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Rem Pros > Removable Partial Dentures > Flashcards

Removable Partial Dentures Flashcards

1
Q

List 4 consequences of tooth loss

A
  • Tilting and migration of dentition
  • Loss of OVD
  • Loss of masticatory efficacy
  • Poor appearance
  • Potential changes in speech pattern
  • Loss of bone volume
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2
Q

4 advantages fixed partial dentures have over removable partial dentures

A
  • More retentive and stable than RPDs
  • Longer service life
  • Less cumbersome during adaptation phase
  • Often more aesthetic
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3
Q

3 issues with fixed partial dentures:

A
  • More invasive procedures required
  • More difficult to maintain
  • Although less incidence of failure- failure is usually catastrophic
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4
Q

6 cases where RPDs may be indicated over fixed PD

A
  • Long edentulous span
  • Reduced PDL support of abument teeth
  • Need for cross arch stabilization
  • Hard and soft tissue inadequcies
  • Cost
  • Patient desire
  • Immediate replacement of missing tooth
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5
Q
A
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6
Q

What kennedy class is this?

A

Kennedy Class I

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7
Q

What kennedy class is this?

A

Kennedy Class II

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8
Q

What kennedy class is this?

A

Kennedy Class III

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9
Q

What Kennedy Class is this?

A

Kennedy Class IV

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10
Q

Which of these statements about kennedy classification is false:

a) 2nd and 3rd molars are not included in classification if there are no plans to replace them
b) The most posterior edentulous areas always determine the classification
c) Edentulous areas other than those determining the classification are referred to as modications
d) There can be modification of Class IV arches

A

d) FALSE

There cannot be modification of class IV as it is anterior. This would be a modification only.

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11
Q

What is the Craddock Classification?

A

Classified depending on tooth supported, mucosa supported, or tooth and mucosa supported

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12
Q

What stone type do you use for study casts?

A

type III

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13
Q

What are facebows used for?

A

To orientate the maxillary cast on the articulator in a proper position relative to the condyles, by approximating the hinge axis of the TMJ and relating the maxillary cast to the hinge axis.

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14
Q

What are the three points of contact/landmarks used in a facebow registration

A
  • Bridge of nose
  • Opening of ears
  • Upper arch
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15
Q

What is the definition of centric relation?

A

Condyle in the most anterior superior position in the glenoid fossa

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16
Q

Maximum intercuspation is considered to be around mm anterior to CR.

A

0.5-1mm anterior. Used when occlusion is stable with sufficient posterior contact.

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17
Q

3 times when CR is used over MI:

A
  • Exiting occlusion is lost or distorted
  • Opposing arch is edentulous
  • Extensive restorative treatment to be carried our in the opposing arch
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18
Q

Wax rims must be adjusted until:

A

Occlusal clearance is achieved. Then bite reg used. Material should not interfere with path of closure.

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19
Q

Casts for CoCr should be poured in what stone?

A

Type IV

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20
Q

Depth and location of an ideal retentive area:

A

0.25mm, confined to the gingival third.

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21
Q

What are guide planes for . How high should they be?

A

To determine the path of insertion of RPD.

Need to be parallel to each other, 2-3mm in height.

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22
Q

Retainers are for:

a) Retention only
b) Retention and Support
c) Retention and Stability
d) Stability only

A

c) Retention and stability

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23
Q

What is often included on a denture retentive element, to avoid overloading the tooth

A

A reciprocating element

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24
Q

Rests provide:

a) Retention
b) Support
c) Stability
d) Support and stability

A

B) support

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25
Q

What size are proximal plates?

A

2-3mm

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26
Q

Major connectors connect components from one side of the dental arch to the components on the opposite side. They contribute to:

a) Retention
b) Support
c) Support and retention
d) Support and Stability

A

d) Support and Stability

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27
Q

Major conectors provide indirect retention

True or false

A

True

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28
Q

Requirements of major connectors:

A
  • Rigidity
  • Avoid damage of delicate soft tissue
  • Promote comfort and cleansibility
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29
Q

How far should the major connector be from the marginal gingivae in the maxilla?

A

6mm

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30
Q

How far should the margin of the major connector be from the marginal gingiva in the mandible?

A

3mm

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31
Q

How wide does a palatal strap need to be?

A

Greater than 8mm

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32
Q

When are horseshoe palatal connectors indicated and contraindicated (what kennedy class)

A

Indicated - Class IV

Contra-indicated - Class I or Class II

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33
Q

What is the most ideal maxillary major connector for periodontally compromised dentition, or few remaining teeth?

A

Complete palatal coverage

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34
Q

What is the most common major connector design in the mandible?

A

Lingual bar

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35
Q

Lingual bars require mm of space from the FOM to the marginal gingivae.

A

7-8mm

This is 4-5mm connector height, and 3mm of gingival margin clearance

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36
Q

Mandible major connector design which provide support to periodontally involved teeth-

A

Lingual plate

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37
Q

Reciprocal clasps provide:

a) retention
b) stability
c) support

A

b) stability

38
Q

When are ring clasps indicated?

A

Tilted molar - go all the way around and capture the undercut

39
Q

Akers clasps are also known as:

A

Circumferential clasps

39
Q
A
40
Q

What provides the most effective indirect retention on a partial denture?

A

Guide planes on terminal abutment teeth

41
Q

Why are rest seat preparations needed?

A
  1. Avoid interferences with occlusion
  2. Direct forces along the long axis of tooth
42
Q

The enamel on the cingulum of mandibular canines is thinner, but you can get away with a more minimal rest seat because:

A

Not in occlusion

43
Q

Infra-bulge clasps engage mm of tooth surfae, just below the survey line

A

2-3mm

44
Q

Which of these clasps is NOT considered a stress breaker design

a) I bar
b) Akers
c) Wrough wire
d) they all are

A

They all are when designed correctly

45
Q

The degree of rocking or movement during partial denture function depends on: (4)

A
  1. Surface area of mucosal support area
  2. Thickness and compressibility of supporting mucosa
  3. Adaptation of denture base
  4. Occlusla factors
46
Q

Mucosa is 10x more displacable than the PDL

True or false

A

False. 25x!

47
Q

Imaginary line on distal extension base RPDs passing through the rest seat area of the most posterior abutment tooth on each side of the arch:

A

Fulcrum line.

A secondary fulcrum line may be established when indirect retention is present

48
Q

The effectiveness of indirect retainers in preventing rotation is directly proportional to:

A

The retainers distance from the fulcrum line

49
Q

4 examples of indirect retainers:

A
  1. Rests
  2. Minor connectors
  3. Proximal plates
  4. Lingual plate
50
Q

Lingual plates can be considered indirect retainers. True or false.

A

True

51
Q
A
52
Q

Residual ridge tissue reslience:

A

2mm

53
Q

PDL resilience:

A

0.25mm

54
Q

Dentures rotate about the distal abutments of dentures, causing torsional stresses and potential trauma to:

A

The residual ridge

55
Q

What four features are included in TRP analysis

A
  1. Amount of ridge resorption (ridge resistance)
  2. Apical migration of junctional epithelium
  3. Presence of plaque
  4. Abutment mobility
56
Q

In the PDI, Class I is the most or least compromised?

A

Least compromised.

Class IV is severely compromised.

57
Q

What is the purpose of the Altered Cast technique?

A

To obtain the maximum support possible from the edentulous area of the extension partial denture

58
Q
A
59
Q

RPI systems should have the rest seat located on the

a) mesial
b) distal

A

a) mesial

To prevent distal tipping of the abutment

60
Q

Rest position defined an axis of rotation for all extension base RPDs

True or false

A

True

61
Q

I bars should engage at the mid buccal or mesial half. Why?

A

To avoid torqueing forces on the abutent when patient chews on the tension area

62
Q

3 contra-indications for I bar:

A
  • No undercut due to severe tooth tilt
  • Severe tissue undercuts
  • Shallow buccal or labial vestibule
63
Q

In order to function as a stress releasing clasping unit the akers clasp must be relieved to allow disengagement during function

true or false

A

true

64
Q
A
65
Q

What is the design sequence for an RPD? Put these in order -

  • Major connectors
  • Minor connectors
  • Rests
  • Denture base connectors
  • Retainers
A
  1. Rests
  2. Minor connectors
  3. Major connectors
  4. Denture base connectors
  5. Retainers
66
Q

How deep should anterior rests be?

A

0.75mm

67
Q

How deep should posterior occlusal rests be?

A

1.25mm

68
Q

What four factors need to considered in developing proper occlusion with an RPD

A
  • Occlusal plane
  • Anterior guidance
  • Condylar guidance
  • Occlusal scheme
69
Q

Wax partial try-ins are recommended for aesthetic or complex cases.

They are used to verify:

A
  • Aesthetics
  • Phonetics
  • VDO
  • CR record
70
Q

Timeline for checking RPDs after insertion:

A
  1. 24 hours
  2. 1 week
  3. Recall
71
Q

Custom trays should have how many layers of wax spacer used

A

PVS - at least one layer

Alginate - 2 layers

72
Q

What are the two occlusal set ups used for RPDs? What is the difference between the two?

A
  • Balanced - even tooth contact in all directions, can use fully anatomic, semi anatomic or monoplane teeth
  • Lingualized - simplified upper lingual to fossa contact - more stable but maybe less aesthetic
73
Q

What occlusal set up is best for a partial denture which is opposing a full denture?

A

Either

  • Balanced but with monoplane teeth
  • Lingualised
74
Q

What is the best occlusion set up for RPD opposing natural teeth?

A

Monopalne or semi-anatomical

75
Q

What is the best occlusion set up for an RPD opposing another RPD?

A

Monoplane or lingualied

76
Q

Important labiodental sounds:

A

F and V

77
Q

What are the important sounds involved in speech (what letters)

A

F, V, S

78
Q

What hsould be used to polish metal frames:

A

Silicone tips

79
Q

Care for denture:

A

Brushing - no abrasives though

Soak in water or anti-microbial agents

Do not soak in bleach - corrosive

80
Q

Contributing risk factors to RRR:

A
  • Asthma
  • Hormone replacement therapy
  • Poor OH
  • Continuous wear of denture (debated)
  • Poorly fitting RPD
81
Q

4 sequelaie of continuing RRR after denture insert

A
  • Leads to unstable denture
  • Increased stress on abutment teeth
  • Increased plaque build up
  • Increase risk of denture stomatitis
82
Q

Which is true regarding removable partial dentures:

a) Retention is never gained from lingual plates
b) Indirect retainers are required for all kennedy class types
c) Clasps and rests are both examples of retainers
d) An RPA clasp system on tooth 24 is best for a kennedy class I when the patient is concerned about metal showing
e) Akers clasps, embrasure clasps, RPI clasps and RPT clasps all engage undercut of 0.25mm

A

c)

83
Q

Which of the following clasps is most likely to be used ina kennedy class III RPD

a) combination clasp
b) circumferential clasp
c) RPI
d) RPA
e) Bar clasp

A

Circumferential

84
Q

Support for dentures is:

a) The resistance to vertical out forces
b) Gained in removable partial dentures
c) Priarily gained from the palate and the anterior alveolar ridge in the maxilla
d) Primarily gained from the retromolar pad and buccal shelf in the mandible
e) Gained from rests in removable partial dentures, which must always have a minimal thickness of 1mm

A

d) Gained primarily from the retromolar pad and buccal shelf in the mandible

85
Q

Guide planes:

i) Assist with the parth of insertion
ii) Should be constructed the full proximal width of the tooth
iii) Are always necessary to prepare
iv) Should be polished after construction
v) Should be prepared prior to occlusal rest seats

Which of these statements are true?

A

i, iv, v

86
Q

Retentive clasps:

a) Most clasps require 0.25mm of undercut to engage, except ring clasps which engage 0.1mm of undercut
b) Clasps should engage in the first third of the retentive arm
c) It’s okay for the retentive clasp arm to contact the gingival margin
d) There will be active engagement of the retentive clasp arm when the patient is at rest
e) Clasps must be flexible and this can be improved with: thinner diameter, increased length, tapering and material selection

A

e) Clasps must be flexible. This can be improved with thinner diameter, increased length, tapering and material selection

87
Q

An upper RPD is to be designed for a patient with the following teeth: 14, 13, 12, 11, 21, 22, 23, 24, 26, 27. It will replace 17, 16, 15 and 25. This is an example of chilch kennedy class?

a) Class I, Mod 1
b) Class II, Mod I
c) Class II
d) Class IV, Mod I
3) Class III

A

b) Class II, Mod I

88
Q
A
89
Q

Which is not an indication for RPD therapy?

a) No abutment teeth posterior to the edentulous space
b) Need for cross arch stabilisation
c) Patients younger than 18 years of age
d) Excessive bone loss within the residual ridge
d) Long span edentulous areas

A

c) Patients younger than 18

90
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement of an RPD major connector?

a) Must be rigid
b) Must be uniform thickness of metal
c) The metal should be smooth but not highly polished on the tissue side
d) Should be 3mm from the free gingival margin in the maxilla, and 6mm from the gree gingival margin in the mandible
e) Promote patient comfort

A

c) The metal should be smooth but not highly polished on the tissue side

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