Renal Flashcards

1
Q

What are four criteria of nephrotic syndrome?

A

1) peripheral edema
2) hypoalbuminemia < 2.5 g/dl
3) proteinuria > 3.5gm in 24 hours; 2gm on spot urine protein/creatinine
4) hyperlipidemia

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2
Q

What are the main tests you’ll send for assessing nephrotic syndrome? name 6 tests

A
  • SPEP/UPEP (multiple myeloma)
    • ANA (lupus)
    • hepatitis C serology (Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, cryoglobulinemia)
    • hepatitis B serology (membranous nephropathy)
    • HIV screening (collapsing FSGS),
  • and anti-PLA2R (idiopathic membranous nephropathy).
    An anti-phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) titer measures autoantibodies responsible for 70-80% of idiopathic membranous nephropathy. The test was identified in 2009 and can be used for diagnosis, prognosis and monitoring in patients with idiopathic membranous nephropathy(Beck et al 2009). In addition to labs aimed at evaluating the etiology of NS, Dr. Topf recommends a CBC and PT/PTT before a renal biopsy is completed.
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3
Q

Leading cause of nephrotic syndrome in the US?

A

diabetes

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4
Q

Name a few diagnoses of nephrotic syndrome after DM in the US?

A

membranous (hep B)
FSGS (think HIV)
minimal change disease (think peds)

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5
Q

Why does edema happen in nephrotic syndrome? Name two hypothesis

A

Underfill hypothesis vs Overfill hypothesis (now leading hypothesis)

Underfill hypothesis: loss of albumin in the serum leads to decreased plasma oncotic pressure and increased fluid movement into the interstitium. The blood vessels are then “underfilled” leading to secondary sodium retention via activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).
Overfill hypothesis: primary renal sodium retention, independent of blood volume levels or albumin. Serum plasminogen gets activated to plasmin and this activates the epithelial sodium channel in the distal nephron to reabsorb sodium (Chen et al 2019). One line of evidence for the validity of the overfill hypothesis is the natural history of minimal change disease. Steroids result in rapid resolution of proteinuria and edema in minimal change disease. There is improvement in edema prior to increased albumin levels (Siddall & Radhakrishnan 2012).

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6
Q

What are the main management approaches for nephrotic syndrome?

A

1) edema - diuretics; 2) HL - statin until disease goes remission; 3) proteinuria - ACE/ARB; 4) diet - Na restriction; 5) consider AC - there is the UNC GN tool

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7
Q

What is the prognosis and mgmt of diabetic nephropathy?

A

Diabetic nephropathy has a poor prognosis with loss of approximately 4-6ml/min of renal function per year, so in 10 years patients often progress to ESRD. The rate of decline can be improved with RAAS inhibition (Umanath & Lewis 2018) and SGLT2i.

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8
Q

What is prognosis and mgmt of minimal change disease?

A

Minimal change disease: excellent prognosis with rapid response to steroids. There is a high rate of relapse but patients usually respond equally well to steroids during a relapse (KDIGO 2012).

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9
Q

What is the prognosis and mgmt of FSGS?

A

variable prognosis with a 10-year risk of ESRD ranging from 40-70% and improved if remission is achieved (KDIGO 2012; Wehrmann et al 1990). Steroids, cyclosporine, and tacrolimus are used for treatment with variable response. Dr. Topf describes new experimental therapies that warrant referral to a center with available trial enrollment for interested patients.

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10
Q

What is prognosis and mgmt of membranous nephropathy?

A

Dr. Topf describes how ~1/3 will have spontaneous remission, ~1/3 have lasting smoldering proteinuria with relatively stable renal function, and ~1/3 have aggressive progressive disease that requires treatment with cyclophosphamide and steroids.

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11
Q

What are the 3 elements of GN?

A
  1. AKI
  2. Hypertension
  3. Hematuria/Proteinuria/Pyuria
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12
Q

What are the three big buckets of rapidly progressing GN diagnosis?

A
  1. Pauci immune GN: ANCA associated small vessel vasculitis
  2. Anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM): autoantibodies against the glomerular basement membranes
  3. Immune complex GN: lupus nephritis (has wide range of presentations), IgA nephropathy, membranoproliferative, post-infectious
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13
Q

What is CKD stage 3 defined as?

A

GFR < 60; 3a 45-59; 3b 30-44

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14
Q

When should you refer to a specialist for CKD?

A

GFR < 30; CKD stage 3b going to 4
persistent proteinuria > 300 mg/g

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15
Q

What is goal Hgb in CKD patients?

A

10-11, don’t overshoot!

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16
Q

How to treat Hgb in CKD patients? What do we check?

A

Check Iron studies including TSAT

  • Low Hgb <10g/dl and transferrin sat (TSAT) <30 percent and ferritin <500ng/ml; Give IV Fe first, then EPO
  • Hgb > 10g/dl and TSAT =>20 and ferritin > 200 ng/ml; Such patients are not treated with either iron or an ESA but continue to be monitored closely. Although patients may be considered anemic by World Health Organization (WHO) standards, they do not meet criteria for ESA therapy
  • Hgb <10g/dl and TSAT > 30 percent; Such patients are usually started on an ESA, taking into consideration specific patient characteristics, such as functional and cognitive status, life expectancy, and other factors. Patients who have a history of stroke or malignancy or an active malignancy are important exception
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17
Q

What are most common obstruction cases of AKI?

A

cjhildren: anatomic; young adults: kidney stones; older adults- prostatic, kidney stones

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18
Q

Hematuria w/o RBCs…think…

A

myoglobin/rhabdo

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19
Q

WBCs in UA

A

AIN, UTI, pyelo, sterile pyuria, contanminant in woman

20
Q

Low FeNa < 1%

A

typically pre-renal AKI; can also be ATN, contrast nephropathy, myoglubinuria, any cause of AKI where tubular function is preserved despite decreased glomurelar function

21
Q

When can we use in AKI dx with patient on diuretics?

A

Fe Urea

22
Q

When are hyaline casts seen vs waxy casts?

A

hyaline - poor perfusion; waxy - CKD

23
Q

AKI and urine sediment shows blood and protein

A

think GN – get renal involved

24
Q

contrast induced AKI - what score can be used to assess risk

A

in high risk patients - optimize renal perfusion prior to exposure 1ml/kg/hr for 6-12 hours

Mehran Score

25
Q

what should you do if pt with CKD needs a PICC?

A

alternative otions for IV access

consult nephrology to assess need for fistula placement

26
Q

what is threshold for phosphate binder?

A

if phosphorus remains > 5.5

sevelamer 800mg TID with meals

27
Q

If Vit D < 12, what do yo udo?

A

50U vid d2 for 8 weeks, then vitamin d3 daily 1000U

28
Q

with concern for infection in patient with tunneled dialysis catheteer, what blood cultures do you get?

A

get peripheral cultures, and additional set of blood cultures from dialysis catheter

29
Q

what kind of solution is used to treat catheter assoc infection when catheter not removed

A

antibiotic catheter LOCK solution good for GNR, less effective for GP infection

30
Q

Anemia in CKD - when to do IV Fe

A

If Hgb < 10, TSAT < 30

31
Q

what are treatments for diabetic kidney disease?

A

ACEi/ARB
SGLT2
GLP-1 agonist

32
Q

when to use SGLT2 inhibitor in CKD

A

proteinuric kidney disaese, with GFR>20

(> 200mg albumin)

33
Q

whats risk of PICC access in CKD patients?

A

PICCS increase risk of central venous stenosis and thrombosis of upper extremity veins

Increased central venous stenosis and vascular injury leads to higher failure rate of AV maturation

consult w nephrology — alternatives like Hickman small bore tunneled catheters do not carry same risk

34
Q

How to address hyperphosphatemia in CKD?

A

counsel on limiting phoshpate in diet

Might need phos binder if phos > 5.5 – sevelamer 800mg TID and uptitrating with meals

avoid calcium-based phos binders that can lead to vascular calficiation

35
Q

When do you start with calcitriol (activated vit D supplementation)?

A

when progressive secondary hyperparathyrodism (and Calcium typically lower than 7.5) - no specific PTH cutoffs given CKD stage - dynamic serum levels

36
Q

what happens with a tunneled dialysis catheter assoc infection?

A

if need for urgent hemodialysis, should be removed IF: tenderness/pus at site of catheter; hemodynamic instability; concern for metastatic infection; Staph Aureus bacteremia or Candida fungemia

non-tunelled dialysis catheter should be placed for temp

and then if blood cultures are negative for 48 hours, then place tunneled dialysis catheter

37
Q

what are the criteria for PD related peritonitis?

A

clinical features of peritonitis (abd pain, clody effluent)

dialysis effluent WBC count > 100u/l, with > 50% PMNs

positive dialysis effluent culture

38
Q

what is treatment for peritonitis (empirical)?

A

gram positive AND gram neg coverage

Vanc + third gen cephaolpsorin or aminoglycoside

39
Q

how to manage hypertension in dialysis patients?

A

eval volume management with dry weight

BBlockers may be better than ACEi (coreg not cleared by dialysis)
Could trial spironolactone or CCBs (amlodipine)

40
Q

whats goal Hgb in dialysis, and why?

A

want to manage symptoms, Hgb > 10

41
Q

when to use IV Fe in dialysis?

A

if pt has Hgb > 10 BUT Tsat < 20

If Hgb < 10, Tsat < 30

42
Q

risk of ESA in dialysis?

A

increased risk of stroke, exac hypertension, can increase proflieration of certain cancers

43
Q

what is the etiologic spectrum of hyponatremia on two axes?

A

ADH secretion (as indirectly measured by UOsm)

effective arterial blood volume (EABV) - clinical exam and urine Na

44
Q

how do we assess serum osm in hyponatremia?

A

if its elevated or normal, look for extra osm either measured (measured severe hyperglycemia, Bun or unmeasured (alochol, toxic alcohols))

only need to check once

typically below normal or low in hyponatremia

45
Q

What do you check to understand ADH in hyponatremia ?

A

urine osmolality (urine osms)

if urine osm is LOW, then ADH is off

46
Q
A