Renal and Urology Flashcards

1
Q

What is AKI and what are the NICE guidelines for what qualifies as AKI?

A

A rapid drop in kidney function

Increased creatinine > 26micromol/L in 48hrs

Increased creatinine > 50% in 7 days

Urine output <0.5 ml/kg/hr over 6hrs (Oliguria)

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2
Q

What are the risk factors for AKI?

A

> 65 years
Sepsis
CKD
HF
Diabetes
Liver disease
Cognitive impairment (leading to reduced fluid intake)
Medications (e.g., NSAIDs, gentamicin, diuretics and ACE inhibitors)
Radiocontrast agents (e.g., used during CT scans

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3
Q

What are the pre-renal causes of AKI?

A

Pre-renal (most common):
Insufficient blood supply (hypoperfusion) to kidneys reduces the filtration of blood

Dehydration
Shock (e.g., sepsis or acute blood loss)
Heart failure

Urine osmolality high, urine sodium low

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4
Q

What are the renal causes of AKI?

A

Renal causes:
Intrinsic disease in the kidney

Acute tubular necrosis (most common)
Glomerulonephritis
Acute interstitial nephritis
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Rhabdomyolysis

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5
Q

What are the post-renal causes of AKI?

A

Post-renal:
Obstruction to the outflow of urine away from the kidney, causing back-pressure into the kidney and reduced kidney function (Obstructive uropathy)

Kidney stones
Tumours (e.g., retroperitoneal, bladder or prostate)
Strictures of the ureters or urethra
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (benign enlarged prostate)
Neurogenic bladder

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6
Q

What is acute tubular necrosis?

A

Necrosis of the epithelial cells of the renal tubules due to:

  • Ischaemia due to hypoperfusion (e.g., dehydration, shock or heart failure)
  • Nephrotoxins (e.g., gentamicin, radiocontrast agents or cisplatin)

granular, muddy brown casts on urinalysis

Cells regenerate 1-3 weeks therefore reversible

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7
Q

What is Acute Interstitial Nephritis? What are its features and management?

A

Acute inflammation of the interstitium caused by:

Drugs (NSAIDs,penicillin, rifampicin, allopurinol, furosemide)
Infections (E. coli or HIV)
Autoimmune conditions (sarcoidosis or SLE, Sjorgens syndrome)

Features:
Impaired renal function
‘allergic’ type picture (raised urinary WCC and eosinophils),
Rash
Fever
Flank pain
Eosinophilia

Treat underlying cause. Steroids may reduce inflammation and improve recovery

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8
Q

What are the investigations for AKI?

A

U&Es

Urinalysis assesses for protein, blood, leucocytes, nitrites and glucose:

Leucocytes and nitrites suggest infection
Protein and blood suggest acute nephritis (but can be positive in infection)
Glucose suggests diabetes

Ultrasound of the urinary tract assesses for obstruction when a post-renal cause is suspected.

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9
Q

What is the management for AKI?

A

Reverse underlying cause:

IV fluids for dehydration and hypovolemia

Withhold medications that may worsen the condition (e.g., NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors)

Withhold/adjust medications that may accumulate with reduced renal function (e.g., metformin and opiates)

Relieve the obstruction in a post-renal AKI (e.g., insert a catheter in a patient with prostatic hyperplasia)

Dialysis may be required in severe cases

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10
Q

What are some complications of AKI?

A

Fluid overload, heart failure and pulmonary oedema

Hyperkalaemia

Metabolic acidosis

Uraemia can cause encephalopathy and pericarditis

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11
Q

What differs in U&Es between acute tubular necrosis and prerenal uraemia?

A

Prerenal uraemia - kidneys hold on to sodium to preserve volume

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12
Q

What are the staging criteria for AKI?

A

Stage 1:

Increase in creatinine to 1.5-1.9 times baseline
Increase in creatinine by ≥26.5 µmol/L,
Reduction in urine output to <0.5 mL/kg/hour for ≥ 6 hours

Stage 2:

Increase in creatinine to 2.0 to 2.9 times baseline
Reduction in urine output to <0.5 mL/kg/hour for ≥12 hours

Stage 3

Increase in creatinine to ≥ 3.0 times baseline
Increase in creatinine to ≥353.6 µmol/L
Reduction in urine output to <0.3 mL/kg/hour for ≥24 hours
The initiation of kidney replacement therapy
In patients <18 years, decrease in eGFR to <35 mL/min/1.73 m2

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13
Q

When should you refer AKI to a nephrologist?

A

Renal transplant
ITU patient with unknown cause of AKI
Vasculitis/ glomerulonephritis/ tubulointerstitial nephritis/ myeloma
AKI with no known cause
Inadequate response to treatment
Complications of AKI
Stage 3 AKI
CKD stage 4 or 5
Qualify for renal replacement hyperkalaemia / metabolic acidosis/ complications of uraemia/ fluid overload (pulmonary oedema)

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14
Q

What is CKD and what are some causes?

A

Chronic reduction in kidney function sustained over 3 months. It tends to be permanent and progressive

(<60 mL/min/1.73m² for ≥3 months) and/or kidney damage (proteinuria, haematuria).

Diabetes
Hypertension
Medications (e.g., NSAIDs or lithium)
Glomerulonephritis
Chronic Pylenophritis
Polycystic kidney disease

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15
Q

What is the presentation of CKD

A

Most are asymptomatic. Can present with:

Fatigue
Pallor (due to anaemia)
Foamy urine (proteinuria)
Nausea
Loss of appetite
Pruritus (itching)
Oedema
Hypertension
Peripheral neuropathy

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16
Q

What are investigations for CKD?

A

eGFR below 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 for 3 months
Proteinuria (ACR) above 3 mg/mmol for 3 months
Haematuria (Urine Dipstick)
Renal Ultrasound
BP
HbA1c
Lipid profile

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17
Q

What is the classification of CKD?

A

G1, eGFR >90 A1, ACR< 3 mg/mmol

G2, eGFR 60-89 A2, ACR 3-30 mg/mmol

G3a eGFR 45-59 A3, ACR > 30 mg/mmol

G3b eGFR 30-44

G4, eGFR 15-29

G5, eGFR < 15

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18
Q

What is accelerated progression CKD

A

A sustained decline in the eGFR within one year of either 25% or 15 mL/min/1.73m2

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19
Q

What are some complications of CKD?

A

Anaemia
Renal bone disease
Cardiovascular disease
Peripheral neuropathy
End-stage kidney disease
Dialysis-related complications

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20
Q

When should you refer for CKD?

A

eGFR < 30 mL/min

Urine ACR > 70 mg/mmol

Accelerated progression

5-year risk of requiring dialysis over 5%

Uncontrolled hypertension despite 4 or more antihypertensives

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21
Q

What can you do to treat the underlying cause of CKD?

A

Optimising diabetic control
Optimising hypertension control
Reducing or avoiding nephrotoxic drugs
Treating glomerulonephritis

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22
Q

How can you manage BP in CKD?

A

BP target is 130/80 ( <80yrs) and ACR> 70

ACE inhibitors (or angiotensin II receptor blockers)

SGLT-2 inhibitors (specifically dapagliflozin)

Furosemide for fuid overload

EPO for anaemia related to CKD

Renal replacement therapy (RRT): Dialysis or kidney transplant when GFR is below 15 mL/min/1.73m² or when complications (e.g., uraemia, hyperkalaemia) develop.

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23
Q

What medication is prescribed to all patients with CKD for CVD risk?

A

Atorvastatin

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24
Q

When are ACE inhibitors offered for hypertension in CKD?

A

Diabetes plus a urine ACR above 3 mg/mmol

Hypertension plus a urine ACR above 30 mg/mmol

All patients with a urine ACR above 70 mg/mmol

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25
Q

When are SGLT2 Inhibitors offered for hypertension in CKD?

A

Offered to patients with:

  • Diabetes plus a urine ACR above 30 mg/mmol

Considered for patients with:

  • Diabetes plus a urine ACR or 3-30 mg/mmol
  • Non-diabetics with an ACR of 22.6 mg/mmol or above
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26
Q

How is anaemia of CKD treated?

A

Oral Iron for 3 months

if the target not reached, IV iron

EPO

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27
Q

What are the features of renal bone disease?

A

Chronic kidney disease-mineral and bone disorder (CKD-MBD)

High serum phosphate
Low vitamin D activity
Low serum calcium

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28
Q

What is the management of CKD-MBD?

A

Reduced dietary intake of phosphate is recommended

First-line:
- Phosphate binders (sevelamer)
- Vitamin D: alfacalcidol, calcitriol
- Parathyroidectomy

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29
Q

What is Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)

A

A genetic condition where the healthy kidney tissue is replaced with many fluid-filled cysts.

The most common inherited cause of CKD (PKD1 and PKD2)

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30
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for ADPKD?

A

Ultrasound diagnostic criteria:

2 cysts, unilateral or bilateral, if aged < 30 years
2 cysts in both kidneys if aged 30-59 years
4 cysts in both kidneys if aged > 60 years

CT/MRI: For more detailed imaging, especially in patients with equivocal ultrasound findings.

Genetic testing: In some cases, to confirm ADPKD in asymptomatic individuals.

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31
Q

What are some symptoms of ADPKD?

A

Hypertension (early sign due to cyst enlargement).

Abdominal pain from cysts pressing on surrounding structures.

Haematuria (from cyst rupture or bleeding).

Chronic kidney disease with progression to end-stage renal failure in adulthood.

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32
Q

What is the treatment for ADPKD?

A

Antihypertensives for hypertension (e.g., ACE inhibitors)
Analgesia for acute pain
Antibiotics for infections (e.g., UTIs or cyst infections)
Drainage of symptomatic can be performed by aspiration or surgery
Dialysis for end-stage renal failure
Renal transplant for end-stage renal failure

Tolvaptan (vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist if:

CKD G2/3 at the start of treatment
Rapidly progressing CKD

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33
Q

What external factors can affect the result of eGFR?

A

Pregnancy

Muscle mass (e.g. amputees, body-builders)

Eating red meat 12 hours before the sample being taken

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34
Q

What are the modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors of diabetic nephropathy?

A

Modifiable

Hypertension
Hyperlipidaemia
Smoking
Poor glycaemic control
Raised dietary protein

Non-modifiable:

Male sex
Duration of diabetes
Genetic predisposition (e.g. ACE gene polymorphisms)

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35
Q

What is the management of diabetic nephropathy?

A

Screened annually using ACR
should be an early morning specimen
ACR > 2.5 = microalbuminuria

Management

Dietary protein restriction

Blood glucose control: Tight control with insulin or oral hypoglycaemics (e.g., Metformin, SGLT2 inhibitors like Empagliflozin, which may also slow progression of kidney disease).

Blood pressure control: Aim for < 130/80 mmHg, ACE inhibitors (e.g., Ramipril, Lisinopril) or ARBs (e.g., Losartan, Irbesartan) are first-line to reduce proteinuria and slow kidney function decline. If urinary ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more

Statins: Atorvastatin for cardiovascular protection.

Diuretics: To manage fluid retention.

Renal replacement therapy: In end-stage renal disease (ESRD), consider dialysis or kidney transplant.

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36
Q

What are the stages of diabetic nephropathy?

A

Stage 1

  • Hyperfiltration: increase in GFR,
    may be reversible

Stage 2 (silent or latent phase)

  • Most patients do not develop microalbuminuria for 10 years
    GFR remains elevated

Stage 3 (incipient nephropathy)

  • Microalbuminuria (albumin excretion of 30 - 300 mg/day, dipstick negative)

Stage 4 (overt nephropathy)

  • Persistent proteinuria (albumin excretion > 300 mg/day, dipstick positive)
  • Hypertension
  • Histology shows Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules

Stage 5
- ESRD, GFR typically < 10ml/min
- Renal replacement therapy needed

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37
Q

What is Diabetes Inspidius?

A

Decreased secretion of ADH from the pituitary (cranial DI)

OR

Insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI).

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38
Q

What are some causes of cranial DI?

A

Idiopathic
post head injury
pituitary surgery
craniopharyngiomas
infiltrative
histiocytosis X
sarcoidosis
Wolframs syndrome/ DIDMOAD (association of cranial Diabetes Insipidus, Diabetes Mellitus, Optic Atrophy and Deafness)
haemochromatosis

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39
Q

What are some causes of nephrogenic DI?

A

genetic:
more common form affects the vasopressin (ADH) receptor
less common form results from a mutation in the gene that encodes the aquaporin 2 channel

electrolytes:
hypercalcaemia
hypokalemia

lithium
lithium desensitizes the kidney’s ability to respond to ADH in the collecting ducts

demeclocycline

tubulointerstitial disease: obstruction, sickle-cell, pyelonephritis

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40
Q

What are the features of DI? What investigation would you do and what would you see?

A

polyuria
polydipsia

Investigation

  • Urine osmolality: Very low (hypotonic) urine in the face of hypernatremia (>700 mOsm/kg excludes DI)
  • Plasma osmolality: Elevated, due to fluid loss.
  • Water deprivation test: To differentiate between central and nephrogenic DI.
  • Desmopressin (DDAVP) test: Central DI will respond to DDAVP with a significant reduction in urine output.
  • MRI: For imaging the pituitary gland to identify structural abnormalities in central DI.
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41
Q

What is the management of DI?

A
  • Central DI:
    Desmopressin
  • Nephrogenic DI:
    Low salt/protein diet
    Thiazide diuretics (e.g., Hydrochlorothiazide) to reduce urine output.
    Indomethacin (NSAID) may be added to enhance the effect of thiazides.
    Amiloride may be used for lithium-induced nephrogenic DI to decrease renal resistance to ADH.
  • Fluid management: Ensure adequate water intake to prevent dehydration, particularly in hot weather or when ill.
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42
Q

What is Rhabdomyolysis?

A

Skeletal muscle breaking down and releasing:

Myoglobin
Potassium
Phosphate
Creatine kinase

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43
Q

What are some causes of Rhabdomyolysis?

A

Prolonged immobility, particularly frail patients who fall and spend time on the floor before being found

Extremely rigorous exercise beyond the person’s fitness level (e.g., endurance events or CrossFit)

Crush injuries

Seizures

Statins

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44
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Rhabdomyolysis?

A
  • Muscle pain, weakness, and swelling.
  • Dark (tea-coloured) urine due to myoglobinuria.
  • Reduced urine output (oliguria)
  • Elevated creatine kinase (CK), lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and serum potassium.
  • Fever, nausea, and confusion in severe cases
  • Fatigue
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45
Q

What are the investigations for Rhabdomyolysis?

A

CK: < 150 usually, elevated to 1000-100000, higher = increased risk of kidney injury

Urine dipstick (myoglobinuria)

U&E shows AKI and increased K+

ECG can show increased K+

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46
Q

What is the management for Rhabdomyolysis?

A

IV fluids

IV sodium bicarbonate (to increase urinary pH and reduce the toxic effects of myoglobinuria)

IV mannitol (to increase urine output and reduce oedema

Avoid nephrotoxic agents: Stop medications that may worsen renal function, such as NSAIDs and statins.

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47
Q

What are the 3 features of nephrotic syndrome?

A
  1. Proteinuria (> 3g/24hr) causing
  2. Hypoalbuminaemia (< 30g/L) and
  3. Oedema
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48
Q

What are the primary causes of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Minimal change disease

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)

Membranous nephropathy

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49
Q

What are the secondary causes of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Diabetes mellitus

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE),

Amyloidosis

Infections (HIV, hepatitis B and C),

Drugs (NSAIDs, gold therapy)

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50
Q

What is the pathophysiology of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Damage to the glomerular basement membrane and podocytes leads to increased protein permeability.

This proteinuria results in hypoalbuminaemia and subsequent oedema due to reduced plasma oncotic pressure

Loss of antithrombin-III, proteins C and S and an associated rise in fibrinogen levels predispose to thrombosis

Loss of thyroxine-binding globulin lowers the total, but not free, thyroxine levels.

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51
Q

What are the investigations for nephrotic syndrome?

A

Urine dipstick: proteinuria and check for microscopic haematuria

MSU to exclude UTI

Quantify proteinuria using an early morning urinary protein: creatinine ratio or albumin: creatinine ratio

FBC and coagulation screen

U&Es

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52
Q

What are some complications of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Risk of thromboembolism related to loss of antithrombin III and plasminogen in the urine
- DVT, PE
- Renal vein thrombosis, resulting in a sudden deterioration in renal function

Hyperlipidaemia
increasing risk of ACS, stroke etc

CKD

Infection due to urinary immunoglobulin loss

Hypocalcaemia (vitamin D and binding protein lost in urine)

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53
Q

What are the features of minimal change disease?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

Normotension - hypertension is rare

Highly selective proteinuria
- only intermediate-sized proteins such as albumin and transferrin leak through the glomerulus

Renal biopsy
- normal glomeruli on light microscopy
- electron microscopy shows the fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes

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54
Q

What is the management of minimal change disease?

A

Oral corticosteroids: 80% are steroid-responsive

Cyclophosphamide for steroid-resistant cases

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55
Q

What are the causes of FSGS?

A

Idiopathic

Secondary to other renal pathology e.g. IgA nephropathy, reflux nephropathy

HIV

Heroin

Alport’s syndrome

Sickle-cell

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56
Q

What is the management of FSGS?

A

Steroids +/- Immunosuppressants

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57
Q

What is membranous glomerulonephritis?

A

Most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third most common cause of end-stage renal failure (ESRF). It usually presents with nephrotic syndrome or proteinuria.

Renal biopsy demonstrates:
electron microscopy: the basement membrane is thickened with subepithelial electron-dense deposits. This creates a ‘spike and dome’ appearance

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58
Q

What are some causes of membranous glomerulonephritis?

A

Idiopathic: due to anti-phospholipase A2 antibodies

Infections: hepatitis B, malaria, syphilis

Malignancy (in 5-20%): prostate, lung, lymphoma, leukaemia

Drugs: gold, penicillamine, NSAIDs

Autoimmune diseases: systemic lupus erythematosus (class V disease), thyroiditis, rheumatoid

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59
Q

What is the management for membranous glomerulonephritis?

A

ACE inhibitor or ARB

Corticosteroid + cyclophosphamide

Severe or progressive disease requires immunosuppression

Anticoagulation for high-risk patients

60
Q

What is the rule of thirds for membranous glomerulonephritis?

A

1/3: spontaneous remission
1/3: remain proteinuric
1/3: develop ESRF

61
Q

What is Alport’s syndrome?

A

X-linked dominant pattern.

Defect in the gene coding for type IV collagen = abnormal glomerular-basement membrane (GBM).

Alport’s syndrome usually presents in childhood.

62
Q

What are the features of Alport’s syndrome?

A

Microscopic haematuria

Progressive renal failure

Bilateral sensorineural deafness

Lenticonus: protrusion of the lens surface into the anterior chamber

Retinitis pigmentosa

Renal biopsy: splitting of lamina densa seen on electron microscopy

63
Q

What is the management for Alport’s syndrome?

A
  • Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors (e.g., Ramipril, Lisinopril) or Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) (e.g., Losartan, Irbesartan) to reduce proteinuria and slow kidney disease progression
  • Steroids (e.g., Prednisolone) for significant proteinuria or glomerulonephritis, although efficacy is variable
  • Renal replacement therapy (RRT): Considered when ESRD develops (e.g., haemodialysis or kidney transplant). Renal transplantation with a matched kidney is preferred, but patients should be monitored for recurrence of Alport’s syndrome in the transplanted kidney
  • Hearing aids or cochlear implants may be required for hearing loss
  • Ophthalmic monitoring: Regular eye exams to detect and manage lenticonus and other ocular issues
64
Q

What is Goodpasture’s syndrome?

A

Anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) disease

Small-vessel vasculitis associated with both pulmonary haemorrhage and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

65
Q

What are the features of Goodpastures’s syndrome?

A

Pulmonary haemorrhage

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

Rapid onset acute kidney injury

Nephritis → proteinuria + haematuria

66
Q

What is the management of Goodpastures’s syndrome?

A

Plasmapheresis

Steroids

Cyclophosphamide, Azathioprine

67
Q

What is Haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Generally seen in young children, caused by Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli

Triad of:
- AKI
- Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
- Thrombocytopenia

68
Q

What are the investigations for Haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

FBC
- Anaemia: microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia (HB < 8 g/dL with a negative Coomb’s test)
- Thrombocytopenia
- Fragmented blood film: schistocytes and helmet cells

U&Es

Stool culture:
- Evidence of STEC infection
- PCR for Shiga toxins

69
Q

What is the management of Haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A
  • Supportive care:
    Fluid and electrolyte balance management (avoid excessive fluid in oliguric phases).
    Dialysis: For those with severe AKI or fluid overload
  • Antibiotics: Generally not recommended, as they may increase the risk of haemolysis in STEC-induced HUS.
  • Plasmapheresis: In severe cases, especially with neurological involvement or poor response to supportive care.
  • RBC transfusions: For significant anaemia.
70
Q

What are the key differences between IgA nephropathy and Post-strep glomerulonephritis?

A

IgA nephropathy

1-2 days after URTI
Young Males
Macroscopic haemturia

PSG

1-2 weeks after URTI
Proteinuria
Low complement

71
Q

What can cause rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome
Wegener’s granulomatosis (GPA)
others: SLE, microscopic polyarteritis

72
Q

What are the features of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?

A

Nephritic syndrome: haematuria with red cell casts, proteinuria, hypertension, oliguria

Features specific to the underlying cause:
- Haemoptysis with Goodpasture’s
- Vasculitic rash
- Sinusitis with Wegener’s)

73
Q

What are the clinical features of pyelonephritis?

A

Fever, rigors
Loin pain
Nausea/vomiting

Symptoms of cystitis may be present:
Dysuria
Urinary frequency

74
Q

What are the investigations and management of pyelonephritis?

A

MSU

  • Antibiotics:
    First-line: Oral Ciprofloxacin or Co-amoxiclav for uncomplicated cases.
    For severe cases: IV Ceftriaxone or Piperacillin-tazobactam.
    Pregnant women: IV Cefuroxime or Ceftriaxone
  • Pain relief: Paracetamol or NSAIDs for discomfort.
  • Hydration: Ensure adequate fluid intake to aid in flushing out the infection.
75
Q

What is Renal cell cancer and what are its features?

A

Known as hypernephroma and accounts for 85% of primary renal neoplasms. It arises from proximal renal tubular epithelium

classical triad:
- Haematuria, loin pain, abdominal mass

Pyrexia of unknown origin

Endocrine effects
- May secrete erythropoietin (polycythaemia)
- Parathyroid hormone-related protein (hypercalcemia)
- Renin
- ACTH

25% have metastases at presentation

Paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome

Varicocele
- Majority left-sided
- Caused by the tumour compressing veins

Stauffer syndrome
- Paraneoplastic disorder associated with renal cell cancer
- Presents as cholestasis/hepatosplenomegaly

76
Q

What are the tumour criteria for Renal cell cancer?

A

T1: <7cm and confined to the kidney

T2: >7cm and confined to the kidney

T3: Tumour invades major veins or perinephric tissue but not adrenal gland or Gerotas fascia

T4: Tumour invades adrenal gland and Gerotas fascia

77
Q

What is the management of renal cell cancer?

A

Partial or total nephrectomy depending on the tumour size (T1 tumour = partial nephrectomy)

Alpha-interferon and IL-2 reduce tumour size and also treat patients with metastases

Sorafenib, sunitinib can also be used

78
Q

What is the management for SLE renal complications?

A

Treat hypertension

Initial therapy:
- Glucocorticoids with either mycophenolate or cyclophosphamide

Subsequent therapy
- Mycophenolate is generally preferred to azathioprine to decrease the risk of developing end-stage renal disease

79
Q

What is the management for renal stones?

A

Analgesia
- PR/IV diclofenac (CVS events beware)
- Paracetamol IV if insufficient

Alpha Blockers for dilation of ureter (Tamsulosin)

Renal stones
- watchful waiting if < 5mm and asymptomatic
- <20 mm shockwave lithotripsy OR ureteroscopy(pregnant)
- > 20 mm percutaneous nephrolithotomy

Uretic stones
- < 10mm shockwave lithotripsy +/- alpha blockers
- 10-20 mm ureteroscopy

Obstructive pyelonephritis
- Nephrostomy tube

80
Q

What are the investigations for renal stones?

A

Initial investigations
- Urine dipstick and culture
- Serum creatinine and electrolytes: check renal function
- FBC / CRP: look for associated infection
- Calcium/urate: look for underlying causes

Imaging
- NCCT-KUB within 24hrs
- If fever immediate NCCT-KUB
- Ultrasound for pregnant women and children
- Obstructive pyelonephritis (immediate NCCT-KUB)

81
Q

What are the causes of a normal anion gap?

A

gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss: diarrhoea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula
renal tubular acidosis
drugs: e.g. acetazolamide
ammonium chloride injection
Addison’s disease

82
Q

What are the causes of a raised anion gap?

A

lactate: shock, hypoxia
ketones: diabetic ketoacidosis, alcohol
urate: renal failure
acid poisoning: salicylates, methanol
5-oxoproline: chronic paracetamol use

83
Q

What is an anion gap?

A

(sodium + potassium) - (bicarbonate + chloride)

A normal anion gap is 8-14 mmol/L

84
Q

What are some features of BPH?

A

BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which may be categorised into:

Voiding symptoms (obstructive):
- weak or intermittent urinary flow
- straining
- hesitancy
- terminal dribbling
- incomplete emptying

Storage symptoms (irritative)
- urgency
- frequency
- urgency incontinence
- nocturia

Post-micturition
- dribbling

Complications
- UTI
- retention
- obstructive uropathy

85
Q

What are the investigations for BPH?

A

Dipstick urine

U&Es: particularly if chronic retention is suspected

PSA: should be done if there are any obstructive symptoms, or if the patient is worried about prostate cancer

Urinary frequency-volume chart
should be done for at least 3 days

International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS)

Score 20-35: severely symptomatic
Score 8-19: moderately symptomatic
Score 0-7: mildly symptomatic

86
Q

What is the management of BPH?

A

Watchful Waiting

First Line
- a1 antagonists
- tamsulosin, alfuzosin

Second Line
- 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors
- finasteride

Combination therapy

Surgical Intervention (prostate resection)

87
Q

What is TURP syndrome?

A

TURP syndrome is a rare and life-threatening complication of transurethral resection of the prostate surgery.

presents with CNS, respiratory and systemic symptoms

88
Q

What are the features of prostatitis?

A

Pain can be referred to the perineum, penis, rectum or back

Obstructive voiding symptoms may be present

Fever and rigors

DRE: tender, boggy prostate gland

89
Q

What is the management of prostatitis?

A
  • Acute bacterial prostatitis:
    Oral antibiotics: First-line treatment includes Trimethoprim, Ciprofloxacin, or Levofloxacin (for 4-6 weeks).
    In severe cases, IV antibiotics like Ceftriaxone followed by oral therapy.
  • Chronic bacterial prostatitis:
    Long-term antibiotics (e.g., Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin) for up to 12 weeks.
  • Non-bacterial prostatitis: Symptomatic treatment with alpha-blockers (e.g., Tamsulosin) and NSAIDs for pain relief.
  • Pelvic floor physical therapy: For chronic prostatitis related to pelvic muscle dysfunction.
  • Screen for STI
90
Q

What are the features of prostate cancer?

A

Localised prostate cancer is often asymptomatic.

Possible features

  • bladder outlet obstruction: hesitancy, urinary retention
  • haematuria, haematospermia
  • pain: back, perineal or testicular
  • DRE: asymmetrical, hard, nodular enlargement with loss of median sulcus
91
Q

What are the investigations of prostate cancer?

A

First Line:
- multiparametric MRI
- previously used to be Transrectal ultrasound-guided biopsy (TRUS)

5-point Likert scale

If the Likert scale is >=3 a multiparametric MRI-influenced prostate biopsy is offered

If the Likert scale is 1-2 then NICE recommend discussing with the patient the pros and cons of having a biopsy

92
Q

What are the PSA thresholds for the different ages?

A

< 40 Use clinical judgement
40–49 > 2.5
50–59 > 3.5
60–69 > 4.5
70–79 > 6.5
> 79 Use clinical judgement

93
Q

What is the management for localised prostate cancer (T1/T2)?

A

Conservative: active monitoring & watchful waiting

Radical prostatectomy
Radiotherapy: external beam and brachytherapy

94
Q

What is the management for localised advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4)?

A

hormonal therapy: Goserelin, Bicalutamide, Cyproterone acetate, Abiraterone

Radical prostatectomy

External beam and brachytherapy

95
Q

What are the complications of radical prostatectomy and external beam and brachytherapy?

A

Radical prostatectomy
- Erectile Dysfunction

External beam and
- brachytherapyProctitis and are also at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer

96
Q

What are the features of a hydrocele?

A

SNT swelling of the hemi-scrotum.

Usually anterior to and below the testicle
the swelling is confined to the scrotum

Transilluminates with a pen torch

Testis may be difficult to palpate if the hydrocele is large

97
Q

What is the management of a hydrocele?

A

infantile hydroceles
- repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years

Adults
- a conservative approach may be taken depending on the severity of the presentation. Further investigation (e.g. ultrasound) is usually warranted however to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumour

98
Q

What are the features and investigations for a varicocele?

A

Bag of worms
Subfertility

Ultrasound

99
Q

What is the management of a varicocele?

A

Conservative

Occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain.

100
Q

What are the 3 types of bladder cancer?

A

Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma (>90% of cases)
Squamous cell carcinoma ( 1-7% -except in regions affected by schistosomiasis)
Adenocarcinoma (2%)

101
Q

What are the features of bladder cancer?

A

85% will present with painless, macroscopic haematuria

102
Q

What is the treatment of bladder cancer?

A

Superficial lesions = TURBT

Recurrences/ higher grade/ risk = intravesical chemotherapy.

T2 diseases = radical cystectomy and ileal conduit or radical radiotherapy.

103
Q

What are the T-staging criteria for bladder cancer?

A

T0 No evidence of tumour
Ta Non-invasive papillary carcinoma
T1 Tumour invades sub-epithelial connective tissue
T2a Tumor invades superficial muscularis propria (inner half)
T2b Tumor invades deep muscularis propria (outer half)
T3 Tumour extends to perivesical fat
T4 Tumor invades any of the following: prostatic stroma, seminal vesicles, uterus, vagina
T4a Invasion of the uterus, prostate or bowel
T4b Invasion of the pelvic sidewall or abdominal wall

104
Q

What are the N-staging criteria for bladder cancer?

A

N0 No nodal disease
N1 Single regional lymph node metastasis in the true pelvis (hypogastric, obturator, external iliac, or presacral lymph node)
N2 Multiple regional lymph node metastasis in the true pelvis (hypogastric, obturator, external iliac, or presacral lymph node metastasis)
N3 Lymph node metastasis to the common iliac lymph nodes

105
Q

What are the M-staging criteria for bladder cancer?

A

M0 No distant metastasis
M1 Distant disease

106
Q

What are the features of cystitis?

A

More than 6 weeks of:

Suprapubic pain, worse with a full bladder and is often relieved by emptying the bladder

Frequency of urination

Urgency of urination

Symptoms may be worse during menstruation

107
Q

What are the investigations of cystitis?

A

Urinalysis for urinary tract infections

Swabs for sexually transmitted infections

Cystoscopy for bladder cancer

Prostate examination for prostatitis, hypertrophy or cancer

108
Q

What is the management of cystitis?

A

Supportive ( Bladder retraining, pelvic floor, CBT, Diet, Alcohol)

Anticholinergic medications (e.g., solifenacin or oxybutynin)
Mirebegron (beta-3-adrenergic-receptor agonist)
Cimetidine (histamine-2-receptor antagonist)

Hydrodistention

Surgical Intervention

109
Q

What are the features of an epididymal cyst?

A

Separate from the body of the testicle

Found posterior to the testicle

110
Q

What is Epididymo-orchitis?

A

Inflammation of the epididymis.
Orchitis is inflammation of the testicle.

Epididymo-orchitis is usually the result of an infection in the epididymis and testicle on one side.

111
Q

What are the features of Epididymo-orchitis?

A

Testicular pain
Dragging or heavy sensation
Swelling of testicle and epididymis
Tenderness on palpation, particularly over epididymis
Urethral discharge (should make you think of chlamydia or gonorrhoea)
Systemic symptoms such as fever and potentially sepsis

112
Q

What investigations should be done for Epididymo-orchitis?

A

Urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity (MC&S)

Chlamydia and gonorrhoea NAAT testing on a first-pass urine

Charcoal swab of purulent urethral discharge for gonorrhoea culture and sensitivities

Saliva swab for PCR testing for mumps, if suspected

Serum antibodies for mumps, if suspected (IgM – acute infection, IgG – previous infection or vaccination)

Ultrasound may be used to assess for torsion or tumours

113
Q

What is the management for Epididymo-orchitis?

A

Acutely very unwell or septic patients are admitted to the hospital for treatment (IV antibiotics).

Patients at risk of sexually transmitted infection should be referred urgently to genitourinary medicine (GUM) for assessment and treatment.

Enteric organism causing:

  • Ofloxacin for 14 days
  • Levofloxacin for 10 days
  • Co-amoxiclav for 10 days (where quinolones are contraindicated)

STI causing:

  • Intramuscular ceftriaxone 500mg IM (single dose) + Doxycycline 100mg BD 10-14days
  • Ofloxacin
114
Q

What are the features of testicular cancer?

A

Painless lump on the testicle. Occasionally it can present with testicular pain.

Non-tender (or even reduced sensation)
Arising from testicle
Hard
Irregular
Not fluctuant
No transillumination

Gynaecomastia (Leydig cell tumour)

115
Q

What are the 2 types of testicular cancer?

A

Seminomas

Non-seminomas (mostly teratomas)

116
Q

What are the investigations for testicular cancer?

A

Scrotal ultrasound

Tumour markers for testicular cancer are:

Alpha-fetoprotein – may be raised in teratomas (not in pure seminomas)
Beta-hCG – may be raised in both teratomas and seminomas
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) is a very non-specific tumour marker

Staging CT scan to look for spread

117
Q

What are the common places for testicular cancer to metastasise to?

A

Lymphatics
Lungs
Liver
Brain

118
Q

What is the Royal Marsden staging system:

A

Testicular staging system:

Stage 1 – isolated to the testicle
Stage 2 – spread to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes
Stage 3 – spread to the lymph nodes above the diaphragm
Stage 4 – metastasised to other organs

119
Q

What is the management for testicular cancer?

A

Surgery to remove the affected testicle (radical orchidectomy) – a prosthesis can be inserted

Chemotherapy

Radiotherapy

Sperm banking to save sperm for future use, as treatment may cause infertility

120
Q

What is the presentation of UTIs?

A

Dysuria (pain, stinging or burning when passing urine)
Suprapubic pain or discomfort
Frequency
Urgency
Incontinence
Haematuria
Cloudy or foul-smelling urine
Confusion is commonly the only symptom in older and frail patients

121
Q

What extra symptoms would occur in pyelonephritis as opposed to UTIs?

A

Fever
Loin/back pain
Nausea/vomiting
Renal angle tenderness on examination

122
Q

What investigations are used for UTIs and what would be present?

A

Nitrites – suggest gram -ve bacteria in the urine (E.coli)

Leukocytes - suggest infection

RBC. Microscopic haematuria/ macroscopic haematuria
can present with bladder cancer or nephritis.

MSU will determine the infective organism and the antibiotics that will be effective in treatment. Important in:

Pregnant patients
Patients with recurrent UTIs
Atypical symptoms
When symptoms do not improve with antibiotics

123
Q

What is the most common cause of UTIs? What are the other causes?

A

E.coli

gram-negative, anaerobic, rod-shaped

Other causes:

Klebsiella pneumonia (gram-negative anaerobic rod)
Enterococcus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Candida albicans (fungal)

124
Q

What is the management fo UTIs?

A

Trimethoprim
Nitrofurantoin (avoided in patients with an eGFR <45)

Alternatives:
- Pivmecillinam
- Amoxicillin
- Cefalexin

Duration of Antibiotics
- 3 days of antibiotics for simple lower urinary tract infections in women
- 5-10 days of antibiotics for immunosuppressed women, abnormal anatomy or impaired kidney function
- 7 days of antibiotics for men, pregnant women or catheter-related UTIs

125
Q

What is the management of UTIs in pregnancy?

A

UTI in pregnancy requires 7 days of antibiotics.

All women should have an MSU

  • Nitrofurantoin (avoid in the 3rd trimester) neonatal haemolysis
  • Amoxicillin (only after sensitivities are known)
  • Cefalexin

Trimethoprim needs to be avoided in the 1st trimester as it works as a folate antagonist. Can cause congenital malformations, particularly neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida). It is not known to be harmful later in pregnancy but is generally avoided unless necessary.

126
Q

What are the features of urethritis?

A

Dysuria and/or urethral discharge although it is asymptomatic in up to 30% of men.

127
Q

What are the causes of urethritis?

A
  • Gonococcal urethritis (NGU)

Common causes of NSU
- Chlamydia trachomatis
- Ureaplasma urealyticum
- Mycoplasma genitalium

128
Q

What are the investigations of urethritis?

A

urethral swab: Gram stained, looking for the presence of leukocytes and Gram-negative diplococci

Chlamydia is now increasingly diagnosed using urinary NAAT

129
Q

What is the management of urethritis?

A

Oral doxycycline (7 days)

Single dose of oral azithromycin

130
Q

What is the classification of incontinence?

A

Overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence
- Urge to urinate is quickly followed by uncontrollable leakage ranging from a few drops to complete bladder emptying

Stress incontinence:
- leaking small amounts when coughing or laughing

Mixed incontinence: both urge and stress
overflow incontinence: due to bladder outlet obstruction, e.g. due to prostate enlargement

Functional incontinence
- comorbid physical conditions impair the patient’s ability to get to a bathroom in time
- dementia, sedating medication and injury/illness resulting in decreased ambulation

131
Q

What are the investigations for incontinence?

A

Bladder diaries should be completed for a minimum of 3 days

Vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse and the ability to initiate voluntary contraction of the pelvic floor
muscles (‘Kegel’ exercises)

Urine dipstick and culture

Urodynamic studies

132
Q

What is the management of Overactive Bladder UI?

A

Bladder retraining (lasts for a minimum of 6 weeks)

Bladder stabilising drugs: antimuscarinics are first-line
- oxybutynin, tolterodine or darifenacin
- mirabegron in frail elderly patients

133
Q

What is the management of stress UI?

A

Pelvic floor muscle training
Duloxetine
Surgical intervention

134
Q

What is a clinical indication for dialysis for AKI?

A

Uraemia (encephalopathy or pericarditis) is an indication for dialysis

135
Q

How do you calculate the Urea: creatinine ratio?

A

Urea / (creatinine/1000)

136
Q

What is the urine osmolality level for acute tubular necrosis?

A

Acute tubular necrosis - urine osmolality < 350 mOsm/kg

137
Q

What is a supportive sodium finding for acute tubular necrosis?

A

Urine sodium > 40 mmol/L

138
Q

What is the screening test for APKD?

A

Ultrasound abdomen

139
Q

What drug can be used in hypercalciuria and renal stones to cause calcium excretion and reduce stone formation?

A

Thiazide diurectics

140
Q

What should all patients who have CKD be prescribed?

A

Statins

141
Q

What is the potassium requirement per day when prescribing fluids?

A

1 mmol/kg/day

142
Q

What does a disproportional rise in urea compared to creatinine suggest about the AKI presentation?

A

AKI is due to dehydration

143
Q

What is Nephritic syndrome?

A
  • Nephritic syndrome is characterized by glomerular inflammation due to immune-mediated processes, often following infections (e.g., post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis) or systemic diseases (e.g., lupus nephritis, IgA nephropathy).
  • It results in haematuria, hypertension, oedema, and renal insufficiency.
144
Q

What are some features of Nephritic syndrome?

A
  • Haematuria (often with red cell casts)
  • Hypertension, oedema (especially periorbital or lower limbs)
  • Oliguria and azotaemia (elevated serum creatinine and urea)
  • Proteinuria, but less than in nephrotic syndrome
145
Q

What are the investigations for Nephritic syndrome?

A
  • Urinalysis: Red blood cell casts, haematuria, mild proteinuria
  • Blood tests: Elevated creatinine, urea, and evidence of inflammation (e.g., elevated CRP, ESR)
  • Complement levels: Low C3 in conditions like post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
  • Renal biopsy: To confirm the underlying cause (e.g., immune deposits in lupus nephritis)
146
Q

What is the management for Nephritic syndrome?

A
  • Supportive care:
    Control hypertension (using ACE inhibitors or ARBs)
    Manage oedema with diuretics (e.g., Furosemide)
  • Corticosteroids: In autoimmune causes like lupus nephritis or IgA nephropathy
  • Plasmapheresis: In severe or rapidly progressing disease (e.g., Goodpasture’s syndrome)
147
Q
A