renal pharm Flashcards

1
Q

Acetazolamide, methazolamide, and dichlorphenamide are what class of diuretics?

MOA?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

Decreases HCO3 and Na+ ( and water) reabsorption by inhibiting luminal carbonic anhydrase at the proximal tubule, causing less activity in the Na/H antiporter

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2
Q

What type of diuretic drugs work in the proximal tubule?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Acetazolamide, methazolamide, and dichlorphenamide

Osmotic diuretics-mannitol

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3
Q

What types of drugs fcn by decreasing HCO3 and Na+ ( and water) reabsorption by inhibiting luminal carbonic anhydrase at the proximal tubule, causing less activity in the Na/H antiporter

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

Acetazolamide, methazolamide, and dichlorphenamide

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4
Q

What are the main clinical complications of using CAI?

A

Hypokalemia resulting from potassium loss in the urine

Metabolic acidosis resulting from bicarb (HCO3) loss in urine

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5
Q

What drugs are used to decrease intraocular volume/pressure and the prevention and treatment of mountain sickness?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

Acetazolamide, methazolamide, and dichlorphenamide

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6
Q

What are the 3 carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

Acetazolamide, methazolamide, and dichlorphenamide

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7
Q

What is the MOA of mannitol?

Major use?

A

Osmotic diuretic: Opposes water and sodium reabsorption at proximal tubule to increase the overall osmolarity of tubular fluid
Major use: increased clearance of drugs, minimize renal failure (shock or surgery), decrease IOP or intracranial pressures, diagnose oliguria

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8
Q

What is the major side effect of osmotic diuretics?

A

Risk of pulmonary hypertension

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9
Q

________ increase the rate and volume of urine due to the filtration and presence of non-reabsorpable solute in the tubular fluid

A

Osmotic diuretic like mannitol or glucose

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10
Q
Furosemide, bumetanide, torsemide, and ethacrynic acid are what class of diruetic?
MOA?
A

Loop diuretics-most efficacious of the diuretics
MOA: Inhibits the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the luminal membrane at medullary and cortical (proximal) talH (thin ascending loop)–> decreased K+, Ca++, an Na+ reabsorption, resultant K+ loss

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11
Q

Which diuretics act in the early distal tubule?

A

Thaizide diuretics

Chlorothiazide, hydrochlorothiazide,

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12
Q
Chlorothiazide, hydrochlorothiazide are what class of diuretic?
MOA?
A

Thiazide diuretics
MOA: Inhibits the Cl portion of the Na-Cl cotransporter in the luminal membrane at the early distal tubule –> deceased Na+ (and water) reabsorption, increased Ca++ reabsorption, resultant K+ loss

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13
Q

Which of the following diuretics would be most useful in the acute treatment of a comatose patient with traumatic brain injury and cerebral edema?

Acetazolamide
Amiloride
Chlorothiazide
Furosemide
Mannitol
A

Answer: Mannitol
Giving an IV infusion of an osmotic diuretic is used acutely to raise the osmolarity of the plasma and drive water out of the cells of the edematous brain. This will serve to reduce the intracranial pressure rapidly, possibly before irreversible damage to the brain occurs. Furosemide may also be used to achieve the same clinical objective, but the onset of action to increase plasma osmolarity would be less rapid than giving mannitol intravenously.

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14
Q

A 60 year-old patients complains of paresthesis and occasional nausea associated with one of her drugs. She is found to have hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis. She is most likely taking which one of the following drugs?

Acetazolamide for glaucoma
Amiloride for edema associated with hyperaldosteronism
Furosemide for severe hypertension and heart failure
Hydrochlorthiazide for for hypertension
Mannitol for cerebral edema

A

Answer: acetazolamide for glaucoma
Paresthesia is an abnormal sensation such as tingling, tickling, pricking, numbness or burning of a person’s skin. Paresthesia and gastrointestinal distress are common adverse effects of acetazolamide, especially when taken chronically for treatment of glaucoma. The observation that the patient has metabolic acidosis also suggests the use of acetazolamide.

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15
Q

Metabolic acidosis is a side effect of which class of diuretic drugs?

A

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors
Acetazolamide
Methazolamide
Dichlorphenamide

Deceases Na+ (and water) and HCO3 reabsorption to the blood…therefore causing acidosis

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16
Q

A 70 year-old retired businessman is admitted with a history of recurrent heart failure and metabolic derangements. He has marked peripheral edema and metabolic alkalosis. Which one of the following drugs is the best treatment option for his edema?

Acetazolamide
Digoxin
Dobutamine
Eplerenone
Hydrochlorothiazide
A

Answer: Acetazolamide

Although acetazolamide is rarely used in patients with heart failure, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are an effective therapy in patients with edema and metabolic alkalosis. The high bicarbonate levels in these patients make them particularly susceptible to the action of CAI’s. Digoxin is useful in chronic systolic failure but is not a first line therapy. Dobutamine is appropriate only when diuresis has already been accomplished in severe acute failure. Hydrochlorothiazide and spironolactone are not sufficiently effective for treatment of the edema in heart failure to be the diuretic of choice.

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17
Q

A 58 year-old man with lung cancer has abnormally low serum osmolarity and hypo-natremia. A drug that increases the formation of dilute urine and is used to treat SIADH is?

Acetazolamide
Amiloride
Desmopressin
Ethacrynic acid
Hydrochlorothiazide
Mannitol
Spironolactone
Triamterene
Tolvaptan
A

Answer: tolvaptan

The Syndrome of Inappropriate Anti-Diuretic Hormone (SIADH) causes an inappropriately high negative free water clearance manifested by retention of water in excess of solute, diluting the plasma Na concentration (hyponatremia) and an inability to form dilute urine in the fully hydrate patient. Competitive antagonists of ADH are useful in these patients to block the effect of inappropriately high circulating levels of ADH and thus reduce and prevent an expanded ECF volume, hypo-natremia and hypo-osmolarity. SIADH patients taking the vaptan class of aquaretic drug will excrete a larger volume of dilute urine, returning plasma volume, Na concentration and plasma osmolarity towards normal levels.

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18
Q

A 62 year-old man with advanced prostate cancer is admitted to the ED with mental obtundation. An electrolyte panel shows a serum Ca++ well above normal levels. Saline infusion and which one of the following drugs would be most useful in the management of his severe hypercalcemia?

Acetazolamide
Furosemide
Hydrochlorothiazide
Mannitol
Spironolactone
A

Answer: Furosemide

The clinical objective of diuretic drug therapy for treatment of hypercalcemia is to decrease the renal reabsorption of calcium in the nephron and thus increase calcium excretion in the urine. Loop diuretics decrease calcium reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. To offset the effect of the diuretic to reduce ECF and blood volume, which would limit the reduction in plasma calcium concentration, an infusion of saline together with the diuretic will be most effective in correcting the hypercalcemia.

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19
Q
Which two drugs can be used to treat SIADH?
Ethacrynic acid
Hydrochlorothiazide
Mannitol
Conivaptan
Spironolactone
Triamterene
Tolvaptan
A

Conivaptan
Tolvaptan

Vasopressin (ADH) receptor antagonist working at the collecting duct to increase free water clearance

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20
Q

Which class of diuretic can be used to treat hypercalcemia?

A

Loop diuretics
Loop diuretics decrease calcium reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. To offset the effect of the diuretic to reduce ECF and blood volume, which would limit the reduction in plasma calcium concentration, an infusion of saline together with the diuretic will be most effective in correcting the hypercalcemia.

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21
Q

A medical student is planning to make a high-altitude climb in South America while on vacation and she will not have time to acclimate to altitude slowly. A drug useful in prevention of high-altitude sickness is?

Acetazolamide
Triamterene
Demeclocycyline
Desmopressin
Ethacrynic acid
A

Answer: Acetazolamide

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are indicated for the prevention of altitude sickness. How carbonic anhydrase inhibitors prevent altitude sickness is unknown.

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22
Q

A 70 year-old women is admitted to the ED because of a “fainting spell” at home. She appears to have suffered no trauma, but her BP is 120/60 when lying down and 60/20 when she sits up. Neurological exam and ECG are normal when she is lying down. Questioning reveals that she has recently started taking “water pills” for a heart condition. Which one of the following drugs most likely caused her fainting spell?

Acetazolamide
Amiloride
Furosemide
Hydrochlorothiazide
Spironolactone
A

Answer: Furosemide

The case history suggests that the syncope (fainting) is associated with diuretic use. Complications of diuretics that can result in syncope include both postural hypotension (as described) due to excessive reduction of blood volume and arrhythmias due to excessive potassium loss in the urine. Potassium wasting is more common with thiazides because of their long duration of action, but these drugs rarely cause a reduction in blood volume sufficient to induce orthostatic hypotension.
Loop diuretics are the most potent and can cause rapid fluid loss

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23
Q

Which one of the following is an important effect of chronic therapy with loop diuretics?

Decrease urinary excretion of Ca++
Elevated blood pressure
Elevated pulmonary vascular pressure
Metabolic alkalosis
Teratogenicity in pregnancy
A

Loop diuretics increase urinary calcium excretion and decrease blood pressure in hypertensive patients and pulmonary vascular pressure in congestive heart failure patients. Loop diuretics have no teratogenic effects on the normal development of the fetus. The important side effects of loop diuretics are “contraction” alkalosis, hypokalemia and ototoxicity.

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24
Q

What two classes of diuretic drugs can cause contraction alkalosis?

A

Loop diuretics

Thaizide diuretics

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25
Q

What diuretics are the most potent?

A

Loop diuretics…may cause rapid fluid loss and lead to syncope or orthostatic hypotension

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26
Q

The important side effects of ________ are “contraction” alkalosis, hypokalemia and ototoxicity.

A
loop diuretics
Furosemide
Bumetanide
Torsemide
Ethacrynic Acid
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27
Q

Which of the following drugs is correctly associated with its site of action and maximal diuretic efficacy?

Thiazide – distal convoluted tubule – 7% of filtered Na+
Spironolactone – proximal convoluted tubule – 40% of filtered Na+
Bumetanide – thick ascending limb of Loop of Henle – 15% of filtered Na+
Metolazone – collecting tubule – 2% of filtered Na+
Mannitol – distal convoluted tubule – 18% 0f filtered Na+

A

Thiazide – distal convoluted tubule – 7% of filtered Na.
Spironolactone acts in the collecting tubule not the proximal convoluted tubule and does not increase the excretion of Na to 40% of the filtered load of Na. The loop diuretic Bumetanide is a highly effective saluretic, increasing Na excretion to levels much more than 15% of the filtered load of Na. Metolazone, a thiazide-like diuretic, acts in the distal convoluted tubule, not the collecting tubule. Mannitol’s action to induce diuresis is attributed mostly to an effect of decreasing fluid reabsorption in the proximal tubule and induces a small increase the fractional excretion of Na, due mostly to downstream compensatory Na reabsorption.

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28
Q
Where does the following class of drug fcn in the nephron?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
A

Proximal tubule
Acetazolamide
Methazolamide
Dichlorphenamide

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29
Q
Where does the following class of drug fcn in the nephron?
Loop diuretics
A
Thick ascending loop of henle
Furosemide
Bumetanide
Torsemide
Ethacrynic Acid
30
Q
Where does the following class of drug fcn in the nephron?
Thiazides
A

(Early) Distal convoluted tubule DCT

31
Q
Where does the following class of drug fcn in the nephron?
K+-sparing diuretics
A
Late distal tubule and Collecting Duct 
Triameterene
Spironolactone
Eplerenone
Amiloride
32
Q
Where does the following class of drug fcn in the nephron?
Mannitol
A

Proximal tubule

33
Q
Where does the following class of drug fcn in the nephron?
Aquaretic
A

Collecting duct
Conivaptan
Tolvaptan

34
Q

Which segment does spironolactone operate in the nephron?

A

K+ sparing diuretic acting in the late distal tubule and collecting duct

35
Q

What class of drug decreases the activity of Na/H antiporter and decreases HCO3 and Na+ (and water) reabsportion. Important side effect of K + excretion, leading to hypokalemia and metabolic acidosis?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhbitors

36
Q

What class of drug inhibits Cl- portion of the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter and results in decreased K+, Ca2+, and Na+ reabsorption and K+ loss (hypokalemia)

A

Loop diuretics

37
Q

What class of drug inhibits the Cl portion of the Na-Cl cotransporter, leading to decreased Na+ (and water) reabsorption, increased Ca2+ reabsoprtion, resultant K+ loss (hypokalemia)

A

Thiazide diuretics

38
Q

What class of drug blocks Na+ channel and Na/H antiporter, decreasing K+ secretion, acid secretion, and increased Ca2+ absorption

A

K+ sparing diuretic

39
Q

A 50 year-old man presents with frequent episodes of renal colic with Ca++-containing renal stones. Careful clinical study reveals defective proximal tubular Ca++ reabsorption, resulting in high concentrations of stone forming Ca++ salts in the tubular fluid and urine. Which one of the following drugs is the best diuretic agent to treat recurrent Ca++ stone formation?

Acetazolamide
Furosemide
Hydrochlorothiazide
Mannitol
Spironolactone
A

Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide

The thiazide diuretics are useful in the prevention of Ca++ stones because these drugs reduce the Ca++ concentration of the tubular fluid due to a probable increase in passive proximal tubular Ca++ reabsorption as well as an increase in Ca++ reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule

Thiazides inhibit the Cl portion of the Na-Cl cotransporter in the luminal membrane of the early distal tubule, increasing Ca2+ reabsoprtion and lowering the Ca2+ level in the tubule

40
Q

T/F: Angiotensin II is a POTENT VASOCONSTRICTOR

A

TRUE

Tehrefore inhibiting it (ACE-I or ABP) will decrease PVR

41
Q
Name the class of diuretic:
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_competitively inhibit Na+K+Cl-transporters in the proximal ascending tubule.
A

•Loop diuretics –

42
Q
Name the class of diuretic:
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_inhibits exchange of Na+Cl-in the distal ascending loop.
A

•Thiazide diuretics –

43
Q
Name the class of diuretic:
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_inhibits Na+ reabsorption in the distal tubule
A

•Potassium sparing diuretics –

44
Q

T/F: Using K+ sparing diuretics is contraindicated in patient with renal failure

A

True because K+ sparing will already put you at risk for HYPERkalemia and combined with Renal failure can worsen this risk.

45
Q
Which of the following is the short-acting ACE-I?
Lisinopril
Quinapril
Ramirpil
Captopril
Benazepril
A

Captopril is the only short acting ACE-I (vasodilator)

46
Q

T/F: ACE-I and ABP are safe to use in hyperkalemic pateints

A

False, they are both contraindicated and both will raise K+ levels in blood and therefore worsen hyperkalemia

47
Q

T/F: Magnesium is useful for HTN during pregnancy (eeclampsia and preeclampsia)

A

True

Also can use hydralazine (vasodilator)

48
Q
Of the Ca2+ channel blockers listed below, which have effects on SA/AV node conduction and therefor inotropy?
Nifedipine
Amlodipine
verapamil
Diltiazam
A

verapamil
Diltiazam
Both are non-dihydropyridimines

49
Q
Which of the following are non-selective B-blockjers?
Labetolol
Carvedilol
Esmolol
Propranolol
Metropolol
A

Propranolol-wil lcause bronchospasm so not used in COPD/asthma patients

Labetolol and Carvedilol are both alpha/beta blockers

50
Q
Which of these have the shorted half life?
Labetolol
Carvedilol
Esmolol
Propranolol
Metropolol
A

Esmolol…used in IV

51
Q
Which of the following are alpha 1 antagonist?
Clonidine
Doxazosin
methyldopa
REserpine
Tetrazosin
A

Doxazosin
Tetrazosin

Reduces vascular resistance by blocking SM receptors
Used for BPH, not really used for HTN anymore since CCB are better
May cause orthostatic HTN (dilating)

52
Q
Which of the following are alpha 2 agonist?
Clonidine
Doxazosin
methyldopa
REserpine
Tetrazosin
A

Clonidine
methyldopa

Stimulating alpha2 will decrease the sympathetic out flow and reduce renin release…but can cause rebound HTN if stopped abruptly

53
Q
Which of the following functions by depleting NE, DA, and 5HT in cetral and peripheral nerves?
Clonidine
Doxazosin
methyldopa
Reserpine
Tetrazosin
A

Reserpine

Decreases CO and systemic vascular resistnace

54
Q
Name the class of Heart failure:
Patients with cardiac disease but without resulting limitations of 
physical activity.  Ordinary physical activity does not cause  undue fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea, or anginal pain.
A

Class I

55
Q
Name the class of Heart failure:
Patients with cardiac disease that results in slight limitation of physical activity.  Patients are comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea, or anginal pain
A

class II

56
Q
Name the class of Heart failure:
Patients with cardiac disease that results in a marked limitation of physical activity.  Patients are comfortable at rest, but less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea, or anginal pain.
A

Class III

57
Q
Name the class of Heart failure:
Patients with cardiac disease resulting in an inability to carry on  any physical activity without discomfort.  Fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea, or anginal pain may be present even at rest.  If any physical activity is undertaken, symptoms increase.
A

Class IV

58
Q

T/F: ACE-I have inotropic and/or chronitropic effects?

A

False…no effect on HR or contractility

59
Q

Which class of antiHTN is useful for a patient with aortic dissection?

A

B blocker

60
Q

How does Initital tx for chronic HTN (at first dx), differ between and african american and non-AA for patients without diabetes or CKD?

A

AA do not respond as well the ACE-I or ARB

Non-AA: initiate thiazide-type diuretic or ACE-I/ARB or CCB alone or in combination

AA: Initiaite thiazide-type diuretic or CCB alone or in combination

If you have CKD (regardless of race), do NOT administer thiazide, instead go with ACE-I or ARB

61
Q

For which kinda of case is MONA used?

A
Acute coronary syndrome
NSTEMI
Morphine
O2
NTG
Aspirin
62
Q

A 23 yo pregnant woman with lupus has HA (headache), proteinurua and BP 160/90…what is correct tx?

A

This is preeclampsia
Nomrally give: Mg2+ and Hydralazine (vasodilator) BUT Hydralazine is contracindicated in lupus ….so you can give other types of anti-HTN like CCBs, thiazides, clonidine..etc

63
Q

50yo acute cocaine intoxication and chest pain. Pulse: 140
BP 180/110
What is correct tx?

A

Benzodiazepene (GABA agonist) will likely bring down pulse and BP…if you still have HTN, then more anti-HTN can be administerd such as nitroglycerine (vasodilator)

B-blockers are contraindicated

64
Q

T/F: both ACE-I and ARB have side effects of angioedema?

A

True

65
Q

How to tx primary HTN w/ no other complicatnios?

A

Thiazide diuretics
ACE-I/ARB
Ca2+ blockers (dihydropyrimidine)

66
Q

T/F: verapamil is contraindicated in WPW

A

True

67
Q

What side effects do the following drugs cause:
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Nitroglycerin
Lovastatin
Digoxin
Quinidine

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors commonly cause dry nonproductive cough.
Nitroglycerin can cause headaches.
Lovastatin commonly causes liver dysfunction.
Digoxin can cause arrhythmias
Quinidine (class Ia) is known to cause muscle weakness.

68
Q
A 47-year-old woman is admitted for the treatment of acute myocardial ischemia. Her prior medication included digoxin for atrial fibrillation. She also suffers from hypertension, for which she is currently not taking anything. Before you discharge her home, you decide to add a medication that works well for hypertension. While she is still on the floor she develops a dangerous arrhythmia, which you are fortunately able to treat promptly. Which medication you added likely increased the effects of digoxin that this patient was already taking?
(A) Valsartan
(B) Hydrochlorothiazide
(C) Hydralazine
(D) Tadalafil
(E) Lovastatin
A

B. Hydrochlorothiazide, a diuretic, is known to cause hypokalemia, a state in which the actions of digoxin can be potentiated to a dangerous level. Valsartan is generally not used as a sole agent for hypertension. Hydralazine lowers blood pressure, but it does not generally cause marked electrolyte disturbances. Tadalafil is an agent used for erectile dysfunction. Lovastatin is an HMG-CoA inhibitor, used for hypercholesterolemia.

69
Q
Which of the following drugs would be the best choice for long-term management of a patient with stable angina?
(A) Nitroprusside
(B) Sildenafil
(C) Metolazone
(D) amilodipine
(E) Propranolol
A

The calcium-channel blocker amlodipine. Nitroprusside must be given by IV infusion. Sildenafil is useful for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. The thiazide-like metolazone would not be of particular benefit. Propranolol is an appropriate choice for treating angina in some patients, but not in the presence of a lung disorder.

70
Q

Nitrates cause a decrease in which one of the following:
Preload
Afterload
Peripheral vascular resistance

A

Decrase in preload since it mainly affects vasodilating veins

71
Q

Nitrates cause a decrease in which one of the following:
Preload
Afterload
Peripheral vascular resistance

A

Decrease in preload since it mainly acts by vasodilating veins
This means decrease cardiac filling and decrease wall stress…therefore decrease O2 demand and decreased CO
used for stable angina…very short halflife so only used for acute symptom relief and not prolonged therapy