Rembe Neuro Flashcards
A malignant neoplasm of glandular epithelium.
a. Adenoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Papilloma
d. Basal cell carcinoma
B; the only carcinoma with glandular arrangement
Which of the following neoplasms is malignant?
a. Fibroma
b. Chondroma
c. Osteoma
d. Neuroblastoma
A; all others are benign
A change from columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium may occur in chronic inflammations or vitamin A deficiency; this is called:
a. Metaplasia
b. Anaplasia
c. Neoplasia
d. Hyperplasia
A; meta means change; which is the clue
A condition in which the loss of cellular and organizational differentiation tends to parallel the degree of malignancy is
a. Metaplasia
b. Anaplasia
c. Neoplasia
d. Hyperplasia
B; other answers refer to growth of cell
All are features of basophils except:
a. common with most cells in connective tissue
b. Have cytoplasmic granules
c. Present in large numbers in exudate
d. Contain histamine and heparin
C; basophils are small in numbers in exudate
Which of the following is a type of necrosis?
a. Lack of coagulation
b. Lack of liquefaction
c. Lack of caseation
d. Gangrene
D; necrosis and gangrene are the same
The characteristic cell type involved in a chronic inflammatory process is the:
a. Eosinophil
b. Lymphocyte
c. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte
d. Mast cell
B; these are the predominant cells in chronic inflammation while eosinophils are present in acute inflammation
In differentiating a coup injury from a countercoup injury to the brain, the latter is:
a. A type of contusion occurring directly from beneath the area of impact
b. A type of contusion occurring directly opposite to the point of impact
c. The result of moving object that strikes the skull
d. The result of a crush syndrome
B; a coup injury is a strike or blow; therefore, countercoup is the opposite
The neuroglia responsible for gliosis are:
a. Microglia
b. Oligodendroglia
c. Astrocytes
d. Macrophages
C; the glial cells are astrocytes; they can be differentiated by nuclear configuration
Which of the following neoplasms are benign?
a. Fibrosarcoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Microglia
d. Hemangioma
D; all other answers are all carcinomas as their names imply
The most common type of intracranial bleeding due to trauma associated with the head is:
a. Subdural hemorrhage
b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. Intercranial
d. Intracranial hemorrhage d. Intra
B; this is due to the location of the subarachnoid arteries lying superficially in the subarachnoid space in the base of the brain
The most common cause of cerebral vascular accidents is
a. Thrombosis
b. Hemorrhage
c. Aneurysm
d. Neoplasms
A; thrombi are most common in adults because of sclerotic vessels
All of the following cells are capable of regenerating following necrosis EXCEPT:
a. Myocardial
b. Epithelial
c. Lymphoid
d. Neurons
D; a neuron is not a type of cell that regenerates
In chronic, inflammation, which of the following cells are least likely to be found in large numbers:
a. Lymphocytes
b. Neutrophils
c. Fibroblasts
d. Macrophages
B; other answers are found in acute inflammation
Increase in size of individual cells or fibers resulting in organ enlargement
Hypertrophy
The complete lack of an organ or part due to the failure of the anlage of the organ or part
Agenesis
An increase in the number of cells of a part or structure
Hyperplasia
Failure in development of a part or structure
Aplasia
Reduction in the size of a structure
Atrophy
Incomplete development of a structure
Atrophy
In an advanced peripheral neuropathy of diabetes mellitus, which of the following complications might likely occur to be present?
a. Anorexia
b. Charcot joint of the knee
c. Cerebral congestion
d. Papilledema
B; there will be degeneration of the joint due to the reduced blood supply
In athetosis, the most probable site of pathology is:
a. CN V
b. Globus Pallidus
c. Motor cortex
d. Neuromuscular junction
B; normal impulses for normal motor function are interrupted by the poor functioning of the globus pallidus which will not stop the extra movements of the extremities
Immediately following a transection of the spinal cord, which of the following can be expected?
a. Increase in ms tone
b. Spinal shock lasting 2 days
c. Retention of urine and feces
d. Hypotension
C; there is increased constrictor tone of the sphincters causing retention of bowel and bladder
A CVA pt, with left-sided weakness of UE and E likely has a lesion located in the:
a. Brainstem
b. Medulla
c. Left cerebral hemisphere
d. Right cerebral hemispher
D; each cerebral hemisphere is responsible for the function of the contralateral extremities
A pt with a head injury has symptoms of rising temperature and a slowing respiration and pulse. What might cause these symptoms?
a. Injury to the cortical motor speech area
b. Injury to the vital centers within the medulla
c. Organization of the blood clot
d. Lesion in the occipital lobe
B; medulla is responsible for the regulation of vital centers
All of the following statement apply to diabetes insipidus, EXCEPT:
a. lesions of the pancrease give rise to the d/o
b. Pt experiences excessive thirst
c. There is excessive output of urine of low specific gravity
d. There is insufficient secretion of ADH
A; lesions of the pancreas give rise to diabetes mellitus
During progressive cerebral anoxia, the first clinical sign that occurs is:
a. Perceptual and visual difficulties
b. Unconsciousness
c. Decerebration
d. Impairment of judgment
D; impairment of judgment is the first clinical sign arising during progressive cerebral anoxia
A common cause of epidural compression of the spinal cord is:
a. Tay-Sachs disease
b. Hodgkin’s disease
c. Werdnig-Hoffman syndrome
d. Erb-Duchenne-Klumpke syndrome
B; tumors from the lymph system cause compression of the spinal cord
Demyelinating disease of the central nervous system include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. MS
b. Alzheimer’s
c. Niemann-pick dse
d. Schilder’s dse
B; Alzheimer’s affects the brain and does not involve the myelin sheath of the nerve
All of the following apply to Hodgkin’s dse EXCEPT
a. Clinical features include general symptoms of fever, weakness, wt loss, and anemia
b. Varying neurological manifestations
c. More common in females
d. Herpes Zoster is not an uncommon concomitant
C; more common in males than females
Which of the following is most frequently associated with a subarachnoid hemorrhage?
a. Severe HTN
b. Mycotic Aneurysm
c. “Berry” Aneurysm
d. Atherosclerotic aneurysm
C; the location and size of the aneurysm gives it its name
Primary disease of muscle include all of the following EXCEPT
a. Progressive muscular dystrophy
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Myotonia congenital
d. Infantile spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffman)
D; this disease attacks the anterior horn cells first
All of the following are characteristics of a LMN EXCEPT:
a. Spastic paralysis below the lvl of the lesion
b. Atrophy of ms below lvl of lesion
c. Depressed reflexes below lvl of lesion
d. Fasciculation
A; spastic paralysis presents in UMNL
Clinical features of MS include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Motor weakness
b. Visual symptoms
c. Ataxia of gait
d. Bradykinesis
D; all other answers are typical of the symptoms
The disorder of movement of quick oscillation of eyes while fixing gaze on an object, as a result of a cerebellar tumor, is known as
a. Dysmetria
b. Asynergia
c. Adiadochokinesis
d. Nystagmus
D; definition of nystagmus
A cerebral infarction of the MCA would probably cause all of the following symptoms except:
a. Aphasia
b. Ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome
c. Hemianopsia
d. Contralateral hemiplegia
B; all the answers are related MCA infarct except horner’s
The inability to performing tapping movements quickly and smoothly is known as:
a. Asynergia
b. Nystagmus
c. Adiadochokinesis
d. Dysmetria
C; definition of Adiadochokinesis
Syringomyelia is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
a. Atrophy of small muscles of the hand
b. Painless burns on fingers
c. Viral etiology
d. Cavitation and gliosis in spinal cord
C; does not have viral etiology
Which of the following is a characteristic of a TIA?
a. Lasting damage to the brain
b. Similar to epileptic seizure
c. No residual after attack
d. Hemiparesis is a residual
C; TIA is a slight stroke s after-effects
Clinical features of ataxic cerebral palsy include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Hypertonic from birth
b. Dysmetria
c. Intention tremor
d. Truncal ataxia
A; hypertonia is not present; in fact, hypertonicity is present
A condition that is due to involvement of the extrapyramidal system is
a. Ataxia
b. Athetosis
c. Spasticity
d. Hemiplegic CP
B; it is the only answer that involves the extrapyramidal system
Which of the following has a viral etiology?
a. Parkinsonism
b. GBS
c. Schrider’s dse
d. MS
B; GBS usually follows some other disease due to a virus such as flu; others have an unknown etiology
Dysmetria is a disorder of movement as a result of a cerebellar tumor. Which of the following describes this movement?
a. Error in range of movement
b. Oscillation
c. lack of cooperation between muscles
d. Deviation from line of movement
A; this is the definition of dysmetria
Segmental levels of C5, C6 include innervations for the:
a. Biceps reflex
b. Triceps reflex
c. Brachioradialis reflex
d. Hoffman’s reflex
C; the other answers have C4 or C7-C8
Segmental levels of C7, C8 include innervations for the:
a. Triceps reflex
b. Brachioradialis reflex
c. Hoffman reflex
d. Finger jerk
A; the other reflexes have C5-C6 or T1 as spinal levels of innervation
Neurologic disorders resulting from defects at the NMJ include:
a. MG
b. GBS
c. Parkinsonism
d. NOTA
A; the other diseases affect muscle bulk by viral infection of the brain
Neurologic manifestations of Hodgkin’s disease include:
a. Compression lesions of the SC
b. Peripheral nerve involvement
c. Involvement of the meninges and base of skull
d. AOTA
D; AOTA
Which of the following diagnostic studies is used to visualize the intracranial vascular areas?
a. Brain scan
b. Arteriography
c. CAT
d. X-Ray
B; arteriography is the only one capable of visualizing the vascular system
Disorders with involuntary movements include:
a. PD
b. Dystonia musculorum deformans
c. Huntington’s chorea
d. AOTA
D
Which lesions or diseases result in visible wasting or atrophy of the muscles involved?
a. Posterior horn cells
b. Posterior spinal roots
c. Motor axons
d. Dorsal spinal roots
C; motor axon lesions will not allow nerve impulses to pass through
Natal factors in etiology and pathogenesis of cerebral palsy include:
a. Anoxia
b. No known trauma
c. Full-term pregnancy
d. Kernicterus
A; lack of oxygen with known trauma and premature delivery
Conditions which are NOT progressive include:
a. CP
b. MS
c. Alzheimer’s
d. Schilder’s
A
Inspection of the muscular system of a pt reveals fasciculations; Fasciculations are evidence of damage to the:
a. UMN
b. Anterior Horn
c. Cerebral Cortex
d. Motor Unit
B; when muscles are involved as a group
Indication of Brudzinski’s sign
Meningeal irritation
A seizure involving a momentary loss of consciousness, usually just a blank stare is referred to as
a. Jackson seizure
b. Patit mal
c. Grand mal
d. Psychomotor seizure
B; petit or small mal refers to momentary seizures
Which of the following drugs is used to treat petit mal seizures?
a. Phenacemide
b. Primidone
c. Carbamezepine
d. Ethosuximide
D
Most common tumor of the brain and spinal cord
Gliomas
Papilledema is a common finding in all of the following except:
a. Intracranial tumors
b. Cerebral trauma
c. Meningitis
d. Syringomyelia
D
