Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

xD3 Removable > Removable Test 1 > Flashcards

Removable Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How many appointments required for Diagnostic Exam for prosth?

A

2 appointments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What 5 things are accomplished in the first prosth appointment?

A
  1. Thorough health history
  2. Preliminary oral cavity exam
  3. Dental prophylaxis
  4. Radiographic survey
  5. Accurate max and mand impressions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 4 major patient psychological categories by Dr. MM House?

A
  1. Philosophical
  2. Hysterical
  3. Exacting
  4. Indifferent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Patient’s with Systolic pressure exceeding ____ or diastolic exceeding _____ should be considered to have a potentially serious medical condition indicating a medical consult?

A

130mmHg systolic

90mmHg diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are 2 oral conditions seen in uncontrolled diabetes?

A
  1. Small oral abscesses

2. Poor tissue tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Diabetic patients can have what oral condition that can make prosthesis wear difficult as well as increase caries risk?

A

Reduced salivary output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where can Paget’s disease can cause enlargements that can change fit of a prosthesis?

A

Maxillary tuberosities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Patient with this disease will show enlargement of the mandible which can change fit of prosthesis?

A

Acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What neurological disease causing rhythmic muscle contractions making prosthesis planning as well as wear difficult?

A

Parkinson’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a disease with oral bullae showing first then moving onto the skin?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a consideration for material use when making a RPD for an epileptic patient?

A

All material should be radiopaque in case swallowed or aspirated during seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What 2 things are usually indicated with increasing age?

A
  1. Need for some type of prosthesis

2. Need for prescription or OTC meds that can affect dental treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most significant side effect of antihypertensive drugs?

A

Orthostatic hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What usually initiates bruxism?

A

Interceptive occlusal cotacts/occlusal permaturities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some physical characteristics to note during the interview?

A
  1. Neuromuscular/neuromotor deficits
  2. Length and mobility of lips
  3. Decreased vertical dimension of occlusion (VDO)
  4. Speech problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most important measure to minimize disease transmission between patients and dental care providers?

A

The routine use of gloves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Must custom trays, record bases, and occlusion rims be disinfected after construction?

A

Yes. Stewart’s says 2 minutes of sodium hypochlorite application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Impressions should be loosely wrapped in plastic and set aside for how many minutes after rinsing with water and disinfecting?

A

No less than 2 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Casts should be poured no more than _____mins after removal of alginate from mouth?

A

12 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are 3 responsibilities of the dentist to explain for patient oral hygiene?

A
  1. Signs and symptoms of disease
  2. Materials and techniques for proper home care
  3. Patient’s responsibility to prevent further dental disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which radiograph is essential for determining the crown-to-root ratio and the condition of the periodontal tissues?

A

Periapical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What radiograph helpful to identify interproximal caries on the remaining teeth?

A

Bitewing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which radiograph is ideal for screening for pathologic conditions?

A

Panoramic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Is a panoramic radiograph adequate for the definitive examination of a RPD patient?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

An RPD exam is considered incomplete unless it includes what?

A

Evaluation of accurate diagnostic casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What items serve as blueprints for placements of restorations, recontouring of teeth, and the preparation of rest seats?

A

Surveyed and marked diagnostic casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Casts are normally mounted and evaluated during which diagnostic appointment: first or second?

A

Second (get facebow record at second app)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the material of choice for diagnostic impressions?

A

Irreversible hydrocolloid/alginate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Is the accuracy of irreversible hydrocolloid affected by changes in the water-powder ratio?

A

No, will only change consistency and setting time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of measurement performed using a scoop, and is inaccurate because the powder can be loose or tightly packed within the scoop?

A

Volumetric measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What measurement technique is the preferred method for alginate powder?

A

Weight measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What alginate weight is used for most impressions?

A

28g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What amount of water mixed with the 28g of alginate powder?

A

68-72 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the manufacturer recommended temperature of water for alginate impressions?

A

22°C/72°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What can increase the working time of alginate?

A

Refrigerate mixing bowl and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are 2 primary mechanisms of distortion of alginate impressions resulting in inaccurate diagnostic casts?

A
  1. Evaporation

2. Absorption of liquids/imbibitions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Evaporation does what to the alginate impression?

A

It causes it to shrink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What results in localized expansion of the completed impression?

A

Imbibitions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Should alginate impressions ever be wrapped in wet paper towel or immersed in a liquid and why?

A

No, such things carry a risk of imbibitions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are 3 factors contributing to alginate sticking to teeth?

A
  1. Impression done after thorough polishing
  2. Teeth dry
  3. Repeated impressions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the impression trays of choice for RPD impressions?

A

Nonperforated metal trays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the most important factor in determining impression tray size?

A

Width of dental arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

There should be clearance of ___mm to ___mm between inner flange of tray and the facial surfaces of the remaining teeth and soft tissue?

A

5mm-7mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are 3 techniques to prevent gagging during impression making?

A
  1. Patient sits upright
  2. Max tray modified posterior to stop alginate flow down throat
  3. Use astringent mouthwash or cold water rinse immediately prior to making impression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When mixing alginate: should you add water to powder or powder to water?

A

Powder to water (water in bowl first, add preweighed powder to it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the minimum time to spatulate alginate?

A

45 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the most consistent method for alginate spatulation?

A

Mechanical under vacuum (20lbs for 15 sec)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Stewart’s suggests making which impression first and why?

A

Mandibular. Less discomfort, increases patient confidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The gelation of alginate impression material is complete within ___ min?

A

2-3 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When should an impression be repeated?

A

When there are voids in critical areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Stewart’s says to leave an alginate impression in the mouth how long after the loss of surface tackiness to allow development of additional strength?

A

2-3 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The gel strength of alginate does what during the first 4 minutes after initial gelation?

A

It doubles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

To ensure an alginate is ready to remove, what can be used to verify?

A

Small mound or original mix fractures cleanly with finger pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Should an impression be removed from the mouth with a rapid tug directed along the long axes of the teeth or with a slow rocking motion?

A

Rapid tug along long axes teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is essential in all phases of RPD design and construction?

A

Cast with dense, abrasion-resistant surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Surface hardness of a stone cast is directly related to what?

A

Compressive strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Compressive strength of a stone cast is directly affected by what?

A

Water-powder ratio when cast is made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

All gympsum products (both plaster and stone) require what water-powder ration?

A

18.61 mL to 100g powder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is formed when water is added to powder for dental plaster or stone?

A

Calcium sulfate dehydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

All gypsum products should be measured by ____ rather than by ______?

A

Weight rather than volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Gypsum mixed how: water to powder or powder to water?

A

Powder to water (water in bowl first, then add preweighed powder to it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is adequate gypsum mixing time?

A

60-90 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What dental stone is indicated for diagnostic and master casts?

A

Minimal expansion. ADA type II or type IV stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the pour technique for alginate impressions resulting in casts in which teeth and soft tissue areas are densest and most abrasion resistant?

A

2 stage pour technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Why not do a single stage/inversion pour technique?

A

Water will rise to the surface. In this case it would be the teeth, making them brittle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

In 2 stage pour, the initial pour is allowed to go to initial set, which is ____ min?

A

12-15 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is done with the initial pour cast after initial set, before putting on second pour?

A

Soak in clear slurry water for 4-5 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is a supersaturated solution of calcium sulfate made by placing chips of dental stone in water for 48 hrs?

A

Clear Slurry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the benefit of clear slurry soak of first pour?

A

Allows wetting of 1st pour without dissolution of stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How is the 1st pour placed on the 2nd pour?

A

Inverted on the second pour and edges cleaned up with a spatula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How long after the first pour should the cast and impression be separated?

A

45-60 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the maximum time alginate should be allowed to stay in contact with stone cast?

A

60 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Should a cast be trimmed if it is dry?

A

No, should soak in clear slurry first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The base of a cast should be trimmed to what thickness?

A

10-13 mm thick at the thinnest point with occlusal plane parallel to the deck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where is a mandibular cast thinnest, and where is a maxillary cast thinnest?

A

Mandibular thinnest in lingual sulcus

Maxillary thinnest at center of hard palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How should the posterior surface of cast be related to midline of the palate?

A

Perpendicular to midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Land area of ___ mm is trimmed around entire cast?

A

2-3 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Are anterior borders of max and mand casts trimmed the same?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How is the anterior max cast trimmed?

A

Angular, originates from canine area on each side and extends to a point anterior to central incisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How is anterior mand cast trimmed?

A

Gently curves, originates from one canine curving around to the other canine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the most common cause of surface roughness of dental casts?

A

Adherence of alginate to enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Leaving alginate in contact with cast greater than 60 min after initial pour causes what?

A

Surface etching (soft, chalky surface)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the 3 phases of mounting a cast?

A

Orient maxillary cast to articulator condylar elements via facebow
Orient mandibular cast to maxillary cast via centric relation record
Verification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Most facebows rely on what hinge axis: true or arbitrary?

85
Q

The external auditory meatus is what relation to the true hinge axis and how is this corrected?

A

Superior and posterior corrected on the articulator by the manufacturer based on anatomic averages

86
Q

What is one of the most commonly used points for the arbitrary hinge axis? (Hint: It is 13 mm anterior to the margin of the tragus on an imaginary line between the posterior margin of the tragus and the outer canthus of the eye)

A

Beyron’s point

87
Q

What is the plane established by the infraorbital notch and the external auditory meatus openings is approximately parallel to?

A

Frankfurt horizontal plane

88
Q

What is the hysiologic relation of the mandible to the maxilla when both condyles are properly related to their articular discs, and the condyle-disc assemblies are stabilized against the posterior slopes of the articular eminences?

A

Centric relation

89
Q

Centric relation is what type of relationship?

A

Bone-to-bone, and independent of tooth contact

90
Q

Final stage jaw closure guided how?

A

Occlusal and incisal surfaces of teeth

91
Q

What is the most common cause of bruxism, accelerated wear and TMD?

A

Interferences between Centric Relation and Maximum Intercuspation

92
Q

What are the advantages of using metallic filler wax for centric relation records?

A

Uniform heating and cooling

Extended work time as metal holds heat longer

93
Q

What must be used to record CR when one or more distal extensions are present, or when the tooth bounded edentulous area is large, or when opposing teeth do not meet?

A

Record base with occlusal rim

94
Q

When using an occlusal rim for CR records, it should be trimmed to allow how much clearance between the opposing teeth or other wax rim?

95
Q

When mounting the mandibular cast to the maxillary cast in CR, should the maxillary cast be left on the articulator or taken off?

A

Taken off (WTF?)

96
Q

Will the articulator index pin stay at the neutral setting or must it be opened/ raised 2-3 mm when mounting the mandibular cast to the maxillary cast in CR?

A

Opened 2-3 mm

97
Q

How do you verify correct CR mounting?

A

Remove incisal guide pin, release condylar locks. Place verification record. If all cusp tips engage and condylar balls are still in contact with their housing, then mounting is good

98
Q

What are 2 ways to set the condylar elements of articulator?

A
  1. Protrusive record

2. Relate wear facets on remaining teeth

99
Q

Does preventive dentistry for a partially edentulous patient mean the retention of every retainable tooth?

A

No, sometimes better if they come out

100
Q

What are 6 causes of tooth sensitivity?

A
  1. Tooth moving due to traumatic occlusion or bad RPD
  2. Restoration with traumatic occlusion
  3. Periapical or pulpal abscesses
  4. Acute pulpitis
  5. Gingivitis or periodontitis
  6. Cracked tooth
101
Q

What are 3 reasons for tooth mobility?

A
  1. Trauma from occlusion
  2. Inflammatory changes in PDL
  3. Loss of osseous support
102
Q

When is splinting with a fixed partial denture indicated?

A

First premolar and molars are lost and 2nd premolar is to be used as an abutment

103
Q

What is the adequate tissue rest time?

A

The patient should remove the prostheses 6-8 hrs/day

104
Q

What are 4 tissue reactions related to prostheses?

A
  1. Papillary hyperplasia
  2. Epulis fissuratum
  3. Denture stomatitis
  4. Soft Tissue displacement
105
Q

What are the 3 most common undercut areas?

A
  1. Maxillary tuberosities
  2. Distolingual areas of mandible
  3. Recent extraction sites
106
Q

Lingual bar major connector must be minimum___ height

107
Q

Superior margin of lingual bar major connector should be ____ from free gingival margins of mandibular teeth

108
Q

Inferior border fo the lingual bar major connector should be ___ from the activated floor of the mouth

109
Q

Can a tooth with a poor prognosis still provide support for an RPD?

110
Q

What are 2 disorders where the Lamina dura is completely lost radiographically?

A
  1. Paget’s Disease

2. Hyperparathyroidism

111
Q

Other than Paget’s Disease and Hyperparathyroidism, what may cause loss of the lamina dura?

112
Q

Pre-prosthetic surgery to remove a soft tissue maxillary tuberosity should have what healing time?

113
Q

Pre-prosthetic surgery to remove a boney maxillary tuberosity should have what healing time?

114
Q

What is the maximum amount of enamel that can be removed in enameloplasty to try and even an occlusal plane?

115
Q

What percent of patients have a noticeable discrepancy between CR and MI?

116
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of bruxism?

A
  1. Occlusal interferences b/w CR and MIP

2. Occlusal contacts on Non-working side

117
Q

What are 5 indicators to construct RPD at CR?

A
  1. Coincidence of CR and MIP
  2. Absence of posterior tooth contacts
  3. All posterior tooth contacts will be restored with fixed prosthodontics
  4. Few remaining posterior contacts
  5. Existing occlusion can be made acceptable with minor occlusal equilibration
  6. Clinical symptoms of occlusal trauma
118
Q

What are the 4 broad diagnostic categories for placing a patient in one of the 4 Prosthodontic Diagnostic Index (PDI) classes?

A
  1. Location and extent of edentulous areas
  2. Condition of abutments
  3. Occlusion
  4. Residual ridge characteristics
119
Q

What are the 4 basic parts of every dental surveyor?

A
  1. Level platform
  2. Vertical column
  3. Horizontal arm
  4. Surveying arm
120
Q

From which point of view is the tilt of the cast described?

A

Looking at posterior surface

121
Q

What are 4 critical factors to consider when determining cast tilt?

A
  1. Presence of suitable undercuts
  2. Elimination of hard and soft tissue interferences
  3. Create desirable esthetics
  4. Guiding planes
122
Q

What is the unchangeable rule when surveying diagnostic casts?

A

Retentive undercuts must be present on abutment teeth when cast is at horizontal tilt

123
Q

Dislodging forces of an RPD are always directed in what relation to the occlusal plane?

A

Perpendicular

124
Q

Each of the proposed abutments should display how much undercut at the most desirable location?

A

0.010-inch

125
Q

If a wrought-wire clasp is planned the retentive undercut should be how much to allow for the greater flexibility of the wrought wire?

A

0.0150-inch

126
Q

Where should the undercut be located?

A

Apical 1/3 of clinical crown

127
Q

The retentive clasp should go no farther occlusally/incisally than what?

A

The junction of gingival and middle 1/3

128
Q

What commonly interferes with the major connector of the maxillary RPD?

A

Palatal tori

129
Q

What are common on the buccal surfaces of the maxillary arch?

A

Exostoses and undercuts

130
Q

Maxillary posterior teeth tend to tip which direction?

131
Q

Mandibular posterior teeth tend to tip which direction?

132
Q

Where are bony prominences often encountered?

A

Facial surfaces mandibular canines and premolars

133
Q

What is the ideal position for a retentive clasp?

A

Gingival 1/3 of clinical crown

134
Q

Which teeth are exceptions to the tendency towards drifting mesially to fill in edentulous spaces?

A

Mandibular canines and premolars, which move distally

135
Q

How many paths of insertion will an RPD have it there is one or more missing anterior teeth?

136
Q

Parallel surfaces of abutment that direct the insertion and removal of a partial denture are called what?

A

Guiding planes

137
Q

Guiding planes contact what part of an RPD?

A

Minor connector

138
Q

Guiding planes are always parallel to ____ and are ____ in height?

A

Path of insertion

2-4 mm high

139
Q

What is the purpose of guiding planes?

A

Stabilize prosthesis against lateral forces

140
Q

Which of the four factors for determining tilt of cast is the most easily compromised?

A

Guiding planes

141
Q

What is the most influential factor for determining whether prosthesis will have one or more paths of insertion?

A

Whether or not edentulous spaces are tooth bounded

142
Q

What are the components of the RPD that govern the path of insertion?

A

Minor connectors

143
Q

What is the term for placing crossmarks at 3 widely spaced points on the dental cast while the vertical arm of the surveyor is held at a fixed vertical position?

144
Q

What is the term for lines representing the most prominent contours of individual teeth at a chosen orientation?

A

Survey lines

145
Q

What are 4 things dentist does during the surveying process for RPD?

A
  1. Determine most favorable tilt
  2. Tripod
  3. Survey lines
  4. Mark desirable undercuts
146
Q

Is RPD a form of treatment or a cure?

A

Treatment only

147
Q

Is direct retention the primary objective of RPD design?

A

No. Main objective are restoration to function and appearance. Preserve remaining oral structure.

148
Q

What is the consideration when choosing clasps for an RPD?

A

Use simplest clasp to satisfy design objectives

149
Q

A class I prosthesis (Bilateral posterior edentulous spaces) require how many clasp assemblies?

150
Q

What clasp material should be used to engage a mesiobuccal undercut in a Class I prosthesis?

A

Wrought wire

151
Q

A class II prosthesis (Unilateral posterior edentulous space) requires how many clasp assemblies?

152
Q

What should be the placement of the clasps on the dentate portion of a Class II prosthesis?

A

One as far posterior and one as far anterior as contours and esthetics permit

153
Q

What is the purpose of indirect retention?

A

Neutralize unseating forces

154
Q

What is the limit for indirect retainer placement?

A

No more anterior than canines

155
Q

A class I prosthesis (bilateral posterior edentulous spaces) should have how many indirect retainers?

156
Q

How many indirect retainers are adequate for a Class II prosthesis (unilateral posterior edentulous space)?

A

One. Located on side opposite distal extension as far from fulcrum line as possible.

157
Q

A lass III prosthesis (posterior tooth-bounded edentulous space) requires how many clasps?

158
Q

Does a Class III prosthesis (posterior tooth- bounded edentulous space) require indirect retention?

159
Q

What are the 2 most commonly cited causes for abutment loss?

A
  1. Overloading

2. Periodontal disease

160
Q

What are the elements of the I-Bar assembly?

A

I-bar
Mesial rest
Distal proximal plate

161
Q

What provides vertical support against occlusal forces and control the vertical relationship between the prosthesis and the supporting structures?

162
Q

What are the advantages of placing a rest more anteriorly?

A

Increased distance from denture base makes arc of rotation more linear and helps direct forces onto the residual ridge

163
Q

How far should a maxillary major connector be positioned from tooth-tissue junctions?

164
Q

What are 3 major advantages of the I-bar configuration?

A
  1. Food accumulation minimized
  2. Clasp terminus disengages when distal extension loaded
  3. Minimized lateral forces
165
Q

What is a common site for a maxillary indirect retainer?

A

Maxillary canine

166
Q

What is a common site for a mandibular indirect retainer?

A

Mesial fossa of mandibular first premolar

167
Q

Teeth that have been unopposed for a prolonged period tend to do what?

A

Supereruption

168
Q

What is a side effect associated with maxillary supraeruption?

A

Downward migration

169
Q

What is the first option to correct molar tipping or malalignments prior to RPD design?

A

Orthodontic correction

170
Q

Splinting of posterior teeth provide additional resistance to what forces: A-P or Mediolateral?

A

Anterior-posterior

171
Q

When splinting posterior teeth, what must be included to resist mediolateral forces?

A

One or more anterior teeth

172
Q

What is the major drawback of fixed splinting periodontally involved teeth to support RPD?

A

Hard to floss, so decreased oral hygiene in patient with already compromised oral health

173
Q

How is splinting accomplished with an RPD?

A

Lingual plating in conjunction with multiple facially positioned clasps

174
Q

What is indicated on a pier abutment, e.g. a lone standing tooth at the distal aspect of Kennedy Class I or Class II partially edentulous areas: a clasp or a rest?

175
Q

Of the 6 Phases of RPD treatment, during which phase is the mouth prepared for the RPD?

176
Q

When planning preparation of the mouth, what is planned first?

A

Worst first

177
Q

When is an interference allowed in excursive movements with an RPD?

A

when C/RPD

178
Q

When do abutment preparations for the RPD come in Phase 2?

A

At the end of Phase 2 after ODCT

179
Q

What is the recall schedule Post RPD delivery?

A

24 hr recall then 7-14 days recall then 1 month recall

180
Q

What are 3 questions to ask when evaluating dentures of a new patient?

A
  1. Are the dentures good enough?
  2. Do I need to fix them?
  3. Should new ones be made
181
Q

What is the interocclusal clearance in the premolar region for mandibular rest position?

182
Q

How should the maxillary incisal edges relate to the contour of the lower lip when smiling?

A

Follow contour lower lip

183
Q

What is the term for resistance to denture movement when occlusalward forces are applied?

184
Q

What is the term for resistance to denture movement when tissueward forces are applied?

185
Q

What are chewing instructions for dentures?

A
  1. No incising
  2. Chew bilaterally simultaneously
  3. Vertical chewing strokes
186
Q

The RPD framework must contact at least how many teeth?

187
Q

If you stick your finger on the buccal surface of your posterior maxilla as far back as your 2nd molar, and then make lateral mandibular movements, what bumps into your finger?

A

Coronoid process of your mandible

188
Q

Why is the proprioception in natural teeth important?

A

Help avoid prematurities during function

189
Q

What is the vertical and horizontal displaceability of natural teeth?

190
Q

What is the vertical and horizontal displaceability of artificial teeth?

A

Vert 0.4mm, horizontal can be up to several mm

191
Q

How are artificial teeth placed in the posterior: more lingually or buccally?

192
Q

What type of contacts are used to stabilize the dentures during function in the artificial dentition?

A

Balancing contacts

193
Q

These forces can be adapted to in the natural dentition, but are not adapted to and can produce symptoms in the artificial dentition?

A

Non-vertical forces

194
Q

What is not desirable in artificial dentition that will cause destabilizing forces on the maxillary complete denture?

A

Mutually protected occlusion

195
Q

What is the envelope of function for artificial dentition?

A

Up and down versus the teardrop envelope of natural dentition

196
Q

What is the difference in closing force between natural and artificial dentition?

A

5-175 lbs for natural vs 22-24 lbs artificial

197
Q

What is the difference between malocclusion in natural vs artificial dentition?

A

Natural dentition malocclusion may be uneventful for years while artificial dentition malocclusion will have an immediate response

198
Q

The ideal occlusal plane should be higher where: anterior or posterior?

A

Higher in the posterior

199
Q

What is the width determination for a maxillary central incisor?

A

The patient’s bizygomatic width divided by 16

200
Q

What are the 4 complete denture occlusal schemes?

A
  1. Neutrocentric
  2. Balanced w/ cusped teeth
  3. Lingualized
  4. Balanced with monoplane teeth set to curve
201
Q

What are three occlusal schemes for the natural dentition?

A
  1. Anterior guidance
  2. Group function
  3. Progressive disclusion
202
Q

What is the anterior reference point for establishing the plane of occlusion?

A

Maxillary central incisal edge

203
Q

What is the posterior reference point for establishing plane of occlusion?

A

1⁄2-2/3 up retromolar pad

204
Q

What is the key to occlusion with artificial over natural dentition?

A

Bilateral occlusal contact of posterior teeth and prosthesis cannot hold opposing natural dentition apart

205
Q

If the RPD is tooth-borne what occlusion is desirable?

A

As close to natural with mutually protected articulation

206
Q

When should group function be used in a tooth-borne RPD occlusal scheme?

A

If group function was present before and did not contribute to tooth loss

207
Q

What occlusion is desired for RPD opposing a complete denture?

208
Q

What is the term for bilateral, simultaneous contact of anterior and posterior teeth in centric and eccentric positions?

A

Balanced occlusion

xD3 Removable (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions