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REN1201 Modules 1-6 & 11-12 > REN1201 > Flashcards

REN1201 Flashcards

Exam!

1
Q

How is environmental science defined?

A

Systematic study of the natural and human-made world

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2
Q

What does the word ‘environment’ refer to?

A

An organism’s surroundings

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3
Q

What are the 4 components of the biophysical earth system?

A

Atmosphere, Lithosphere, Hydrosphere, Biosphere

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4
Q

What is an atmosphere?

A

Gas surrounding the earth that protects from UV, traps IR and provides oxygen.

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5
Q

What is lithosphere?

A

Solid crust and upper part of the earths mantle, contributes to rock and soils

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6
Q

What is hydrosphere?

A

Represents 70% of earths surface covered in liquid and frozen water (sometimes known as the cryosphere).

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7
Q

What is biosphere?

A

Parts of the earth that contains living organisms and the complex interactions occurring.

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8
Q

What are the 4 components of the human-earth system?

A

Economics, Population, Politics, Ethics

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9
Q

What are the 2 main factors in human effect on the environment?

A

Consumption of resources, production of wastes and pollutants

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10
Q

What does ‘resources’ refer to?

A

Anything an organism uses up or depletes (i.e. food, water, etc.)

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11
Q

What is renewable energy?

A

That which can be consumed and replenished quickly (ie. food crops, forests, solar, etc.

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12
Q

What is non-renewable energy?

A

Materials that exist in finite amounts and can’t be replenished within a reasonable time frame.

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13
Q

What is waste assimilation?

A

The ability of the environment to absorb wastes.

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14
Q

What does PCB stand for?

A

Polychlorinated Biphenyls

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15
Q

What did the early ‘doomsday’ scenarios (in the 70s) suggest?

A

That there were limits to human population growth.

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16
Q

What did the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment Report reveal?

A
  • 60% of ecosystem services that support life are being degraded.
  • Human activity is changing the world around us, leading to mass extinction.
  • Relieving poverty wont succeed while environmental degradation is set to worsen.
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17
Q

What is the scientific method?

A

The systematic approach of observation, hypothesis formation, hypothesis testing and hypothesis evaluation.

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18
Q

What is a hypothesis?

A

A tentative explanation for an observation or question.

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19
Q

What is a theory?

A

A hypothesis thats been repeatedly tested with little modification.

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20
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Scientific method = Hypothesis > Analysis > Experiment > Conclusion

A

False

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21
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Scientific method = Hypothesis > Experiment > Analysis > Conclusion

A

True

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22
Q

How does ‘logical positivsm’ view the natural world?

A

In terms of cause and effect relationships.

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23
Q

What is a biotic component?

A

It includes neighbouring individuals of the same or different species and their interactions (parasitism, symbiotic relationships, competition, etc.).

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24
Q

What is an abiotic component?

A

A wide range of factors that chiefly derive from basic physical and chemical interactions (ie. weather, climate, radiation, etc.).

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25
Q

What is matter?

A

Anything that takes up space and has mass (and has 3 interchangeable forms: liquid, solid and gas).

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26
Q

What are elements?

A

Simplest substances that can be isolated chemically (is periodic table) [consists of atoms].

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27
Q

What are atoms?

A

Smallest units of matter capable of entering into chemical reactions (consists of neutrons, electrons, protons).

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28
Q

What is a molecule?

A

Conjunction of atoms of the same element (i.e. N2, O2, etc.)

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29
Q

What is a compound?

A

A molecule containing different kinds of atoms (i.e CH4, CO2, etc.)

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30
Q

Organic compounds form the basis of all life. What are the four major categories of them?

A

Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acid.

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31
Q

How can energy be defined?

A

The ability to do work; can be heat, light, electrical and chemical.

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32
Q

What is kinetic energy?

A

Energy in moving objects.

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33
Q

What is potential energy?

A

Stored energy.

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34
Q

What is chemical energy?

A

Energy contained in chemical bonds

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35
Q

What is the First Law of Thermodynamics?

A

Energy can be neither created nor destroyed.

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36
Q

What is the Second Law of Thermodynamics?

A

In every energy transformation, potential energy is reduced because heat energy is lost in the process.

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37
Q

How old is the Universe?

A

10-20 billion years old.

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38
Q

How long ago were the basic chemicals necessary for life on earth present?

A

4.6 billlion years ago.

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39
Q

How long ago did first multicelled organisms originate?

A

About 750 million years ago.

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40
Q

What is photosynthesis?

A

Process where plants take light energy from the sun and atmospheric CO2, and convert into chemical energy, releasing O2 as a waste product whilst retaining CH20 (sugar).

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41
Q

When did Hutton and Smith advance the concept of geological time through layers?

A

Between 1785-1800.

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42
Q

What is radiometric dating?

A

The decay of certain types of unstable atoms and isotopes.

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43
Q

What is the geological time scale?

A

The system that chronologically delineates major changes in the earths existence.

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44
Q

What is the longest length of time; Period, Epoch or Era?

A

Era

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45
Q

When was the Archean Super-Era (Eon)?

A

4500-2600 Million years ago

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46
Q

When was the Proterozoic Super-Era (Eon)?

A

2600-600 Million years ago.

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47
Q

When did the Phanerozoic Super-Era (Eon) begin?

A

570 Million years ago.

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48
Q

What are the 3 Eras of the Phanerozoic Super-Era, and their dates?

A

Paleozoic (570 - 245mya) [Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous & Permian Periods)

Mesozoic (245 - 66mya) [Triassic, Jurassic & Cretaceous Periods]

Cenozoic (66mya - present) [Paleogene, Neogene & Quaternary Periods].

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49
Q

What distinct patterns are revealed by the fossil record?

A

i) Organisms appear sequentially.
ii) More modern fossils more closely resemble living species today.
iii) Extinction is eventual fate of all species.

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50
Q

When did the first prokaryotic (single ‘pre’-celled) organisms appear?

A

Approx 3.8 billion years ago.

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51
Q

When was the rise of the dinosaurs?

A

Approx 252 million years ago.

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52
Q

When did the first vertebrate fish appear?

A

Approx 505 million years ago.

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53
Q

When did the first mammals and birds appear?

A

Approx 201 million years ago.

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54
Q

When did the first early humans appear?

A

Approx 2.6 million years ago.

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55
Q

What is panspermia?

A

Some organic compounds that formed life may be derived from extraterrestrial origins.

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56
Q

What is the chemical origin hypothesis?

A

Complex organic compounds derived from organic compounds already on the earth.

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57
Q

T or F: Traces of life in the form of proteins and amino acids were estimated to be dated to 2 billion years ago?

A

False (3.8 - 3.6 billion years ago).

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58
Q

What is a stromatolite?

A

Layered mounds, columns and sheets found in rock.

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59
Q

What is cyanobacteria?

A

Procaryotic cells that lack a DNA packaging nucleus.

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60
Q

What is an autotroph?

A

Obtain energy from inorganic sources such as sunlight (via photosynthesis).

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61
Q

What is a heterotroph?

A

Obtain energy from organic sources (other organisms).

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62
Q

What is the simplified equation for the biochemical reaction of photosynthesis?

A

CO2 + H2O + solar energy —-chlorophyll—> (CH2O) {carbohydrate} + O2

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63
Q

What does ecology mean?

A

The scientific study of the interactions that determine the distribution and abundance of organisms, as well as their inter relationships and relationships with their physical and chemical environments.

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64
Q

What is an organism?

A

An individual living thing (plant, animal or single celled life form).

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65
Q

What is an organelle?

A

A sub-cellular component .

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66
Q

What is the terms for all the individuals of the same species?

A

Population.

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67
Q

What is the biological hierarchy of complexity within living -organisms? (hint: molecules –> organelles –> …

A

Molecules –> Organelles –> Cells –> Tissues –> Organs –> Organ systems –> Organism (individual).

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68
Q

What is the ecological hierarchy? (hint: organism (individual) –> population –> …

A

Organism (individual) –> Population –> Community –> Ecosystem –> Biosphere

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69
Q

What is the term for the location of where populations of different species interact?

A

The ecological community

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70
Q

What is an ecosystem?

A

A complex interacting network of organisms and environment
OR
The functional systems formed by communities and their environment.

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71
Q

What is the fitness of an organism?

A

The measure of their ability to produce viable offspring to contribute to future generations.

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72
Q

What does adaptation refer to?

A

Any heritable trait that aids survival or reproduction in a particular environment.

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73
Q

What is a heritable trait?

A

Something capable of being transmitted to the next generation.

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74
Q

What is the evolution of a new species from previously existing species called?

A

Speciation

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75
Q

When is an organism at its most abundant?

A

When conditions for growth and reproduction are at an optimum (optimum range).

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76
Q

What is a limiting factor?

A

The tolerance limits that an organism can survive at.

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77
Q

The position an organism fills in its environment, comprising the conditions under which it is found and th resources it utilises is known as a what?

A

Ecological niche.

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78
Q

True or False: an organisms niche includes everything that affects and it affected by the organism in its lifetime.

A

True

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79
Q

What is the term for the physical environment in which an organism is found?

A

Habitat.

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80
Q

What is the combination of biotic and abiotic components through which energy flows and materials cycle known as?

A

Ecosystem.

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81
Q

What is an open system?

A

A system that can exchange energy or material with other ecosystems.

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82
Q

What is the role of producers?

A

To convert energy from the environment into high-energy carbon bonds (ie. sunlight to carbohydrate through photosynthesis of plants).

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83
Q

What is another term for producers?

A

Autotrophs.

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84
Q

What is a consumer?

A

Gets its energy from the carbon bonds made by producers.

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85
Q

What is another word for consumer?

A

Heterotroph.

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86
Q

What is the trophic level of a herbivore?

A

Primary consumer

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87
Q

What is the trophic level of plants?

A

Primary producer

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88
Q

What is the trophic level of carnivores that eat herbivores?

A

Secondary consumer

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89
Q

What is the trophic level of carnivores that eat carnivores?

A

Tertiary consumer

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90
Q

What is a detritivore?

A

A decomposer that feeds off dead and decaying matter.

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91
Q

What is the path of food energy from the source, through herbivores and into carnivores called?

A

The food chain

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92
Q

True or false - food webs are linear models

A

False - food CHAINS are linear, food webs are multi dimensional

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93
Q

What is the role of chlorophyll?

A

To absorb light energy.

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94
Q

What is photsynthetic efficiency?

A

The efficiency at which light energy is captured by plants and converted to organic forms.

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95
Q

True or false: 25% of light that falls onto a plant is chemically absorbed via photosynthesis.

A

False (only about 1%).

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96
Q

The mass of organisms per unit area is known as:

A

Biomass

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97
Q

What is defined as the rate at which biomass is produced per unit area by primary producers?

A

Primary productivity

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98
Q

How is energy lost by an autotroph?

A

Respiratory heat.

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99
Q

The total amount of energy fixed by plant minus energy lost to radiation is called what?

A

Net Primary Productvity

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100
Q

X = energy assimilated across gut wall ÷ amount of food energy ingested.

What is X?

A

Assimilation efficiency

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101
Q

X = amount of new biomass produced ÷ assimilation efficiency

What is X?

A

Production efficiency

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102
Q

What are biogeochemical cycles?

A

The cycling of chemicals through biogical (biotic) and geological (abiotic) compartments.

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103
Q

How are nutrients released from abiotic compartments?

A

Through weathering, erosion and major geological perturbations.

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104
Q

What are the 3 major processes of the water cycle driven by solar energy?

A

i) Precipitation
ii) Evaporation
iii) Transpiration

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105
Q

What is precipitation?

A

When water condenses from a gaseous state in atmosphere and falls to the earth.

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106
Q

What is evaporation?

A

When liquid water becomes gas

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107
Q

What is transpiration?

A

When water is drawn into a plants roots and move to leaves where it evaporates quickly.

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108
Q

True or false: 75% of evaporation comes from the oceans

A

True

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109
Q

Most plants absorb nitrogen in the form of …?

A

Nitrate NO3 and ammonium ions (NH4)

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110
Q

The 3 biological conversions of nitrogen critical in the nitrogen cycle are:

A

i) Nitrogen fixation
ii) Nitrification
iii) Denitrification

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111
Q

True or false: The major reservoirs in the phosphorus cycle are in the atmosphere

A

False (major reservoirs are in rocks and sediments).

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112
Q

What is a eukaryote?

A

A ‘true’ cell with a membrane bound nucleus containing DNA, whose evolution gave rise to multicellularity.

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113
Q

What is meant by the symbiotic origin of multicellularity?

A

Where multicellular organisms arose from eukaryotes to form a symbiotic relationship where each individual was cooperating to form a single organism.

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114
Q

What is meant by the colonial origin of multicellularity?

A

Where many single-celled organisms produce colonies, sharing the same genetic code.

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115
Q

Why did life ‘explode’ in the Cambrian period, 550mya?

A

Oxygen levels in the earths atmosphere approached levels of today.

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116
Q

What is biomineralisation?

A

The manufacture of minerals by living organisms.

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117
Q

What are trilobytes and when did they appear?

A

Heavily armoured animals part of the earliest known group of arthropods, survived for 300m years, until the end of the Permian 250mya.

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118
Q

Which 3 problems did earliest plants (475mya) need to solve to live on land?

A

i) Dessication: adaptations to survive out of water
ii) Support: adaptations to survive gravity
iii) Reproduction: needed protection from surroundings

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119
Q

What is a bryophyte?

A

The transition between charophytic algae and vascular plants.

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120
Q

What was significant about the carboniferous period?

A

345-280mya, large tracts of swampy forests and vascular plants (such as conifers) thrived.

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121
Q

When was the Silurian period and why was it relevant?

A

440-410mya; first terrestrial arthropods appear in fossil record.

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122
Q

When did the earliest amphibians appear?

A

During the Permian period (286-245mya) - the first truly terrestrial vertebrates!

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123
Q

When did the earliest reptiles evolve?

A

280mya from early amphibians.

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124
Q

Which 2 changes allowed reptiles to control water loss while exploiting drier habitats?

A

i) The development of the amniotic egg

ii) Development of water conservation mechanisms (such as a tough skin).

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125
Q

Which Era, from 245-66mya, is regarded as the “Age of Reptiles”?

A

Mesozoic Era.

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126
Q

The dinosaurs died out at the end of which period, during which the earth became colder and more variable?

A

The Cretaceous Period.

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127
Q

What did Luis Alvarez and co suggest in 1978?

A

That a meteor 10km in diameter was the cause of the great extinctions at the end of the Cretaceous Period.

128
Q

What is a therapsid?

A

An early mammal like reptile, that evolved around 248mya. All marsupials, placental mammals and monotremes originated from these early Therapsids.

129
Q

Which Era, from 66mya-present, is regarded as the “Age of the Mammals”?

A

The Cenozoic Era.

130
Q

When was the Paleocene Epoch?

A

Approx 66-56mya.

131
Q

What was the ‘1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development’ more commonly known as?

A

Earth Summit.

132
Q

What is biodiversity?

A

The sum total of all biotic variation from the level of genes to ecosystems.

133
Q

What are the 3 levels of biodiversity?

A

i) Genetic diversity
ii) taxonomic diversity
iii) ecosystem diversity

134
Q

What is meant by ‘genetic diversity’?

A

Genetic information in all living things.

135
Q

What is meant by ‘species (taxonomic) diversity’?

A

The number of different species present in a habitat; currently globally estimated at 1.7M species identified, but likely 14M.

136
Q

What is meant by ‘ecosystem diversity’?

A

The many differences in ecosystem types, including diversity of habitats and ecological processes.

137
Q

What are the 3 aspects relating to importance of biodiversity?

A

i) ecosystem services
ii) biological resources
iii) social benefits

138
Q

What is meant by ‘biological resources’ in the importance of biodiversity?

A

Resources that provide goods for human use (i.e. food, shelter and medicines).

139
Q

What is meant by ‘ecosystem servies’ in the importance of biodiversity?

A

Indirect servies often taken for granted (drinkable water, clean air, fertile soils, etc.).

140
Q

What is meant by ‘social benefits’ in the importance of biodiversity?

A

The benefit that society gains (value of natural resources, cultural value, recreational value, etc.)

141
Q

Where do 40-90% of the earth’s species live?

A

In tropical forests either side of the equator.

142
Q

How is extinction defined?

A

The irrevocable loss or elimination of a species.

143
Q

What is ‘background’ extinction?

A

Natural extinction.

144
Q

Prior to the 1600s, the extinction rate was estimated at about 1 species per year. What is our extinction rate currently estimated at?

A

Approximately 1 per hour, or 9000 per year. (10,000x higher than pre-1600s estimations).

145
Q

What are the 5 main causes of extinction, recognised by the IUCN?

A

i) Over-exploitation
ii) Habitat-destruction
iii) Habitat fragmentation / islandisation
iv) Exotic species introduction
iv) Pollution

146
Q

What is a ‘hominin’ and when did they first appear in the fossil record?

A

An animal considered more closely related to humans than apes, and first appeared between 6-7mya.

147
Q

When was ‘millennium-man’ dated to?

A

Approx 6.2 - 5.8mya.

148
Q

When was the species of Australopithecus dated to?

A

4.3 - 1mya.

149
Q

When was the species of Ardipithecus dated to?

A

5.8 - 4.2mya.

150
Q

When was the species of Kenyanthropus dated to?

A

3.5 - 3.2mya.

151
Q

When was the species of Paranthropus dated to?

A

2.7 - 1.1mya.

152
Q

When was the earliest species of homo dated?

A

2.8mya.

153
Q

When did the homo habilis originate and what was interesting about it?

A

2.4 - 1.4mya, shows evidence of using simple stone tools to hunt and provide protection.

154
Q

When did the homo erectus originate and what was interesting about it?

A

1.8mya - 143tya, used fire and had a larger brain.

155
Q

When did the homo neanderthalis originate and what was interesting about it?

A

230tya - 28tya, prolific tool and weapon makers, buried their dead, and more closely resembled modern humans.

156
Q

When did the homo sapien originate and what was interesting about it?

A

195tya - present, may have co-existed with neanderthals and led to their extinction.

157
Q

True or false: humans evolved directly from apes.

A

False (we diverged from a common ape like ancestor 6-7 mya).

158
Q

What were the estimated global populations in (i) 1AD and (ii) 1600AD?

A

(i) 100 million

(ii) 500 million

159
Q

What is the estimated global population for 2100?

A

10.85 billion

160
Q

When did the human population reach 1 billion?

A

Approximately 1800.

161
Q

What is exponential growth?

A

The larger the population base, the greater the population growth.

162
Q

What is the primary limiting factor of population growth?

A

Limited essential resources.

163
Q

What is the carrying capacity of a habitat?

A

The maximum stable population size that can be supported by a particular environment.

164
Q

How is the logistic growth curve different to the exponential growth curve?

A

It levels out once it reaches a maximum level and becomes a ‘sigmoid’ curve.

165
Q

When did the agricultural revolution begin?

A

Approximately 11,000 - 10,000 years ago, signalling the end of the hunter-gatherer (Palaeolithic) phase and the beginning of the Agrarian (Neolithic) phase.

166
Q

When did the first industrial revolution begin?

A

Around 1712, with the development of the steam engine entering the industrial phase.

167
Q

When did the medical / technological revolution begin?

A

Particularly post WWII.

168
Q

When did the Palaeolithic revolution begin?

A

From 2.6 mya, with the use of the earliest stone tools, to approximately 11,000 years ago, with the start of the agricultural revolution.

169
Q

During which revolution did the Wooly Mammoth get hunted to extinction?

A

Palaeolithic.

170
Q

Where is the Fertile Crescent (the source of which the earliest phases of the Neolithic revolution can be traced back to) and what was first thought to have grown there?

A

From the Nile in Egypt to the Tigris in Iraq.

Sheep, wheat and barley.

171
Q

What is subsistence farming?

A

Where all production is consumed and none is sold outside the community.

172
Q

Which first great agrarian civilisation collapsed due to the salinsation of soil?

A

Sumerians.

173
Q

What are some of the key concepts of a modern western-capitalist industrial system?

A

i) Cheap and abundant energy
ii) Continual technological innovation
iii) Creation of profits for reinvestment
iv) Minimising cost
iv) Trans national (not subject to the control of any one government)

174
Q

What is biomimicry?

A

When technology looks to nature to provide inspiration for technological design and innovation.

175
Q

Where is 90% of the worlds population growth experienced?

A

In the less developed countries.

176
Q

Why will countries such as Kenya experience rapid population growth?

A

High birth rates, low death rates.

177
Q

Why will countries such as Ethiopia and Afghanistan experience moderately rapid population growth?

A

High birth rates, high death rates.

178
Q

Why will countries such as Australia and the UK experience slow population growth?

A

Low birth rates, low death rates.

179
Q

What is Zero Population Growth?

A

Where the death rate and birth rates are balanced (such as Sweden and Denmark).

180
Q

What is demography?

A

The study of the statistics of the human population.

181
Q

What is replacement-level fertility rate?

A

The number of children that must be born to replace a couple in a population (2.1).

182
Q

What is total fertility rate?

A

The average number of children expected to be born of a woman of childbearing age in a population.

183
Q

The proportion of males and females of the population in each age group (pre-reproductive of 0-14; reproductive of 15-44; post-reproductive of over 45) is known as:

A

The age structure.

184
Q

What is Australia’s population expected to increase to by 2100?

A

Between 42.4 million and 70.1 million.

185
Q

What is demographic transition?

A

The historical post-industrial trend whereby, as a country develops technologically, socially and economically, there is often a decline in birth rate.

186
Q

How can the demographic transition model be applied to the pre-industrial stage?

A

Food shortages, malnutrition etc. kept birth and death levels fairly balanced.

187
Q

How can the demographic transition model be applied to the transitional stage?

A

Better standard of living conditions means death rates decrease, birth rates stay stable, resulting in rapid population increase due to mortality decrease.

188
Q

How can the demographic transition model be applied to the industrial stage?

A

Birth rates fall as need for children decreases, death rates remain constant, resulting in a general slow growth in population.

189
Q

How can the demographic transition model be applied to the decline stage?

A

The trend where birth rates fall lower than death rates.

190
Q

What is one limit of the demographic transition model?

A

That the experiences of the European countries it is based on are not uniform.

191
Q

80% of the worlds energy is consumed by __% of the worlds population.

A

25%

192
Q

What is the argument of the economic rationalists about the economic growth of a country and environmental degradation.

A

That greater economic growth allows greater environmental protection.

193
Q

Which processes and outcomes fall under the ‘environmental degradation’ term?

A

i) Salinisation
ii) Deforestation
iii) Loss of biological diversity
iv) Air and water pollution

194
Q

What is an ecological footprint?

A

The area of productive land and aquatic ecosystems used to produce the resources used by a certain population at a specified material standard of living.

195
Q

What is the leading component of the ecological footprint?

A

Energy (followed by agriculture).

196
Q

What is a ‘primary industry’?

A

Human activity that involves the direct exploitation of natural resources (agriculture, fisheries, etc.)

197
Q

The maximum sustainable yield is…?

A

The maximum volume or rate of use that will not impair its ability to be renewed.

198
Q

What is urbanisation, in terms of the agricultural revolution?

A

When humans began to live and settle in small villages and towns.

199
Q

What is agriculture?

A

The use of animals, plants and land (biophysical environment) for the production of human food.

200
Q

An agro ecosystem is:

A

The simplified agricultural ecosystems that have replaced natural communities.

201
Q

Define cultivation:

A

The growing of crops for food or fibre.

202
Q

What are pastoral activities?

A

Extensive livestock grazing.

203
Q

What percentage of the terrestrial land surface is cultivated for crops?

A

11%

204
Q

What percentage of world food supply comes from terrestrial ecosystems?

A

99%

205
Q

Agriculture accounts for __% of the worlds annual deforestation.

A

80%

206
Q

What percentage of the terrestrial land surface is used for grazing?

A

10%

207
Q

What is meant by “arable” land?

A

Land suitable for growing crops.

208
Q

What factors contribute to land (soil) degradation?

A

Soil pollution, acidification, salinisation, pesticides and nutrient imbalance.

209
Q

The Global Assessment of Soil Degradation (GLASOD) listed deforestation, overexploitation, overgrazing, agriculture, and industrialisation as the 5 broad categories of human impact on soil.

How does deforestation contribute to soil degradation?

A

Trees cleared and burnt lose much organic matter, as does the soil from the burning process.

It contributes 30% of soil degradation.

210
Q

The Global Assessment of Soil Degradation (GLASOD) listed deforestation, overexploitation, overgrazing, agriculture, and industrialisation as the 5 broad categories of human impact on soil.

How does overexploitation contribute to soil degradation?

A

The overexploitation of vegetation for timber removes vital protection from soil erosion.

211
Q

The Global Assessment of Soil Degradation (GLASOD) listed deforestation, overexploitation, overgrazing, agriculture, and industrialisation as the 5 broad categories of human impact on soil.

How does overgrazing contribute to soil degradation?

A

Removes soil cover and grass litter, causing soil organisms to die and soil to lose fertility.

It contributes 35% of oil degradation.

212
Q

The Global Assessment of Soil Degradation (GLASOD) listed deforestation, overexploitation, overgrazing, agriculture, and industrialisation as the 5 broad categories of human impact on soil.

How does agriculture contribute to soil degradation?

A

Cultivation of fragile soils and uncontrolled use of fire (etc.) result in the loss of soil nutrients.

It contributes 28% of soil degradation.

213
Q

The Global Assessment of Soil Degradation (GLASOD) listed deforestation, overexploitation, overgrazing, agriculture, and industrialisation as the 5 broad categories of human impact on soil.

How does industrialisation contribute to soil degradation?

A

Soil can be contaminated through various industries such as mining, and irreparably damaged.

214
Q

The loss of surface and subsoil by the action of wind and water is called:

A

Erosion

215
Q

What are the major nutrients required by most plants?

A

Nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium, magnesium and sulphur.

216
Q

True or false: nutrient depletion can come into effect where agriculture is repeatedly practiced on poor soils.

A

True.

217
Q

What is a leading cause of soil acidifcation?

A

The use of fertiliser.

218
Q

What is waterlogging?

A

When the water table rises to the root zone of plants.

219
Q

Subsidence is when:

A

Land is lowered through surface compaction, drainage and oxidation of organic soils.

220
Q

Salinsation is where salt is concentrated in the ________

A

Topsoil.

221
Q

Dryland salinity is when:

A

Vegetation clearing in a catchment results in salt-heavy groundwater tables rising to the topsoil.

222
Q

Wetland salinity is when:

A

Water of poor quality is excessively applied to the soil through irrigation.

223
Q

The contamination of soils by toxic chemicals, waste accumulation, oil spills, excessive fertilisers etc. is known as:

A

Soil pollution.

224
Q

Cumulative land degradation (overgrazing) can lead to total destruction of a lands potential, in a process called:

A

Desertification.

225
Q

88-90% of all fish harvest comes from:

A

The oceans (99% of that from coastal wetlands and estuaries).

226
Q

What is the continental shelf of the oceans?

A

The gently sloping shelf that can extend to 150km or so from the boundaries of land.

227
Q

50-90% of the worlds species exist in:

A

Tropical rainforests (about 12% of the earths surface).

228
Q

What are the most serious consequences of deforestation?

A

i) Loss of biodiversity

ii) Vegetation change

229
Q

Currently accepted climate models predict a ____ degree Celsius increase per decade

A

0.3

230
Q

What are some of the negative effects of global warming likely to be?

A

i) Drought & desertification
ii) Crop failures
iii) Melting of polar ice caps
iv) Coastal flooding
v) Displacement of major vegetation types

231
Q

What percentage of the worlds total carbon dioxide emissions are a result of deforestation & forest fires?

A

25%

232
Q

Which practice accounts for nearly 2/3 of all deforestation?

A

Slash and burn farming

233
Q

25% of the worlds forests are managed and used for commercial purposes. What are some of the economic uses of forests?

A

i) Fuelwood (50%)
ii) Industrial timber (30%)
iii) Pulp (25%)
iv) Medicines (less than 1%)

234
Q

What are some of the ecological benefits of forests?

A

i) Support food webs
ii) Support nutrient cycles
iii) Regulate runoff
iv) Influence local and regional climate
v) Provides habitats and niches for wildlife

235
Q

What is monoculture forestry?

A

Where forests are cleared and a single species is planted (ie pine plantations).

236
Q

Selective logging is when:

A

Intermediate or mature aged trees in an uneven aged forest are selectively cut.

237
Q

Shelterwood cutting is when:

A

Mature trees are removed in a number of cuttings over a period of about 10 years.

238
Q

Clear felling of trees is when:

A

All trees in an area are removed.

239
Q

The hydrologic cycle is:

A

An ongoing recycling process that recycles and returns water for further use.

240
Q

Which 3 factors ultimately affect the amount of water available within a region?

A

i) Size of the population using the water
ii) Pattern of water use
iii) Deterioration of water quantity and water quality

241
Q

Does consumptive use of water return the water after use?

A

No.

242
Q

___________ use is the major consumptive use of water and the primary source of water pollution.

A

Irrigated agricultural use

243
Q

90% of water in _______ use is returned to the source after being used in manufacturing processes and power production.

A

Industrial

244
Q

_______ use is totally non consumptive, and includes hydroelectric power stations, etc.

A

In-stream

245
Q

What are some issues with relying solely on regulation for environmental policies?

A

i) Penalties must be high enough to be a deterrent
ii) Quotas are expensive to police
iii) Reactive policy, not a pro-active one
iv)

246
Q

Why does environmental protection legislation not always stop extinctions?

A

As many different problems contribute and legislaction doesnt always cover them all.

247
Q

What is a key assumption in a market model?

A

Consumers buy more if the product is cheaper and producers make more if they get a better price.

248
Q

What are self-regarding actions?

A

Those that do not affect anyone else (although we realise now this is very rare).

249
Q

What are other-regarding actions?

A

Actions that affect others.

250
Q

What is neoclassical economics?

A

Relates supply and demand to ones rationality and ability to maximise profit and utility.

251
Q

When does market failure occur?

A

i) When there is an inability to produce wanted goods.
ii) When there are distortions due to anti-competitive business arrangements / monopolisation.
iii) A failure for costs to be reflected in prices.
iv) Maldistribution of resources that diminishes net welfare.

252
Q

A negative externality is:

A

A cost external to production process that others have to carry,

253
Q

How do Classic Liberals view market failure?

A

Rare, and that government intervention will make it worse.

254
Q

How do Modern Liberals view market failure?

A

Rare, but may need occasional intervention.

255
Q

How does the Liberal Environmentalist (light green) view market failure?

A

Requires a little more intervention.

256
Q

How does deep ecology view the market?

A

That markets are not a description of society.

257
Q

How does the deep green view the market?

A

Regulation of private activity is essential to protect environment.

258
Q

In terms of the value of environmental goods, what does opportunity cost mean?

A

The cost of not developing or exploiting nature or a resource (i.e. mining) is made up for by the value of another industry (i.e. tourism).

259
Q

In terms of the value of environmental goods, what does replacement cost mean?

A

The cost to recreate what was lost in any development project (i.e. plants, labour, etc.).

260
Q

In terms of the value of environmental goods, what does repair cost mean?

A

The cost to restore the environment to its natural condition (i.e. after an oil spill).

261
Q

In terms of the value of environmental goods, what does mitigation cost mean?

A

The cost of preventing the effects of an externality (i.e. air purifiers, etc.).

262
Q

In terms of the value of environmental goods, what does treatment cost mean?

A

The health or medical costs involved in treating human and animals affected.

263
Q

In terms of the value of environmental goods, what does income loss mean?

A

If someone is affected physically and cannot work, then their labour costs must be calculated.

264
Q

In terms of the value of environmental goods, what does production loss mean?

A

Cost of the lost production due to the negative externalities.

265
Q

In terms of the value of environmental goods, what does hedonic pricing mean?

A

The lost value of something (i.e. real estate if soil is poisoned).

266
Q

What does contingent valuations mean?

A

The demand for preservation of environmental resources is not revealed in private goods markets.

267
Q

What are the 4 considerations or motives of contingent valuations?

A

i) Intrinsic - nature is valued for itself
ii) Altruistic - nature is valued by other people
iii) Bequest - where we wish to pass nature on to future generations
iv) Option-to-use - recognising the resources potential future use

268
Q

What is the main problem of the WTP approach?

A

People say what they are willing to do (or pay) and not what they will actually do (or pay).

269
Q

What is a benefit cost analysis?

A

Decision makers must seek out all of the relevant costs and benefits (i.e. environmental costs, esoteric costs, etc.)

270
Q

What might the Deep Green vs Industrialist arguments be in relation to environmental economics?

A

i) Deep Green: that the environment and ecosystems should never have a cost
ii) Industrialists: there is no way of valuing losses to other businesses and ecosystems are overpriced.

271
Q

What is the ideology behind a Green Tax?

A

That putting a tax on an environmentally negative business would reduce production and therefore, reduce pollution / environmental degradation.

272
Q

How does ‘subsidising good behaviour’ work for the environment in an economics sense?

A

Rewarding companies for better environmental management / less pollution, etc. in an incentivised way.

273
Q

How do tradeable rights and permits work for the environment in an economic sense?

A

Where the government industry can decide on the most appropriate amount of water to be distributed and to allocate permits and trade rights to farmers etc., or to sell them at auction.

274
Q

One example of an environmental merit good (judged to have social value) is:

A

National parks.

275
Q

The Classical Liberalism approach to privatisation of nature is:

A

Environmental problems are caused by government failure, rather than market failure. Therefore, private ownership enhances conservation.

276
Q

The Green approach to privatisation of nature is:

A

People will chase short term profits and not worry about long term damage to the environment.

277
Q

What is one pro and one con of the market based approach to environmental management?

A

Pro: Regulation is too expensive and violates individual freedoms.
Cons: Many parts of an ecosystem have little or no market value so they will never be preserved.

278
Q

Activities that promote good links and negate bad links between resource systems and their environments, with the aim of attaining desirable environmental states is otherwise referred to as:

A

Environmental management.

279
Q

What are 3 components of resource management?

A

i) Single purpose
ii) Limited recognition of community values
iii) Specific and objective purposes.

280
Q

What are 3 components of environmental management?

A

i) Multi purpose
ii) Significant recognition of community values
iii) Long term and difficult to define purposes.

281
Q

Environmental problems are typically considered to occur…

A

… after a change in interaction between humans and the environment that causes a negative impact on community use of the environment.

282
Q

Environmental issues are typically considered to occur…

A

… where there are conflicts about societal perceptions of environmental problems, primarily driven by conflicting values and attitudes.

283
Q

Environmental management has the broad goals of:

A

i) Preventing conflicts through proactivity
ii) Recognising different value systems (equity measures).
iii) Active community involvement
iv) Land and resource use planning

284
Q

What is meant by the earth being a “thermodynamically closed system”?

A

That very little matter is exchanged outside the earths biosphere.

285
Q

By when was it clear that rapid and poorly regulated growth was becoming a significant environmental problem?

A

By the early 1960s

286
Q

What was the Club of Rome concerned about?

A

i) Global poverty
ii) Environmental degradation
iii) Loss of faith in government institutions
iv) Spread of urbanisation
v) Employment insecurity
vi) Alienation of youth
vii) Rejection of traditional values
viii) Inflation

287
Q

Which 5 components did the Club of Rome’s global simulation model examine the interactions of?

A

i) Population
ii) Agricultural population
iii) Natural resources
iv) Pollution
v) Industrial production

288
Q

What was the key point of the Club of Rome’s 1972 book ‘Limits to Growth’?

A

If trends in population growth (and hence pollution and industrialisation) were not slowed by governments and society, then biophysical support systems could collapse.

289
Q

What is the 1987 UN report titled ‘Our Common Future’ also known as?

A

The Brundtland report.

290
Q

What did the Brundtland report argue?

A

That targeted economic growth (rather than no-growth) was the way to achieve sustainable development.

291
Q

What are 3 principles from Agenda 21, from the UNCED in Rio (1992)?

A

i) Human beings are at the centre of concerns for sustainable development.
ii) All concerned citizens should be involved in handling environmental issues
iii) Where there are threats of serious damage, lack of scientific certainty shouldn’t be a reason for postponing measures to prevent environmental degradation.

292
Q

True or false: a strong economy is irrelevant of the implementation of sustainable environmental practices

A

False

293
Q

Why is alleviating poverty and raising living standards so integral to sustainability?

A

Because greater demands are put on natural resources where are poor standards of healthcare, and inadequate education.

294
Q

What are 3 methods used to define a region:

A

i) Catchment boundaries: natural drainage lines around river sub-catchments etc.
ii) Administrative boundaries: government defined boundaries
iii) Community needs: spatial extent of a government communtiy service

295
Q

What are the 3 core ideas of sustainable development?

A

i) Integration (of economic, social and environmental goals)
ii) Precautionary (that takes account of complexity, uncertainty and ignorance).
iii) Equity (fairness and justice for current and future generations).

296
Q

What is equity?

A

It relates to being fair and just.

297
Q

What is intra-generational equity?

A

Equity focusing primary on the disadvantaged or groups easily discriminated against.

298
Q

What is inter-generational equity?

A

Equity focusing on those not yet born, and our current generations ethical obligation to ensure opportunities for future generations are not compromised by our actions.

299
Q

What are 3 values we hold as individuals and members of society?

A

i) Utilitarian - economic
ii) Aesthetic - socially and culturally constructed
iii) Ethical - deeply held and immeasurable

300
Q

Our motivations, affected by our values, can be:

A

i) Egocentric (concerned with self)
ii) Anthropocentric (concerned with humans)
iii) Altruistic (concerned for others)
iv) Eco-centric (concerned for the environment)

301
Q

When did the formation of social and environmental protest movements begin?

A

In the 60s and 70s, with dissatisfaction with Government decision making.

302
Q

What is the economic approach to integrating societal values?

A

Where it is assumed individuals act in a rational manner to maximise their own self-interest, and that societal preferences are the sum of individual preferences.

303
Q

What are the political approaches to integrating societal values?

A

Includes:
Lobbying - often with formal institutionalised approaches
Corporatism - parties in an agreement have privileged access to decision makers
Institutional approaches - often some model is designed to to elicit public values for decision making

304
Q

What did the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment aim to establish?

A

The scientific basis needed to enhance conservation; to identify priorities for action and as a benchmark for future assessments.

305
Q

How is ecosystem services defined?

A

The benefits people obtain from ecosystems (ie food, timber, water, etc.)

306
Q

What are the 4 main findings of the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment?

A

i) In the past 50 years, humans have changed ecosystems more rapidly than any time in human history, resulting in huge biodiversity loss.
ii) these changes to the ecosystem have contributed to substantial net gains for human well being and economic development.
iii) the degradation of ecosystems could get significantly worse
iv) significant changes in policy are required to reverse or negate continued degradation.

307
Q

What is one political - economical reason for an environmental tax?

A

Provides government with more revenue.

308
Q

Are institutional and legal frameworks a direct driver of change in the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (2005)?

A

No.

309
Q

Which of the following is not one of the 4 major ecosystem services reported in the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment?

  • Provisioning services
  • Supporting services
  • Regulating services
  • Economic services
A

Economic services.

310
Q

What is the primary aim of a Green / Pigovian tax?

A

To change consumer behaviour

311
Q

When a private environmental group or other organisation pays a company to stop logging or polluting, this can be known as:

A

Coasean bargain

312
Q

According to the convential market model, the consumption of fossil fuels will increase if:

A

The cost of production of coal decreases

313
Q

When a company that pollutes heavily upgrades to cleaner technology and is able to sell the right to pollute to another company, this is called:

A

A tradeable permit

314
Q

In an economic analysis, if the value of something is lost due to the effects of pollution, climate change, etc., it would be considered as what?

A

Hedonic price effect

315
Q

True or false: The atmosphere is part of a life support system and public good

A

True

316
Q

Does the integration of societal values refer to the inclusion of public values?

A

Yes.

317
Q

Can volunteers / volunteer organisations be included in the formal economic market?

A

No.

REN1201 Modules 1-6 & 11-12 (1 decks)

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