Renal Flashcards

1
Q

what is the normal ACR for an adult?

A

increased urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (>3.5 mg/mmol for women or >2.5 mg/mmol for men)

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2
Q

what is the treatment for diabetic nephropathy?

A
  1. dietary protein restriction
  2. tight glycaemic control
  3. BP control: aim for < 130/80 mmHg
  4. ACE inhibitor or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist -
    should be start if urinary ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more
  5. control dyslipidaemia e.g. Statins
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3
Q

what is the treatment for lupus nephritis?

A

Lupus nephritis is initially managed with high-dose steroids alongside either mycophenolate or cyclophosphamide. The preferred treatment for maintenance is mycophenolate.

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4
Q

what are the WHO classification of lupus nephritis?

A

class I: normal kidney
class II: mesangial glomerulonephritis
class III: focal (and segmental) proliferative glomerulonephritis
class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
class V: diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis
class VI: sclerosing glomerulonephritis

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5
Q

what is the most common form of lupus nephritis and how it is treated?

A

Class IV (diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis) is the most common and severe form. Renal biopsy characteristically shows the following findings:
glomeruli shows endothelial and mesangial proliferation, ‘wire-loop’ appearance
if severe, the capillary wall may be thickened secondary to immune complex deposition
electron microscopy shows subendothelial immune complex deposits
granular appearance on immunofluorescencew

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6
Q

whats the difference between contrast media toxicity and nephropathy?

A

Contrast media nephrotoxicity may be defined as a 25% increase in creatinine occurring within 3 days of the intravascular administration of contrast media.

Contrast-induced nephropathy occurs 2 -5 days after administration.

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7
Q

what is the treatment for contrast nephropathy?

A

the evidence base currently supports the use of intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours pre- and post- procedure. There is also evidence to support the use of isotonic sodium bicarbonate

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8
Q

what are features of rhabdomyolysis?

A
  1. acute kidney injury with disproportionately raised creatinine
  2. elevated creatine kinase (CK)
  3. the CK is significantly elevated, at least 5 times the upper limit of normal
  4. elevations of CK that are ‘only’ 2-4 times that of normal are not supportive of a diagnosis and suggest another underlying pathophysiology
  5. myoglobinuria: dark or reddish-brown colour
  6. hypocalcaemia (myoglobin binds calcium)
  7. elevated phosphate (released from myocytes)
  8. hyperkalaemia (may develop before renal failure)
  9. metabolic acidosis
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9
Q

what is IgA nephropathy linked to?

A

There is a higher incidence of IgA nephropathy in patients with coeliac disease and dermatitis herpetiformis
Henoch scheloin purpura
alcoholic cirrhosis

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10
Q

what is the difference between post strep GN and IgA nephropathy?

A
  1. post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is associated with low complement levels
  2. main symptom in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is proteinuria (although haematuria can occur)
  3. there is typically an interval between URTI and the onset of renal problems in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
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11
Q

what is the treatment for IgA nephropathy?

A

Isolated hematuria, no or minimal proteinuria (less than 500 to 1000 mg/day), and a normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) - no treatment needed, other than follow-up to check renal function

persistent proteinuria (above 500 to 1000 mg/day), a normal or only slightly reduced GFR - initial treatment is with ACE inhibitors

if there is active disease (e.g. falling GFR) or failure to respond to ACE inhibitors - immunosuppression with corticosteroids

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12
Q

what percentage of IgA nephropathy go into ESRF?

A

25%

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13
Q

what is a good prognostic marker of IgA nephropathy?

A

frank haematuria

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14
Q

what is a bad prognostic marker of IgA nephropathy?

A

male gender, proteinuria (especially > 2 g/day), hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidaemia, ACE genotype DD

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15
Q

what are the causes of HAGMA?

A

M — Methanol
U — Uremia (chronic kidney failure)
D — Diabetic ketoacidosis
P — Paracetamol, Propylene glycol (used as an inactive stabilizer in many medications; historically, the “P” also stood for Paraldehyde, though this substance is not commonly used today)
I — Infection, Iron, Isoniazid (which can cause lactic acidosis in overdose), Inborn errors of metabolism (an especially important consideration in pediatric patients)[7]
L — Lactic acidosis
E — Ethylene glycol (Note: Ethanol is sometimes included in this mnemonic as well, although the acidosis caused by ethanol is actually primarily due to the increased production of lactic acid found in such intoxication.)
S — Salicylates

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16
Q

what are the causes of NAGMA?

A
  1. gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss:
    prolonged diarrhoea: may also result in hypokalaemia, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula
  2. renal tubular acidosis
  3. drugs: e.g. acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection
  4. Addison’s disease
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17
Q

when do you treat secondary hyperparathyroidism in CKD?

A

When PTH is twice as normal

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18
Q

what are the contraindications for accepting a living donor transplant?

A

the failure of three agents to control his blood pressure would render a person ineligible to donate. This is due both to the increased peri-operative risk and also the potential for nephrectomy to exacerbate hypertension following donation. Other absolute contraindications include active malignancy, chronic infection, overt proteinuria, bilateral renal artery atherosclerosis and sickle cell disease.

19
Q

what is the typical appearance of membranous nephropathy on EM?

A

electron microscopy: the basement membrane is thickened with subepithelial electron dense deposits. This creates a ‘spike and dome’ appearance

20
Q

what are the causes of membranous nephropthy?

A

idiopathic: due to anti-phospholipase A2 antibodies
infections: hepatitis B, malaria, syphilis
malignancy (in 5-20%): prostate, lung, lymphoma, leukaemia
drugs: gold, penicillamine, NSAIDs
autoimmune diseases: systemic lupus erythematosus (class V disease), thyroiditis, rheumatoid

21
Q

What is the tx for membranous nephropathy?

A
  1. all patients should receive an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB): reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis
  2. immunosuppression: as many patients spontaneously improve only patient with severe or progressive disease require immunosuppression
  3. corticosteroids alone have not been shown to be effective. A combination of corticosteroid + another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used
  4. consider anticoagulation for high-risk patients
22
Q

what are good prognostic factors of membranous nephropathy?

A

Good prognostic features include female sex, young age at presentation and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of presentation.

23
Q

what are the causes of anaeamia in CKD?

A
  1. Reduced epo levels
  2. Reduced iron absorption - hepcidin levels are often increased due to inflammation and reduced renal clearance –> decreased iron absorption from the gut and impaired release of stored iron from macrophages and hepatocytes, reducing the iron available for erythropoiesis
  3. metabolic acidosis - conversion of ferric iron (Fe³) to its absorbable form, ferrous iron (Fe²), in the duodenum → reduced iron absorption.
  4. reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uraemia on bone marrow
  5. anorexia/nausea due to uraemia
  6. reduced red cell survival (especially in haemodialysis)
  7. blood loss due to capillary fragility and poor platelet function
    8 . stress ulceration leading to chronic blood loss
24
Q

when do you refer to nephrologists?

A

Renal tranplant
ITU patient with unknown cause of AKI
Vasculitis/ glomerulonephritis/ tubulointerstitial nephritis/ myeloma
AKI with no known cause
Inadequate response to treatment
Complications of AKI
Stage 3 AKI (see guideline for details)
CKD stage 4 or 5
Qualify for renal replacement hyperkalaemia / metabolic acidosis/ complications of uraemia/ fluid overload (pulmonary oedema)

25
Q

what are the causes of ATN?

A

drugs: the most common cause, particularly antibiotics
penicillin
rifampicin
NSAIDs
allopurinol
furosemide

systemic disease: SLE, sarcoidosis, and Sjogren’s syndrome
infection: Hanta virus , staphylococci

26
Q

what are the causes of Type 1 mesangiocapillary GN/membranoproflierative and what does the biopsy look like under the microscope?

A

Type 1
accounts for 90% of cases
cause: cryoglobulinaemia, hepatitis C

renal biopsy
electron microscopy: subendothelial and mesangium immune deposits of electron-dense material resulting in a ‘tram-track’ appearance

27
Q

what is the presenting features of mesangiocapillary GN?

A

may present as nephrotic syndrome, haematuria or proteinuria

28
Q

what is the treatment that can be tried for worsening renal function in those with ADPKD, once you have tried ACEi?

A

Tolvaptan is a selective vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist and has been shown to reduce the annual rate of kidney growth and reduce the rate of decline of renal function over a three year period

29
Q

What drug is useful in a patient with hypercalciuria and renal stones, calcium excretion and stone formation ?

A

Thiazide diuretics

30
Q

what is used to prevent oxalate stone formation?

A

cholestyramine reduces urinary oxalate secretion
pyridoxine reduces urinary oxalate secretion

31
Q

what is the typical laboratory findings of CMV infection in Kidney Tx patients?

A

There is often a leukopaenia, atypical lymphocytosis with a mild rise in transaminases and graft dysfunction. Specific organ involvement can lead to hepatitis, pancreatitis, gastrointestinal ulceration and bleeding, pneumonitis, colitis and meningoencephalitis. The diagnosis is confirmed with CMV polymerase chain reaction (PCR).

Treatment for patients with invasive disease is initially IV ganciclovir.

32
Q

what are the commonest causes of polyuria?

A

diuretics, caffeine & alcohol
diabetes mellitus
lithium
heart failure

33
Q

What are the investigations for haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A
  1. full blood count - anaemia: microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia characterised by a haemoglobin level less than 8 g/dL with a negative Coomb’s test
  2. thrombocytopenia
  3. fragmented blood film: schistocytes and helmet cells
  4. U&E: acute kidney injury
  5. stool culture - looking for evidence of STEC infection and PCR for Shiga toxins
34
Q

what investigations would be useful in anti-GBM or Goodpasture’s disease?

A

Investigations
renal biopsy: linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane
raised transfer factor secondary to pulmonary haemorrhages

35
Q

How is antiGBm disease managed?

A

plasma exchange (plasmapheresis)
steroids
cyclophosphamide

36
Q

what are the causes of papillary necrosis?

A

severe acute pyelonephritis
diabetic nephropathy
obstructive nephropathy
analgesic nephropathy- NSAIDs
sickle cell anaemia

37
Q

what are the features of papillary necrosis?

A

visible haematuria
loin pain
proteinuria

38
Q

what is the treatment for IgA nephropathy?

A

isolated haematuria, no proteinuria (less than 500 to 1000 mg/day), normal GFR: observe

proteinuria: ACE inhibitor

signifcant fall in GFR/not responding to ACE inhibitor: corticosteroid

39
Q

what is IgA nehropathy linked to?

A

alcoholic cirrhosis
coeliac disease/dermatitis herpetiformis
Henoch-Schonlein purpura

40
Q

How do you differentiate post strep to IgA nephropathy?

A
  1. post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is associated with low complement levels
  2. main symptom in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is proteinuria (although haematuria can occur)
  3. there is typically an interval between URTI and the onset of renal problems in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
41
Q

what is the cause of interstitial nephritis?

A

drugs: the most common cause, particularly
-antibiotics
-penicillin
-rifampicin
-NSAIDs
-allopurinol
-furosemide

systemic disease: SLE, sarcoidosis, and Sjogren’s syndrome
infection: Hanta virus , staphylococci

42
Q

what is seen on urine dip in pateints wih interstitial nephritis?

A

sterile pyuria
white cell casts

43
Q
A