Renal Transplants Flashcards

1
Q

List some benefits of renal transplantation

A
  • Not life saving (as for liver, lung, heart transplant)
  • Kidney transplantation is another means of renal replacement therapy
  • The sickest patient does not necessarily get a kidney transplant first
  • Survival benefit
  • Improved quality of life
  • Cost saving (after the 1st year post transplant)

*kidney transplants are an alternative to dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which patients are high priority?

A
  • Children (need kidneys for normal development)
  • People on dialysis but lost line access and can no longer receive dialysis
  • Younger kidneys go to younger patients
  • People who previously donated a kidney
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Living donors:

Grant survival ?

A

20-25 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Living donors:

Pre-emptive ?

A

possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Deceased donors:

Graft survival ?

A

13-15 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Deceased donors:

Have a ____ time

A

wait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List the 3 types of living kidney donors

A

1) Direct donation (ex. family or friend)
2) Kidney paired exchange (KPD)
3) Altruistic, non-directed (just want to donate a kidney and help someone out - anonymous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List the 3 types of deceased kidney donors

A

1) Neurological determination death (NDD)
- brain dead
2) Donation after cardiac death (DCD)
3) Medical assistance in dying (MAID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List the 4 parts to describing donor quality

A

1) Standard criteria donor
2) Extended criteria donor
3) High infectious risk donor
4) Exceptional distribution donor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many kidney transplants can you have?

A

The most there is right now is someone with 4 extra kidneys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe standard kidney transplant recipients

A

Low or high immunological risk based on HLA match, antibody memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

HLA

A

Human Leukocyte Antigens:
-HLA are markers on most cells that help to identify “self” from “foreign”
MHC in humans = HLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe Class 1 types of HLA

A

Class 1: A, B, C

Stimulate T-killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe Class 2 types of HLA

A

Class 2: DR, DP, DQ

Stimulate T-helper cells, macrophages, B-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A match is out of __

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of donor would give you the best probability for an 8/8 match?

A

sibling (identical twin is best)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe “sensitizing events” that can lead to anti-HLA antibody and make it harder to find a match

A
  • pregnancy
  • blood transfusions
  • previous transplants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a PRA screening

A

Panel Reactive Antibody screening

  • Degree of “transplantability”
  • 60% PRA = incompatibility for transplant with about 60 out of 100 potential donors (of same blood group)
  • 95% PRA - highly sensitized, separate registry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is cross-matching?

What result is bad?

A
  • A test between donor and recipient
  • HLA antibodies can cause severe rejection and graft loss
  • Positive cross match is BAD
  • The recipient’s cells are able to recognize and attack the donor cells. This causes an increased risk of rejection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Sometimes a person develops antibodies to the donor after the transplant, often a result of ?

A
  • Often result of non-compliance, under immunosuppression
  • 6x increased risk for graft loss
  • 56% 10 year graft survival
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do we achieve immunosuppression ?

A

1) Depletion of lymphocytes (depleting antibodies)

2) Blocking of lymphocyte response
- Non-depleting monoclonal antibody IL-2 receptor antagonists (basiliximab)
- Calcineurin inhibitors (tacrolimus, cyclosporine)
- Anti-proliferative agents (azathioprine, mycophenolic acid)
- mTOR inhibitor (sirolimus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Intensive immunosuppressive therapy at time of transplant to reduce risk of acute _____

A

rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What agents do we use for immunosuppressants (induction therapy)? (3)

A

1) Depleting antibodies
- Anti-thymocyte: Thymoglobulin

2) Non-depleting antibodies
- IL-2 (CD25) receptor: Basiliximab

3) Corticosteroids (predinosine, methylprednisilone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What agents do we use for immunosuppressants (maintenance therapy)? (4)

A

1) Calcineurin inhibitors (CNIs)
- Cyclosporine
- Tacrolimus IR
- Tacrolimus ER

2) Corticosteroids
- Prednisone
- Methylprednisilone

3) Antiproliferatives
- Azathioprine
- Mycophenolate mofetil
- Mycophenolate sodium

4) Rapamycins derivatives
- Sirolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Many difference combinations of maintenance regimens. What does the choice depend on?
- Type of transplant - Match between donor and recipient - Underlying disease - Patient history - Co-morbidities - Medication tolerance - Patient age
26
What is the standard therapy for adult kidney transplant?
1) Tacrolimus (Program or Advagraf) - Inhibits early in T-cell activation + clonal expansion 2) Mycophenolate mofetil - Works to decrease T-cell proliferation 3) Prednisone - Sequesters and inhibits lymphocytes
27
Describe the usual maintenance regimen?
1) T-cell communication - Cyclosporine - Tacrolimus 2) Anti-proliferative - Azathioprine - Mycophenolate - Sirolimus 3) Prednisone * Usually 1 from each box
28
Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus are examples of?
Calcineurin Inhibitors (CNIs)
29
30-40% of ppl after kidney transplant develop _____
diabetes
30
Adverse drug reactions with CNIs (cyclosporine and tacrolimus)
- increase BG (tacrolimus) - increase BP - increases lipids - increases K+ - decrease Mg+ - decrease P - increase UA - tremor - nephro & hepatoxicity, gingival hyperplasia (CSA)
31
CNIs are both substrates and inhibitors of ______ and ____
CYP-3A4 and P-gp
32
Is cyclosporine or tacrolimus a better inhibitor of CYP 3A4?
cyclosporine
33
How does diarrhea affect cyclosporine/tacrolimus ?
- diarrhea can cause sloughing of intestinal endothelium - loss of P-gp - increased CNI levels *other meds may use P-gp and this can affect them too
34
List some 3A4 inhibitors that will increase concentrations of cyclosporine or tacrolimus
- Azoles - Macrolides - Non-DHP CCB's - Grapefruit juice - Ritonovir/protease inhibitors
35
List some 3A4 inducers that will decrease concentrations of cyclosporine or tacrolimus
- Rifampin - Phenytoin - Carbamazepine - Phenobarbital - St. John's Wort
36
Describe the drug interaction between cyclosporine & minoxidil
hirsutism (excessive body hair)
37
Describe the drug interaction between cyclosporine & phenytoin, nifedipine
gum hyperplasia
38
Describe the drug interaction between cyclosporine & statins, digoxin, caspofungin
decreased clearanceq
39
Describe the drug interaction between cyclosporine & colchicine
increased myopathy and hepatotoxicity
40
Describe the drug interaction between cyclosporine & glyburide
increased CSA level
41
Describe the drug interaction between cyclosporine & repaglinide
increased repaglinide exposure
42
Describe the drug interaction between cyclosporine & warfarin
decreased INR and CSA levels
43
Describe the drug interaction between cyclosporine & potassium sparing diuretics
hyperkalemia
44
Which statins can you use with cyclosporine?
pravastatin or fluvastatin (still caution tho)
45
Describe the drug interaction between tacrolimus & potassium sparing diuretics
hyperkalemia
46
Describe the drug interaction between tacrolimus & metoclopramide
increased tacrolimus exposure
47
Describe the drug interaction between tacrolimus & statins
TAC/atorvastatin might be okay
48
Which NOAC is the safest with CNI's?
Apixaban - likely "safer" slide 41
49
CNIs cause afferent & efferent ________
vasoconstriction
50
Which drugs will cause additive nephrotoxicity with CNI's?
NSAIDS: afferent vasoconstriction ACEi/ARB: efferent vasodilation Aminoglycosides, amphotericin B
51
Which drugs will cause renal sparing?
CCBs: afferent vasodilation
52
List an example of rapamycin derivatives?
sirolimus
53
When is Sirolimus dosed in response to cyclosporine?
4 hours after cyclosporine
54
SE of Sirolimus ?
- increase lipids, proteinuria, delayed would healing, anemia, hypertension - caution in liver and lung transplant - hepatic artery stenosis, bronchial anastomotic dehiscence
55
3A4 inhibitors will ______ concentrations of Sirolimus
increase
56
3A4 inducers with _____ concentrations of Sirolimus
decrease
57
Inducers of 3A4 will ____ concentrations of tacrolimus, sirolimus and cyclosporine
decrease
58
List examples of inducers of 3A4
- Rifampin - Phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates - St. John's Wort (avoid with CSA, TAC, SIR)
59
Inhibitors of 3A4 will ______ concentrations of tacrolimus, sirolimus and cyclosporine
increase
60
List examples of inhibitors of 3A4
Diltiazem, verapamil: immunosuppressant dose reductions of 25-50% Azole antifungals: avoid if possible (esp. voriconazole) -Single dose fluconazole has minimal effect Erythromycin, clarithromycin: avoid if possible Grapefruit
61
Inhibitors of P-gp will ____ concentrations of tacrolimus, sirolimus and cyclosporine
increase
62
Inducers of P-gp will ______ concentrations of tacrolimus, sirolimus and cyclosporine
decrease
63
How does diarrhea affect P-gp ?
Diarrhea depletes GI lining with P-gp | -Increased drug levels/exposure (also it's own cause of GI distrubances)
64
List examples of Anti-Proliferatives
Azathioprine, Mycophenolate
65
ADRs of Azathioprine
- bone marrow suppression | - hepatotoxicity
66
ADRs of Mycophenolate
leukopenia, GI intolerance
67
What is TMPT phenotype to guide dosing of azathioprine?
TMPT is a genetic test - it's an enzyme, you check and see if it's normal levels this enzyme breaks down azathioprine
68
Describe the drug interaction between: | Azathioprine & Allopurinol
- Avoid using allopurinol while on AZA - Significantly increases AZA levels - Profound neutropenia
69
Describe the drug interaction between: | Azathioprine & ACEi
increased neutropenia
70
Describe the drug interaction between: | Azathioprine & Warfarin
decreased INR
71
Describe the interaction between: | Mycophenolate & Antibiotics
may change enterohepatic recirculation (may change trough level but not necessarily overall exposure)
72
Describe the interaction between: | Mycophenolate & Cholestyramine
- Prevents reabsorption via enterohepatic recirculation | - Significant decrease in MPA concentration
73
Describe the interaction between: | Mycophenolate & PPIs
Decrease Mycophenolate levels, use lowest dose possible
74
Describe the interaction between: | Mycophenolate & Antacids
Dose separation by 2 hours minimum
75
Describe the interaction between: | Mycophenolate & iron preparations
dose separation not required
76
Why is dose separation not required for iron but it is required for antacids? **with mycophenolate
Bc we think mycophenolate absorption is pH dependent - Antacids affect pH - Iron dose not
77
List 2 corticosteroids
Prednisone, methylprednisone
78
Adverse drug reactions of corticosteroids?
-increase lipids, increase BG and BP, sleep disturbances, increase appetite/weight, mood swings, osteoporosis, acne, fluid retention
79
Drug interactions with corticosteroids?
Minimal but do interact with: - Immune stimulants - Decongestants - PPIs - use lowest possible dose - Additive nephrotoxicity: avoid when possible with NSAIDs and ahminoglycosides, and amphotericin B
80
From Case #1: | You are starting phenytoin but they are tacrolimus. What do you do?
No need to pre-emptively lower doses. Take blood levels and adjust accordingly. Phenytoin = 3A4 inducer so it will decrease TAC level -Increase TAC level by 25%
81
Describe the monitoring after a kidney transplant
Managing drug levels of a transplant patient is like balancing a scale: - Rejection (efficacy vs toxicity) - Each person and each target level is unique - Never a textbook case Within each "reference range", the appropriate drug level (tighter range) is influenced by: - Time post-transplant - Organ type - Use of induction agents - Other immunosuppression - Presence of rejection or toxicity
82
Target blood concentrations must correlate with what?
- Exposure (i.e. AUC) | - Clinical outcomes - therapeutic and toxic
83
What factors influence pharmacokinetics of CNI?
- Age - Race - Type of organ - Liver dysfunction - Hep c - Small bowel length - Gastrintestinal state - Infection - Inflammatory states - Time post-transplant - Hematocrit - Albumin levels - Diurnal variations - Drug interactions - Comorbidities (diabetes, CHF) - Intestinal CYP 450 and P-gp expression
84
go over monitoring slides on slide 67
okay
85
Case #2 | What else do you want to know?
- BMI, waist circumference - Diet and exercise and smoking history - CVD history (personal and family) - Abnormal baseline renal function - Why cyclosporine vs tacrolimus? - Lipid target ? lol
86
What are some reasons for dyslipidemia?
- CKD - Age - Lifestyle: diet, exercise, smoking - Prednisone - Cyclosporine
87
Which statins can you use with cyclosporine?
pravastatin and fluvastatin (caution tho)
88
Which statins can you use with tacrolimus?
nothing mentioned | no data vs. no interaction
89
Which statins can you use with sirolimus?
atorvastatin
90
lipids and CV disease is common in _____
transplants
91
Which immunosuppressant and statin combo has the most reports of rhabdomyolysis/myositis?
Cyclosporine
92
Post-transplant infections: | Describe PCP/PJP
Pneumocystis jiroveci: - PJP has significant morbidity and mortality in solid organ transplant patients - Associated with periods of higher immunosuppression in the first 3-12 months post-transplant
93
Post-transplant infections: What is the prophylaxis for PCP?
In Mb: - 3 months - Co-trimoxazole 400/80 mg daily or 800/160 mg EOD/MWF
94
Post-transplant infections: What is the treatment for PCP?
- 3 weeks - Co-trimoxazole (oral/IV) 15-20 mg TMP/kg/day - approx 1600/320 mg (2 DS tabs) q8h
95
Post-transplant infections: | Describe CMV
-CMV is a member of the herpes virus family
96
Post-transplant infections: | What is the prophylaxis for CMV?
Pre-emptive treatment until 2 negative PCR Valganciclovir 900 mg daily for 6 months
97
Post-transplant infections: | Describe BK Virus
- Polyomavirus - Common in general population, mostly asymptomatic in the renal tract - Reactive and replicate in immunosuppressed state - May lead to BK nephropathy and graft failure - Routine screening for BK viraemia & graft dysfunction - No good treatments available (reduction in baseline immunosuppression, switch to cyclosporine)
98
``` Post-transplant infections: Describe EBV (mono) ```
- Common virus in general population - Routine screening if EMB mismatch at time of transplant - Association with development of post transplant lymphoproliferative disorder - Mainstay treatment - lowering immunosuppressive therapy
99
Post-transplant infections: | Describe UTI
- Most common infection post kidney transplant - Pyelonephritis can lead to sepsis, graft dysfunction and failure - Risk factors include female, advanced age, history of UTI's pre-transplant, prolonged use of catheter, indwelling device, polycystic kidney disease - There is benefit to using UTI prophylaxis especially within first 3 months post kidney transplant - TMP/SMX is preferred over ciprofloxacin
100
Post-transplant: | When is it okay to give vaccines and which type?
Avoid live vaccines! Inactivated vaccines only. Flu shot is okay 3 months after transplant, should wait 6 months after transplant for other inactivated vaccines.
101
Post-transplant increases risk for ______
malignancy/cancer
102
What are some complications of renal transplants?
- Anemia - Analgesia for pain - Bone density decrease - Blood pressure increase - Cholesterol increase - Cancer risk - Diabetes/increased BG - Depression/mood changes - Eyes (cataracts) - Exercise
103
Describe mycophenolate & fertility
- Known to be teratogenic in females | - Switch to azathioprine if planning for pregnancy
104
Goals of transplant
- Prolong graft survival - Prevent rejection episodes - Assess adherence on a regular basis - Minimize long term complications
105
What should you do if you have a transplant recipient at your pharmacy ?
- Find out who their transplant team is - Remember drug interactions - The ABCDE list is a great way to look for areas to improve their overall health - Ask about adherence
106
KNOW THE TARGET RANGES FOR THE DIFFERENT LEVELS
ok dude