Renal Flashcards

1
Q

Hyperacute transplant rejection cause, pathology/histo and management

A

Due to pre-formed antibodies
Causes vascular thrombosis, PMNs, infarction
May need nephrectomy

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2
Q

Acute transplant rejection cause, pathology

A

7-10 days
Largely T cell mediated
Fever, oliguria, tender graft
Pathology: tubulitis, endotheliatis
Treatable

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3
Q

Chronic transplant rejection cause, pathology

A

Progressive decrease in eGFR, proteinuria, hypertension
Both immune and non-immune causes
No specific treatment
PathologyL glomerulopathy, chronic interstitial nephritis

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4
Q

Induction agents for solid organ transplant

A

Thymoglobulin
Basiliximab

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5
Q

Thymoglobulin MOA and issues

A

Target polyclonal T cells –> depletion
Lasts for days
Good for acute rejection treatment
Issues: CRS, LVF, meningitis, cytopaenias, neutralising antibodies, cancer, infection

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6
Q

Basiliximab MOA and issues

A

Target chimeric CD25 T cells + IL2R –> inactivation (rather than depletion)
Lasts for 2 months
Not as good for acute rejection as thyroglobulin
Minimal problems, expensive

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7
Q

Belatacept (CTLA4 Ig)
MOA
Benefits and risks

A

Blocks signal 2
Reduced renal toxicity compared to CSA
Increased EBV risk and PTLD
Decreased response to vaccines
Prevents CD28 mediated T-cell activation

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8
Q

Calcineurin inhibitors MOA

A

Cyclosporin and tacrolimus
Block signal 1
Block IL-2 generation
Tac more potent than CSA
CsA measure peak, tac measure trough
Nephrotoxic

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9
Q

MMF and aza in renal transplant

A

MMF more potent in first 12 months compared to Aza
MMF fairly leukocyte specific
MMF blocks IMPDH - prevents purine synthesis –> Cell G1 arrest
MMF absorbed more distally - less GI toxicity
Issues: Bone marrow suppression. Hepatoxocity/bone marrow suppression with Aza

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10
Q

mTOR inhibitors MOA, SE

A

Sirolimus/everolimus
Block signal 3
Bind to FKBP-12 to form complex and bind to mTOR. Inhibits IL-2/costimulatory triggered cell signalling
SE: Protineuria + oedema

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11
Q

mTOR for Kaposi sarcoma

A

Everolimus beneficial to treat kaposi’s sarcoma (HHV8 associated cancer)

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12
Q

MMF and cyclosporin

A

MMF levels are lower with CsA

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13
Q

Sirolimus and CNI

A

Increased risk of nephrotoxicity secondary to CNI (Sirolimus leads to overdosing of CNI)

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14
Q

Management of renal transplant acute rejection

A

Biopsy
IV Methylpred
Thymoglobulin if steroid resistant or vascular rejection
PLEX/IVIG if Ab mediated
Rescue therapy: High dose Tac or MMF
Number of episodes correlated with mortality

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15
Q

Key risk factor for CVS events after transplant

A

Diabetes

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16
Q

BK Polyomavirus

A

DNA virus
Primary infection in childhood
Asymptomatic - screen with serum PCR monthly

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17
Q

BK virus management

A

Reduce immunosuppression
Leflunomide if very high viral load
IV cedofovir alternative option

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18
Q

BK virus kidney biopsy histology

A

Intranuclear inclusions
IHC - SV40 antigen

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19
Q

Most common type of renal cancer

A

Clear cell
CD10 +ve
90% will have chromosome 3p abnormalities (VHL gene)

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20
Q

Renal oncocytoma cell of origin and IHC

A

Arise from intercalated cells
CD117, PAX-2 positive
Mitochondria rich

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21
Q

Renal chromophobe cancer can transform into:

A

Sarcoma

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22
Q

Von Hipped-Lindau syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant
Retinal angiomas, cerebellar and spinal angiomas, pheochromocytoma, pancreatic/renal cysts
Onset of tumours in adolescence

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23
Q

Birt-Hodd-Dube’ syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant
Risk of RCC and lung cysts

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24
Q

ADPKD genes

A

Autosomal dominant
PKD1 (85% - more severe) on chromosome 16.
PKD2 (15%) on chromosome 4

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25
Q

ADPKD systemic associations

A

Intracranial berry aneurysms
Liver (most common extra-renal manifestation) cysts, pancreatic cysts, cardiac LVH

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26
Q

PKD1 gene product and function

A

Produces polycystin 1 which regulates cell differentiation
Reduced levels correlated with disease severity

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27
Q

PKD2 gene product and function

A

Produces polycystin 2 which regulates intracellular calcium

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28
Q

When to screen for intra-cranial aneurysm in ADPKD

A

FHx
Undergoing major surgery
Symptoms or previous ICA
Occupation e.g. pilot
Patient concern

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29
Q

Type 2 RTA

A

Proximal RTA
Defect in bicarb reabsorption
Manifests with significant hypokalaemia and acidosis with bicarb >15
Urine pH <5.0 as collecting duct retains ability to reabsorb HCO3 in the setting of systemic acidosis, preventing a steep fall in the bicarb
Treat with alkali and K+ replacement

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30
Q

Type 1 RA

A

Distal RTA
Defect in H+ secretion in intercalated cells
Ammonia does not bind with H+ to form ammonium, less ammonium in urine
Urine pH >5.5
Treat with alkali and K+ replacement

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31
Q

Type 4 RTA

A

Most common
Type 4 RTA = aldosterone resistance
DM associated in 50% of cases (others NSAIDS, ACEi, CNI, K+ sparing diuretics and high dose heparin)
Treatment:
If hypertensive or overloaded: thiazide/loop diuretic
If hypotensive or not overloaded: fludrocortisone

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32
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism cause and diagnosis

A

Most common cause of secondary hypertension
2/3 due to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
1/3 due to unilateral adenoma

High A:R ratio
Saline loading test or fludrocortisone test - failure to suppress Aldosterone
Must correct K+ before testing

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33
Q

Drugs that suppress renin

A

BB, amlodipine, clonidine, NSAIDs

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34
Q

Drugs that stimulate renin

A

ACE/ARB, all diuretics

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35
Q

Neutral drugs for A:R testing

A

Verapamil
Hydralazine
Prazosin

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36
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism treatment

A

MRA’s for hyperplasia
Adrenalectomy for unilateral adenoma

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37
Q

Renal artery stenosis causes

A

FMD and atherosclerosis

38
Q

Fibromuscular dysplasia epidemiology, bloods, diagnosis and treatment

A

Young females with treatment resistant hypertension
High renin and aldosterone
May cause spontaneous dissection
Diagnose with renal DSA (100% sensitive and specific)
80% respond to angioplasty, small recurrence rate

39
Q

Phaeochromocytoma
What is it
Presentation
Diagnosis
Management

A

Tumour of adrenal medulla
May occur along sympathetic chain (paraganglioma)
Present with sweating, anxiety, palpitations, weight loss, insomnia
Diagnose with fasting plasma metanephrines then confirm with 24 hour urine metanephrines/catecholamines

Avoid contrast
Alpha blocker before beta blocker
Surgery

40
Q

IV contrast in phaeochromocytoma

A

May cause hypertensive crisis

41
Q

Rare causes of hypertension and hypokalaemia

A

Apparent mineralocorticoid excess
Liddles syndrome
Licorice abuse

42
Q

MHC function and genetic location

A

Helps the body distinguish between self proteins and those made by foreign substances
-Located on chromosome 6

43
Q

Hepatorenal syndrome management

A

Stop diuretics, give fluid
Terlipressin
HDx then liver transplant (not kidney)

44
Q

Contrast nephropathy time course and management

A

Onset 24-48 hours post contrast, peak 5-7 days, resolves 2 weeks
Non oliguric
IV fluid for prevention
NAC ONLY if severe HF preventing use of fluids
Minimal evidence for sodium bicarb

45
Q

Causes of nephrotic syndrome

A

Minimal change disease - #1 in childhood
FSGS - African populations
Primary membranous - #1 primary cause
Diabetic nephropathy - #1 cause in whole population

46
Q

Minimal change disease histology and management

A

Flattened podocytes on E.M

Steroids
-Poorer prognosis in adults
-Steroid refractory if no response at 16 weeks

47
Q

FSGS variant with worst prognosis

A

Collapsing variant

48
Q

FSGS management

A

Pred with wean over 3 months
Ritux
Cyclophosphamide

49
Q

Primary membranous nephropathy presentation, histology and antibody

A

Presents with nephrotic range proteinuria, prone to thrombotic complications in first 2 years (higher risk with low albumin)

Histology: thickened GBM, intra-membranous Ig deposits, spikes

PLA2R antibody (podocyte antigen) - if positive do not need to do biopsy. Can be used to monitor response to therapy and post transplant recurrence

50
Q

Causes of secondary membranous nephropathy

A

SLE
Hep B
Meds e.g. penicillamine

51
Q

Membranous nephropathy management

A

RAAS blockade, statin, oedema management
30% will have spontaneous remission in first 1-2 years

52
Q

Diabetic nephropathy histology and first change

A

Hyperfiltration is first
Thickening of GBM early on histology

53
Q

Diabetic nephropathy management

A

If eGFR >30 and albuminuria >30mg.g - SLGT2

If CKD and additional CVD risk factors - GLP1

54
Q

Nephritic syndrome causes

A

IgA nephropathy
Membranoproliferative GN
RPGN
Lupus nephritis

55
Q

IgA nephropathy presentation, histology and prognosis

A

Asymptomatic haematuria - often synpharyngitic
Most common form of GN
Histology mesangial hypercellularity, matrix expansion, IgA positive

20% ESRF in 10 years, 30% reduced GFR

56
Q

IgA pathophysiology

A

Caused by a defect in IgA producing cells causing increased serum levels of galactose deficient IgA1
Leads to antibody formation to galactose deficient IgA1 –> immune complex formation –> deposition in glomerulus

57
Q

Secondary IgA causes

A

Liver disease/transplant
Coeliac disease

58
Q

IgA nephropathy management

A

Supportive measures
Add immunosuppression if:
-Acute or rapid loss of GFR
-Very high proteinuria

59
Q

IgA vasculitis (HSP) presentation

A

Systemic version of IgA nephropathy

Tetrad of:
1. Palpable purpura
2. Abdo pain
3. Kidney disease
4. Arthralgia

60
Q

Membranoproliferative GN presentation, bloods, histology

A

Proteinuria + haematuria + low C3
Histo: reduplication of GBM - tram track sign
If C3 only - C3GN. If C + Ig - MPGN

61
Q

Causes of secondary membranoproliferative GN

A

Hepatitis C
SLE

62
Q

Management of membranoproliferative GN

A

Look for monoclonal band - treat myeloma
If familial - supportive care only
If C3GN - anti-complement e.g. eculizumab
If Hep C - treat Hep C first

63
Q

Classical form of kidney involvement in Hep C

A

Immune-complex GN with or without cryoglobulinaemia

64
Q

Causes of RPGN and presentation

A

Lupus nephritis
Anti-GBM
ANCA associated vasculitis

Present with oliguria and rapidly rising serum creatinine along with macro or microscopic haematuria

65
Q

Lupus nephritis treatment

A

Treat class 3, 4, 5
Steroids + cyclophosphamide or MMF
If worsening in 3 months change therapy/repeat biopsy
Aza or MMF maintenance + pred

66
Q

Anti-GBM disease epidemiology, presentation, histology

A

Bi-modal: young men, older women
50% present with RPGN and pulmonary haemorrhage
Haematuria, erythrocyte casts, proteinuria, mod-severe AKI, lung involvement (Goodpasture’s syndrome)

Histology: Crescentic GN, IgG staining along the glomerular capillaries (indicates antibodies against GBM)

Serum anti-GBM ab 60-100% sensitive so also need biopsy

Manage with plasmapheresis + pulsed IV steroids then PO
Cyclophosphamide

67
Q

What do the Anti-GBM antibodies target

A

Alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen

68
Q

ANCA-associated GN presentation

A

Vasculitic prodrome of malaise, arthralgia, myalgia
Flu-like symptoms
Dark brown/tea coloured urine
Lung involvement
Diagnose with serum ANCA and biopsy - no immune deposits (pauciimmune GN)

69
Q

Treatment of ANCA-associated GN

A

High dose steroids with either cyclophosphamide or rituximab
Avacopan a new alternative

70
Q

Indications for plasmapheresis in renal vasculitis

A

Anti-GBM disease
Pulmonary haemorrhage
Severe or rapidly progressive kidney disease

71
Q

Alports syndrome presentation

A

Asymptomatic persistent haematuria in childhood, sensorineural hearing loss and ocular issues
Can also have leiomyomatosis - benign smooth muscle overgrowth tumours in GI, respiratory and female reproductive tract

72
Q

Alport’s syndrome cause and management

A

Variants in genes encoding for alpha-3, alpha-4, alpha-5 chains (located in kidney, cochlear, eye) of type IV collagen
Can be x-linked, AD, AR

Manage with ACE-i and transplant

73
Q

GPA vs MPA

A

GPA: leqkocytoclastic vasculitis + granulomas + PR3 pos
saddle nose (polychondritis)
MPA: Necrotising vasculitis + no granulomas + MPO pos
Much less ENT involvement in MPA

74
Q

What can Sjogrens cause in the kidney?

A

Distal RTA
Renal stones

75
Q

What can RA cause in the kidney?

A

Cryoglobulins
Amyloid

76
Q

What can Gout cause in the kidney?

A

Progressive decline in eGFR due to hyperuricaemia
Stones

77
Q

What can scleroderma cause in the kidney?

A

Renal crisis (hypertensive crisis)

78
Q

Other than nephritis, what can lupus cause in the kidney?

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome –> microangiopathic renal injury

79
Q

FHH pathophysiology

A

Autosomal dominant
Defect in CaSR in kidney and parathyroid
-Isn’t inhibited by high calcium so increased reabsorption on calcium
-High serum calcium low urine calcium
Lithium damages the CaSR in the kidney acting in a similar way

80
Q

FGF23 secretion and function

A

Secreted by osteocytes and osteoblasts in response to oral phosphate loading or increased Vit D

Increases in early stages of CKD leading to increased phosphate excretion and decreased 1a hydroxylase activity –> decreased Vit D formation –> increased PTH secretion

81
Q

What is Klotho?

A

Co-receptor required for FGF23 signalling
Levels decrease as CKD progresses leading to decreased FGF23 responsiveness and inability to regulate phosphate levels

82
Q

Effects of hyperphosphataemia

A

LVH
Faster CKD progression
Premature mortality

Stimulates osteoblast transformation of the vascular smooth muscle cell –> arterial calcification and stiffness

83
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Due to hypocalcaemia

84
Q

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

A

Due to autonomous secretion of PTH by hypertrophied parathyroid gland in the setting of CKD
Increased PTH and calcium levels
May need parathyroidectomy

85
Q

Calcimimetics mechanism of action

A

Increase the sensitivity of CaSR to calcium and can lower PTH secretion by directly inhibiting PTH gene expression

86
Q

Renal osteodystrophy investigations

A

Bone biopsy gold standard but not practical
Monitor PTH and ALP levels

87
Q

Management of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A
  1. Treat phosphate first
    -Dietary restriction to <900mg/day
    -Phosphate binders
  2. Treat PTH
    -Calcimimetics
    -calcitriol or synthetic Vit D
    -Treat vit D deficiency with cholecalciferol
88
Q

Types of phosphate binders and preference

A

Calcium containing - calcium carbonate or calcium acetate
Non-calcium containing - sevelamer/lanthanum

First preference is non-calcium containing –> decrease mortality in CKD

89
Q

Test to differentiate Barrter’s and Gittleman’s syndrome?

A

Urine prostaglandin E is elevated in Barrter’s

90
Q

Which cells secrete EPO?

A

Peritubular