Renal Flashcards

1
Q

Acid base balance involves

A

Bicarbonate reabsorption

H+ elimination

(maintains urine pH >4.5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What hormones do the kidneys produce?

A

Renin

Erythropoietin

Vitamin D3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The kidneys receive how much of the cardiac output?

A

25%/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

RBF is maintained between

A

50-180mmHG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

There is a direct relationship between

A

RBF & glomerular filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When does filtration to the kidneys cease?

A

MAP below 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The kidneys can override

A

The SNS and cause vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens when the kidneys release renin?

A

There is an increase in aldosterone secretion, causing an increase in BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the strongest trigger for aldosterone release?

A

HYPERKALEMIA (even more than renin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aldosterone will cause reabsorption of_______ and secretion of______

A

Reabsorb Na+ and Water

Secrete K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Antidiuretic hormone will increase

A

Distal tubular permeability to water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The renin/angiotensin causes

A

The conversion to angiotensin II, which causes vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Renin/ angiotensin will cause reabsorption of ____ & secretion of _____

A

Reabsorb NaCl & Water

Secrete K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Renin/angiotensin will cause release of

A

Aldosterone & ADH (antidiuretic hormone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drugs inhibit RAAS activation?

A

ACE inhibitors

ARBS

BB

Renin antags

Aldosterone antags

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ANF will cause vaso______ and may increase RBF & _____

A

Dilation

GFR (afferents are dilated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Atrial natriuretic factor will increase

A

Urine flow & Na+ EXCRETION (to rid the body of extra fluid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Renal prostaglandins affect

A

Excretion of substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Prostaglandin E2 & thromboxane A2 can

A

Modulate renal effects of other hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Prostaglandin E2 vaso______

Thromboxane A2 vaso ______

A

Dilate

Constricts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Urine filtrate formation involves these 4 steps

A

Filtration

Reabsorption

Secretion

Elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens when fluid is filtered in the renal corpuscle?

A

There is passive movement of water & small dissolved molecules from the plasma into the BC filtrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

GFR is increased by

A

RBF

Afferent arteriole vasodilation

Efferent arteriole vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

GFR is decreased by

A

Decreased RBF

Afferent constriction

Efferent dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
NSAIDS ________afferent arterioles, causing potential kidney damage
Constrict
26
ACEI/ARBs ______efferent arterioles, causing kidney_______
Dilate Protection
27
A decrease in flow & GFR will inhibit prostaglandin production, causing
Vasoconstriction
28
Reabsorption is the movement of substances from
The tubular filtrate & back to the plasma
29
What substances are usually reabsorbed?
Water Electrolytes Glucose Amino Acids
30
Reabsorption can be _____ or ____
Active (Na/K ATPase) Passive (diffusion or osmosis)
31
Secretion is the
Movement of substances from the plasma into the tubular filtrate
32
What substances are secreted?
Organic anions Drugs Foreign substances
33
Secretion can be ___ or ____
Active or Passive
34
Na+ reabsorption is greatest in the
Proximal Convoluted Tubule
35
In the absence of ADH, the final urine will be
Dilute
36
With the presence of ADH, the final urine will be
Concentrated
37
What is the primary therapeutic effect of diuretics?
Inhibit Na+ reabsorption
38
What are the 2 primary reasons we give diuretics?
Used for HTN & CHF
39
What drugs target the PCT?
Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors Osmotic Diuretics
40
What drug works in the Loop of Henle?
Loop diuretics
41
What drug works in the DCT?
Thiazides
42
What drugs work in the collecting ducts?
Aldosterone Antagonists ADH antagonists
43
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (Acetazolamide [Diamox]) work by
Blocking carbonic anhydrase activity
44
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors decrease the reabsorption of
Na+ HCO3- Water Causing natriuresis, diuresis & alkaline urine
45
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors increase the excretion of____
K+
46
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors increase the reabsorption of ____
Cl-
47
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can lead to this metabolic change
Metabolic Acidosis
48
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can cause the formation of
Kidney stones
49
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can cause these electrolyte imbalances
Hypokalemia Hyperchloremia
50
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can cause
Fatigue Paresthesias Tolerance after 2-3 days
51
Osmotic diuretics are
Inert chemical substances that are freely filtered by the glomerulus (increasing osmolarity of fluids)
52
Osmotic diuretics decrease the reabsorption of
Water
53
Osmotic diuretics are given to treat
IOP Glaucoma ICP
54
Osmotic diuretics can cause these electrolyte abnormalities
Hypokalemia Hyponatremia
55
Osmotic diuretics can cause this in the vein
Thrombophlebitis when infiltrated
56
Osmotic diuretics can cause this, so caution when giving to patients with LV dysfunction or pulmonary edema
Increases plasma volume due to initial increase in intravascular volume
57
Osmotic diuretics can worsen
cerebral edema in patients with non-intact BBB
58
With long term use, Osmotic diuretics can cause
Hypovolemia
59
What is the IV dose of Mannitol?
0.25-2g/kg IV
60
What is the onset and duration of Mannitol?
IV onset: 10-15 min Duration: 6-8 hours
61
With Mannitol, the
Surgar alcohol doesn't cross the cell membranes
62
When does Mannitol reduce ICP?
~60-90 min
63
Mannitol may prevent
Preoperative renal failure in ATN by causing vasodilation, which improves RBF, removes renal toxins & necrotic debris, & is a scavenger of free O2 radical, which may prevent cellular injury
64
Loop Diuretics work by blocking...
Na+/K+/2Cl co transporter
65
Loop diuretics decrease the reabsorption of
Na+ K+ Cl- Water Ca+ Mg+
66
What is natriuresis?
Removal of Na+
67
What is the most potent diuretic?
Loop Diuretics
68
Loop diuretics cause less
Vasodilation than thiazines, leading to a less effect in lowering HTN
69
Loop diuretics can increase the formation of
Prostaglandins
70
Loop diuretics can cause these electrolyte imbalances
Hypokalemia Hyponatremia Hypocalcemia Hypomagnesemia
71
Loop diuretics can cause this metabolic change
Metabolic Alkalosis
72
Which diuretic can lead to gout, renal ischemia injury, & hyperuricemia?
Loops
73
Which diuretic can cause ototoxicity & tinnitus?
Loops
74
Loop diuretics can increase the nephrotoxic effects of
Aminoglycosides & cephalosporins
75
What is the dose of Lasix?
20-40mg IV MAX 200 mg/dose
76
What is the onset & duration of Lasix?
Onset: 5-10 min Duration: 2-6 hours
77
What diuretic can cause an acute tolerance, leading to RAAS activation, resistance in HF patients, and may require the addition of a thiazide?
Loops
78
Thiazide diuretics block the
Na+/Cl cotransporter
79
Thiazides decrease the reabsorption of
Na+ Cl- Water
80
Thiazides increase the excretion of
K+
81
Thiazides increase the reabsorption of
Ca+
82
Which diuretic is first line in the treatment of HTN?
Thiazides, since they decrease the fluid volume, cardiac output, & cause vasodilation
83
Thiazides are also used to treat
Hypocalcemia
84
Thiazides can cause these electrolyte abnormalities
Hypokalemia Hyponatremia Hypercalcemia Hypomagnesemia Hypochloremia Hypophosphatemia
85
Thiazides side effects include
Hyperuricemia Metabolic Alkalosis Hypovolemia HOTN HYPERglycemia Cross-reactivity in sulfa allergy
86
In which 2 ways do potassium-sparing diuretics work?
Epithelial Na+ channel (ENaC) blockers Aldosterone receptor antagonists
87
ENaC blockers decrease the reabsorption of
Na+ Water
88
What are examples of ENaC blockers?
Triamterene Amiloride
89
Aldosterone receptor antagonists decrease the reabsorption of
Na+ Water
90
Aldosterone receptor antagonists inhibit
Na+/K+ ATPase
91
What are drug examples of Aldosterone receptor antagonists?
Spironolactone Eplerenone
92
Potassium Sparing diuretics decrease the excretion of
K+
93
Potassium Sparing diuretics can cause these electrolyte imbalances
Hyperkalemia Hyponatremia
94
Potassium Sparing diuretics can also cause
Metabolic Acidosis Dehydration HOTN Gynecomastia Decrease Androgen levels Dry skin Rash
95
Dopamine receptor Agonists inhibits
Na+/H+ exchange Na+/K+ ATPase
96
Dopamine receptor agonists increase
cAMP
97
Higher doses of dopamine receptor agonists will activate the SNS, causing...
Beta cardiac stimulation Alpha vasoconstriction
98
What is an example drug of a dopamine receptor agonists?
Fenoldopam
99
Fenoldopam has moderate activity at
Alpha 2
100
Fenoldopam increases & decreases...
Increases RBF Decreases SVR
101
Hypookalemia places the patient at greatest risk for
Arrhythmia Potentiating (increasing effect) of muscle relaxants Paralytic ileus
102
Why will hypokalemia enhance the effects of muscle relaxants?
When you are hypokalemic, the is more potassium in the plasma rather than inside the cells. This will cause the cells to hyper polarize, making it difficult to have an action potential
103
What is the typical wave form seen with hypokalemia?
U wave Prolonged QT Inverted T waves
104
What are patient risk factors for perioperative acute kidney injury?
>56 Active CHF Ascites DM HTN Male
105
What is a poor indicator of renal function?
MAP
106
Reducing sympathetic stimulation, minimizing increases ni intrathoracic & intraabdomiinal pressures can
Help maintain renal blood flow
107
Urine output can be a
Poor predictor of function
108
Nephrotoxic agents should be avoided & include
NSAIDS Contrast Antivirals Abx