Renal Failure Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse has a paitent admitted to their unit with a history of renal failure. The nurse knows that renal failure patients have difficulty regulating these labs?

A
Erythropoietin production 
Blood pressure 
Phosphate 
Calcium 
Potassium 
Sodium 
Protein/Albumin
BUN/creatinine
PT/PTT
Magnesium 
GFR
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2
Q

An ED nurse has a patient with renal failure come in with fatigue, SOB, dizziness and complains of being cold. The patients BP is 160/97 and the patient has edema in her extremities. When the nurse gets the lab results back, what specific labs would the nurse expect the patient to be abnormal? What interventions will the nurse perform?

A

Erythropoietin production will be abnormal r/t the s/s of anemia. Nurse will provide synthetic erythropoiesis stimulating agents.
BP is abnormal. Nurse will control HTN with ARBS or ACE Inhibitors.
Hypernatremia r/t the edema in extremities. Nurse will restrict sodium.

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3
Q

A renal failure patient has a BP of 164/98 and a potassium of 5.9, what is the antihypertensive drug of choice?

A

ARBS

*ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels

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4
Q

A nurse notices that her patients urine for the day had 41mg of protein in it and the patient has edema. What is the nurses intervention?

A

Increase carbs to decrease the breakdown of protein. Diuretics for the edema.

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5
Q

True or false. BUN/creatinine, PT/PTT, magnesium will all rise, while GFR will decrease when renal failure worsens.

A

True

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6
Q

A renal failure patient has a phosphate level of 6mEq/L, what would the nurse expect to see in this patient? What interventions?

A

Hyperphosphatemia: give phosphate binding agents
Hypocalcemia: increase calcium with active Vitamin D

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7
Q

A nurse admits a patient with an acute kidney injury. The cause was determined to be prerenal. The nurse can describe prerenal conditions as…

A

Conditions that decrease systemic blood flow to the kidneys

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8
Q

What are common causes of prerenal acute kidney injury?

A

Hypotension, hypovolemia, overuse of NSAIDs (vasoconstricts blood flow to the kidney’s)

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9
Q

A patient arrives to the ED with acute tubular necrosis and has developed an acute kidney injury. The nurse can determine the cause to be?

A

Intrarenal

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10
Q

What intrarenal cause is the number one cause of renal failure?

A

Diabetes

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11
Q

A patient who had an MRI 3 days ago has an abnormal lab value that went up 25%, what lab would the nurse suspect it is?

A

Creatinine

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12
Q

Renal calculi, BPH, tumor, clots and strictures are all possible causes of what type of acute kidney injury?

A

Postrenal

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13
Q

There are four different periods of acute renal injury, the nurse knows them as what?

A

Initiation Period
Oliguric Period
Diuresis Period
Recovery Period

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14
Q

A male patient who just had an MI is showing signs of renal complications. The patient went from 1000 mL of UO yesterday to only 700 mL of UO today. The patients BUN also went from 14 to 21 and creatinine from 0.9 to 1.3. The nurse knows that the patient is in what period of renal injury? The nurse also knows what caused the injury?

A

The MI caused the injury. The patient is in the initiation period.
S/S: decreased UO, but not oliguric, increase in BUN/creatinine

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15
Q

A nurse is asked by the physician to identify interventions on a patient in the initiation perioid. What would the nurse do?

A

IV fluid bolus for preeanl or intrarenal

Corrention of postrenal obstruction

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16
Q

A patient in the oliguric period asks his nurse how long this phase lasts. The nurses best response is?

A

Every patient varies, but the 18 days or greater is the most common timeframe.

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17
Q

The nurse is calculating her patients UO for the day and determines that the patient has only produced 220 mL of urine for the past 12 hours with a GFR of 48%. Is the patient in renal injury or failure oliguria?

A

The patient is in injury.

Injury is 12 hour oliguria and GFR < 50%

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18
Q

What does the nurse know to be failure oliguria?

A

< 400mL / 24 hours OR anuria / 12 hours w/ further rise in CR and decrease in GFR

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19
Q

Name the labs that would be affected in the oliguric period?

A
Increased BUN/Cr 
Increase K, Mg, phosphorus
Decrease Ca 
ABG (metabolic acidosis)
Low Hgb 
Increased protein in urine 
Decreased Cr clearance in urine
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20
Q

A patient is admitted to your floor in the oliguric period of AKI. No interventions have been done for this patient yet. Before performing any interventions you assess your patient and they have crackles in the lungs and peripheral edema. As the nurse, you would avoid attempting which intervention?

A

Fluid challenge

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21
Q

A patient comes to the ED with s/s of oliguric period AKI. What is the first intervetnion made by the nurse?

A

Identify the underlying cause

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22
Q

Your patient is a healthy 24 year old who got into a MVA and has decreased UO and is showing signs of nephron damage. You detect oliguric period AKI and decide to give a fluid challenge, what do you monitor for?

A

RF Ciruculatory Overload

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23
Q

True or false. Patients in circulatory overload can be given diuretics. If the diruetics don’t increase UO, the nurse will continute to give more diuretics.

A

False. If not responding to diuretics the patient will need diaylsis.

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24
Q

A nurse who has a patient newly transitioned into the diuresis period knows that their patients AKI will what?

A

Resolve with further treatment. B/c kidney’s will begin to regain function.

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25
Q

What is a risk for the diuresis period?

A

Fluid loss and electrolyte changes. Dehydration, hypovolemia, decrease electrolytes.

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26
Q

True or false. In the diuresis period, patients BUN/Cr will increase.

A

False. They will begin the decrease.

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27
Q

A nurse will know that their patient in the diuresis period when their UO is gradual increasing and meeting which minimun?

A

> 400 mL/day and up to 10L /day of dilute urine

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28
Q

The nurse is educating their patient on the recovery period of AKI for discharge teaching. The patient asks how long will the recovery period last and if they need to go see a doctor, the nurse says?

A

Months to a year and that follow up is required with HCP (nephrologist) for frequent labs

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29
Q

In AKI the nephron involvement is what %?

A

50%

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30
Q

In CKD the nephron involvement is what %?

A

75%

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31
Q

How long does CKD last?

A

Permanent

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32
Q

A nurse is teaching a class for specific populations of people at risk for CKD. What comorbidites should be discussed at the class that increases the risk of developing CKD?

A

DM
HTN
Cardiovascular Disease

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33
Q

A nursing students sees Azotemia mentioned on the chart of a CKD patient. The student know that means?

A

A collection of nitrogenous waste in the blood

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34
Q

A chef has recently been diagnosed with CKD. He is extremely concerned about diet modifications that will have to occur. What renal diet information can the nurse provide to the patient?

A

Renal diets are stage dependent. If the client manages to stay in stages 1-3 then no changes will need to be made.
Stage 4/5 decrease protein, phos, potassium and include fluid restriciton
Stage 5 or diaylsis same as stage 4, but increase protein
PD: increase protein, decrease phos, no potassium change, fluid restriction only if anuric

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35
Q

Which stage of CKD is described as a slight decrease in nephron function, no waste accumulation, healthy renal cells still compensating for dead renal cells?

A

Stage 1

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36
Q

What are interventions for Stage 1 CKD?

A

GOAL: keep in stage 1 as long as possible
Focus on CVD risk reduction
Decrease sodium, smoking cessation, exercise and weight control
Assess medications and eliminate any contributing factors: NSAID use and aminoglycosides (end in cin)

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37
Q

Which stage of CKD is described as some waste accumulation, decrease in Cr clearance, slight BUN/Cr increase, microalbuminuria is possible, decreased ability to concentrate urine (waterlike), nocturia, polyuria?

A

Stage 2

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38
Q

What are interventions for Stage 2 CKD?

A

Monitor by 24 hr urine: discard the first urination and then keep on ice
Monitor labs and s/s

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39
Q

Which stage of CKD is described as seperated into 3a and 3b based on GFR. Metabolic waste is apparent, increase in BUN/Cr, microalbuminuria and polyuria cont., initial f/e imbalance, beginning to look ill?

A

Stage 3

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40
Q

What are interventions for Stage 3 CKD?

A

Control comorbidities: blood glucose, lipids, BP

Nephrology consult: dialysis soon to come, need months for fistula to mature

41
Q

Which stage of CKD would be described as more metabolic waste, higher BUN/Cr, possible UO decrease, clinical manifestations present (vary on urea level), more severe f/e imbalance?

A

Stage 4

42
Q

What interventions are for Stage 4 CKD?

A

Follow closely with specialist
Refer to vascular access surgeon for fistual
Monitor/treat: Na, K, Ca, Mg, Phos, bicarb
Anemia/general wellness: iron, folic acid, multivitamin, epoetin alpha

43
Q

Which stage of CKD would be described as kidney has < 15% function, oliguria likely, dialysis necessary to remove fluids and waste?

A

End Stage Kidney Disease (5)

44
Q

What interventions are for ESKD?

A

Prior to dialysis: fluid restriction, decrease protein, K, phos, Na
After dialysis is initiated: increase protein to replace what was removed
Psychosocial support: life altering
Renal transplant option

45
Q

While a nurse is assessing her CKD patient she notices an altered LOC, dysnpea, itching, diarrhea, and hiccups. The nurse can determine that the patient has developed what s/s and has moved into what stage of CKD?

A

The patient has most likely moved into Stage 4 because the patient has developed several uremia symptoms.

46
Q

Uremia symptoms are broken down into body systems. What 6 systems are effected?

A
Neurological 
Cardiac 
Respiratory 
Integumentary 
Gastrointestional 
Musculoskeletal
47
Q

A CKD patient in stage 4 complains of itching skin and asks what is causing the itchiness. The nurse should explain?

A

When too much waste build in the body and has no where else to go, uremic crystals escapre through the skin

48
Q

A major shift in electrolytes is to blame regarding what uremia symptoms?

A

Hiccups and muscle cramps

49
Q

Metabolic waste in CKD is a result of?

A

Increased azotemia waste

Decreased bicarbonate production and decreased reabsorption

50
Q

The build up of nitrogen waste products in the body is known as?

A

Azotemia

51
Q

The build up of urea in the blood is known as?

A

Uremia

52
Q

In metabolic acidosis a common respiratory symptom the nurse would expect to find would be?

A

Rapid & deep respirations (Kussmaul)

53
Q

A patient in ESKD asks the nurse what are the goals of diaylsis. The nurses knows dialysis supports these three concepts?

A
  1. Remove fluid and waste
  2. Improve F/E balance
  3. Adjust acid/base balance
54
Q

A patient with CKD has a BUN of 120, uremic encephalopathy, unresponsive to diuretics and persistent hyperkalemia refractory to treatment. The nurse understand these are all indications of what?

A

Dialysis

55
Q

A patient with CKD in stage 3 wants to know why they will be referred to a nephrologist if they don’t have indicators of diaylsis. The nurse responds by informing the patient of?

A

For dialysis a permanent vascular access device is needed. These take about 3 months to mature.

56
Q

Mr. Jones is recieving a AV fistual procedure this afternoon and wants to know what an AV fistula is. The nurse should ask the surgeon to provide more teaching, but can also share with the patient that an AV fistula is?

A

Anastamoses of artery and vein to allow toleration of high pressure. Usually in the forearm or upper arm.

57
Q

How soon is a patient able to use a AV graft for dialysis?

A

About 2 weeks

58
Q

How would a nurse describe a AV graft?

A

A loop system with tube connecting artery and vein. Can be placed in forearm, upper arm or inner thigh.

59
Q

Mrs. Bell is 2 days post-op of a placement of an inner thigh AV graft and is complaining of pain in the affected thigh. Upon assessment the nurse find a red, hot to the touch area on the inner thigh. What complication of permanent vascular access does the nurse believe Mrs. Bell has developed?

A

A thrombosis

60
Q

A patient with an AV fistula is suspected to have developed an infection at the site. What bacteria is the nurse suspected the patient will test positive for?

A

Staph

61
Q

A nurse would identify which s/s to be associated with diequilibrium syndrome?

A

Headache, N/V, seizures, coma

62
Q

A patient is admitted via the ED and has a AV fistula in her right forearm. What bracelet should the nurse apply to the patient and why?

A

Vascular Alert

No IV, BP or venipuncture on that arm

63
Q

What three important assessments of a permanent vascular access device does that nurse always need to assess?

A
  1. Bruit (auscultaion)
  2. Thrill (palpation)
  3. Distal circulation
64
Q

An unstable patient with CKD in ciruclatory overload and with uremia s/s, needs dialysis. What would the nure expect the patient to undergo?

A

CRRT: continous renal replacement therapy

Temporary

65
Q

A patient receiving CRRT will be admitted to what floor and why?

A

ICU b/c clot risk so needs to be on Heparin drip

66
Q

Hemodyalysis uses a dialyzing solution that is warmed, with f/e mixed based on patients specific labs. This is called?

A

Dialysate

67
Q

Finish this sentense. Water moves by _____ and waste moves by _____.

A

Water moves by osmosis and waste moves by diaylsis.

68
Q

Two hours after dialysis treatment, Mr. Bush trips and falls in his room. Why would the nurse by concerned about this fall?

A

Dialyzer contains Heparin that is active for 4-6hours after dialysis

69
Q

Hemodyalysis catheters are temporary venous access devices until fistulas fully mature. How many lumens are common and what locations can be provided?

A

Double or triple lumen

Internal jugular, femoral, subclavin

70
Q

A patient in ESKD who lives alone and no longer has the energy to drive herself to diaylsis states that she wants something that she is able to do at home. The nurse shoud speak to the doctor about what option?

A

Peritoneal dialysis

71
Q

The nurse is teaching a patient who is going to begin peritoneal dialysis about the procedure to obtain correct results. The patient should repeat back what information?

A
  1. Fill: 1-2 L dialysate infused by gravity over 10-20 minutes, warmed
  2. Dwell: dialysate left to pull waste and fluids (HCP determines the time)
  3. Drain: by gravity
  4. Repeat PRN per orders
    Look at soultion after (should look similar to how it went in)
72
Q

When teaching a patient about PD, the patient states they can warm the dialysate in the microwave. Is this correct?

A

NO

73
Q

The nurse has four patients who need to reconsider dialysis treatment. Which patient(s) would be a best match for PD?
A. A dialysis patient who has had multiple brain bleeds in the past 6 months.
B. A patient who has been on temporary vacular access for 11 months because mulitple AV fistulas have failed.
C. A patient who just recieved a AV fistula and awaiting maturation.
D. A CKD patient who wants to spend more time at home with her cats.

A

ALL

Cannot tolerate antiocoagulation, vascular assess problem, waiting for fistula maturation and choice.

74
Q

A home health nurse is making a visit to their PD patient. When there, he assesses cloudy dialysate, fever and N/V. The patient is obese and elderly. The nurse suspects what complication of PD?

A

Peritonitis

75
Q

A patient complains of pain 4 days after beginning PD. Should the nurse be concerned?

A

No. Pain will subside in 1-2 weeks. To help with pain the patient can warm the dialysate and slow the infusion.

76
Q

What is a WAK?

A

Wearable Artifical Kidney

Continous, good if going to miss a treatment. Patient needs to be taught how to change catheters, filters and chemicals

77
Q

Before the nurses patient goes to dialysis, she needs to do what?

A
Labs reviewed/charted 
Weigh and VS 
Assess site 
Hold dialyzable medications (antihypertensives)
ADLs prior d/t fatigue after
78
Q

Medications that can be given before dialysis would be?

A

Insulin, phosphate binders, fat soluble vitamins, hydromorphones

79
Q

After the nurses patient comes back from dialysis, she needs to do what?

A

Monitor VS, compliants and site.

Avoid invasive procedures 4-6hrs after due to active heparin.

80
Q

True or false. A renal transplant candidate must be free of medical problems that could complicate the procedure and usually between 2 and 70 years old.

A

True

81
Q

A nurse is asked by a patient if there is any exclusions regarding renal transplant candidates. The nurse should respond with what information?

A

Advanced, uncorrectable heart disease
Metastatic cancer: must be cancer and chemo free for 2-5 years (immunocompromised)
Severe pyschological issues (post transplant can bring issues)
Alcohol and drug abuse/dependence

82
Q

True of false. A renal transplant donor must only be living.

A

False.

Living, cadaveric or non-heart beating

83
Q

What are two important compatability studies for pre-operative renal transplant care?

A

HLA (human leukocyte antigens)

Blood typing

84
Q

Pre-operative renal transplant care includes:

A

Compatability studies
Dialysis 24hours before
Blood transfusion from donor to improve outcome

85
Q

Post-operative renal transplant care includes:

A

Large foley placed prior to decompress bladder
Hourly UO for 48hours, high UO is normal and good
Daily urinalysis: blood tinged early is normal
PRN diuretics
May have diuresis

86
Q

A patient who just recieved a new kidney has decreased UO. The nurse knows that this could an indication of what?

A

Rejection

87
Q

A patient who just recieved a new kidney is brought back to the nurses unit. Everything went well, but what Electrolyte and Fluid conerns should the nurse have?

A

Watching for: decrease in K, Na, BP

decreased perfusion threatens graft survival

88
Q

What pre/post renal transplant complication is the most common?

A

ATN: acute tubular necrosis

Treat w/ dialysis until increase in UO and drop in BUN/Cr

89
Q

What post renal transplant complication is considered emergent?

A

Thrombosis of renal vessel
Highest risk 48-72hours post op
Imparied infusion, causes sudden drop in UO

90
Q

What are long term complications after a renal transplant?

A
Infection: immunosuppressant 
  s/s lessened, slight temp increase
Transplant related artery stenosis 
  increase in BP, fluid retention 
  doppler flow study, balloon procedure
91
Q

Rejection is a complication of having a renal transplant. The body treats the transplant as a foreign body. A nurse is caring for a patient that has increased BP, temperature and pain only 3 hours after the procedure. The patient has little UO. What type of rejection does the nurse suspect?

A

Hyperacute: related to poorly matched typing

92
Q

True or false. Acute rejection of a renal transplant is reversible.

A

True. Acute usually occurs days to 3 months. Can reverse the rejection by increasing steroids

93
Q

Chronic Allograft Nephropathy is the most common post transplant decline cause. What causes this chronic rejection to begin?

A

Immunosuppressant meds being too much for kidneys to handle

94
Q

Basilixumab is a monoclonal antibody and antirejection agent, that works by what?

A

Blocking T cells

95
Q

What drug is a calcineurin inhibitor and is a maintence immunotherapy agent?

A

Tacrolimus

96
Q

True of false. Corticosteroids need to be used for life.

A

True, start with high dose then wean down

97
Q

True or false. Death from cardiac disease is most common b/c low perfusion is the leading cause of transplant failure.

A

True

98
Q

A previous strength trainer is being d/c home after a successful renal transplant. What important information should the nurse provide for this specific patient?

A

No heavy lifting

Max: a gallon of milk

99
Q

Why do renal transplant patients need to follow a no unpasterized or raw food diet, including unwashed fruits/veggies?

A

High risk for opportunistic infections