Renal Flashcards

1
Q

What is hypernatraemia?

A

Serum sodium levels >145mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give 4 symptoms of hypernatraemia

A
Lethargy 
Thirst 
Weakness
Irritability 
Confusion 
Coma 
Fits
Signs of dehydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give 4 hypotonic causes of hypernatraemia

A
Vomiting
Diarrhoea
Burns 
Diabetes insipidus 
Osmotic diuresis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give 2 causes of normotonic hypernatraemia

A

Primary aldosteronism

Iatrogenic (excess IV saline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is hypernatraemia managed?

A

Replace water loss orally

Can give 5% glucose slowly (1L/6hrs) or 0.9% saline if hypotonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is hyponatremia?

A

Serum sodium <135 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Give 5 symptoms of hyponatremia

A
Anorexia
Nausea
Malaise
Headache
Irritability 
Confusion 
Weakness
Seizures
Increased risk of falls
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give 3 causes of hypervolaemic hyponatraemia

A

Nephrotic syndrome
Heart failure
Liver cirrhosis
Renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give 4 causes of hypovolaemic hyponatraemia

A
Diarrhoea
Vomiting 
Trauma 
Small bowel obstruction 
Addison's disease
Renal failure 
Osmotic diuresis 
Diuretic excess
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give 3 causes of normovolaemic hyponatraemia

A

SIADH
Severe hypothyroidism
Glucocorticoid insufficiency
Iatrogenic (excessive IV 5% glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is chronic hyponatraemia managed?

A

Fluid restriction
ADH antagonist
Treat underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is acute symptomatic hyponatraemia managed?

A

Rehydration slowly
Furosemide
ADH antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is hyponatraemia treated in an emergency?

A

1.8% saline given at 70 mmol of Na+ per hour alongside Furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is hyperkalaemia?

A

Serum potassium >6.5 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperkalaemia?

A

Fast irregular pulse, chest pain, weakness, palpitations, lightheadedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What ECG changes are seen in hyperkalaemia?

A

Tall tented T waves
Increased PR interval
Absent P wave
Widened QRS complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give 5 potential causes of hyperkalaemia

A
Oliguric renal failure 
K+ sparing diuretics
Rhabdomyolysis
Metabolic acidosis
Addison's disease
Burns 
ACE inhibitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is hyperkalaemia managed in a non-emergency?

A

Treat underlying cause

Calcium resonium 15g/8hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is hyperkalaemia managed in an emergency?

A
Calcium gluconate 10% (30ml) 
IV insulin (10 units) in 25g of glucose 
Salbutamol nebuliser (10-20mg)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is hypokalaemia?

A

Serum potassium <2.5 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the symptoms of hypokalaemia?

A

Muscle weakness, hypotonia, hyporeflexia, cramps, tetany, palpitations, lightheadedness, constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What ECG changes are seen in hypokalaemia?

A

Small or inverted T waves
U waves
Long PR interval
Depressed ST segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Give 5 causes of hypokalaemia

A
Diuretics
Vomiting 
Diarrhoea
Cushing's syndrome 
Steroid excess
Conn's syndrome 
Alkalosis
Pyloric stenosis
Renal tubular failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is hypokalaemia treated?

A

Oral K+ supplement
Swap to K+ sparing diuretic
Can give IV potassium if severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is hypercalcaemia?

A

Serum calcium >2.6 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Give 5 symptoms of hypercalcaemia

A
Bones, stones, groans and psychiatric moans 
Abdominal pain 
Vomiting 
Constipation 
Polyuria
Polydipsia
Depression 
Anorexia
Weight loss
Tiredness
Weakness
High blood pressure
Confusion 
Pyrexia
Renal stones 
Renal failure 
Ectopic calcification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What ECG change is seen in hypercalcaemia?

A

Reduced QT intervl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Give 4 causes of hypercalcaemia

A
Bone metastases
Primary hyperparathyroidism 
Sarcoidosis
Thyrotoxicosis
Lithium use
HIV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is hypercalcaemia treated?

A

IV 0.9% saline to correct dehydration
Bisphosphonates
Treat the cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is hypocalcaemia?

A

Serum calcium <2.1 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the symptoms of hypocalcaemia?

A
SPASMODIC
Spasms
Perioral paresthesia
Anxious 
Seizures
Muscle tone increased
Orientation impaired (confusion) 
Dermatitis
Impetigo infection 
Choreoarthritis, cataracts, cardiomyopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Chvostek’s sign?

A

In hypocalcaemia, the corner of the mouth twitches if the facial nerve is tapped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is Trousseau’s sign?

A

In hypocalcemia when a blood pressure cuff is inflated. The reduced blood flow to the hand causes ischaemia so the hand contracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Give 3 causes of hypocalcaemia alongside a raised phosphate

A

CKD
Hypoparathyroidism
Rhabdomyolysis
Hypomagnesaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Give 3 causes of hypocalcaemia alongside a normal or lowered phosphate

A
Vitamin D deficiency 
Osteomalacia 
Acute pancreatitis
Overhydration 
Respiratory alkalosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is hypocalcaemia treated?

A

Mild: Calcium 5 mmol/6hr PO
Severe: 10 ml 10% calcium gluconate IV over 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is glomerulonephritis?

A

A term for a number of conditions which affect the glomerulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the 3 main nephrotic syndromes?

A

Minimal change
Focal segmental glomerulonephritis
Membranous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the 3 main nephritic syndromes?

A

IgA nephropathy
Goodpasture’s syndrome
Vasculitis disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a UTI?

A

Infection of the ureter, bladder or prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the 2 most common microbial causes of a UTI?

A

E.coli

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Give 4 risk factors for developing a UTI

A
Sexual activity 
Urinary incontinence
Diabetes
Dehydration 
Immunosuppression 
Pregnancy 
Renal tract malformation 
Elderly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Give 3 symptoms of a UTI

A
Increased urinary frequency
Dysuria
Urgency 
Suprapubic pain 
Polyuria 
Haematuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What tests can be done to diagnose a UTI?

A

Urine dipstick
MSU culture
FBC, U&Es, CRP
Ultrasound scan (recurrent UTIs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the treatment for an uncomplicated UTI?

A

3 day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin

46
Q

What is the treatment for a complicated UTI?

A

7 day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin

47
Q

Which UTI antibiotic should be avoided in T1 of pregnancy?

A

Trimethoprim

48
Q

Which UTI drug should be avoided in T3 of pregnancy?

A

Nitrofurantoin

49
Q

What is pyelonephritis?

A

Infection of the upper urinary tract

50
Q

Give 4 symptoms of pyelonephritis

A

Fever, rigors, vomiting, loin to groin pain, costovertebral pain, lower UTI symptoms, septic shock

51
Q

What is the treatment for pyelonephritis?

A

14 day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin

52
Q

What is rhabdomyolysis?

A

Excessive skeletal muscle breakdown causing a release of cellular contents into the blood. Cytokine release and decrease in nitric oxide causes vasoconstriction. Myoglobin release obstructs the glomeruli.

53
Q

Give 4 risk factors for rhabdomyolysis

A
History of trauma 
Recent surgery 
Immobility 
Seizures
Hyperthermia
Excessive exercise
54
Q

Give 4 symptoms of rhabdomyolysis

A

Muscle pain
Swelling
Tenderness
Red-brown urine

55
Q

How is rhabdomyolysis diagnosed?

A

Serum myoglobin

Serum creatinine kinase

56
Q

What electrolyte disturbance is common in rhabdomyolysis?

A

Hyperkalaemia

57
Q

How is rhabdomyolysis treated?

A

Treat hyperkalaemia

IV fluid rehydration

58
Q

What is hyperuricaemia?

A

High levels of urate in the blood due to increased cell turnover

59
Q

Which drugs can cause hyperuricaemia?

A

Cytotoxics
Thiazides
Loop diuretics
Pyrazinamide

60
Q

Apart from drugs, what are 5 other causes of hyperuricaemia?

A

Gout, CKD, hyperparathyroidism, preeclampsia, lymphoma, psoriasis

61
Q

How is hyperuricaemia treated?

A

Allopurinol
Rehydration
Loop diuretics
Retrograde ureteric catheterisation

62
Q

Where are the 3 most common sites for urinary stones?

A

Pelviureteric junction
Pelvic brim
Vesicoureteric junction

63
Q

What is the composition of most types of urinary stones?

A

Calcium oxalate

64
Q

What are the symptoms of urinary stones?

A
Loin to groin pain
Renal colic
Lower UTI symptoms 
Haematuria 
Anuria
65
Q

How is a urinary stone treated acutely?

A

Analgesia
IV fluids
Increase fluid intake
Antibiotics if needed

66
Q

How is a urinary stone <5mm treated?

A

Conservative- let it pass naturally

67
Q

How is a urinary stone >5mm treated?

A

Nifedipine
Alpha blockers
Lithotripsy
Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (keyhole surgery)

68
Q

How can kidney stones be prevented?

A

Good hydration, low calcium and oxalate diet, allopurinol, thiazide diuretic

69
Q

What is autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?

A

Inherited condition where many small, fluid filled sacs appear on the kidney

70
Q

Give 4 symptoms of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

A
Abdominal pain 
Hypertension symptoms (headache, nosebleeds, blurred vision, SOB)
Haematuria
Upper UTI symptoms 
Kidney stone symptoms
71
Q

How is autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease treated?

A

Treat complications as normal (ie. hypertensives)
Analgesia (not NSAIDs)
Tolvaptan (reduces size of the cysts)
Plan for future CKD

72
Q

Give 3 potential complications from autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

A

Liver cysts
CV disease
Brain aneurysms

73
Q

What is AKI?

A

Acute decreased renal function

74
Q

What is stage 1 AKI?

A

Serum creatinine >26umol/L over 48 hours
OR >1.5-1.9 x baseline serum creatinine over 7 days

PLUS <0.5 ml/kg/hr urine output over >6 hours

75
Q

What is stage 2 AKI?

A

> 2.0-2.9 x baseline serum creatinine over 7 days

PLUS <0.5 ml/kg/hr urine output over >12 hours

76
Q

What is stage 3 AKI?

A

Serum creatinine >354umol/L over 48 hours
OR >3 x baseline serum creatinine over 7 days
OR if on renal replacement therapy

PLUS <0.3 ml/kg/hr urine output over >24 hours
OR anuric for > 12 hours

77
Q

Give 4 risk factors for AKI

A
CKD
Old age 
Male 
Diabetes 
CV disease
Malignancy 
Chronic liver disease
Complex surgery
78
Q

Give 5 potential causes for prerenal AKI

A
Haemorrhage 
D&amp;V 
Burns 
Pancreatitis
Hypotension 
MI 
Cardiogenic shock 
Sepsis 
NSAIDs
ACE inhibitors 
ARB 
Hepatorenal syndrome
79
Q

Give 4 renal causes of AKI

A

Glomerulonephritis
Infection
Drug reaction
Vasculitis

80
Q

Give 5 causes of post renal AKI

A
Stone 
Malignancy 
Stricture 
Clot 
Prostatic hypertrophy 
Retroperitoneal fibrosis
81
Q

Give 2 potential complications of AKI

A

Hyperkalaemia

Metabolic acidosis

82
Q

How is AKI treated?

A

IV fluids
Treat the cause
Stop nephrotoxic drugs

83
Q

What is CKD?

A

Abnormal kidney function for >3 months which results in health implications

84
Q

What is stage 1 CKD?

A

Mild kidney damage, eGFR >90

85
Q

What is stage 2 CKD?

A

Mild kidney damage with eGFR 60-89

86
Q

What is stage 3 CKD?

A

Moderate kidney damage with eGFR 30-59

87
Q

What is stage 4 CKD?

A

Severe kidney damage with eGFR 15-29

88
Q

What is stage 5 CKD?

A

End-stage renal disease with eGFR <15 or on dialysis

89
Q

Give 4 potential causes of CKD

A
Diabetes
Glomerulonephritis
Renovascular disease
Heart failure
Nephrotoxic drugs
90
Q

How is CKD managed?

A
ACE inhibitor
Control diabetes
Lose weight 
Stop smoking 
Reduce CV risk --> aspirin and low dose statins 
Plan for RRT in the future
91
Q

What is dialysis?

A

Artificial filtration of the blood used when the kidneys can no longer function

92
Q

When is dialysis started?

A

1 or more of the following symptoms:

  • Pulmonary oedema
  • Uncontrollable high blood pressure
  • Serositis
  • Acid-base and electrolyte imbalances
  • Pruritis
  • Deterioration of nutritional status
  • Cognitive impairment
93
Q

Explain the process of haemodyalysis

A

Blood is passed over a semi-permeable membrane against dialysis fluid moving in the opposite direction.

94
Q

How many times a week must haemodyalysis be done?

A

3 times a week

95
Q

Where is the blood collected from the body in haemodyalysis?

A

AV fistula in the arm

Uses brachial artery and cephalic vein

96
Q

Give 4 potential problems of haemodyalysis

A
Creating AV fistula 
Thrombosis 
Stenosis 
Infection 
Blockage 
Cerebral oedema
Hypotension 
Time consuming
97
Q

Explain the process of peritoneal dialysis

A

Uses the peritoneum as a semi-permeable membrane. A catheter is placed into the peritoneal cavity and fluid is infused. The solutes move across and into the blood.

98
Q

Give 2 potential problems of peritoneal dialysis

A

Catheter site infection
Peritonitis
Hernia
Loss of membrane function over time

99
Q

What is haemofiltration?

A

Type of dialysis used in emergency situations when haemodyalysis cannot be used because the blood pressure is too low.

100
Q

Give 5 complications of dialysis

A
Hypertension 
Vascular stiffness
Dysregulation of calcium and phosphate 
Oxidative stress
Bone disease
Infection 
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Arthralgia
101
Q

In which patients is renal transplantation contraindicated?

A

HIV
Cancer with metastases
Active infection
CV disease

102
Q

Which 4 types of drugs are required for a renal transplant?

A

Monoclonal antibodies
Calcineurin inhibitors
Antimetabolites
Glucocorticoids

103
Q

Give 5 potential complications of a renal transplant

A
Rejection 
Surgical bleed
Infection 
Thrombosis 
Hernia 
Delayed graft function 
Malignancy (x25 increased risk of cancer)
104
Q

Give 4 symptoms of renal cell carcinoma

A
Haematuria
Lump in kidney area
Weight loss
Fever
Persistent pain in lower back 
Tiredness 
Loss of appetite 
Weight loss
105
Q

What is stage 1 renal cell carcinoma?

A

<7cm mass inside kidney

106
Q

What is a stage 2 renal cell carcinoma?

A

> 7cm mass inside kidney

107
Q

What is a stage 3 renal cell carcinoma?

A

Cancer has spread to adrenal glands, nearby veins or 1 nearby lymph node

108
Q

What is stage 4 renal cell carcinoma?

A

More than 1 lymph node affected or spread to distant area of the body

109
Q

In what ways can renal cell carcinomas stage 1-3 be treated?

A

Surgery
Cryotherapy
Radiotherapy
Artificial embolisation (block blood flow to kidney)

110
Q

How is a stage 4 renal cell carcinoma treated?

A

Chemotherapy

Hormone therapy