Renal Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

Which fluid volume is more immediately altered by the kidneys?

A

ECF Volume

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2
Q

Where are osmolality sensors located?

What happens when they are activated?

A

Anterior Hypothalamus

When activated, stimulate thirst and causes release of ADH from the pituitary gland

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3
Q

What maintains volume homeostasis?

A

Juxtaglomerular apparatus

Decreased volume @ JGA activates the RAAS system –> Na+ and H2O absorb

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4
Q

What does ADH cause?

A

Water and sodium retention

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5
Q

When would you delay elective surgery for hyponatremia?

A

≤125 and ≥ 155

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6
Q

What are some causes of hypovolemia-related hyponatremia?

A
  1. Diuretics
  2. GI loss
  3. Burns
  4. Trauma
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7
Q

What causes euvolemic hyponatremia?

A
  1. Salt-restriction
  2. Endocrine-Related (Hypothyroid, SIADH)
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8
Q

What causes hypervolemic hyponatremia?

A
  1. AKI/CKD
  2. HF

Most of the time, patients will be hypervolemic and hyponatremic

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9
Q

What is the severe result of hyponatremia?

A

Seizure, coma, death

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10
Q

What are some s/s of Na+ < 120 meq/L?

A
  1. Headache
  2. Restless
  3. Lethargy
  4. Seizures
  5. Brain-stem herniation
  6. Respiratory arrest
  7. Death
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11
Q

Na+ correction should not exceed ____ meq/L/hr

A

1.5 mEQ/L/hr

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12
Q

Rapid correction of greater than ____ meq/L in 24 hours can cause osmotic demyelination syndrome leading to permanent neurological damage

A

Never exceed > 6 meq/L in 24 hours

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13
Q

What is the treatment for hyponatremic seizures?

A

Medical emergency
3-5 mL/kg of 3% saline over 20 minutes until the seizure resolves

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14
Q

How often should you check Na+ levels during repletion?

A

q 4 hours

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15
Q

Whaat are some common causes of hypernatremia?

A
  1. Excessive evaporation
  2. Poor oral intake
  3. Overcorrection of hyponatremia
  4. DI
  5. GI losses
  6. Excessive sodium bicarb from treating acidosis
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16
Q

What are causes of hypovolemic hypernatremia?

A

Renal or GI losses

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17
Q

What are causes of euvolemic hypernatremia?

A

DI and Insensible losses

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18
Q

What are causes of hypervolemic hypernatremia?

A
  1. Increased Na+ intake
  2. Hyperaldosteronism
  3. Cushing’s Dx
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19
Q

What are symptoms of hypernatremia?

A
  1. Orthostasis
  2. Lethargy
  3. Restless
  4. Muscle tremors/twitching/spasticity
  5. Seizure
  6. Death
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20
Q

What should you assess first when deciding how to treat hypernatremia?

A

Assess Volume status

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21
Q

What is the treatment if you are hypovolemic and hypernatremic?

A

NS

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22
Q

What is the treatment if you are euvolemic and hypernatremic?

A

Water replacement (PO or D5W)

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23
Q

What is the treatment if you are hypervolemic and hypernatremic?

A

Diuretics

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24
Q

To avoid cerebral edema, seizures and neuro damage, what rate do you want to decrease serum Na+ by?

A

≤ 0.5 mmol/L/hr and ≤ 10 mmol/L per day

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25
Q

Serum K+ reflects the _______ K+ regulation more than the total body K_

A

Serum K+ reflects the transmembrane K+ levels

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26
Q

Aldosterone and K+ have what type of relationship?

A

Inverse relationship

Causes distal nephron to secrete K+ and reabsorb Na+

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27
Q

How does renal failure affect K+ levels?

A

K+ excretion declines (hyperkalemia)

K+ excretion then shifts towards the GI system in renal failure.

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28
Q

What are 3 major categories for causes of hypokalemia?

A
  1. Renal loss (Diuretic, hyperaldosterone)
  2. GI loss (N/V/D, malabsorption)
  3. Transcellular shift
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29
Q

What can cause an intracellular shift of K+ leading to decreased serum K+?

A
  1. Alkalosis
  2. B-agonist overuse
  3. Insulin overuse
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30
Q

What are cardiac and neuromuscular affects of hypokalemia?

A

Muscle cramps/weakness & Dysrhythmias (U-wave)

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31
Q

Each 10 meq IV K+ will increase serum K by _____ mmol/L

A

0.1 mmol/L

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32
Q

Does PO or IV K+ move the needle faster when repleting K+?

A

PO is more effective

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33
Q

What are some causes of hyperkalemia?

A
  1. Renal failure
  2. Hypoaldosteronism
  3. RAAS inhibitors
  4. Sux
  5. Acidosis
  6. Cell death (Trauma, tourniquet use)
  7. MTP
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34
Q

What are some NM symptoms of hyperkalemia?

A

Skeletal muscle paralysis, decreased fine motor function

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35
Q

What are the progressive CV symptoms of hyperkalemia?

A
  1. Peaked T wave
  2. Loss of P wave
  3. Prolonged QRS
  4. Sine waves
  5. Asystole
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36
Q

How much does Sux increase serum K+ by?

A

0.5-1 meQ/L

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37
Q

If possible, when do we want renal patients to be dialyzed by?

A

24 hours prior to surgery

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38
Q

What are the interventions for hyperkalemia?

A
  1. Calcium (initial)
  2. Hyperventilation (2nd fastest)
  3. Insulin (10 units with 25 g D50)
    -Bicarb, Loop Diuretics, Kayexelate
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39
Q

How does Ca++ work for hyperkalemia?

A

quickly stabilizes the cell membrane to pump the brakes on volume loss

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40
Q

What should you avoid if you are hyperkalemic?

A
  1. Succs
  2. Hypoventilation
  3. LR and K+ containing fluids
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41
Q

___ increase in pH decreases K+ by _____ mmol/L

A

0.1 pH increase decreases K+ by 0.4-1.5 mmol/L

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42
Q

Where is 99% of Ca++ stored? Where is the other 1%?

A

Bone
ECF (1%)

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43
Q

____ % of plasma Ca++ is protein bound to albumin and _______

A

60% is bound to albumin making it inactive

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44
Q

Which type of calcium is physiologically active?

A

plasma ionized calcium

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45
Q

What is normal ionized Ca++ levels?

A

1.2-1.38 mmol/L

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46
Q

Ionized Ca++ levels are affected by what?

A

Albumin levels and pH

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47
Q

Alkalosis has what effect on free ionized Ca++ levels?

A

Alkalosis causes decreased ionized Ca++ levels

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48
Q

What are the 3 hormones that regulate Ca++ levels?

A
  1. Parathyroid hormone
  2. Vitamin D
  3. Calcitonin
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49
Q

What is parathyroid hormone’s effect on Calcium regulation?

A

PTH:
1. increases GI absorption
2. Increases renal absorption
3. Regulates bone/bloodstream levels of Ca++

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50
Q

What are causes of hypocalcemia?

A

1. Decreased PTH secretion (complication from thyroid/PT surgery)
2. Magnesium deficiency
3. Vit. D deficiency
4. Renal failure (Kidney not responding to Vit. D)
5. MTP

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51
Q

What can a drop in PTH levels cause?

A

Larngospasm - need to check baseline and routine PTH levels during surgery

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52
Q

How does Mg affect Ca++ levels?

A

Mag is required for PTH production

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53
Q

How does Vitamin D affect Ca++ levels?

A

Vit. D is required for GI calcium absorption

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54
Q

How is MTP affecting Ca++ levels?

A

Stored blood have citrate in them, which binds to Ca++ in order to prevent clotting

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55
Q

After how many units of blood should you check a Ca++ levels?

A

4 units

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56
Q

If you have a hyper-parathyroid syndrome, what is the serum Ca++ level?
Cancer level?

57
Q

When extubating someone after parathyroidectomy, what should you always be prepared for?

A

Laryngospasm

58
Q

Hypercalcemia causes what NM symptoms?
CV symptoms?

A

Hypotonia & decreased DTR
CV: Short QT-interval

59
Q

Hypocalcemia causes what Nerological symptoms?
CV symptoms?

A

Neuro: Irritability, Paresthesia, Seizures
CV: Myocardial depression, Prolonged QT-interval

60
Q

What are symptoms of hypo-magnesium

A

Muscle weakness/excitation, seizures, Polymorphic VT or Torsades

61
Q

What is the initial treatment for Torsades or hypo-mag induced seizures?

A

2 g of Mag sulfate

62
Q

Hypermagnesium is less common and mostly due to what?

A

Patients on a mag drip who are over treated

63
Q

How do you treat hypermagnesium

A

Diuresis
IV Ca++ to stabilize membrane
Dialysis

64
Q

What symptoms would you see with different Mag levels?

A

4-5 mEq/L: Lethargy, N/V, Flushing
> 6: Hypotension, Decreased DTR
> 10: Paralysis, apnea, heart block, cardiac arrest

65
Q

Kidneys are located retroperitoneal between ____

66
Q

Each kidney has how many nephrons?

A

~ 1 million

67
Q

The outer cortex of the kidney receives what % of RBF?

68
Q

Which part of the kidney is at risk for developing necrosis in response to hypotension?

A

Loop of Henle

69
Q

What are the Primary functions of the kidney?

A
  1. Regulates EC Volume, osmolarity, composition
  2. Regulates BP (Long-term)
  3. Excretes toxin/metabolites
  4. Maintains acid/base
  5. Produces hormones
  6. Glucose homeostasis
70
Q

Through what 2 methods does the kidney regulate volume and BP?

A
  1. RAAS = Increases Na and water absorption
  2. ANP = Increases Na+ and water excretion
71
Q

What hormones do the kidney produce?

A

Renin, EPO, Calcitrol, Prostaglandins

72
Q

What is the function of EPO?

A

EPO is involved in RBC production (many renal patients are often on EPO supplements)

73
Q

Function of Calcitrol?

A

Maintains serum Ca++

74
Q

What is the function of prostaglandins?

A

Inflammatory modulators, vasodilatory effects, enhance renal blood flow

75
Q

What are the kidney’s role in glucose homeostasis?

A

Kidneys play a role in gluconeogenesis and filtration/reabsorption of glucose

76
Q

What is the best measure of renal function over time (for trending) and what is a normal value?

A

GFR (125-140 ml/min)

77
Q

GFR accuracy is heavily influenced by what?

A

Hydration status

78
Q

GFR decreases by _____ mL/min per decade after age 20

A

10 mL/min per decade

79
Q

What is the most reliable measure of GFR (acute changes) and what is the normal value?

A

Creatinine clearance (110-140 mL/min)

80
Q

Is creatinine filtered or absorbed?

A

Freely filtered

81
Q

Serum creatinine is ______ related to GFR

A

Inversely related

82
Q

Double in your serum creatinine can mean a drop in GFR of ____ %

A

50% (Probably means AKI)

83
Q

What is normal serum creatinine and some stats about it?

A

Normal: 0.6-1.3 mg/dL
-Lower in female, higher in males (correlates with muscle mass)
-Can be influenced by high protein diet, supplements, and muscle breakdown

84
Q

What could a low BUN value mean?

A

Malnourished or volume diluted

85
Q

What value tells us how well the kidney is reabsorbing urea, and what is a normal value?

A

BUN
Normal: 10-20 mg/dL

86
Q

What could a high BUN value mean?

A

High protein diet, dehydration, GI bleed, trauma, muscle wasting

87
Q

What is BUN:Creatinine ratio indicative of? and what is normal value?

A

Normal: 10:1 ratio
-Urea nitrogen is reabsorbed and creatinine is not reabsorbed
Indicative of hydration status

88
Q

What is normal protein content in the urine and what suggests glomerular injury or UTI?

A

Normal: < 150 mg/dL
UTI/Injury: > 750 mg/day

89
Q

What value measures the nephron’s ability to concentrate urine? What is normal value?

A

Specific Gravity
Normal: 1.001-1.035
-Compares 1 mL urine to 1 mL distilled water

90
Q

What is a good sign that a patient is “dry”?

A

Orthostatic pressure changes

91
Q

What is a late sign of volume loss?

A

Drop in UOP

92
Q

Definition of Oliguria?

A

< 500 mL in 24 hours

93
Q

IVC collapse of greater than ____ % indicates fluid deficit and fluid responsiveness

94
Q

What is a hallmark sign of AKI?

A

Azotemia: Build up of nitrogenous waste products (urea, creatinine) due to failure to excrete or maintain fluid homeostasis

95
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for AKI? Other risk factors?

A

Pre-existing Renal disease
-Age, CHF, PVD, DM, Sepsis (HypoTN), Jaundice, Major surgery, IV contrast

96
Q

What are the 4 diagnostic criteria for AKI?

A
  1. SCr increase by 0.3 mg/dL in 48 hrs
  2. SCr increase by 50% in 7 days
  3. Decreased CrCl by 50%
  4. Abrupt oliguria (not always seen)
97
Q

Hemorrhage, Surgery, Burns, Cardiogenic shock, Aortic clamping, Thromboembolism are examples of what type of Azotemia?

A

Pre-renal Azotemia

98
Q

Glomerulonephritis, vasculitis, contrast dye, myoglobinuria are examples of what type of azotemia?

A

Renal Azotemia

99
Q

Nephrolithiasis, BPH, clot retention, bladder carcinoma are examples of what type of azotemia?

A

Post-renal Azotemia

100
Q

Pre-renal Azotemia is the most common and reversible because the patient is still reabsorbing

A

Na+ and H2O

101
Q

Treatment for Pre-renal Azotemia?

A

Restore RBF: Fluids, mannitol, diuretics, maintain MAP, pressors?

102
Q

What is the BUN:Cr ratio for pre-renal and Renal AKI?

A

Pre-Renal: >20:1
Renal: < 15:1

103
Q

In renal AKI, there is ______ urea reabsorption in the PCT leading to ____ BUN levels

A

Decreased urea reabsorption leading to decreased BUN levels

104
Q

In renal AKI, there is ____ creatinine filtration leading to ____ serum Cr levels

A

Decreased Cr filtration leading to increased Serum Cr levels

105
Q

In post-renal AKI there is increased nephron tubular hydrostatic pressure and reversibility is dependent on

106
Q

What is a hallmark symptom of post-renal AKI?

A

Hydronephrosis (swelling of kidney d/t build-up of urine)

107
Q

Neuro complications of AKI are related to __________ build up in the blood

A

Protein/amino acid

108
Q

Neuro symptoms of AKI are:

A
  1. Uremic encephalopathy
  2. Motility disorder
  3. Neuropathies
  4. Myopathies
  5. Seizures
  6. Stroke (build up of uremic proteins in the blood)
109
Q

CV symptoms of AKI are

A
  1. Systemic HTN
  2. LV hypertrophy
  3. CHF
  4. Arrhythmias
  5. Pulmonary edema (late)
  6. Uremic cardiomyopathy (late)
110
Q

Hematological signs of AKI are

A
  1. Anemia
  2. Decreased EPO production, Decreased RBC, decreased RBC survival
  3. Platelet dysfunction (vWF is disrupted by uremia)
111
Q

What can you give prophylactically due to the vWF disturbance in AKI?

A

Prophylactic DDAVP (tachyphylaxis - choose the surgery that will have the most blood loss)

112
Q

Is hypo or hyperalbumin seen in AKI?

A

Hypo-albumin (kidneys allowing albumin to escape)

113
Q

What acid-base status will someone with AKI be in?

A

Metabolic Acidosis

114
Q

What type of parathyroid activity will you see in AKI?

A

Hyperparathyroidism - PT is trying to act in overdrive in an attempt to stimulate the kidneys to reabsorb Ca++

115
Q

What is the fluid of choice for renal patients?

116
Q

What is the pressor of choice for renal patients?

A

Vasopressin over alpha agonists because it constricts the efferent arteriole which helps maintain RBF

117
Q

What is the use of prophylactic sodium bicarb for renal patients?

A

Decreases formation of free radicals and prevents ATN from causing renal failure

118
Q

What drugs should you avoid in renal patients?

A

Demerol and Morphine (drugs with active metabolites)

119
Q

What labs do you want within a couple of hours of surgery on renal patients?

A

Recent K+ level

120
Q

What is the leading cause of CKD? Is CKD reversible?

A

Diabetes (38%)
HTN (26%)
CKD is irreversible

121
Q

What characterizes Stage 1 CKD?

A

Kidney damage w/ normal or increased GFR
GFR: > 90 mL/min
Usually undiagnosed

122
Q

What characterizes Stage 2 CKD?

A

Kidney damage w/ midly decreased GFR
GFR: 60-89 mL/min

123
Q

What characterizes Stage 3 CKD?

A

Moderately decreased GFR
GFR: 30-59 mL/min

124
Q

What characterizes Stage 4 CKD?

A

Severely decreased GFR
GFR: 15-29 mL/min
Dialysis starts here

125
Q

What characterizes Stage 5 CKD?

A

Kidney Failure
GFR: <15 mL/min
Dialysis dependent

126
Q

In CKD, ______ is both a cause and a consequence

A

Hypertension

127
Q

What is the first-line medication for CKD induced HTN?

A

Thiazide diuretics (First line)
-May need ACE-I and ARB

128
Q

What are the benefits of ACE-I and ARBs?

A
  1. Decrease BP & glomerular BP
  2. Decrease proteinuria by reducing glomerular hyperfiltration
  3. Decrease glomerulosclerosis
129
Q

Which populations are at risk for silent MI?

A

Women and Diabetics

130
Q

Whether or not to transfuse due to anemia from CKD is weighed because excess hgb can lead to

A
  1. Sluggish circulation
  2. Acidosis
  3. Hyperkalemia
131
Q

What is the leading cause of death in dialysis patients?

132
Q

We want a ______ within 24 hours of surgery for appropriate drug dosing

A

Weight pre-post dialysis

133
Q

What is the best NMB on a non-RSI CKD patient?

A

Nimbex (metabolized in the plasma instead of renal)

134
Q

What can happen if you give morphine to a CKD patient?

A

Life-threatening respiratory depression

134
Q

What would you want to use to reverse NMB on a renal patient?

A

Sugammadex, Neostigmine uses renal excretion

135
Q

What can happen if you give demerol to a CKD patient?

A

Neurotoxicity (Nervousness, tremors, muscle twitch, seizures)
-Accumulation of normeperidine due to long elimination half life (15-30 hours)

136
Q

K+ level of ____ or greater results in delay of elective surgery

A

5.5 meQ/L or greater

137
Q

What are pre-operative concerns for renal patients?

A
  1. K+ level (<5.5)
  2. Aspiration prophylaxis
  3. Anesthesia & sx will decrease RBF and GFR
  4. Blood loss activates baroreceptors which increase SNS outflow
  5. Catecholamines activate a-1 receptors which constrict afferent arteriole leading to decreased RBF
  6. Longer periods of hypotension (cross-clamping, hemorrhage, sepsis) all decrease RBF