
■ Best initial treatment: Restrict fluid.
■ Persistent or symptomatic hyponatremia (< 120 mEq/L): IV hypertonic
saline therapy.
■ Severe SIADH: ADH antagonists (eg, tolvaptan, conivaptan).
■ Chronic SIADH: Demeclocycline.

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3
Q

SIADH CAUSING DRUGS

A

Carbamazepine, Cyclophosphamide, SSRIs

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4
Q

calcium correction for albumin formula

A

0.8( normal albumin- measured albumin) + measured calcium
normal albumin 4.0
hypo albumin may cause false low ca+ levels
increase pH –> Žaffinity of albumin (negative charge) to bind Ca2+ Ž hypocalcemia acidosis decrease AB-bind H+
every reduction of albumin by 1 reduces ca+ by 0.8

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5
Q

acute hypercalcemia treatment t

A

0.9% saline + loop diuretic

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6
Q

diarrhea

vomiting

A

diarrhea - loss of HCO3 and K+

vomiting - loss of HCL and then RAAS compensates worse metabolic alkalosis and causes hypokalemia

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7
Q

hypokalemia ECG

A

T-wave flattening, U waves (an additional wave after the T wave), and ST-segment depression, leading to AV block and cardiac arrest

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8
Q

hypo K treatment

A

Treat the underlying disorder. hypomag can cause hypokalemia
■ Oral and/or IV K+ repletion. Oral is the preferred route for safety pur-
poses. If IV is necessary, a continuous rate of K+ as an additive is preferred over an IV K+ bolus. Reserve IV boluses for symptomatic hypokalemia or ECG changes. Do not exceed 20 mEq/L/h.
■ Replace magnesium, as this deficiency makes K+ repletion more difficult.

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9
Q

hypo MG most common in

A

Alcoholics are the most common patient population with hypomagnesemia.
Mg2+ (low levels can induce PTH resistance)

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10
Q

most accurate test for hypocalcemia

ECG changes

A
  1. Most accurate test: Ionized Ca2+ and PTH.

2. prolong QT - 3 phase decrease ca enter

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11
Q

hypo Ca+ treatment

A

Treat the underlying disorder.
administer oral calcium supplements; give oral
and IV calcium for severe symptoms or signs.
Ensure magnesium repletion.

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12
Q

hyperkalemia tx

A

C BIG K
Calcium chloride or gluconate (intravenous)
heart > 6.5
Bicarbonate, β2-agonists
Insulin + Glucose
Kayexalate (sodium polystyrene sulfonate)
diuretics

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13
Q

hyperkalemia dx

A

Diagnosis
■ Confirm hyperkalemia with a repeat blood draw for suspected spurious results. In the setting of extreme leukocytosis or thrombocytosis, check plasma K+.
spurious- blood hemolysis, fist clenching
■ Other work-up: ECG to evaluate for cardiac complications. ECG findings include tall, peaked T waves; a wide QRS; PR prolongation; and loss of P waves (see Figure 2.16-4). Can progress to sine waves, ventricular dys- rhythmias, and cardiac arrest.

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14
Q

If hypokalemia is not responding to K+ repletion

A

check magnesium levels.

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15
Q

hypo Mg treatment

A

Tetany, torsades de pointes,
trEatmEnt
■ Generally most causes respond to IV and/or oral supplements, depending on severity.
■ Hypokalemia and hypocalcemia will not correct without magnesium correction.

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16
Q

hypvolemic hypernatremia

A

if hypovolemic with unstable vital signs, use isotonic 0.9%

Use isotonic 0.9% NaCl until the patient is euvolemic, even with stable vital signs.

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17
Q

normal volume and asymptomatic

A

If normal volume status and asymptomatic, can treat with D5W, 0.45% NaCl or enteral fluids.

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18
Q

hypervolemic hypernatremia

A

with a combination of diuretics and D5W to remove excess Na.

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19
Q

hypernatremia determine
determine free water deficits
determine rate of replacement

A

Determine free water deficit. Water deficit = Total body water × ([serum Na/140] − 1).
■ Total body water (TBW) is ± 60% of lean body weight.
■ Replace with D5W, 0.45% NaCl, or enteral water.

Correction of chronic hypernatremia (> 48 hours) should be accomplished gradually over 48–72 hours (≤ 0.5 mEq/L/h) to prevent neurologic damage secondary to cerebral edema.

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20
Q

hypernatremia determine

determine rate of replacement

A

Correction of chronic hypernatremia (> 48 hours) should be accomplished gradually over 48–72 hours (≤ 0.5 mEq/L/h) to prevent neurologic damage secondary to cerebral edema.

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21
Q

hypervolemic and euvolemic hyponatremia x

A

Treat hyponatremia from hypervolemic and euvolemic etiologies with water restriction ± diuretics.

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22
Q

hypovolemic hyponatremia tx

A

replete with NS

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23
Q

sever hyponatremia range or symptomatic and treatment

A

If severe hyponatremia (Na < 120 mEq/L), con- sider 3% hypertonic saline, particularly if symptomatic.

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24
Q

chronic hyponatremia def and tx

A

Correct chronic hyponatremia (> 72 hours’ duration) slowly (< 8−10 mEq/L/day) to prevent osmotic demyelination syndrome (symptoms include paraparesis/quadriparesis, dysarthria, and coma)

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25
Q

indication for urgent dialysis

A
AEIOU
Acidosis
Electrolyte abnormalities (hyperkalemia) Ingestions (salicylates, theophylline,
methanol, barbiturates, lithium,
ethylene glycol)
Overload (fluid)
Uremic symptoms (pericarditis,
encephalopathy, bleeding, nausea, pruritus, myoclonus)
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26
Q

increase anion gap

A
> 12
MUDPILES:
Methanol (formic acid) 
Uremia- NH4 urine production 
Diabetic ketoacidosis Propylene glycol
Iron tablets or INH
Lactic acidosis
Ethylene glycol (oxalic acid) Salicylates (late)
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27
Q

normal anion gap

A

normal 8-12 artificial nutrients
HARDASS: Hyperalimentation( artificial nutrients) Addison disease Renal tubular acidosis Diarrhea Acetazolamide Spironolactone Saline infusion

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28
Q

osmolar gap increase

A

Both present with ↑ osmolal gap (Measured osmolality-calculated osmolality > 10 mOsmol/L)

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29
Q

chloride resistant metabolic alkalosis

A

mineral chloride >20 mEq /per day urine
not corrected with saline
ECF expansion
primary hypaldo, batter, gietlamn

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30
Q

chorlide sensitive MA

A

< 20 cholride urine
corrected with saline, ECF loss

thiazide, loop, vomiting,

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31
Q

HCO3– > 28 mEq/L >7.45 ph

A

metabolic alkalosis

32
Q

type II RTA causes

A

Multiple myeloma, amyloidosis, all other causes of Fanconi syndrome (eg genetic and acquired), aminoglycosides, ifosfamide, cisplatin, acetazolamide

33
Q

type II RTA tx

A

sodium and K+ bicarbonate supplementation

34
Q

type I RTA cause

A

Autoimmune disorders, hypercalciuria, amphotericin B, ifosfamide, genetic disorders

35
Q

type I RTA treatment

A

K+ bicarbonate supplementation

36
Q

fanconi syndrome

A

Wilson disease, tyrosinemia, glycogen storage disease), ischemia, multiple myeloma, nephrotoxins/drugs (eg, ifosfamide, cisplatin, expired tetracyclines), lead poisoning

37
Q

prerenal failure and increase ECF

A

IV fluids will not help hepatorenal syndrome, nephrotic syndrome, or CHF, or other causes of increased total body volume

38
Q

postrenal failure

A

post- void residual > 50 mL

39
Q

metformin C/I

A

septic patients or those with renal or hepatic failure, because it can worsen the metabolic acidosis.

40
Q

CRF

A

erythropoietin analongues
ace and arbs
Oral phosphate binders (calcium acetate, calcium carbonate, sevelamer, lanthanum) and calcitriol (1,25-OH vitamin D) for renal osteodystrophy.
Use desmopressin in cases of abnormal bleeding (complication of uremia).
■ Renal replacement therapy options include hemodialysis, peritoneal dialy- sis, and renal transplantation.

41
Q

nephritic tx

A

If present, treat hypertension, fluid overload, with salt restriction, RAAS blockade, +/− diuretics.

42
Q

nephrotic thrombosis most common

A

membranous b.c

antithrombin III, protein C, and protein S in urine.

43
Q

Spike-and-dome” appearance caused by granular deposits of IgG and C3

A

membranous

44
Q

Nodular glomerulosclerosis

A

amyloid

45
Q

nephrotic dx

A

proteinuria (≥ 3.5 g/day) lipiduria (Maltese crosses signify- ing lipids on microscopic urine exam).
spot protein-to-creatinine ratio rather than 24-hour urine. Cutoff for nephrotic syndrome is 2.0 mg/mg on this ratio.
↓ albumin (< 3 g/dL) and hyperlipidemia.
work-up for 2° causes.
■ Renal biopsy diagnose the underlying
etiology.

46
Q

nephrotic tx

A

ace/arbs for hypertension
salt restriction
Vaccinate with 23-polyvalent pneumococcus vaccine (PPV23) b/c immunodeficiency

47
Q

renal stone treatment

A

Best initial treatment: Hydration and analgesia.
■ α1-receptor blockers (eg, tamsulosin) and calcium channel blockers (eg,
nifedipine) reduce ureteral spasm and facilitate stone passage of ureteral
stone < 10 mm, reducing the need for analgesics.
■ Treatment varies according to the size and diameter of the stone:
■ < 5 mm: May pass spontaneously.
■ < 10 mm: Higher rate of spontaneous passage with α-blocker or cal-
cium channel blocker therapy.
■ 5–20 mm: May be treated with shock wave lithotripsy or ureteroscopy.
■ > 20 mm: percutaneous nephrolithotomy.
■ Best initial treatment: Hydration and analgesia.

48
Q

calcium stone prevention

A

Dietary changes to prevent calcium stones include ↑ fluid intake (most important), normal calcium intake (RDA recommended intake), and ↓ sodium intake. If caused by hyperoxaluria, then ↓ oxalate intake.

49
Q

APCKD

A

ace and arbs

50
Q

hydronephrisis neurogenic bladder

A

starting a clean intermittent catheterization regimen for bladder emptying.

51
Q

hydronephrosis causes

A

ureteropelvic junction but may also be at ureterovesicular junction (at the insertion into the bladder) or at the bladder outlet (eg from “posterior urethral valves”)

neurogenic bladder (spinal cord injuries), tumors, aortic aneurysms, or renal calculi.

52
Q

treatment urethral obstruction vs ureter obstruction

A

Ureteral stent placement across the obstructed area of the urinary tract and/or percutaneous nephrostomy tube placement to relieve pressure may be appropriate if the urinary outflow tract is not sufficiently cleared of obstruction. Foley or suprapubic catheters may be required for lower uri- nary tract obstruction (eg, BPH).

53
Q
  1. ⊕ Prehn sign ↑ blood flow to teste
  2. ⊝ Prehn sign in torsion ↓ blood flow in torsion
  3. absent cremaster reflex, N/v
  4. bag of worms”
  5. transluminates vs doesn’t
A
  1. epididymitis, decrease pain with scotal elevation
  2. testicular torsion
  3. testicular torsion
  4. variocele
  5. varociele no translumination vs hydrocele + translation
54
Q
  1. Hydrocele
  2. Varicocele: May need surgery if large or symptomatic.
  3. Epididymitis and acute prostatitis
  4. Testicular torsion
A
  1. resolve within 12 months. not resolve should be removed surgically because of risk for inguinal hernia.
    2.May need surgery if large or symptomatic.
    3.Antibiotics (ceftriaxone, doxycycline,
    fluoroquinolones)
    4.Immediate surgery (< 6 hours) to salvage testis. Attempt manual detorsion only if surgery is unavailable or if it will not delay surgery. Orchiopexy of both testes to prevent future torsion.
55
Q

overflow incontinence dz causes, s/s, dx tx

A
  1. Associated with polyuria (eg, diabetes), bladder outlet obstruction (eg, BPH), neurogenic bladder (eg, MS)
  2. Constant leakage
  3. post-void residual (urinary retention) on catheterization or ultrasound.
  4. cholinergic agents, intermittent catheterization, sacral nerve stimulation PSN
56
Q

urge incontinence dz causes, s/s, dx tx

A
  1. Older age, detrusor hyperactivity (eg, spinal cord injury)
  2. Sudden need to urinate fol- lowed closely by leakage
  3. Topical estrogen Antimuscarinics or mirabegron
57
Q

stress incontince tx

A

Lifestyle modifications and pelvic floor exercises (for all types of incontinence)
Topical estrogen
Pessary
Surgery (eg, midurethral sling)

58
Q

BPH location of enlargement

A

BPH most commonly occurs in the central (periurethral) zone of the prostate and may not be detected on DRE.

59
Q

BPH r/o

A

Obtain a UA and urine culture to rule out infection and hematuria.

60
Q

BPH

  1. best initial therapy
  2. best next step
  3. recurrent UTI, bladder stones or Renal insufficiency
A

■ Best initial treatment: α-blockers (eg, tamsulosin, terazosin), which
relax smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck.
■ Next best treatment: 5α-reductase inhibitors (eg, finasteride), which
inhibit the production of dihydrotestosterone.
■ Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) or open prostatectomy is

61
Q

prostate cancer
most accurate test
findings on DRE
type of bone lesions

A

1.DRE may reveal a palpable nodule or an area of induration
2. Suggested by clinical findings and/or a markedly ↑ PSA (> 4 ng/mL).
■ Most accurate test: Ultrasound-guided transrectal biopsy.
■ Tumors are graded by the Gleason histologic system, which sums the scores
(from 1 to 5) of the two most dysplastic samples (10 is the highest grade).
■ Look for metastases with CT of the abdomen/pelvis and bone scan (meta-
static lesions show an osteoblastic or ↑ bone density).

62
Q

prostate cancer screening

A
  1. annual DRE and/or PSA testing starting at 50 years
  2. Screening should begin earlier in African-American men and in those with a first-degree relative with prostate cancer.
63
Q

prostate treatment

A

Watchful waiting may be the best approach for elderly patients with low- grade tumors, as many cases of prostate cancer are slow to progress.
■ Radical prostatectomy is associated with ↑ risk for incontinence and/or ED. ■ Radiation therapy (eg, brachytherapy or external beam) is associated with
↑ risk for radiation proctitis and GI symptoms.
■ PSA, while controversial as a screening test, is used to follow a patient’s
posttreatment to evaluate for disease recurrence.
■ Treat metastatic disease with androgen ablation (eg, gonadotropin-releasing
hormone agonists, orchiectomy, flutamide) and chemotherapy.
■ Radiation therapy is useful to manage bone pain from metastases after
androgen ablation.

64
Q

bladder cancer s/s

A

Gross, painless hematuria is the most common presenting symptom. Ter- minal hematuria (end of voiding) suggests bleeding from bladder.

65
Q

bladder cancer dx

A

Screening is not recommended.
■ Cystoscopy with biopsy is diagnostic and is recommended in the evalua-
tion of older adults to rule out malignancy.
■ UA often shows hematuria (macro- or microscopic).
■ Cytology may show dysplastic cells.
■ MRI, CT, and bone scan are important tools with which to define inva-
sion and metastases.

66
Q

The next best step for diagnosis in

an adult patient with unexplained hematuria is cystoscopy

A

to evaluate for bladder cancer

67
Q

In a middle-aged smoker with a left-sided varicocele,

A

think renal cell carcinoma!

68
Q

renal cell carcinoma RBC effect

A

Anemia is common at presentation, but polycythemia caused by ↑ erythro- poietin production can be seen in 5–10% of patients.
Diagnosis

69
Q

testicular tumor treatment

A

Radical orchiectomy and classify into seminoma or nonseminomatous germ cell tumor (NSGCT).
■ Seminoma: Radiation therapy for low-stage disease.
■ NSGCT: Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection for low-stage disease.
■ Platinum-based chemotherapy is used for advanced disease of either type.

70
Q

1.Uncomplicated UTI
Complicated UTI
pregnant
Urosepsis:

A
  1. outpatient basis with PO TMP-SMX or a fluoroquinolone for 3 days, or nitrofurantoin for 5 days. The use of fluo- roquinolones should be reserved for severe symptoms in light of resistance and MRSA selection and risk for C difficile infectio
  2. (urinary obstruction, UTI in men, renal transplant, catheters, instrumentation): Administer the same antibiotics as above, but for 7–14 days.
  3. reat asymptomatic bacteriuria or symptomatic UTI with nitrofurantoin, oral cephalosporin, or amoxicillin for 3–7 days. Confirm clearance with a posttreatment urine culture.
71
Q

Prostatiti dx tx c/i

A

prostate tenderness on exam. Urethral catheterization and prostate massage are highly contraindicated because they increase the likelihood of bacteremia.
Treat with trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX) or ciprofloxacin for 6 weeks

72
Q

pyelonephritis dx

A

UA and culture: Results are similar to those of cystitis, but with WBC casts. Send blood cultures to rule out urosepsis.
■ CBC: Reveals leukocytosis.
■ Imaging: In general, imaging is not necessary. Patients who relapse or do
not respond to therapy within 48–72 hours should be evaluated by ultra- sound or CT for obstruction, abscess, and other complications.

73
Q

pyelonephritis treatment

A

■ For mild cases, patients may be treated on an outpatient basis for 7–14 days.
■ Best initial treatment: Fluoroquinolones. Encourage ↑ PO fluids, and
monitor closely.
■ Admit and administer IV antibiotics to patients who have serious medical
complications or systemic symptoms, are pregnant, present with severe nausea and vomiting, or have suspected bacteremia. Fluoroquinolones, third- or fourth-generation cephalosporins, β-lactam/β-lactamase inhibi- tors, and carbapenem can be used depending on disease severity.
■ Abscesses ≥ 3 cm should be drained and cultured.

74
Q

Mixed cryoglobulinemia presents with

A

palpable purpura, arthralgias, nephritic/ nephrotic syndrome, low C3, and positive HCV.
membranoproliferative - renal failure

75
Q
  1. seminoma
  2. yolk sac
  3. choriocarcinoma
  4. embryonal carcinoma
A
  1. fried egg, radiosensitive, ALP
  2. primitive glomeruli AFP
  3. metasis lungs, hCG ( hyperthyroidism gynecomastia
  4. painful necrosis hCG
76
Q

NGCT

  1. leydig cell
  2. sertoli cell
  3. testicular lymphoma
A
  1. reink crystals- androgens, estrogens precious puberty, gynectiomia
  2. nothing
  3. metastatic most common old men lymphmoa