REN2200 - EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

M1 (summary) - Ecology is the study of _________?

A

Relationships between living organisms and living and non-living factors in the environment. It deals with the distribution and abundance of living organisms, their inter-relationships and relationships to physical and chemical environments.

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2
Q

M1 (summary) - Explanation is a _____?

A

Search for knowledge in the pure scientific tradition, possibly involving proximal or ultimate explanations

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3
Q

M1 (summary) - Prediction is an _____?

A

Attempt to determine what may happen to an organism, population, community or ecosystem in a given circumstance.

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4
Q

M1 (summary) - Ecological hierarchy is an extension of _____?

A

Biological complexity (organisation), which provides a framework for studying organisms and the environment.

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5
Q

M1 (summary) - What are the 3 common underlying themes in ecology?

A

i) Unity: fundamental similarity of living organisms
ii) Diversity: Variability in form structure
iii) Evolution: Provides explanation for why processes occur in biological world.

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6
Q

M1 (summary) - What are the 7 basic steps in the scientific method?

A

i) Observation
ii) Question
iii) Null hypothesis
iv) Design
v) Experiment
vi) Analysis
vii) Conclusions

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7
Q

M1 (summary) - What is fitness?

A

The measure of an organisms ability to produce viable offspring - stronger offspring are the result of individuals with higher fitness (leading to natural selection).

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8
Q

M1 (summary) - What is adaptation?

A

Any heritable trait that aids survival or reproduction. It is the result of natural selection acting on differing fitness).

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9
Q

M1 (summary) - What are the 3 types of selection operating on phenotypic characters?

A

i) Directional
ii) Stabilising
iii) Disruptive

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10
Q

M1 (summary) - Fill in the blanks:
Reproductive isolation of _____ of the same species can result in the development of a new species (_____) due to _____ or ______operating on an isolated population.

A

Reproductive isolation of populations of the same species can result in the development of a new species (speciation) due to natural selection or genetic drift operating on an isolated population.

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11
Q

M1 (summary) - When divergence occurs simultaneously across a number of populations and species, it may result in _______?

A

Adaptive radiation

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12
Q

M1 (summary) - What is convergent evolution?

A

It occurs when members of distantly related species occupy similar niches and resemble each other, due to evolutionary forces.

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13
Q

M1 (summary) - What is coevolution?

A

A change in the genetic composition of one species in response to a genetic change in another. It describes reciprocal evolutionary influences.

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14
Q

M2 (summary) - Most species occupy what region of geographical areas?

A

Small regions. All species are limited to a definable geographical range.

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15
Q

M2 (summary) - Which Law’s state that a species’ distribution will be limited by a specific factor or combination of factors, which represent the critical environmental limits to survival and reproduction?

A

i) Liebig’s Law of the Minimum

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16
Q

M2 (summary) - Tolerance ranges alter with _____?

A

Natural selection and adaptation

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17
Q

M2 (summary) - Whose rule states that polar species have larger geographic ranges than most subtropical species?

A

Rapoports rule

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18
Q

M2 (summary) - What kind of dispersal are species usually well adapted for?

A

Local dispersal. Local distribution is rarely limited by failure to disperse.

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19
Q

M2 (summary) - What is a key limit to broader distribution?

A

Dispersal barriers.

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20
Q

M2 (summary) - Habitat selection may be the result of:

A

i) A range of behavioural decisions at multiple spatial scales.
ii) Increased relative fitness of organisms in one habitat over another.

Habitat selection is unlikely to limit geographic range for a majority of species.

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21
Q

M2 (summary) - Globally, what are the primary limitations of the distributions of plants and animals?

A

Temperature and moisture

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22
Q

M2 (summary) - Locally, what are the primary limitations of the distributions of plants and animals?

A

Light, fire, pH and other chemical and physical factors

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23
Q

M2 (summary) - Is global warming expected to impact the geographical ranges of species?

A

Yes, as they’re currently limited by moisture and temperature.

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24
Q

M2 (summary) - Is the a positive or negative relation between distribution and abundance? Why?

A

Positive, as widespread species tend to be more abundant than those with limited geographic ranges.

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25
Q

What is a population and why is their study important?

A

A group of animals or plants of the same species occupying a defined space.

Understanding and managing pest and disease outbreaks as well as endangered and beneficial species.

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26
Q

M3 (summary) - How can we class population attributes?

A

i) Primary - relate to populations spatial structure (ie distribution, density and dispersion)
ii) Secondary - describe the makeup of individuals which comprise population, such as sex ratio, age distribution, dispersal of individuals, social attributes (behaviour) and genetic make up.

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27
Q

M3 (summary) - What is population growth dependent on?

A

i) Immigration and emigration

ii) Natality and mortality

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28
Q

M3 (summary) - Life tables summarise by age the ______ and _______ of individuals in a population, and can be either cohort or time-specific.

A

Life tables summarise by age the survivorship and fecundity of individuals in a population, and can be either cohort or time-specific.

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29
Q

M3 (summary) - What are survivorship curves?

A

Graphical representations of survival over the lifespan of a species.

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30
Q

M4 (summary) - Population growth can be modelled as either ______-______ or ______-______.

A

Population growth can be modelled as either density-dependent or density-independent.

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31
Q

M4 (summary) - What do density-independent population growth models assume?

A

Only birth and death influence population growth, and that resources are infinite.

Under these assumptions, population growth will grow exponentially if birth rate > death rate.

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32
Q

M4 (summary) - Environmental resistance is the ____________?

A

Sum total of factors which tend to limit population growth

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33
Q

M4 (summary) - Density-dependent population growth models factor in a ‘K’ of the environment, related to environmental resistance. What is ‘K’?

A

Carrying Capacity (K)

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34
Q

M4 (summary) - What kind of growth curve does density-dependent population growth result in?

A

Sigmoidal

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35
Q

M4 (summary) - What are some factors that can contribute to environmental resistance?

A

Climate, living places, food, parasites, predators, pathogens and social interactions.

These can be categorised as density-dependent or density-independent.

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36
Q

M5 (summary) - List each of the types of interactions among species and whether they are positive / negative interactions.

A

i) Commensalism: +, 0
ii) Mutualism: +, +
iii) Amensalism -, 0
iv) Predation: +, -
v) Competition: -, -

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37
Q

M5 (summary) - What are the three types of mutualistic interactions?

A

i) Trophic mutualism
ii) Defensive mutualism
iii) Dispersive mutualism

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38
Q

M5 (summary) - What does the evolutionary theory predict about mutualism?

A

That it will evolve where the benefits of mutualism exceed the costs.

Keeler’s model expect mutualism to evolve and persist in a population when mutualistic individuals (including successful and unsuccessful ones) have higher fitness than non-mutualistic individuals.

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39
Q

M6 (summary) - _____ is beneficial to one organism and detrimental to the other, and can include herbivory and parasitism.

A

Predation

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40
Q

M6 (summary) - Which 2 factors affect what prey predators choose to pursue

A

i) Dietary preferences

ii) Prey abundance

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41
Q

M6 (summary) - Optimal foraging theory provides a fundamental platform for ________?

A

Interpreting and predicting foraging behaviour of all animals

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42
Q

M6 (summary) - What does the diet width model describe?

A

It mathematically describes the problem faced by an optimal forager when deciding whether to expand its diet width to include a particular prey item.

It also predicts that quick handlers but slow searchers should eat a broader variety of prey, while good searchers but poor handlers should be diet specialists.

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43
Q

M6 (summary) - What are 3 types of functional responses that predators can exhibit to prey density?

A

i) Type 1 - constant rate of consumption up to a limit
ii) Type 2 - rate of consumption rises rapidly with prey density , but decreases at high density
iii) Type 3 - rate of consumption rises rapidly with prey density after a brief lag but decreases at high prey densities.

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44
Q

M6 (summary) - What does the Marginal Value Theorem describe?

A

The point at which optimal foragers should leave aggregations of prey and move to another aggregation.

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45
Q

M6 (summary) - What do the ideal free distributions describe?

A

The way in which animals distribute themselves amongst patches of resources.

The number of individual animals that will aggregate in various patches is proportional to the amount of resources available in each.

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46
Q

M6 (summary) - What does the Lotka-Volterra model describe?

A

The idealised relationship between predator and prey populations in a two-species system.

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47
Q

M6 (summary) - Environmental disturbance causes the model to exhibit erratic cycles which lead to system extinction, but _____ and ______ functional responses and the provision of prey refugia can result in stable cycles.

A

Environmental disturbance causes the model to exhibit erratic cycles which lead to system extinction, but type 2 and type 3 functional responses and the provision of prey refugia can result in stable cycles.

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48
Q

M7 (summary) - What are the driving forces of competitive interactions between individuals?

A

i) Limited resource availability

ii) Similarities in species resource requirements

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49
Q

M7 (summary) - Competition for a resource may lead to a reduction in_______:?

A

i) Individual survivorship
ii) Individual growth and reproduction
iii) Population growth

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50
Q

M7 (summary) - Competitive interactions can be divided into_____:?

A

i) Interspecific competition

ii) Intraspecific competition

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51
Q

M7 (summary) - What are the 2 types of competition?

A

i) Resource competition - Organisms of the same or different species compete for a common limited resource
ii) Interference competition - An organism causes direct harm to another in seeking a resource

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52
Q

M7 (summary) - The Lotka-Volterra model describes competition in terms of its results. What is an example of this?

A

The impacts on abundance of two species.

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53
Q

M7 (summary) - What does Tilman’s model of competition predict?

A

The outcome of competition as a function of resource availability and rate of consumption

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54
Q

M7 (summary) - In natural communities, the effects of competition are difficult to identify definitively. What have lab experiments indicated about competition in simple ecosystems?

A

They have demonstrated competition.

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55
Q

M7 (summary) - What are equilibrium and non-equilibrium models of communities?

A

i) Equilibrium: Competition is the overriding structural force and coexistence occurs as a result of resource partitioning and niche differentiation.
ii) Non-equilibrium: Focus on the importance of climatic fluctuation and habitat patchiness

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56
Q

M8 (summary) - What is a community?

A

An identifiable assemblage (predictable association) of interacting species in space and time.

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57
Q

M8 (summary) - What is the continuum concept?

A

Views communities as units that exhibit gradual replacement of species along some environmental gradient.

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58
Q

M8 (summary) - Collective properties of communities include:

A

i) Species interactions
ii) Species richness and diversity
iii) Community biomass

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59
Q

M8 (summary) - Emergent properties relate to:

A

i) Community structure
ii) Complexity
iii) Stability
iv) Change

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60
Q

M8 (summary) - What is the difference species richness and diversity?

A

Species richness is the list of species present in a community.

Diversity is an indicative measure of community evenness in relation to abundances of component species.

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61
Q

M8 (summary) - What is relative abundance?

A

An informative representation of community equitability that provides information on the sharing / partitioning of resources.

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62
Q

M8 (summary) - What is community development?

A

The change (appearance and disappearance) of species over time, synthesised.

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63
Q

M8 (summary) - What is succession?

A

Non-seasonal, directional and continuous patterns of colonisation and extinction in community development, and implies temporal changes in conditions, resources and biotic interactions.

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64
Q

M8 (summary) - What is primary succession and secondary succession?

A

Primary succession: Community development on sites on which there is no previous influence of organisms.

Secondary succession: Community re-development on previously occupied sites.

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65
Q

M8 (summary) - 4 models of succession relate to the role of earlier successional stages to the development of later stages. What are they?

A

i) Facilitation
ii) Inhibition
iii) Tolerance
iv) Random colonisation

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66
Q

M8 (summary) - What is the climax community?

A

A stable, self-perpetuating community in equilibrium with the physical environment.

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67
Q

M9 (summary) - Communities are largely organised by processes of _______, _______ &_________?

A

Competition, predation and mutualism.

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68
Q

M9 (summary) - What are the two primary models of community organisation? Explain.

A

i) Equilibrium model: Focuses on community stability and biotic coupling
ii) Non-equilibrium model: Focuses on stochastic effects and species independence

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69
Q

M9 (summary) - What are food webs?

A

Length of food chains, predator-prey ratios and connectance.

They remain relatively constant regardless of the number of species involved.

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70
Q

M9 (summary) - What are species guilds?

A

Competitive webs of similar species exploiting a common resource base.

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71
Q

M9 (summary) - What are keystone species?

A

Species that play a fundamentally important role in community organisation.

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72
Q

M9 (summary) - If a communities recovery times exceed the frequency of disturbance, then they are not:

A

In equilibrium

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73
Q

M9 (summary) - Disturbances, caused by ______ / ______ factors can lead to variability in the physical environment and temporal / spatial variability in communities.

A

Physical and biotic factors

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74
Q

M9 (summary) - What happens when communities exhibit multiple stable states?

A

Disturbances move them from one state to another

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75
Q

M10 (summary) - What is ecosystem productivity?

A

A collective property of ecosystems and refers to rate of generation of biomass in an ecosystem

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76
Q

M10 (summary) - What is ecosystem metabolism?

A

A measure of the balance between the input of energy / use of materials and the losses resulting from their use for growth, metabolism and reproduction by all component organisms.

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77
Q

M10 (summary) - Trophic levels in the food web are sustained by _____ energy processed and fixed by green plants through the process of _____.

A

Trophic levels in the food web are sustained by solar energy processed and fixed by green plants through the process of photosynthesis.

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78
Q

M10 (summary) - What is plants overall photosynthetic ratio?

A

Between 3% and 6% of solar radiation

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79
Q

M10 (summary) - What limits primary production in:

a) Aquatic environments?
b) Terrestrial environments?

A

a) Nutrient availability (usually N and Fe)

b) Temperature, moisture and nutrients (usually N and P)

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80
Q

M10 (summary) - Where does energy fixed by green plants go?

A

Herbivores (3-4% in forest ecosystems, rest to detritus; >20% in aquatic ecosystems) or detritivores.

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81
Q

M10 (summary) - How do homeotherms maintain body temperature?

A

Over 98% of ingested energy maintains body temperature.

Poikilotherms (ie insects) are much more efficient.

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82
Q

M10 (summary) - Secondary production is limited by ______ production and the ______ law of thermodynamics.

A

Secondary production is limited by primary production and the second law of thermodynamics (no energy transfer is completely efficient).

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83
Q

M10 (summary) - What sort of ecosystems tend to have higher nutrient use efficiency?

A

Low-nutrient ecosystems.

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84
Q

M10 (summary) - What are some human alterations of nutrient cycles?

A

i) Acid rain (N and S cycles)
ii) Nutrient depletion (harvesting / removal of vegetation)
iii) Nutrient addition (eutrophication)

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85
Q

M10 (summary) - Will ecosystems responses to global warming be uniform and easy to predict?

A

No. They will be complex and varied.

Predicting ecosystem response requires an integrated multidisciplinary approach involving monitoring, experimentation and modelling.

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86
Q

M11 (summary) - What does the Farquhar model describe?

A

The response of photosynthesis to atmospheric CO2 concentration

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87
Q

M11 (summary) - Biological systems possess a degree of natural adaptive capacity. What is one key driver as to why contemporary climate change may threaten biodiversity?

A

The extraordinarily rapid rate of climate change

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88
Q

M11 (summary) - How does ocean acidification threaten coral?

A

It is associated with Co2 enrichment, and reduces calcification of corals, leading to bleaching events.

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89
Q

M12 (summary) - What type of population growth is displayed by humans?

A

Exponential

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90
Q

M12 (summary) - What are the 5 main human-induced factors leading to extinction of species?

A

i) Habitat loss
ii) Fragmentation
iii) Exotic species
iv) Over-exploitation of animals
v) Pollution / climate change

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91
Q

M12 (summary) - What is extinction?

A

The irrevocable loss or elimination of species and is a normal ecological process (when not influenced by humans)

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92
Q

M12 (summary) - What are the main factors that make species vulnerable to extinction?

A

i) Small populations
ii) Species with a narrow geographic range
iii) Habitat specialists

Other factors include:

iv) Populations that fluctuate significantly
v) Species in symbiotic relationships
vi) Large-bodied species
vii) Species with low reproductive rates
viii) Species with poor dispersal rates
ix) Island species

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93
Q

M12 (summary) - What is the small population paradigm?

A

Knowing what is causing small populations to go extinct. These include stochastic factors such as genetic, demographic and environmental stochasticity.

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94
Q

M12 (summary) - What is the declining population paradigm?

A

Knowing what processes are causing populations to become small. These include systematic (deterministic) processes acting on the population life history and structure.

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95
Q

M12 (summary) - What is the extinction vortex?

A

The problem faced by small populations through effects of reduction in genetic variability and demographic process where a reduction in the size of the population will lead to loss of genetic variability and further reductions in population size.

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96
Q

M12 (summary) - What is the patch-corridor matrix?

A

A suitable model for conceptualising and representing the elements in a categorical map pattern.

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97
Q

The maximum reproductive capacity of a population if resources are unlimited is called the

Select one:

a. cohort
b. biotic potential
c. carrying capacity
d. survivorship
e. community

A

biotic potential

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98
Q

See the cyclic population fluctuations of lynx and snowshoe hare below. If we consider the logistic equation of lynx, dN/dt = rN(K-N)/K, which factor best accounts for the effect on the snowshoe hare population?

a. r
b. rN
c. dt
d. K
e. N

A

K

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99
Q

The generalisation that there is a positive relationship between distribution and abundance, such that abundant species have wide geographical ranges is known as ….

Select one:

a. Lieberg’s Law
b. Darwin’s Rule
c. Rapoport’s Rule
d. Ecological specialisation model
e. Hanski’s Rule

A

Hanski’s Rule

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100
Q

Which of the following best describes natural selection?

a. individuals in a species which have highest fitness will contribute more significantly to next generation
b. None of the options
c. the longer-term processes shaping the genetic make-up of organisms and therefore their abilities to adapt to changes
d. the measure of ability of individual to produce viable offspring and contribute to future generations
e. the fundamental explanation as to why certain species patterns or behaviour exist

A

a. individuals in a species which have highest fitness will contribute more significantly to next generation

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101
Q

Proximal explanations are those that seek to describe evolutionary mechanisms and are essentially speculative in nature.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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102
Q

Which factor(s) will change a population’s genetic structure?

Select one:

a. Dispersal
b. Change in the age structure
c. The natality to mortality ratio
d. Recombination of alleles
e. None of the other

A

Recombination of alleles

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103
Q

Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants?

Select one:

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

A

A

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104
Q

What causes a Logistic growth curve to level off?

Select one:

a. the population stops reproducing
b. the age pyramid of the population changes
c. the population reaches its environmental carrying capacity
d. individuals emigrate out of the population
e. mortality decreases in the population

A

the population reaches its environmental carrying capacity

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105
Q

Under appropriate conditions, adaptation can lead to speciation (the development of a new species).

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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106
Q

Rapoport’s Rule states that

Select one:

a. geographic ranges reflect the competitive interactions between species
b. generalist species exploit a wide range of food/habitat resources which are abundant and widespread
c. geographic ranges increase from poles to equator
d. there is a positive relationship between distribution and abundance
e. geographic ranges decrease from poles to equator

A

geographic ranges decrease from poles to equator

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107
Q

In the following, define the population attribute in terms of primary or secondary attribute.

behaviour

age structure

dispersal

A

Behaviour: secondary
Age structure: secondary
Dispersal: secondary

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108
Q

A cohort life table is an age-specific summary of the mortality rates operating on a cohort of individuals.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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109
Q

In the following, match the type of physiological state in relation to temperature (endo-/ectothermy) in animals to the appropriate response.

limited activity in unfavourable temperatures

lower energetic demands

metabolism primary source of body heat

A

limited activity in unfavourable temperatures = ecothermy

lower energetic demands = ectothermy

metabolism primary source of body heat = endothermy

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110
Q

In the following, match the level of ecological organisation (‘ecological hierarchy’) to the best description.

assemblages of interacting species

all members of a particular species

complex network of organisms and environment

indidual organism

A

assemblages of interacting species → community,

all members of a particular species → population,

complex network of organisms and environment → ecosystem,

indidual organism → individual

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111
Q

Which of the following is not considered a possible explanation of why distribution and abundance may be correlated as described by Hanski’s Rule.

Select one:

a. local population model
b. competition model
c. sampling model
d. ecological specialisation model

A

competition model

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112
Q

Ecologists call the phenomenon “speciation” when two populations of a single species become separated for a long period of time and, as a result, two species eventually form as these two subgroups respond to different ecological pressures.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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113
Q

What are the two approaches considered in the study of population dynamics?

Select one:

a. none of the choices
b. graphical approach and mathematical analysis
c. dynamics analysis and attribute analysis
d. key factor analysis and experimental analysis
e. natality and mortality analysis

A

key factor analysis and experimental analysis

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114
Q

The three types of selection acting on phenotypic characters in populations are:

Select one:

a. sympatric, parapatric and coevolution selection
b. directional, stabilizing and disruptive selection
c. directional, destabilizing and disturbance selection
d. adaptation, evolution and natural selection
e. sympatric, parapatric and allopatric selection

A

directional, stabilizing and disruptive selection

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115
Q

While population size increases towards carrying capacity:

Select one:

a. birth rate increases
b. death rate increases
c. both birth rate and death rate increase
d. none of choices are true
e. death rate decreases

A

death rate increases

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116
Q

Match the following terms relating to modes of dispersal with the appropriate definition

Secular dispersal

Diffusion

Jump dispersal

A

Secular dispersal → the geographic range expansion over evolutionary time-scales with concurrent evolutionary change due to natural selection processes,

Diffusion → the gradual spread of a species through suitable habitat over several generations,

Jump dispersal → the rapid movement of organisms over large distances, usually across unsuitable habitat

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117
Q

The mechanism whereby some organisms may alter the environment to prevent other species from using it, typically with toxins or antibiotics, is known as ….

Select one:

a. allelopathy
b. predation
c. exclusion
d. succession
e. interference

A

allelopathy

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118
Q

Natality is defined as the rate of increase of females in a population.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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119
Q

The pattern of which dispersion is described by the Poisson distribution?

Select one:

a. clumped distribution
b. random distribution
c. regular distribution
d. none of the other

A

random distribution

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120
Q

Which population is in the process of decreasing?

Select one:

a. II
b. I and II
c. I
d. II and III
e. III

A

II

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121
Q

The potential for population growth under ideal conditions is called:

Select one:

a. sustainable growth threshold
b. Intrinsic rate of natural increase
c. exponential growth
d. density-independent growth rate

A

Intrinsic rate of natural increase

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122
Q

Coevolution occurs when:

Select one:

a. the pressures of convergent evolution mean that two unrelated species have similar attributes
b. a trait of species A and species B evolved in response to changes environmental conditions over a longer period of time
c. a trait of species A evolved in response to a trait of species B, which evolved in response to the trait in species A
d. environmental pressures are such that two closely related species diverge
e. a trait of species A evolved in response to a trait of species B, which evolved in response to the trait in species C

A

a trait of species A evolved in response to a trait of species B, which evolved in response to the trait in species A

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123
Q

Population attributes that describe the make-up of individuals, such as sex ratio, age distribution, social attributes and genetic make-up are referred to as primary attributes

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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124
Q

A Type III survivorship curve is most likely to be found in:

Select one:

a. An invertebrate species
b. An equilibrial species
c. A species that is territorial
d. An opportunistic species
e. A species that undergoes periodic molting

A

An opportunistic species

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125
Q

Which of the following graphs illustrates the population growth curve of single yeast growing in a large flask of ideal medium (with unlimited availability of resources) at optimum temperature over a 24-hour period?

Select one:

a. a
b. b
c. c
d. d
e. e

A

e (be aware graph may not be labelled the same)

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126
Q

Diapause (dormancy) is best defined as:

Select one:

a. none of the choices
b. large annual migration in response to seasonal conditions and availability of food resources
c. over-wintering in favourable refugia
d. condition of lowered body temperature and inactivity to reduce metabolic rate and energy demand
e. resting state in which water is chemically bound or reduced to prevent freezing or overheating

A

resting state in which water is chemically bound or reduced to prevent freezing or overheating

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127
Q

In the illustration below, which of the images represents sympatric speciation?

Select one:

a. III
b. I, II and III
c. None of the choices
d. I
e. II

A

II

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128
Q

With reference to the following diagram, indicate which mortality rate (dx) curve (I, II or III) best corresponds to a Type 3 survivorship curve in populations.

Select one:

a. I and II
b. III
c. I
d. II
e. II and III

A

II

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129
Q

Evolution refers to changes in any attribute of a population over time

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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130
Q

Which of the following is not an element of the scientific method?

Select one:

a. anecdotal observations
b. hypothesis
c. theory
d. observation
e. communication with other scientists

A

anecdotal observations

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131
Q

In the following, match the mechanism for speciation with the best description.

reduced flow of genes to a population entering a new habitat

population is isolated by a geographic barrier and diverge

reproductive isolation occurs within the range of a population

A

reduced flow of genes to a population entering a new habitat → parapatric speciation,

population is isolated by a geographic barrier and diverge → allopatric speciation,

reproductive isolation occurs within the range of a population → sympatric speciation

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132
Q

Coevolution describes the reciprocal evolutionary influences organisms may have on each other

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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133
Q

The generalisation that geographic range sizes decrease as one moves from polar to equatorial latitudes, such that range sizes are smaller in the tropics is known as ….

Select one:

a. Darwin’s Rule
b. Lieberg’s Law
c. Rapoport’s Rule
d. Hanski’s Rule
e. Ecological specialisation model

A

Rapoport’s Rule

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134
Q

Which of the following best describes the general nature of ecology?

Select one:

a. Hierarchical, complex, qualitative, variance
b. Maniacal, complex, quantitative, variable
c. Hierarchical, descriptive, quantitative, variation
d. Hierarchical, experimental, value-laden, predictive
e. Hierarchical, complex, quantitative, variable

A

Hierarchical, complex, quantitative, variable

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135
Q

Distribution in ecology refers to the

Select one:

a. the random movement of animals throughout their habitat
b. none of the other options
c. the limits imposed on an organism by the environment
d. spatial pattern of abundance
e. the temporal pattern in dispersal

A

spatial pattern of abundance

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136
Q

Population is a group of organisms of the same species occupying a defined space.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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137
Q
An ecologist recorded 435 white oaks (Quercus alba) in an one hectare plot and 267 red oaks (Quercus rubra) on the same plot. What was the ecologist comparing?
Select one:
a. range
b. carrying capacity
c. density 
d. dispersion
e. quadrats
A

density

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138
Q

“Time specific” life tables sample individuals born within the same time interval.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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139
Q

In the following, match the mode of dispersal to the best description.

geographic range expansion over evolutionary time-scales

gradual spread through suitable habitat over generations

rapid movement of individuals over large distances

A

geographic range expansion over evolutionary time-scales → secular dispersal,

gradual spread through suitable habitat over generations → diffusion,

rapid movement of individuals over large distances → jump dispersal

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140
Q

With reference to the following diagram, indicate which survivorship curve (I, II or III) best corresponds to a Type 3 relationship in populations.

survivorship

Select one:

a. III
b. II and III
c. I
d. II
e. I and II

A

I (be aware may be labelled diferently)

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141
Q

What is the population growth pattern in the figure termed?

Select one:

a. exponential growth
b. density-dependent growth
c. geometric growth
d. logistic growth
e. density-independent decline

A

Geometric growth (staircase)

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142
Q

The mortality rate of organisms following a type III survivorship curve is

Select one:

a. unrelated to age
b. fairly constant throughout life
c. lower after the organisms become established
d. higher in post-reproductive years

A

lower after the organisms become established

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143
Q

Match the following terms relating to population sex ratios with the most appropriate definition/explanation

monogamy

promiscuous

polygamy

A

monogamy → lasting bond formed between one male and one female,

promiscuous → mating at large with a population, without lasting pair bonding,

polygamy → more than one mate per individual

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144
Q

A cosmopolitan species is one that

Select one:

a. is only found in urban areas
b. maintains high population numbers in the face of disturbance
c. overlaps with the distribution of others
d. has a restricted geographic ranges isolated to a small area
e. has an extensive geographic range stretching over several continents

A

has an extensive geographic range stretching over several continents

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145
Q

The points labelled (2) on the following figure representing environmental tolerance limits for an organism are:

Select one:

a. zones where species is absent
b. physiological optimum
c. the upper and lower tolerance limits
d. optimum points
e. zones of physiological stress

A

the upper and lower tolerance limits

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146
Q

In terms of models of population growth, a model that predicts one exact outcome given certain (known) initial conditions is known as a stochastic (probabilistic) model.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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147
Q

The tropical to polar (latitudinal) gradient in species diversity is where there is greater diversity in the tropics that at higher latitudes.

True or false?

A

True

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148
Q

Ecesis in primary succession is ….

Select one:

a. associated increases in soil N (mineralisation)
b. the process of species elimination by stronger competitors
c. the successful establishment of a plant or animal species in a habitat
d. the initial exposure of new substrate
e. the dispersal of propagules from surrounding areas

A

the successful establishment of a plant or animal species in a habitat

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149
Q

Clements proposed an ‘individualist’ concept of an ecological community where organisms behave as individuals.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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150
Q

Which description about ideal free distributions is incorrect? (choose one)

Select one:

a. Profitable patches will attract more predators and thus decline more quickly in profitability
b. all predators are assumed to be equal
c. all patches end up with the same profitability
d. Predators tend to leave less profitable patches and move to more profitable patches
e. none of the others

A

none of the others

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151
Q

The idea of gradual species replacement along environmental gradients is known as:

Select one:

a. an ecotone
b. primary succession
c. the continuum concept of communities
d. community replacement concept
e. the redundancy hypothesis

A

c. the continuum concept of communities

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152
Q

The figure below shows the minimum requirement of species A (blue) and species B (green) for resources 1 and 2 in Tilman’s competition model. The dark red vectors in the figure respectively show the rate of resource depletion for species A and B. In which zone will species A and B coexist?

Select one:

a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
d. none of the others

A

2

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153
Q

Match the following interactions and the effects between two species

Commensalism

Amensalism

Parasitism

A

Commensalism → benefits one species and has no harm to the other species,

Amensalism → neutral to one species but does harm to the other species,

Parasitism → benefits one species but does harm to the other species

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154
Q

Lotka-Volterra’s model addresses the mechanism (resource depletion) that affects populations

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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155
Q

Which of the following pairs of terms and descriptions is correct? (choose one)

Select one:

a. Parasitism / The interaction of parasites typically results in the death of the host
b. Competition / An interaction usually only found among herbivores
c. Pollination / Herbivores feed on the leaves and flowers of plants
d. Mutualism / Bacteria that make vitamins or assist in digestion in the human intestine
e. Predation / Most preys have little defense against predators

A

d. Mutualism / Bacteria that make vitamins or assist in digestion in the human intestine

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156
Q

Many plants have nitrogen-fixing bacteria that live in their root nodules. This is an example of …

Select one:

a. commensalism
b. none of the choices
c. competition
d. ecological communities
e. mutualism

A

mutualism

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157
Q

A predator-prey response where the rate of consumption by the predator rises rapidly with prey density but decreases at high prey densities is ….

Select one:

a. a type II response
b. uncommon
c. a type I response
d. a type III response
e. interference competition

A

type II response

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158
Q

In the redundancy model describing inter-connections within communities, most species within a community have little to do with each other and a proportion of species and ecological processes are redundant.

True or false?

A

true

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159
Q

The assumptions of optimal foraging theory include:

Select one:

a. all of the others
b. the experimental circumstances used to test optimal foraging theory reflect the natural situation
c. high fitness is primarily associated with high energy intake
d. the past optimal behaviour of the predator is the same as the present optimal behaviour

A

all of the others

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160
Q

In the rivet model describing inter-connections within communities, each species in a community is part of what holds the network together and loss of any species may have cascading effects on other species.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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161
Q

In a grassland, when tall grasses shade out short, shade-intolerant species, ecologists call this interaction …

Select one:

a. predation
b. habitat fragmentation
c. commensalism
d. mutualism
e. competition

A

Competition

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162
Q

Which type(s) of functional responses exhibit density-dependence at high levels of prey numbers?

Select one:

a. Type II
b. Type III
c. Type I
d. Type II and Type III
e. Type I and Type III

A

Type II and type III

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163
Q

Two species of birds found on two different islands in an archipelago have identically-sized beaks and eat similar seeds. What would you predict about the evolution of beak size if you transplanted both of these two species to a new island that was uninhabited by similar birds?

Select one:

a. One of the species would go extinct.
b. There would be no change in the beaks of either species.
c. The beak sizes of both species would diverge from each other and from their original sizes.
d. The beak size of one of the species would change, becoming either larger or smaller on average.

A

The beak sizes of both species would diverge from each other and from their original sizes.

164
Q

Which description about equilibrium models of stable communities is not true? (choose one)

Select one:

a. competition is the overriding structuring force of the community
b. there is a stable equilibrium point for population densities of coexisting species
c. besides competition, no other species interactions are considered
d. none of the others
e. coexistence occurs as a result of resource partitioning and niche differentiation

A

besides competition, no other species interactions are considered

165
Q

Non-equilibrium theories of community organization focus on the importance of disturbance and environmental heterogenity, e.g. climate fluctuation and habitat patchness.

Select one:
True
False

A

‘True’

166
Q

Species richness can be best described as …

Select one:

a. a measure of evenness in a community
b. a measure of gamma diversity across ecosystems
c. relative abundance of species in a community or ecosystem
d. a count or list of species present in a community
e. an indicator of dominance within communities

A

a count or list of species present in a community

167
Q

The two models that describe the potential importance of inter-connections within communities are:

Select one:

a. the non-directional (cyclic) and directional (succession) models
b. the rivet and redundancy models
c. the collective and emergent models
d. the Clemenstian and Gleasonian models
e. the facilitation and inhibition models

A

the rivet and redundancy models

168
Q

Non-directional change in communities is known as ‘succession’.

Select one:
True
False

169
Q

Which description about competition is wrong?

Select one:

a. competition can decrease the population growth
b. competition is driven by limited resource availability and similarities in species’ resource requirement
c. competition does not happen between organism whose activities are temporally partitioned
d. there is no competition for superabundant resources
e. competition can decrease individual survivorship, growth, and reproduction

A

competition does not happen between organism whose activities are temporally partitioned

170
Q

Secondary succession is the redevelopment of a community starting with organic components remaining at a site from a previous occupation.

Select one:
True
False

171
Q

In the figure below showing Lotka-Volterra predator-prey functional responses match the figure (a, b or c) with the appropriate response.

A

(a) → type II
(b) → type III
(c) → type I

172
Q

The figure below shows the minimum requirement of species A (blue) and species B (green) for resources 1 and 2 in Tilman’s competition model. What will be the outcome of competition between species A and species B in this case?

Select one:

a. both species coexist in a stable equilibrium
b. both species coexist in an unstable equilibrium
c. species A becomes extinct
d. species B becomes extinct

A

Species B becomes extinct (See p159 of module guide to check, as have got these wrong)

173
Q

Competition is an interaction between individual organisms as a result of a shared requirement of one or more resources.
Select one:
True
False

174
Q

Match the following interactions and the effects between two species

Competition

Predation

Mutualism

A

Competition → detrimental to both species,

Predation → benefits one species but does harm to the other species,

Mutualism → benefits both species

175
Q

In terms of rank abundance, species-poor homogeneous communities tend to demonstrate what type of characteristic distribution?

Select one:

a. log-normal
b. none of the choices
c. linear
d. broken stick
e. geometric

176
Q

The two schools of ecological thought regarding the concept of a community that emerged in the 19th and early 20th centuries were:

Select one:

a. the facilitation and inhibition schools
b. the collective and emergent schools
c. the Clemenstian and Gleasonian schools
d. the non-directional (cyclic) and directional (succession) schools
e. the rivet and redundancy schools

A

the Clemenstian and Gleasonian schools

177
Q

Which of the following is not considered a direct measure of biological structure in communities?

Select one:

a. all are considered direct measures of biological structure
b. rank abundance
c. diversity
d. species richness
e. resilience

A

resilience

178
Q
A new kitten is added to a home with an established older cat. The older cat is observed to gobble up its food as well as that of the younger cat. This behaviour is best described as
Select one:
a. mutualism
b. interspecies competition
c. resource competition
d. interference competition 
e. amensalism
A

interference competition

179
Q

Traditionally, the four main characteristics of communities recognised are: growth form and physical structure, diversity, relative abundance and dominance; and, trophic structure.

Select one:
True
False

180
Q

In terms of rank abundance, the majority of ecological communities demonstrate what type of characteristic distribution?

Select one:

a. linear
b. log-normal
c. broken stick
d. geometric
e. none of the choices

A

log normal

181
Q

Which predator functional response does the Lynx show to its major prey, the snowshoe hare?

Select one:

a. Type II
b. Type I
c. none of the others
d. Type III
e. I and III

182
Q

According to non-equilibrium theories, what is most likely to be the major force to shape the community organization?

Select one:

a. Disturbance
b. Primary productivity
c. Predation
d. Dispersal
e. Competition

A

Disturbance

183
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a symbiotic relationship between organisms?

Select one:

a. parasitism
b. all of the other choices are examples of a symbiotic relationship
c. competition
d. mutualism
e. commensalism

A

competition

184
Q

Which of the following schematics illustrates the tolerance model of secondary succession?

Select one:

a. (c)
b. none of the choices
c. (b)
d. (d)
e. (a)

185
Q

Which of the following is not considered a significant factor in determining diversity patterns in natural systems? (choose one)

Select one:

a. climate
b. history
c. local extinction
d. productivity
e. competition

A

Local extinction

186
Q

Which factors tend to prompt a predator to take a next-most-profitable prey that is immediately available?

Select one:

a. the next-most-profitable prey has high energy content
b. searching for another prey is time consuming
c. all of the choices
d. the handling time of this next-most-profitable prey is short

A

all of the choices

187
Q

The monoclimax theory states that every region has ultimately only one stable endpoint determined by climate toward which all communities are developing.

Select one:
True
False

188
Q

Commensalism is the biotic interaction between two species where

Select one:

a. there is a negative effect on both interacting species
b. both interacting species benefit
c. both species suffer a reduction in productivity
d. one species derives a benefit from the relationship and the second species is unaffected by it
e. one species is consumed by another

A

one species derives a benefit from the relationship and the second species is unaffected by it

189
Q

Optimal foraging theory predicts that foragers will seek to optimize the net energy return from feeding by minimising costs of searching and handling prey and maximizing energy intake.
Select one:
True
False

190
Q

Acacia trees and ants have a well developed mutualism where ants provide protection from insect herbivores and the tree provides a food source for the ant. Which biological properties of acacia tree is the least likely to promote selection favouring mutualism?

Select one:

a. there is high herbivory pressure in the habitat of acacia tree
b. the accommodation and food prepared by acacia tree are attractive to ants
c. the investment needed to attract ants is low
d. acacia tree has very effective chemical defense against herbivory
e. ants are efficient in terms of defensing acacia tree from herbivory

A

acacia tree has very effective chemical defense against herbivory

191
Q

The current view of communities is close to the individualistic concept of Gleason.

Select one:
True
False

192
Q

The monoclimax theory states that many different climax communities can exist in a given area due to a range of controlling factors.

Select one:
True
False

193
Q

Both algae and fungi can live independently in favourable environments. Why is the mutualism between algae and fungus in lichen considered obligate?

Select one:

a. because neither of them can survive independently in the adverse environment which lichen can live
b. because the fungus needs the help of algae for dispersal in the adverse environment in which lichen live
c. none of the other answers
d. because algae need to protection of fungus from dehydration
e. because algae provide fungi food while fungus provide algae nutrients

A

because neither of them can survive independently in the adverse environment which lichen can live

194
Q

A pioneer community in relation to community development is …

Select one:

a. a community exhibiting change towards the climax stage
b. the initial seral stage
c. each distinct community in a sequence
d. a unit of succession
e. the final seral stage

A

the initial seral stage

195
Q

In the following schematic illustrating the complex successional sequence associated with secondary succession, what is the stage labelled (a)?

Select one:

a. climax stage
b. seral stages
c. sub-climax stage
d. pioneer seral stage
e. dynamic equilibrium

A

pioneer seral stage

196
Q

Which of the following is not considered a main characteristic of communities contributing to community structure? (choose one)

Select one:

a. trophic structure
b. relative abundance
c. diversity
d. growth form
e. population life history

A

population life history

197
Q

In the following possible landscape configurations, which is better from a conservation perspective?

large vs small reserves

fragmented vs contiguous reserves

clustered vs dispersed

A

large vs small reserves → large,

fragmented vs contiguous reserves → contiguous,

clustered vs dispersed → clustered

198
Q

Match the following terms with appropriate descriptions in relation to the patch-corridor-matric model describing landscapes

corridor

matrix

patch

A

corridor → link between patches,

matrix → dominant land use or vegetation type surrounding patch,

patch → areas of suitable habitat

199
Q

Which of the following changes has not been observed in relation the cryosphere?

Select one:

a. increased volcanic activity in Greenland
b. sea level rises of about 1.7 mm during the period 1900-1990
c. sea level rises of about 3 mm per year since 1993
d. reduction in glaciers and Greenland ice sheet cover
e. reduction in snow cover and Arctic sea ice cover

A

Increase volcanic activity in Greenland

200
Q

In marine ecosystems, light is a principle factor limiting primary production at depth.

Select one:
True
False

201
Q

The addition of nutrients such as phosphorus and nitrogen to freshwater systems from wastes generated by humans and resultant increases in algal concentrations is known as …

Select one:

a. putrification
b. precipitation
c. eutrofication
d. oligotrophism
e. nutrification

A

Eutrophification

202
Q

Only about 1% of the solar energy reaching the Earth is converted into net primary productivity by plants and algae.

Select one:
True
False

203
Q

The greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the Earth by the heat trapped in the atmosphere by water vapour and gases.

Select one:
True
False

204
Q

Photosynthetic efficiency is …

Select one:

a. the proportion of food energy taken into the gut of consumers and which is assimilated across the gut wall
b. he efficiency at which light energy is captured by plants and converted to organic forms
c. the rate of production of new biomass by all heterotrophs
d. a measure of the amount of activity by living organisms within any trophic level
e. total amount of energy fixed by plants through photosynthesis minus the energy lost to respiration

A

he efficiency at which light energy is captured by plants and converted to organic forms

205
Q

Based on population growth rates since the 1800s, what is the approximate doubling time for the global human population?

Select one:

a. 130 years
b. 40 years
c. 60 years
d. 20 years
e. 100 years

206
Q

A key source (reservoir) for the nutrient phosphorus in terms of global nutrient cycles is:

Select one:

a. calcium phosphate minerals weathered from rock
b. wastes form animals
c. plants fixing phosphorus
d. release by decomposers
e. atmosphere deposition

A

calcium phosphate minerals weathered from rock

207
Q

The energetics hypothesis predicts shorter food chains in less predictable habitats.

Select one:
True
False

208
Q

The dynamic stability hypothesis predicts shorter food chains in less predictable habitats.

Select one:
True
False

209
Q

System productivity is a collective property of ecosystems

Select one:
True
False

210
Q

In the following diagram representing the stages of fragmentation identified by Forman, what is the component labelled (IV)?

fragmentation

Select one:

a. fragmentation
b. perforation
c. shrinkage/attrition
d. dissection

A

Perforation (bottom right, 2 white squares within green)

211
Q

The essential nutrients, nitrogen and phosphorus, are often limiting primary production in oceans.

Select one:
True
False

212
Q

The irrevocable loss or elimination of a species is best described as …

Select one:

a. pollution
b. species extinction
c. environmental degradation
d. evolution
e. an ecological footprint

A

Species extinction

213
Q

The release of sulphur dioxide (SO2) into the atmosphere through the burning of fossil fuels can lead to acid rain.

Select one:
True
False

214
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage in the use of guilds?

Select one:

a. species’ niche within the community becomes more apparent
b. species are grouped according to their ecological role within the community rather than their taxonomic identity
c. analysis of community structure is refined
d. keystone species are easily recognised
e. communities can be compared on the basis of specific functional groups

A

keystone species are easily recognised

215
Q

In the diagram below, representing the reaction of photosynthesis, what is the component labelled (2)?

photosynthesis reaction

Select one:

a. chlorophyll
b. carbohydrate (sugar)
c. carbon dioxide
d. water
e. light energ

A

Light energy (after 12H2O)

216
Q

Which of the following best describes ‘chains of extinction’?

Select one:

a. secondary extinctions due to loss of closely-associated species
b. extinctions caused by species introductions
c. a domino effect of extinctions across a landscape due to habitat loss
d. loss of entire food chains
e. none of the choices

A

secondary extinctions due to loss of closely-associated species

217
Q

A freshwater lake that is characterised by high primary production and little light penetration can be described as …

Select one:

a. dynamic
b. oligotrophic
c. polytrophic
d. eutrophic
e. static

218
Q

Gross secondary productivity is ……

Select one:

a. the rate of energy fixation (CO2 conversion to organic carbon) by photosynthesis
b. the amount of assimilated energy derived from the previous trophic level
c. total amount of energy fixed by plants through photosynthesis (GPP) minus the energy lost to respiration
d. the rate of production of new biomass by all heterotrophs
e. a measure of the amount of activity by living organisms within any trophic level

A

the amount of assimilated energy derived from the previous trophic level

219
Q

Which of the following theories argues that community structure is predominantly controlled by competition for limiting resources?

Select one:

a. classical competition theory
b. competition-spatial patchiness theory
c. habitat selection-competition theory
d. competition-predation theory
e. none of the choices

A

classical competition theory

220
Q

The primary factors limiting net primary productivity in terrestrial environments are …

Select one:

a. temperature, evaporation and nutrients
b. soil nutrients and biotic interactions
c. evaporation and temperature
d. none of the choices
e. light, temperature and moisture

A

light, temperature and moisture

221
Q

In the diagram below, representing the reaction of cellular respiration, what is the component labelled (4)?

respiration reaction

Select one:

a. water
b. energy
c. carbohydrate
d. carbon dioxide
e. chlorophyll

222
Q

Island biogeography theory predicts smaller islands contain a higher diversity of species due to their isolation

Select one:
True
False

223
Q
Correct
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Question text
Which of the following theories recognises environmental patchiness in resource availability, different stable equilibria and variation in species composition between patches?

Select one:

a. competition-predation theory
b. habitat selection-competition theory
c. none of the choices
d. classical competition theory
e. competition-spatial patchiness theory

A

competition-spatial patchiness theory

224
Q

The equilibrium model of community organisation holds that communities are relatively constant in composition and resilient to disturbances.

Select one:
True
False

225
Q

According to the IUCN Red Lists for threatened species, habitat loss has been described as the main threat to 85% of species listed.

Select one:
True
False

226
Q

In the following diagrams illustrating stable states in communities, which exhibits a ‘robust’ system?

stability graphs

Select one:

a. I, II and III
b. I
c. II and III
d. II
e. III

227
Q

In the following graph of colonisation and extinction of species on islands, what is ‘S’?

colonisation-extinction

Select one:

a. the mean number of species
b. steady-state number of species
c. local community stability
d. secondary productivity of the system
e. coefficient of species stability

A

steady-state number of species

228
Q

Approximately, what proportion of solar energy from the sun is reflected directly back into space?

Select one:

a. three-quarters
b. all solar energy readches the Earth’s surface
c. two-thirds
d. 20%
e. one-third

229
Q

Only about 3-4% of primary production in forests is consumed by herbivores.

Select one:
True
False

230
Q

In the following diagram representing the stages of fragmentation identified by Forman, what is the component labelled (III)?

fragmentation

Select one:

a. fragmentation
b. dissection
c. perforation
d. shrinkage/attrition

A

shrinkage / attrition

231
Q

In the diagram below, representing the reaction of photosynthesis, what is the component labelled (3)?

photosynthesis reaction

Select one:

a. chlorophyll
b. carbohydrate (sugar)
c. light energy
d. carbon dioxide
e. water

A

Carbohydrates (sugar)

232
Q

Match the following greenhouse gases with their approximate contribution to the greenhouse effect

water vapour

carbon dioxide

methane

ozone

A

water vapour → 36-70%,

carbon dioxide → 9-26%,

methane → 4-9%,

ozone → 3-7%

233
Q

Match the following terms to the most appropriate description in relation to community stability

resilience

constancy

persistence

A

resilience → ability of a system to recover from disturbance events,

constancy → ability of a system to maintain size,

persistence → a system that demonstrates a stable composition in time (i.e. resistance to alteration)

234
Q

Which of the following are the two principle models of community organisation recognised?

Select one:

a. none of the choices
b. equilibrium and non-equilibrium models
c. equilibrium and calibration models
d. abundance and distribution models
e. diversity and distribution models

A

equilibrium and non-equilibrium models

235
Q

Background extinction is …

Select one:

a. all of the choices
b. the rate of species extinction that goes on regardless of human population growth impacts
c. the significantly higher rate of species extinction experienced at various periods in geological history
d. the base rate of species extinction over most of the history of life on Earth
e. the rate of enhanced species extinction due to human impacts

A

the base rate of species extinction over most of the history of life on Earth

236
Q

Secondary productivity is ……

Select one:

a. the rate of energy fixation (CO2 conversion to organic carbon) by photosynthesis
b. the rate of production of new biomass by all heterotrophs
c. the proportion of food energy taken into the gut of consumers and which is assimilated across the gut wall
d. total amount of energy fixed by plants through photosynthesis (GPP) minus the energy lost to respiration
e. a measure of the amount of activity by living organisms within any trophic level

A

the rate of production of new biomass by all heterotrophs

237
Q

Which of the following reactions best describes photosynthesis?

Select one:

a. carbon dioxide + water + light energy (in the presence of chlorophyll) gives a sugar (carbohydrate) + oxygen
b. carbon dioxide + oxygen (in the presence of chlorophyll) gives a sugar (carbohydrate) + water + energy
c. a sugar + oxygen+ light energy (in the presence of chlorophyll) gives carbon dioxide + water
d. (a) water + oxygen + light energy (in the presence of chlorophyll) gives a sugar (carbohydrate) + carbon dioxide
e. (a) carbon dioxide + chlorophyll gives a sugar (carbohydrate) + oxygen + water

A

carbon dioxide + water + light energy (in the presence of chlorophyll) gives a sugar (carbohydrate) + oxygen

238
Q

The net primary productivity of the ocean is roughly twice that of the land.

Select one:
True
False

239
Q

Since 1900, global temperatures have risen by about how much?

Select one:

a. 1 degree Celsius
b. 6 degrees Celsius
c. global temperature have not risen
d. 4 degrees Celsius
e. 8 degrees Celsius

240
Q

Net primary productivity (NPP) is ……

Select one:

a. the rate of energy fixation (CO2 conversion to organic carbon) by photosynthesis
b. a measure of the amount of activity by living organisms within any trophic level
c. the rate of production of new biomass by all heterotrophs
d. total amount of energy fixed by plants through photosynthesis (GPP) minus the energy lost to respiration
e. the proportion of food energy taken into the gut of consumers and which is assimilated across the gut wall

A

total amount of energy fixed by plants through photosynthesis (GPP) minus the energy lost to respiration

241
Q

Dominance in communities is most probably the result of a combination of competitive exclusion, physiological tolerances and/or predation pressure on potential competitors.

Select one:
True
False

242
Q

Which of the following is not considered a major threat to biodiversity?

Select one:

a. over-exploitation
b. urban expansion
c. pollution
d. species introductions
e. habitat loss and fragmentation

A

Urban expansion

243
Q

The current equilibrium model for community organisation incorporates competition, predation and spatial heterogeneity

Select one:
True
False

244
Q

Which of the following reactions best describes the biochemical reaction of respiration?

Select one:

a. a sugar + oxygen gives carbon dioxide + water + energy
b. carbon dioxide + oxygen (in the presence of chlorophyll) gives a sugar (carbohydrate) + water + energy
c. carbon dioxide + water + light energy (in the presence of chlorophyll) gives a sugar (carbohydrate) + oxygen
d. (a) carbon dioxide + chlorophyll gives a sugar (carbohydrate) + oxygen + water
e. (a) water + oxygen + light energy (in the presence of chlorophyll) gives a sugar (carbohydrate) + carbon dioxide

A

a sugar + oxygen gives carbon dioxide + water + energy

245
Q

Match the following major theories of community organisation under equilibrium and their description

competition-predation theory

classical equilibrium theory

competition-spatial patchiness theory

A

competition-predation theory → both predation and competition are key biological interactions governing community organisation,

classical equilibrium theory → community structure is primarily controlled by competition for limiting resources,

competition-spatial patchiness theory → recognises environmental patchiness in resource availability and different stable equilibria and variation in species composition between patches

246
Q

Neighbourhood (local) stability within communities refers to …

Select one:

a. where a system is unable to return to its former position following a disturbance
b. where there are no disturbances acting on the community
c. where a system is able to return to its former position following a small temporary disturbance
d. where a system is able to return to its former position following a large disturbance
e. the degree to which a variable (e.g. species abundance or diversity) is changed following a perturbation

A

where a system is able to return to its former position following a small temporary disturbance

247
Q

Which of the options best provides a suitable working definition of ecology?

Select one:

a. the scientific study of nature and the interactions that determine the distribution & abundance of organisms
b. the scientific study of the relationships between living organisms and the living (biotic) and non-living (abiotic) factors in the environment
c. the study of the genetic relationships between organisms
d. the study of organisms and their immediate environment

A

the scientific study of the relationships between living organisms and the living (biotic) and non-living (abiotic) factors in the environment

248
Q

Which is not an assumption of mark-recapture method?

Select one:

a. the survival chance of marked individuals would not be affected, at least in short term
b. the probability of catching a marked and unmarked individual is the same
c. the species must have a random distribution in the studied area
d. the marked individuals would thoroughly mix with other members of the population

A

the species must have a random distribution in the studied area

249
Q

In the following, match the type of physiological state in relation to temperature (endo-/ectothermy) in animals to the appropriate response.

higher energetic demands

enable activity in unfavourable temperatures

environment primary source of body hea

A

higher energetic demands → endothermy,

enable activity in unfavourable temperatures → endothermy,

environment primary source of body heat → ectothermy

250
Q

Small group sizes is most likely to be associated with which habitat?

Select one:

a. savannah
b. grassland
c. woodland
d. all of the options
e. forest

251
Q

A trout cannot live in a slow, warm stream because the oxygen concentration in the water is too low. In this case, the oxygen concentration is …

Select one:

a. none of the options
b. a limiting factor
c. a niche
d. a range of tolerance
e. a delineating factor

A

A limiting factor

252
Q

A Type II survivorship curve is characterised by:

Select one:

a. high mortality in middle life
b. none of the choices
c. roughly constant mortality rate regardless of age
d. greatest mortality is experienced early on in life, with relatively low rates of death for those surviving the early period
e. high survival in early and middle life, followed by a rapid decline in survivorship in later life

A

roughly constant mortality rate regardless of age

253
Q

The three types of speciation identified are:

Select one:

a. endopatric, palleopatric and synpatric speciation
b. allopatric, parapatric and sympatric speciation
c. directional, stabilizing and disruptive speciation
d. elastic, monopatric and polypatric speciation
e. adjusted, competitive and coevolution speciation

A

allopatric, parapatric and sympatric speciation

254
Q

In the illustration below, which of the images represents directional selection?

selection

Select one:

a. I
b. I and II
c. II
d. I and III
e. III

A

II (may be different in different pic. II represents a curve partially shaded on one side)

255
Q

Generally we can expect an organism to be most abundant where conditions for its growth and reproduction are at an optimum

Select one:
True
Falseq

256
Q

Which factor(s) may cause the sex ratio of some species deviate from 1:1?

Select one:

a. one gender is more costly to produce
b. one gender have a lower chance of reproducing itself
c. polygamy
d. all of above

A

all of above

257
Q

During exponential growth, a population always

Select one:

a. grows by thousands of individuals
b. loses some individuals to emigration
c. cycles through time
d. grows at its maximum per capita rate
e. quickly reaches its carrying capacity

A

grows at its maximum per capita rate

258
Q

It is possible in ecology to have prediction without extensive explanation (understanding)

Select one:
True
False

259
Q

In the following, match the level of ecological organisation (‘ecological hierarchy’) to the best description.

assemblages of interacting species

indidual organism

that part of the Earth inhabited by organisms

all members of a particular species

A

assemblages of interacting species → community,

individual organism → individual,

that part of the Earth inhabited by organisms → biosphere,

all members of a particular species → population

260
Q

Good environment conditions will increase the average fitness of individuals in a population.

Select one:
True
False

261
Q

Water is generally considered the most important factor affecting the ecology of terrestrial organisms

Select one:
True
False

262
Q

A population of koalas has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Estimate the number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1000 individuals in one year.

Select one:

a. 80 individuals added
b. 40 individuals added
c. 120 individuals added
d. 20 individuals lost
e. 60 individuals added

A

40 individuals added

263
Q

In the following, match the type of selection operating on phenotypic characters with the best description.

selection favours phenotypes at two extremes with intermediate types becoming less common in gene pool

narrowing of phenotypes where phenotypes near the mean are fitter

phenotypes at one extreme of range is selected against

A

selection favours phenotypes at two extremes with intermediate types becoming less common in gene pool → disruptive selection,

narrowing of phenotypes where phenotypes near the mean are fitter → stabilising selection,

phenotypes at one extreme of range is selected against → directional selection

264
Q

In the following, define the population attribute in terms of primary or secondary attribute.

population density

sex ratio

spatial structure

A

population density → primary,

sex ratio → secondary,

spatial structure → primary

265
Q

Which group mentioned below is not a population?

Select one:

a. Koalas (Phascolarctos cinereus) in Australian Zoo
b. All human beings (Homo sapiens) in the world
c. The only black swan (Cygnus atratus) couple living in the pond of Japanese Garden at USQ
d. All kangaroos species (Macropus spp.) living on Kangaroo Island

A

All kangaroos species (Macropus spp.) living on Kangaroo Island

266
Q

hich of the following is not a part of an organism’s environment?

Select one:

a. all the plants and animals that the organism interacts with during its lifetime
b. temperature
c. climate
d. the flow of energy necessary to maintain the organism
e. all of these factors are part of the organism’s environment

A

all of these factors are part of the organism’s environment

267
Q

With reference to the following diagram, indicate which mortality rate (dx) curve (I, II or III) best corresponds to a Type 1 survivorship curve in populations.

mortalility

Select one:

a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I
d. II
e. III

268
Q

‘r-strategy’ (r-selection) organisms tend to have

Select one:

a. stable natality and mortality
b. few offspring
c. sigmoid growth curves (like logistic curve)
d. little parental care
e. none of the other

A

Little parental care

269
Q

Which of the following is not a plant adaptation to low water availability

Select one:

a. reduced evaporative water loss by having small leaves
b. enhanced water uptake by rapid root growth
c. torpor
d. the storage of water within special structures
e. mycorrhizal associations

270
Q

The number of individuals that a particular place can support indefinitely is called the

Select one:

a. survivorship
b. cohort
c. community
d. carrying capacity
e. biotic potential

A

carrying capacity

271
Q

What is the mathematical expression of population growth rate?

Select one:

a. dK/dt
b. N
c. dN
d. dN*dt
e. dN/dt

272
Q

An ecosystem is best described as:

Select one:

a. an assemblage of species and the non-living environment
b. all members of a particular species
c. an assemblage of species
d. that part of earth & atmosphere inhabited by living organisms
e. an assemblage of biotic communities

A

an assemblage of species and the non-living environmen

273
Q

K-selected species ([k-strategy) tend to reproduce early in their life history.

Select one:
True
False

A

‘False’.

274
Q

Convergent evolution occurs when:

Select one:

a. members of distantly related species occupy similar ecological niches and resemble each other due to similar evolutionary forces
b. environmental pressures are such that two closely related species diverge
c. a trait of species A and species B evolved in response to changes environmental conditions over a longer period of time
d. a trait of species A evolved in response to a trait of species B, which evolved in response to the trait in species A
e. two groups of a population diverge and each group follows an independent and gradual process of evolutionary change

A

members of distantly related species occupy similar ecological niches and resemble each other due to similar evolutionary forces

275
Q

Shelford’s Law of Tolerance states that

Select one:

a. factors in combination impact on the rate of biological processes in ecosystems
b. organisms have an optimum range in terms of resource use
c. energy requirements for organisms will be lowest at night
d. the rate of biological processes is limited by that factor in least amount relative to its requirements
e. the distribution of a species will be controlled by that environmental factor for which the species has the narrowest range of tolerance

A

the distribution of a species will be controlled by that environmental factor for which the species has the narrowest range of tolerance

276
Q

In ecology, the process of more successful individuals surviving and reproducing larger numbers of offspring than unsuccessful individuals can reproduce is called …

Select one:

a. natural selection
b. predation
c. mutualism
d. none of the choices
e. speciation

A

natural selection

277
Q

With reference to the following diagram, indicate which survivorship curve (I, II or III) best corresponds to a Type 1 relationship in populations.

survivorship

Select one:

a. II and III
b. I and II
c. III
d. I
e. II

278
Q

Which of the following best represents the ecological hierarchy in order of increasing ecological complexity?

Select one:

a. Population, Community, Landscape, Ecosystem, Biosphere
b. Organism, Population, Landscape, Community, Ecosystem, Biosphere
c. Organism, Population, Community, Landscape, Ecosystem, Biota
d. Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem, Landscape, Biosphere
e. Molecules, Organelles, Cells, Tissues, Organs, Organ Systems, Individuals (Organisms)

A

Organism, Population, Community, Ecosystem, Landscape, Biosphere

279
Q

In the following, match the population attribute to the appropriate life strategy (r- or k-selected species).

variable and unpredictable natality and mortality

small body size

late maturity and delayed reproduction

long life span

A

variable and unpredictable natality and mortality → r-strategy,

small body size → r-strategy,

late maturity and delayed reproduction → k-strategy,

long life span → k-strategy

280
Q

The distribution of populations is not influenced by which of the following?

Select one:

a. interactions with other species
b. the species’ limit to tolerance
c. presence/ absence of suitable habitat conditions
d. opportunities for dispersal
e. the shape of survivorship curve of this species

A

the shape of survivorship curve of this species

281
Q

The hypothetico-deductive approach involves testing of hypotheses through deductive reasoning

Select one:
True
False

282
Q

The zone labelled (3) on the following figure representing environmental tolerance limits for an organism is:

Select one:

a. zone of physiological stress
b. upper tolerance limit
c. optimum zone
d. zone of lower tolerance
e. zone where species is absent

A

optimum zone

283
Q

In the illustration below, which of the images represents allopatric speciation?

speciation

Select one:

a. III
b. II
c. I
d. I, II and III
e. None of the choices

284
Q

In terms of models of population growth, a model that predicts one exact outcome given certain (known) initial conditions is known as a deterministic model.

Select one:
True
False

285
Q

Match the following terms relating to evolution and adaptation with the most appropriate definition / explanation

natural selection individuals in a species which have highest fitness will contribute more significantly to next generation

any heritable trait which aids survival and/or reproduction in a particular environment

long term process shaping the genetic make-up of populations

A

natural selection individuals in a species which have highest fitness will contribute more significantly to next generation → natural selection,

any heritable trait which aids survival and/or reproduction in a particular environment → adaptation,

long term process shaping the genetic make-up of populations → evolution

286
Q

Many plants have nitrogen-fixing bacteria that live in their root nodules. This is an example of …

Select one:

a. mutualism
b. commensalism
c. none of the choices
d. competition
e. ecological communities

287
Q

Lotka-Volterra’s model addresses the mechanism (resource depletion) that affects populations

Select one:
True
False

288
Q

There is little empirical support for the productivity hypothesis regarding patterns in species diversity

Select one:
True
False

289
Q

Commensalism occurs when both species that interact are benefited and the relationship is obligatory

Select one:
True
False

290
Q

In the redundancy model describing inter-connections within communities, most species within a community have little to do with each other and a proportion of species and ecological processes are redundant.

Select one:
True
False

291
Q

Which type of functional responses can give rise to stable limit cycles of predator and prey populations?

Select one:

a. Type III
b. Type I and Type III
c. Type II
d. Type I
e. Type II and Type III

A

Type II and Type III

292
Q

In the following, match the types of interaction indicated by the following relationships.

ephiphytes and host tree

Algae and fungus that form lichen to colonize very adverse environment

barnacles that attach to the whale for a free ride

Oxpecker that eats ticks on giraffe

A

ephiphytes and host tree → commensalism,

Algae and fungus that form lichen to colonize very adverse environment → mutualism,

barnacles that attach to the whale for a free ride → commensalism,

Oxpecker that eats ticks on giraffe → mutualism

293
Q

A ‘seral stage’ in relation to community development is …

Select one:

a. the final seral stage
b. the initial seral stage
c. a unit of succession
d. a community exhibiting change towards the climax stage
e. each distinct community in a sequence

A

each distinct community in a sequence

294
Q

The figure below shows the minimum requirement of species A (blue) and species B (green) for resources 1 and 2 in Tilman’s competition model. The dark red vectors in the figure respectively show the rate of resource depletion for species A and B. In which zone will species A and B coexist?

Select one:

a. 3
b. 2
c. none of the others
d. 1

295
Q

Spatial patchiness and environmental complexity help to maintain the coexistence of predator and prey.

Select one:
True
False

296
Q

What are the assumptions of Marginal Value Theorem?

Select one:

a. the prey will maximize the overall energy intake during foraging
b. resources in a patch deplete over time
c. the predator only hunts the optimum prey in the patch
d. a and b
e. a and c

297
Q

Which of the following schematics illustrates the tolerance model of secondary succession?

Select one:

a. (a)
b. none of the choices
c. (d)
d. (c)
e. (b)

298
Q

Marginal Value Theorem proposes that the optimal stay-time in a patch for a predator depends on the rate of energy extraction by the predator at the time it leaves the patch.

Select one:
True
False

299
Q

Which predator functional response does the Lynx show to its major prey, the snowshoe hare?

Select one:

a. none of the others
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. I and III
e. Type I

300
Q

Optimal foraging theory predicts that foragers will seek to optimize the net energy return from feeding by minimising costs of searching and handling prey and maximizing energy intake.
Select one:
True
False

301
Q

In a grassland, when tall grasses shade out short, shade-intolerant species, ecologists call this interaction …

Select one:

a. commensalism
b. competition
c. mutualism
d. habitat fragmentation
e. predation

A

Competition

302
Q

Non-directional change in communities is known as ‘succession’.

Select one:
True
False

303
Q

In terms of rank abundance, the majority of communities demonstrate a ‘broken-stick’ distribution.

Select one:
True
False

304
Q

Which of the following is not an assumption of classic equilibrium theories to explain the role of competition in structuring communities? (choose one)

Select one:

a. environment is spatially and temporally homogeneous
b. migration is unimportant
c. the genetic structure of studied populations is stable
d. inter-specific competition is the only important biological interaction
e. resources are limiting

A

the genetic structure of studied populations is stable

305
Q

Amensalism is an interaction that is detrimental to one organism but beneficial to the other.

Select one:
True
False

306
Q

Which factor is the least likely to lead to a lag in the increase of prey consumption rate at low prey density?

Select one:

a. prey’s behaviour to search and use refugia
b. prey has low reproduction rate at low density
c. predator’s low hunting efficiency due to the lack of practice
d. predator may switch to alternative food sources
e. predator’s low searching efficiency due to the lack of search image

A

prey has low reproduction rate at low density

307
Q

Competition is an interaction between individual organisms as a result of a shared requirement of one or more resources.
Select one:
True
False

308
Q

Non-equilibrium theories of community organization focus on the importance of disturbance and environmental heterogenity, e.g. climate fluctuation and habitat patchness.

Select one:
True
False

309
Q

Match the following factors explaining broad diversity patterns with their associated hypothesis

disturbance

history

productivity

A

disturbance → intermediate disturbance hypothesis,

history → stability-time hypothesis,

productivity →productivity hypothesis

310
Q

In the following schematic illustrating the complex successional sequence associated with secondary succession, what is the stage labelled (a)?

Select one:

a. seral stages
b. sub-climax stage
c. pioneer seral stage
d. dynamic equilibrium
e. climax stage

A

pioneer seral stage

311
Q

The competitive exclusion principle implies that

Select one:

a. Coexisting species cannot eat exactly the same things.
b. Coexisting species can use the same resources.
c. Coexisting species cannot have identical ecological interactions.
d. Coexisting species cannot be closely related to one another.
e. Coexisting species cannot be exactly the same size.

A

Coexisting species cannot have identical ecological interactions.

312
Q

Gause’s competitive exclusion principle states that

Select one:

a. two species of approximately the same resource requirements are not likely to remain balance in numbers
b. two species can not eat the same type of food
c. if two species have very similar niche, one will out-compete the other
d. a and c
e. b and c

313
Q

Identify which type of mutualism the following relationships are

mistletoe bird and grey mistletoe

yellow-brown algae living in coral polyp

ants and acacia trees

A

mistletoe bird and grey mistletoe → dispersive mutulism,

yellow-brown algae living in coral polyp → trophic mutualism,

ants and acacia trees → defensive mutualism

314
Q

Which statement is incorrect for diffuse competition? (choose one)

Select one:

a. Diffuse competition is indirect
b. It means that it is difficult to measure the impact of one species on another.
c. It means the effect of one species on another is generally weak
d. Diffuse competition is the combined effect of competitive interactions with many species on a given species.
e. It suggests that competition can occur between many species and rarely takes the form of exclusively pair-wise interactions

A

Diffuse competition is indirect

315
Q

In Huffaker’s experiment, he found refugia for prey can stabilize cyclic predator-prey relationships.

Select one:
True
False

316
Q

In the diagram below, representing the reaction of photosynthesis, what is the component labelled (2)?

photosynthesis reaction

Select one:

a. carbohydrate (sugar)
b. carbon dioxide
c. water
d. chlorophyll
e. light energy

A

Light energy

317
Q

In the diagram below, representing the reaction of cellular respiration, what is the component labelled (1)?

respiration reaction

Select one:

a. chlorophyll
b. water
c. energy
d. carbon dioxide
e. carbohydrate

A

Carbohydrate

318
Q

Gross secondary productivity is ……

Select one:

a. a measure of the amount of activity by living organisms within any trophic level
b. total amount of energy fixed by plants through photosynthesis (GPP) minus the energy lost to respiration
c. the amount of assimilated energy derived from the previous trophic level
d. the rate of energy fixation (CO2 conversion to organic carbon) by photosynthesis
e. the rate of production of new biomass by all heterotrophs

A

the amount of assimilated energy derived from the previous trophic level

319
Q

Which of the following are the two principle models of community organisation recognised?

Select one:

a. equilibrium and calibration models
b. equilibrium and non-equilibrium models
c. diversity and distribution models
d. none of the choices
e. abundance and distribution models

A

equilibrium and non-equilibrium models

320
Q

Photosynthetic efficiency is …

Select one:

a. he efficiency at which light energy is captured by plants and converted to organic forms
b. total amount of energy fixed by plants through photosynthesis minus the energy lost to respiration
c. a measure of the amount of activity by living organisms within any trophic level
d. the proportion of food energy taken into the gut of consumers and which is assimilated across the gut wall
e. the rate of production of new biomass by all heterotrophs

A

he efficiency at which light energy is captured by plants and converted to organic forms

321
Q

A freshwater lake that is characterised by high primary production and little light penetration can be described as …

Select one:

a. polytrophic
b. static
c. eutrophic
d. oligotrophic
e. dynamic

322
Q

In the past 25 years, global temperatures have risen on average per decade by …

Select one:

a. 1 degrees Celsius
b. global temperature have not risen
c. 2 degrees Celsius
d. 0.52 degrees Celsius
e. 0.18 degrees Celsiu

A

0.18 degrees Celsius

323
Q

The ‘energetics hypothesis’ of Elton (1927) regarding the length of food chains in communities proposes that the length of food chains is limited by inefficiencies of energy transfer along the chain.

Select one:
True
False

324
Q

Methane and nitrous oxides are in the highest concentrations among all natural greenhouse gases.

Select one:
True
False

325
Q

Which of the following reactions best describes photosynthesis?

Select one:

a. carbon dioxide + oxygen (in the presence of chlorophyll) gives a sugar (carbohydrate) + water + energy
b. (a) water + oxygen + light energy (in the presence of chlorophyll) gives a sugar (carbohydrate) + carbon dioxide
c. (a) carbon dioxide + chlorophyll gives a sugar (carbohydrate) + oxygen + water
d. a sugar + oxygen+ light energy (in the presence of chlorophyll) gives carbon dioxide + water
e. carbon dioxide + water + light energy (in the presence of chlorophyll) gives a sugar (carbohydrate) + oxygen

A

carbon dioxide + water + light energy (in the presence of chlorophyll) gives a sugar (carbohydrate) + oxygen

326
Q

The irrevocable loss or elimination of a species is best described as …

Select one:

a. evolution
b. species extinction
c. an ecological footprint
d. environmental degradation
e. pollution

A

Species extinction

327
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage in the use of guilds?

Select one:

a. species are grouped according to their ecological role within the community rather than their taxonomic identity
b. species’ niche within the community becomes more apparent
c. keystone species are easily recognised
d. communities can be compared on the basis of specific functional groups
e. analysis of community structure is refined

A

keystone species are easily recognised

328
Q

Match the following mass extinction events with their occurrence

Ordovician

Devonian

Cretaceous

Permian

A

Ordovician → 440-450 million years ago,

Devonian → ~360 million years ago,

Cretaceous → ~65 million years ago,

Permian → ~250 million years ago

329
Q

Net primary productivity (NPP) is ……

Select one:

a. the rate of energy fixation (CO2 conversion to organic carbon) by photosynthesis
b. the rate of production of new biomass by all heterotrophs
c. total amount of energy fixed by plants through photosynthesis (GPP) minus the energy lost to respiration
d. a measure of the amount of activity by living organisms within any trophic level
e. the proportion of food energy taken into the gut of consumers and which is assimilated across the gut wall

A

total amount of energy fixed by plants through photosynthesis (GPP) minus the energy lost to respiration

330
Q

Match the following in relation to the principles of community organisation

equilibrium model

non-equilibrium model

A

equilibrium model → focus is on community stability and biotic coupling,

non-equilibrium model → focus is on stochastic effects and species independence

331
Q

A freshwater lake that is characterised by high light penetration but little primary productivity can be described as …

Select one:

a. dynamic
b. oligotrophic
c. eutrophic
d. static
e. polytrophic

A

oligotrophic

332
Q

Which of the following is not generally recognised as a factor limiting secondary productivity in grassland ecosystems

Select one:

a. spatial and temporal heterogeneity of plant/prey availability
b. water availability
c. all of these can limit secondary productivity
d. nutrients critical to animal growth an reproduction
e. plant/prey defences against herbivory/predation

A

all of these can limit secondary productivity

333
Q

Human activities add about the same amount of nitrogen to the biosphere as natural processes.

Select one:
True
False

334
Q

Match the following predictions regarding the length of food chains in communities and the relevant hypothesis

longer food chains in more productive habitats

shorter food chains in less predictable habitats

A

longer food chains in more productive habitats → Elton’s (1927) energetics hypothesis,

shorter food chains in less predictable habitats → dynamic stability hypothesis

335
Q

The equilibrium community model proposes that where physical conditions are relatively stable or vary in a predictable fashion …

Select one:

a. population processes will operate in a density-dependent fashion
b. a community will be saturated with species
c. all of the choices
d. species composition and species abundances will be relatively constant in time

A

all of the choices

336
Q

System productivity is a collective property of ecosystems

Select one:
True
False

337
Q

In the following possible landscape configurations, which is better from a conservation perspective?

connected vs isolated

high vs low edge ratio

linear vs clustered

A

connected vs isolated → connected,

high vs low edge ratio → low edge ratio (circle),

linear vs clustered → clustered

338
Q

Which of the following theories argues that community structure is predominantly controlled by competition for limiting resources?

Select one:

a. habitat selection-competition theory
b. classical competition theory
c. competition-spatial patchiness theory
d. none of the choices
e. competition-predation theory

A

classical competition theory

339
Q

In the following diagram representing the extinction vortex, what is the component labelled (II)?

extinction vortex

Select one:

a. reduction in geographic range
b. higher mortality
c. random genetic drift or inbreeding
d. bottleneck
e. reduction in fitness

A

random genetic drift or inbreeding

340
Q

In the following diagram representing the extinction vortex, what is the component labelled (III)?

extinction vortex

Select one:

a. random genetic drift
b. higher mortality
c. inbreeding
d. reduction in fitness
e. reduction in geographic range

A

reduction in fitness

341
Q

Which of the following is not a major theory explaining community organisation under equilibrium conditions?

Select one:

a. competition-spatial patchiness theory
b. classical competition theory
c. none of the choices
d. competition-predation theory
e. habitat selection-competition theory

A

habitat selection-competition theory

342
Q

In the following diagram representing the stages of fragmentation identified by Forman, what is the component labelled (III)?

fragmentation

Select one:

a. shrinkage/attrition
b. fragmentation
c. perforation
d. dissection

A

shrinkage/attrition

343
Q

The following graph of colonisation and extinction of species on islands is a demonstration of which ecological theory?

colonisation-extinction

Select one:

a. the theory of colonisation and extinction
b. C-E theory
c. island biogeography theory
d. competitive exclusion theory
e. competition-predation theory

A

Island biogeography theory

344
Q

Nitrogen fixation is the reaction where …

Select one:

a. nitrogen gas is converted to ammonia
b. nitrogen compounds are reacted to give off oxygen
c. carbon is fixed into nitrogenous compounds
d. ammonia is converted to nitrogen gas
e. ammonia is converted to nitrite

A

nitrogen gas is converted to ammonia

345
Q

Which of the following changes has not been observed in relation the cryosphere?

Select one:

a. sea level rises of about 1.7 mm during the period 1900-1990
b. sea level rises of about 3 mm per year since 1993
c. reduction in glaciers and Greenland ice sheet cover
d. increased volcanic activity in Greenland
e. reduction in snow cover and Arctic sea ice cover

A

increased volcanic activity in Greenland

346
Q

The figure below shows the “zero growth isocline” of species 1 (blue) and species 2 (green) in a Lotka-Volterra competition model.

What will be the outcome of competition between species 1 and species 2 in this case?

Select one:

a. species 1 becomes extinct
b. both species coexist in a stable equilibrium
c. both species coexist in an unstable equilibrium
d. species 2 becomes extinct

A

Species 1 becomes extinct (blue line and green line both angle down, with gap widening as they get lower)

(See p159 of module guide)

347
Q

In following diagram representing characteristic rank abundance within communities, what is the distribution indicated by (I)?

348
Q

The figure below shows the minimum requirement of species A (blue) and species B (green) for resources 1 and 2 in Tilman’s competition model. What will be the outcome of competition between species A and species B in this case?

Select one:

a. both species coexist in an unstable equilibrium
b. species A becomes extinct
c. species B becomes extinct
d. both species coexist in a stable equilibrium

A

Species B becomes extinct (See p159 of module guide to check, as have got these wrong)

349
Q

The idea of gradual species replacement along environmental gradients is known as:

A

continuum concept of communities

350
Q

Intraspecific competition is asymmetric among different individuals in the same population, e.g. older and more experienced individuals often get advantages over younger ones. Which one of the following consequences of this asymmetric competition is not true?

Select one:

a. it will decrease the whole population size
b. it will decrease the reproductive rate of the young
c. it will decrease the survivorship of the young
d. none of the others
e. it will decrease the fitness of the young and thus change the genetic structure of the population

A

it will decrease the fitness of the young and thus change the genetic structure of the population

351
Q

True predation differs from herbivory and parasitism in that (choose best answer)

Select one:

a. the prey organism is always killed during or shortly after and attack
b. usually many prey organisms are consumed in a predator’s lifetime
c. true predation refers to the interaction between carnivorous animals/plants and their preys
d. a, b and c
e. a and b
f. b and c

A

a, b and c

352
Q

Which of the following best represents two main characteristics of communities contributing to community structure?

Select one:

a. growth form and trophic structure
b. collective and emergent properties
c. population life history and reproductive effort
d. natality and mortality
e. organism size and fecundity

A

growth form and trophic structure

353
Q

Which type(s) of functional responses exhibit density-dependence at high levels of prey numbers?

Select one:

a. Type II and Type III
b. Type III
c. Type II
d. Type I
e. Type I and Type III

A

Type II and Type III

354
Q

The figure below exhibits which Lotka-Volterra predator-prey functional responses?

lotka-volterra

Select one:

a. type II
b. type III
c. type I
d. type IV

A

Type III (bottom left to top right diagonal if linear, but shown with a curve)

355
Q
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
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Question text
Which of the following would be considered true predation?

Select one:

a. a koala eating eucalypt leaves
b. all of the choices
c. a wedge-tailed eagle killing and consuming a rabbit
d. disease-causing bacteria invading human lung tissue
e. a wallaby nibbling on grass shoots

A

a wedge-tailed eagle killing and consuming a rabbit

356
Q

Diversity indices attempt to take into account both relative abundance of populations and overall richness of community.

Select one:
True
False

357
Q

In following diagram representing characteristic rank abundance within communities, what is the distribution indicated by (III)?

rank abundance

Select one:

a. geometric
b. broken stick
c. binomial
d. log-normal
e. exponential

A

Broken stick

358
Q

Sutherland’s modification on the ideal free distribution predicts that when there is no interference among predators, all predators will go to the patch with the highest prey density.

Select one:
True
False

359
Q

The definition of ‘community’ as an identifiable assemblage of interacting species in space and time is supported by the study of community variation along single or multiple environmental gradients, known as:

Select one:

a. collective properties
b. species association analysis
c. tolerance analysis
d. community continua
e. gradient analysis

A

Gradient analysis

360
Q

The definition of ‘community’ as an identifiable assemblage of interacting species in space and time is supported by the study of community variation along single or multiple environmental gradients, known as:

Select one:

a. collective properties
b. species association analysis
c. tolerance analysis
d. community continua
e. gradient analysis

A

Gradient analysis

361
Q

Cyclic change in communities refers to the …

Select one:

a. non-directional, non-cyclical changes
b. non-seasonal and continuous pattern of change in community structure
c. non-directional changes and species inter-relations within a community dictated by the life cycles of dominant organisms affecting the overall community
d. the seasonal and directional pattern of colonization/immigration and extinction of species
e. on-seasonal, directional and continuous pattern of colonization/immigration and extinction of species and changes in relative abundances of species populations at a particular location

A

non-directional changes and species inter-relations within a community dictated by the life cycles of dominant organisms affecting the overall communit

362
Q

Which of the following schematics illustrates the facilitation model of secondary succession?

Select one:

a. (b)
b. (d)
c. (a)
d. (c)
e. none of the choices

A

b (see graphics cards)

363
Q

The pattern of maximum diversity at intermediate levels of disturbance in known as the intermediate disturbance hypothesis.

Select one:
True
False

364
Q

In the inhibition model of community secondary succession species replacement is inhibited previous residents.

Select one:
True
False

365
Q

The idea that many different climax communities can exist in a given area due to a range of controlling factors is known as …

Select one:

a. the polyclimax theory
b. the monoclimax theory
c. a transient climax
d. climatic climax theory
e. equilibrium succession

A

Polyclimax theory

366
Q

A climax community in relation to community development is …

Select one:

a. the final seral stage
b. the initial seral stage
c. each distinct community in a sequence
d. a single unit of succession
e. a unit of succession

A

The final seral stage

367
Q

A ‘community’ can be defined as:

Select one:

a. interacting species along an environmental gradient
b. that part of the Earth containing life
c. an identifiable assemblage of interacting species in space and time
d. groups of species in close association
e. the whole complex of species and populations

A

an identifiable assemblage of interacting species in space and time

368
Q

Interspecific competition is the biotic interaction between two different species

Select one:
True
False

369
Q

The current view of communities is close to the organismic concept of Clements.

Select one:
True
False

370
Q

A plot of log abundance of species in order the most to least abundant is referred to as a …

Select one:

a. life history plot
b. plot of ecological continua
c. species response curve
d. rank abundance plot
e. trophic response plot

A

Rank abundance plot

371
Q

The figure below exhibits which Lotka-Volterra predator-prey functional responses?

Select one:

a. type I
b. type IV
c. type III
d. type II

A

Type II (bottom left to top right with curved shape)

372
Q

The graph below best describes which of the following hypotheses regarding patterns in diversity?

diversity graph

Select one:

a. niche partitioning hypothesis
b. intermediate disturbance hypothesis
c. productivity hypothesis
d. spatial heterogeneity hypothesis
e. stability-time hypothesis

A

Intermediate disturbance hypothesis (line starts left, shapes upwards then curves down to bottom right)

373
Q

Intraspecific competition is the biotic interaction between two different species

Select one:
True
False

374
Q

In terms of rank abundance, communities with mostly intermediate species abundances and only a few very high or very low abundances demonstrate what type of characteristic distribution?

Select one:

a. linear
b. none of the choices
c. broken stick
d. geometric
e. log-normal

A

Log-normal

375
Q

In the following schematic illustrating the complex successional sequence associated with secondary succession, what is the stage labelled (d)?

Select one:

a. climax stage
b. seral stages
c. dynamic equilibrium
d. pioneer seral stage
e. sub-climax stage

A

Climax stage (furthers to right / last stage)

376
Q

he figure below exhibits which Lotka-Volterra predator-prey functional responses?

Select one:

a. type IV
b. type II
c. type I
d. type III

A

Type I (starts bottom left, straight diagonal line towards top right, then evens out and line becomes flat)

377
Q

Good searchers but poor handlers tend to be generalists.

Select one:
True
False

378
Q

Which description is wrong for the following statement?
Lotka-Volterra’s predator-prey population models …

Select one:

a. assume predation is random
b. are a theoretical simulation that has not been observed even in controlled conditions
c. are very difficult to demonstrate due to the complications in real world
d. suggest populations can be impacted by an environmental perturbation
e. predict populations will oscillate in an unchanging cycle

A

are a theoretical simulation that has not been observed even in controlled conditions

379
Q

Succession is ….

Select one:

a. the seasonal, non-directional and cyclic pattern of colonization/immigration and extinction of species
b. species inter-relations within a community dictated by the life cycles of dominant organisms affecting the overall community
c. seasonal and continuous pattern of change in community structure
d. non-directional, non-cyclical changes
e. on-seasonal, directional and continuous pattern of colonization/immigration and extinction of species and changes in relative abundances of species populations at a particular location

A

on-seasonal, directional and continuous pattern of colonization/immigration and extinction of species and changes in relative abundances of species populations at a particular location

380
Q

Which description about ideal free distributions is incorrect? (choose one)

Select one:

a. all predators are assumed to be equal
b. all patches end up with the same profitability
c. Profitable patches will attract more predators and thus decline more quickly in profitability
d. Predators tend to leave less profitable patches and move to more profitable patches
e. none of the others

A

none of the others

381
Q

Which of the following statements best describes competition?

Select one:

a. Coexisting species adapt to competition by evolving to use slightly different resources
b. Competition always involves one species benefiting and the other being harmed by the interaction
c. Competition for resources always involves aggression
d. Members of different species never compete for resources
e. Competition always results in the disappearance of one of the competing species

A

Coexisting species adapt to competition by evolving to use slightly different resources

382
Q

Which of the following is not a major category of interspecific or intraspecific interaction among organisms? (choose one)

Select one:

a. speciation
b. symbiosis
c. competition
d. all of the others
e. predation

A

speciation

383
Q

Diversity indices attempt to …

Select one:

a. measure community resilience
b. take into account both relative abundance of populations and overall richness of a community
c. incorporate population attributes into community patterns
d. consider rank abundance only
e. measure successional sequences in communities

A

take into account both relative abundance of populations and overall richness of a community

384
Q

The facilitation model of community succession maintains that species replacement is not affected by previous residents.

Select one:
True
False

385
Q

As a predator, humans have a polyphagous diet

Select one:
True
False

386
Q

A close physical association between organisms, such as the association of mycorrhizal fungi with the roots of plants in forests, which is beneficial to both species, is known as which of the following?

Select one:

a. a food web
b. parasitism
c. mutualism
d. pollination
e. competition

387
Q

Collective properties of communities include which of the following:

Select one:

a. community structure
b. competition, mutualism and parasitism
c. ecological continua
d. species population levels
e. community stability, change and complexity

A

competition, mutualism and parasitism

388
Q

Match the following terms regarding extinction to the appropriate definition

ecologically extinct

extirpation

extant

extinct in wild

Answer 4
individuals remain, but only in captivity/under cultivation

A

ecologically extinct → species is so rare that it’s ecological role and ability to reproduce is negligible,

extirpation → local extinction,

extant → living specie s(not extinct),

extinct in wild → individuals remain, but only in captivity/under cultivation

389
Q

In the following diagrams illustrating stable states in communities, which exhibits a ‘resilient’ system?

stability graphs

Select one:

a. I, II and III
b. II
c. III
d. I
e. II and III

A

I (a line shaped with a double curve and a moutain like peak in the middle of the two depressions - the ball is on the left side of the mountain)

390
Q

The rate of movement of nutrients between compartments within global nutrient cycles is called the flux rate

Select one:
True
False

391
Q

Which of the following greenhouse gas has been recognised by the IPCC (2007) as causing the most significant contributions to anthropogenic climate change in terms of radiative forcing?

Select one:

a. ozone
b. carbon dioxide
c. nitrogen
d. nitrous oxides
e. methane

392
Q

Removal of a keystone species may result in significant changes in the relative abundance of other organisms within that community.

Select one:
True
False

393
Q

Global variation in primary production appears limited by nutrient availability.

Select one:
True
False

394
Q

Nutrients, such as phosphorus, that contain a significant sedimentary component of their nutrient cycles …

Select one:

a. are usually more available for uptake by organisms
b. cycle relatively quickly compared with nutrients with atmospheric cycles
c. are considerably depleted by losses to the atmosphere
d. cycle very slowly compared with nutrients with atmospheric cycles
e. are prone to be washed into the seas and oceans by runoff

A

cycle very slowly compared with nutrients with atmospheric cycles

395
Q

The phenomenon of higher ambient carbon dioxide concentrations leading to increased production of plant biomass, which in turn leads to increased carbon sequestration is known as …

Select one:

a. CO2 fertilisation
b. the carbon cycle
c. global dimming
d. global warming
e. the butterfly effect

A

CO2 fertilisation

396
Q

Which of the following is not regarded as a factor making species more vulnerable to extinction?

Select one:

a. small population size
b. habitat generalists
c. small geographic range
d. large body size
e. poor dispersers

A

Habitat generalists

397
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a stochastic factor affecting small populations?

Select one:

a. random differences among individuals in survival and reproduction
b. cyclone
c. selection
d. variations in birth and death rates in response to weather
e. habitat destruction

A

Habitat destruction

398
Q

Twenty-five percent of the world’s population consumes about 80% of the world’s energy.

Select one:
True
False

399
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a deterministic factor affecting small populations?

Select one:

a. habitat fragmentation
b. cyclone
c. disease
d. inability to find a mate
e. habitat destruction

400
Q

Global stability within communities refers to …

Select one:

a. where a system is able to return to its former position following a large disturbance
b. where there are no disturbances acting on the community
c. the degree to which a variable (e.g. species abundance or diversity) is changed following a perturbation
d. where a system is unable to return to its former position following a disturbance
e. where a system is able to return to its former position following a small temporary disturbance

A

where a system is able to return to its former position following a large disturbance

401
Q

A keystone species is always the most abundant within a community.

Select one:
True
False

402
Q

Which factor below is least likely to be a density-dependent factor?

Select one:

a. parasitism
b. the amount of shelter available
c. a cold snap
d. epidemic disease
e. water availability

A

A cold snap

403
Q

A predator-prey response where there is a constant rate of consumption by the predator (up to limit) is ….

Select one:

a. a type III response
b. a type I response
c. interference competition
d. uncommon
e. a type II response

A

A Type I Response

404
Q

The distribution of species along an environmental gradient in the diagram below suggests what sort of community structure?

Select one:

a. an ecotone
b. a closed community as predicted by the Gleasonian view
c. a open community as predicted by the Gleasonian view
d. a closed community as predicted by the Clementsian view
e. a open community as predicted by the Clementsian view

A

Gleasonian view (open).

In these questions, check the graph word document and realise that Gleasonian are open, Clementsian are closed.

405
Q

The figure below shows the “zero growth isocline” of species 1 (blue) and species 2 (green) in a Lotka-Volterra competition model.

What will be the outcome of competition between species 1 and species 2 in this case?

Select one:

a. both species coexist in an unstable equilibrium
b. species 1 becomes extinct
c. species 2 becomes extinct
d. both species coexist in a stable equilibrium

A

both species coexist in a stable equilibrium (See p159 of module guide to check, as have got these wrong)