Remotness, Defences And Remedies Flashcards

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1
Q

What is remoteness in legal terms?

A

Remoteness refers to the limits placed on the extent of loss recoverable, ensuring that the damage must not be too remote from the defendant’s breach.

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2
Q

What is the key definition related to remoteness?

A

The test of reasonable foreseeability: a claimant can only recover if the type of damage suffered was reasonably foreseeable at the time the defendant breached their duty of care.

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3
Q

Which case established the legal test for remoteness?

A

The legal test was established by the Privy Council in The Wagon Mound (No 1) [1961] AC 388.

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4
Q

What was the outcome of The Wagon Mound (No 1) case?

A

The court held that the damage was not reasonably foreseeable, as fire damage was not a foreseeable consequence of the oil spill.

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5
Q

What must a claimant prove regarding the type of harm in remoteness cases?

A

The claimant can only recover if the defendant ought to have foreseen the ‘type’ of damage suffered.

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6
Q

What was the ruling in Bradford v Robinson Rentals [1967]?

A

The court held that it was reasonably foreseeable that the claimant could suffer some cold-related injury due to the employer’s negligence.

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7
Q

What was the ruling in Tremain v Pike [1969]?

A

The court held that injury from rat bites was foreseeable, but injury contracted by contact with rat’s urine was not, making it too remote.

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8
Q

How do the cases of Bradford and Tremain differ in their approach to foreseeability?

A

Bradford took a broad approach to foreseeability, while Tremain took a narrow view.

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9
Q

What does it mean that there is no need to foresee the exact way damage occurs?

A

Once the type of damage is reasonably foreseeable, the defendant does not need to foresee the exact manner in which the damage occurs.

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10
Q

What was the outcome of Hughes v Lord Advocate [1963]?

A

The court held that the harm was not too remote, as the type of damage (burns) was foreseeable, even if the specific events were not.

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11
Q

What does it mean that there is no need to foresee the extent of damage?

A

Once the type of damage is established as foreseeable, the defendant is liable for the full extent of those damages, regardless of foreseeability of the extent.

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12
Q

What was the ruling in Vacwell Engineering v BDH Chemicals [1971]?

A

The court held that the claimant could recover for the full extent of property damage caused by an explosion, even if the magnitude was not foreseeable.

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13
Q

What is the ‘thin skull’ rule?

A

The ‘thin skull’ rule means the defendant must take their victim as they find them, being liable for all consequences of their actions, even if the claimant has pre-existing conditions.

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14
Q

What was the outcome of Smith v Leech Brain [1962]?

A

The court held that the defendant was liable for all physical damage, including cancer and death, resulting from the original injury (burns).

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15
Q

What was the ruling in Lagden v O’Connor [2004]?

A

The court held that the defendant was liable for the full extent of the claimant’s economic loss, even though it was aggravated by the claimant’s lack of funds.

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16
Q

What is the summary of the test for remoteness?

A

The type of damage suffered must have been reasonably foreseeable at the time of the breach, and if so, the claimant will succeed regardless of the precise way or extent of the damage.

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17
Q

What is the defence of consent?

A

The defence of consent applies when the claimant has consented to the risks involved and cannot complain of the consequential damage.

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18
Q

What must a defendant prove for the defence of consent?

A

The defendant must prove that the claimant had capacity, full knowledge of the risks, agreed to the risk of injury, and agreed voluntarily.

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19
Q

What was the outcome of Reeves v Commissioner of Police for the Metropolis [2000]?

A

The court held that the police could not use consent as a defence, as they had a duty to prevent the claimant from taking his own life.

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20
Q

What does full knowledge of the risks entail?

A

The claimant must have full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risks, which is subjective and specific to the claimant.

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21
Q

What was the ruling in Morris v Murray [1991] regarding implied consent?

A

The court held that the claimant had impliedly consented to the risk of injury by accepting a lift with a drunken pilot.

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22
Q

What indicates implied agreement to the risk?

A

Engaging in an obviously dangerous activity can indicate implied agreement to the risk, as seen in Morris v Murray.

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23
Q

How does consent apply in sports?

A

By willingly engaging in a sport, the claimant agrees to inherent risks but not to risks that are not inherent, such as serious foul play.

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24
Q

What does voluntary consent mean?

A

The claimant must agree to run the risk of injury voluntarily, free from any constraint.

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25
Q

What was the ruling in Smith v Charles Baker & Sons regarding voluntary consent?

A

The court stressed that knowledge of risks alone does not equate to voluntary consent, especially for employees.

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26
Q

What was the outcome in Baker v T.E. Hopkins & Sons Ltd regarding rescue cases?

A

Dr Baker was held to be a rescuer, but his agreement to the risk was not voluntary, as he acted impulsively to save lives.

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27
Q

How can consent be negated by statute?

A

Certain statutes, like the Road Traffic Act 1988, prevent the use of consent as a defence in specific circumstances.

28
Q

Can a drunk driver rely on consent to defeat a claim from a passenger who is injured?

A

No, a drunk driver cannot rely on consent to defeat the claim of a passenger who voluntarily accepts a lift and is injured.

29
Q

What does Section 2 of the Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977 prohibit?

A

It prohibits defendants from excluding or restricting liability for death or personal injuries resulting from negligence.

30
Q

Under Section 2(2) of the Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977, what types of loss may be excluded?

A

Other types of loss may be excluded, subject to a test of reasonableness.

31
Q

What does Section 2(3) clarify regarding a person’s agreement to contract terms?

A

It clarifies that a person’s agreement to or awareness of a contract term purporting to exclude liability for negligence does not indicate voluntary acceptance of any risk.

32
Q

What does Section 65(1) of the Consumer Rights Act 2015 prohibit?

A

It prohibits traders from using contract terms limiting or excluding liability for death or personal injury through negligence when dealing with consumers.

33
Q

What is required for an exclusion clause to be binding under Section 62 of the Consumer Rights Act 2015?

A

An exclusion clause is only binding if it is fair.

34
Q

What does Section 65(2) state about voluntary acceptance of risk?

A

It states that voluntary acceptance of risk cannot be assumed merely because the consumer agreed or knew about the term.

35
Q

What are the requirements for a defendant to establish the defence of consent?

A

The defendant must show that the claimant had capacity to give valid consent, full knowledge of the risks, agreed to the risk of injury, and agreed voluntarily.

36
Q

Can motorists use the defence of consent against claims from passengers?

A

No, the defence of consent cannot be used by motorists facing claims from passengers.

37
Q

What do the Unfair Contract Terms Act 1977 and Consumer Rights Act 2015 state about awareness of terms limiting liability?

A

They provide that being aware of a term limiting or excluding liability does not mean the party consents to those risks or losses.

38
Q

What is contributory negligence?

A

Contributory negligence is a legal concept where a claimant’s damages can be reduced if they are found to have contributed to their own harm.

39
Q

What is the legal test for contributory negligence?

A

The defendant must establish that the claimant failed to take reasonable steps for their own safety and that this failure contributed to the claimant’s damage.

40
Q

What does s 1(1) of the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act 1945 state?

A

It states that a claim shall not be defeated by the fault of the person suffering damage, but damages shall be reduced according to the claimant’s share in the responsibility.

41
Q

What is the effect of a finding of contributory negligence?

A

It reduces the liability of the defendant and the claimant’s damages are reduced by a percentage deemed just and equitable.

42
Q

What is the standard of care expected from a claimant?

A

The claimant is required to take the same degree of care that a reasonable and prudent person would take.

43
Q

What is an example of contributory negligence?

A

In Owens v Brimmell [1977], a passenger was found guilty of contributory negligence for riding with a driver who had consumed excessive alcohol.

Being drunk is not an excuse for failing to take reasonable steps for your own safety.

44
Q

How are claimants in emergency situations treated under contributory negligence?

A

Allowances are made for claimants who are injured while trying to save themselves, as seen in Jones v Boyce (1816).

45
Q

How does age affect the standard of care in contributory negligence?

A

The court takes into account the claimant’s age when determining the standard of care expected, as illustrated in Gough v Thorne [1966].

46
Q

Are rescuers protected from contributory negligence?

A

Yes, rescuers are generally protected unless they negligently created the emergency, as shown in Baker v T.E. Hopkins & Son Ltd [1959].

47
Q

What must be established for a claimant’s fault to be contributory negligence?

A

The claimant’s fault must contribute to the damage suffered, even if it did not cause the accident.

48
Q

How does the court determine the reduction in damages for contributory negligence?

A

The court has discretion to determine the reduction based on the claimant’s degree of culpability, expressed in percentage terms.

49
Q

What is the significance of Froom v Butcher [1976] regarding seat belts?

A

Lord Denning suggested a 25% reduction if wearing a seat belt would have avoided injury, and 15% if it would have reduced it.

These figures are not fixed and vary based on circumstances.

50
Q

What is the illegality defense?

A

Illegality may apply when the claimant was involved in illegal activity at the time of their loss, aiming to maintain the integrity of the legal system.

51
Q

What was the outcome of Gray v Thames Trains [2008] regarding illegality?

A

The House of Lords held that allowing the claimant’s claim would be inconsistent with his criminal conviction for manslaughter.

52
Q

What two-step test is applied for illegality?

A

Step 1: Determine if the claimant committed an illegal act at the time of loss. Step 2: Apply the Patel v Mirza test to assess the impact on the legal system.

53
Q

What are the three necessary conditions from Patel v Mirza?

A
  1. The purpose of the prohibition transgressed. 2. Other relevant public policy considerations. 3. Proportionality of denying the claim.
54
Q

What remedies are available in tort?

A

The principal remedies are damages and injunctions, with damages being the most common.

55
Q

What are compensatory damages?

A

Compensatory damages are awarded to compensate the claimant for the harm suffered, aiming to restore them to their position before the tort occurred.

56
Q

What is the aim of damages in the law of tort?

A

To put the claimant in the position they would have been in but for the defendant’s tortious act, as far as possible with an award of money.

57
Q

What are compensatory damages?

A

Damages awarded to compensate the claimant for the harm they have suffered. The vast majority of awards of damages in tort claims are awards of compensatory damages.

58
Q

What are the two categories of compensatory damages?

A

General damages and special damages.

59
Q

What do special damages cover?

A

Specifically provable and quantifiable financial losses at the time of trial, such as loss of earnings incurred before trial.

60
Q

What do general damages cover?

A

Future financial losses which cannot be specifically proven, and non-quantifiable losses such as compensation for physical injury.

61
Q

What does the Pain, Suffering and Loss of Amenity award (PSLA) consist of?

A

Two parts: ‘pain and suffering’ and ‘loss of amenity’, which compensates for the effect of the injury on the claimant’s lifestyle.

62
Q

How are future losses calculated?

A

For one-off future expenses, a lump sum is given. For continuing losses, the annual expense is multiplied by the number of years the loss will continue, known as the multiplier/multiplicand approach.

63
Q

What deductions may be made from damages?

A

Deductions may include state benefits received, contractual sick pay, and redundancy payments to avoid double compensation.

64
Q

What is the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934?

A

Legislation allowing the estate of a deceased person to claim for losses suffered up to the date of death, calculated like a normal personal injury award.

65
Q

What is the Fatal Accidents Act 1976?

A

Legislation allowing dependants of the deceased to claim for losses suffered due to the death, including bereavement damages and funeral expenses.

66
Q

What can dependants claim under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976?

A

They can claim for losses suffered as a result of the death, bereavement damages, and recovery of funeral expenses.

67
Q

What is the summary of damages for torts?

A

Damages are awarded on a compensatory basis, categorized into special damages (provable financial losses) and general damages (future and non-quantifiable losses).