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3rd ME > Rembe Neuro > Flashcards

Rembe Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

A malignant neoplasm of glandular epithelium.
a. Adenoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Papilloma
d. Basal cell carcinoma

A

B; the only carcinoma with glandular arrangement

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2
Q

Which of the following neoplasms is malignant?
a. Fibroma
b. Chondroma
c. Osteoma
d. Neuroblastoma

A

A; all others are benign

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3
Q

A change from columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium may occur in chronic inflammations or vitamin A deficiency; this is called:
a. Metaplasia
b. Anaplasia
c. Neoplasia
d. Hyperplasia

A

A; meta means change; which is the clue

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4
Q

A condition in which the loss of cellular and organizational differentiation tends to parallel the degree of malignancy is
a. Metaplasia
b. Anaplasia
c. Neoplasia
d. Hyperplasia

A

B; other answers refer to growth of cell

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5
Q

All are features of basophils except:
a. common with most cells in connective tissue
b. Have cytoplasmic granules
c. Present in large numbers in exudate
d. Contain histamine and heparin

A

C; basophils are small in numbers in exudate

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6
Q

Which of the following is a type of necrosis?
a. Lack of coagulation
b. Lack of liquefaction
c. Lack of caseation
d. Gangrene

A

D; necrosis and gangrene are the same

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7
Q

The characteristic cell type involved in a chronic inflammatory process is the:
a. Eosinophil
b. Lymphocyte
c. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte
d. Mast cell

A

B; these are the predominant cells in chronic inflammation while eosinophils are present in acute inflammation

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8
Q

In differentiating a coup injury from a countercoup injury to the brain, the latter is:
a. A type of contusion occurring directly from beneath the area of impact
b. A type of contusion occurring directly opposite to the point of impact
c. The result of moving object that strikes the skull
d. The result of a crush syndrome

A

B; a coup injury is a strike or blow; therefore, countercoup is the opposite

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9
Q

The neuroglia responsible for gliosis are:
a. Microglia
b. Oligodendroglia
c. Astrocytes
d. Macrophages

A

C; the glial cells are astrocytes; they can be differentiated by nuclear configuration

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10
Q

Which of the following neoplasms are benign?
a. Fibrosarcoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Microglia
d. Hemangioma

A

D; all other answers are all carcinomas as their names imply

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11
Q

The most common type of intracranial bleeding due to trauma associated with the head is:
a. Subdural hemorrhage
b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. Intercranial
d. Intracranial hemorrhage d. Intra

A

B; this is due to the location of the subarachnoid arteries lying superficially in the subarachnoid space in the base of the brain

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12
Q

The most common cause of cerebral vascular accidents is
a. Thrombosis
b. Hemorrhage
c. Aneurysm
d. Neoplasms

A

A; thrombi are most common in adults because of sclerotic vessels

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13
Q

All of the following cells are capable of regenerating following necrosis EXCEPT:
a. Myocardial
b. Epithelial
c. Lymphoid
d. Neurons

A

D; a neuron is not a type of cell that regenerates

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14
Q

In chronic, inflammation, which of the following cells are least likely to be found in large numbers:
a. Lymphocytes
b. Neutrophils
c. Fibroblasts
d. Macrophages

A

B; other answers are found in acute inflammation

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15
Q

Increase in size of individual cells or fibers resulting in organ enlargement

A

Hypertrophy

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16
Q

The complete lack of an organ or part due to the failure of the anlage of the organ or part

A

Agenesis

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17
Q

An increase in the number of cells of a part or structure

A

Hyperplasia

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18
Q

Failure in development of a part or structure

A

Aplasia

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19
Q

Reduction in the size of a structure

A

Atrophy

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20
Q

Incomplete development of a structure

A

Atrophy

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21
Q

In an advanced peripheral neuropathy of diabetes mellitus, which of the following complications might likely occur to be present?
a. Anorexia
b. Charcot joint of the knee
c. Cerebral congestion
d. Papilledema

A

B; there will be degeneration of the joint due to the reduced blood supply

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22
Q

In athetosis, the most probable site of pathology is:
a. CN V
b. Globus Pallidus
c. Motor cortex
d. Neuromuscular junction

A

B; normal impulses for normal motor function are interrupted by the poor functioning of the globus pallidus which will not stop the extra movements of the extremities

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23
Q

Immediately following a transection of the spinal cord, which of the following can be expected?
a. Increase in ms tone
b. Spinal shock lasting 2 days
c. Retention of urine and feces
d. Hypotension

A

C; there is increased constrictor tone of the sphincters causing retention of bowel and bladder

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24
Q

A CVA pt, with left-sided weakness of UE and E likely has a lesion located in the:
a. Brainstem
b. Medulla
c. Left cerebral hemisphere
d. Right cerebral hemispher

A

D; each cerebral hemisphere is responsible for the function of the contralateral extremities

25
Q

A pt with a head injury has symptoms of rising temperature and a slowing respiration and pulse. What might cause these symptoms?
a. Injury to the cortical motor speech area
b. Injury to the vital centers within the medulla
c. Organization of the blood clot
d. Lesion in the occipital lobe

A

B; medulla is responsible for the regulation of vital centers

26
Q

All of the following statement apply to diabetes insipidus, EXCEPT:
a. lesions of the pancrease give rise to the d/o
b. Pt experiences excessive thirst
c. There is excessive output of urine of low specific gravity
d. There is insufficient secretion of ADH

A

A; lesions of the pancreas give rise to diabetes mellitus

27
Q

During progressive cerebral anoxia, the first clinical sign that occurs is:
a. Perceptual and visual difficulties
b. Unconsciousness
c. Decerebration
d. Impairment of judgment

A

D; impairment of judgment is the first clinical sign arising during progressive cerebral anoxia

28
Q

A common cause of epidural compression of the spinal cord is:
a. Tay-Sachs disease
b. Hodgkin’s disease
c. Werdnig-Hoffman syndrome
d. Erb-Duchenne-Klumpke syndrome

A

B; tumors from the lymph system cause compression of the spinal cord

29
Q

Demyelinating disease of the central nervous system include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. MS
b. Alzheimer’s
c. Niemann-pick dse
d. Schilder’s dse

A

B; Alzheimer’s affects the brain and does not involve the myelin sheath of the nerve

30
Q

All of the following apply to Hodgkin’s dse EXCEPT
a. Clinical features include general symptoms of fever, weakness, wt loss, and anemia
b. Varying neurological manifestations
c. More common in females
d. Herpes Zoster is not an uncommon concomitant

A

C; more common in males than females

31
Q

Which of the following is most frequently associated with a subarachnoid hemorrhage?
a. Severe HTN
b. Mycotic Aneurysm
c. “Berry” Aneurysm
d. Atherosclerotic aneurysm

A

C; the location and size of the aneurysm gives it its name

32
Q

Primary disease of muscle include all of the following EXCEPT
a. Progressive muscular dystrophy
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Myotonia congenital
d. Infantile spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffman)

A

D; this disease attacks the anterior horn cells first

33
Q

All of the following are characteristics of a LMN EXCEPT:
a. Spastic paralysis below the lvl of the lesion
b. Atrophy of ms below lvl of lesion
c. Depressed reflexes below lvl of lesion
d. Fasciculation

A

A; spastic paralysis presents in UMNL

34
Q

Clinical features of MS include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Motor weakness
b. Visual symptoms
c. Ataxia of gait
d. Bradykinesis

A

D; all other answers are typical of the symptoms

35
Q

The disorder of movement of quick oscillation of eyes while fixing gaze on an object, as a result of a cerebellar tumor, is known as
a. Dysmetria
b. Asynergia
c. Adiadochokinesis
d. Nystagmus

A

D; definition of nystagmus

36
Q

A cerebral infarction of the MCA would probably cause all of the following symptoms except:
a. Aphasia
b. Ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome
c. Hemianopsia
d. Contralateral hemiplegia

A

B; all the answers are related MCA infarct except horner’s

37
Q

The inability to performing tapping movements quickly and smoothly is known as:
a. Asynergia
b. Nystagmus
c. Adiadochokinesis
d. Dysmetria

A

C; definition of Adiadochokinesis

38
Q

Syringomyelia is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
a. Atrophy of small muscles of the hand
b. Painless burns on fingers
c. Viral etiology
d. Cavitation and gliosis in spinal cord

A

C; does not have viral etiology

39
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a TIA?
a. Lasting damage to the brain
b. Similar to epileptic seizure
c. No residual after attack
d. Hemiparesis is a residual

A

C; TIA is a slight stroke s after-effects

40
Q

Clinical features of ataxic cerebral palsy include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Hypertonic from birth
b. Dysmetria
c. Intention tremor
d. Truncal ataxia

A

A; hypertonia is not present; in fact, hypertonicity is present

41
Q

A condition that is due to involvement of the extrapyramidal system is
a. Ataxia
b. Athetosis
c. Spasticity
d. Hemiplegic CP

A

B; it is the only answer that involves the extrapyramidal system

42
Q

Which of the following has a viral etiology?
a. Parkinsonism
b. GBS
c. Schrider’s dse
d. MS

A

B; GBS usually follows some other disease due to a virus such as flu; others have an unknown etiology

43
Q

Dysmetria is a disorder of movement as a result of a cerebellar tumor. Which of the following describes this movement?
a. Error in range of movement
b. Oscillation
c. lack of cooperation between muscles
d. Deviation from line of movement

A

A; this is the definition of dysmetria

44
Q

Segmental levels of C5, C6 include innervations for the:
a. Biceps reflex
b. Triceps reflex
c. Brachioradialis reflex
d. Hoffman’s reflex

A

C; the other answers have C4 or C7-C8

45
Q

Segmental levels of C7, C8 include innervations for the:
a. Triceps reflex
b. Brachioradialis reflex
c. Hoffman reflex
d. Finger jerk

A

A; the other reflexes have C5-C6 or T1 as spinal levels of innervation

46
Q

Neurologic disorders resulting from defects at the NMJ include:
a. MG
b. GBS
c. Parkinsonism
d. NOTA

A

A; the other diseases affect muscle bulk by viral infection of the brain

47
Q

Neurologic manifestations of Hodgkin’s disease include:
a. Compression lesions of the SC
b. Peripheral nerve involvement
c. Involvement of the meninges and base of skull
d. AOTA

A

D; AOTA

48
Q

Which of the following diagnostic studies is used to visualize the intracranial vascular areas?
a. Brain scan
b. Arteriography
c. CAT
d. X-Ray

A

B; arteriography is the only one capable of visualizing the vascular system

49
Q

Disorders with involuntary movements include:
a. PD
b. Dystonia musculorum deformans
c. Huntington’s chorea
d. AOTA

A

D

50
Q

Which lesions or diseases result in visible wasting or atrophy of the muscles involved?
a. Posterior horn cells
b. Posterior spinal roots
c. Motor axons
d. Dorsal spinal roots

A

C; motor axon lesions will not allow nerve impulses to pass through

51
Q

Natal factors in etiology and pathogenesis of cerebral palsy include:
a. Anoxia
b. No known trauma
c. Full-term pregnancy
d. Kernicterus

A

A; lack of oxygen with known trauma and premature delivery

52
Q

Conditions which are NOT progressive include:
a. CP
b. MS
c. Alzheimer’s
d. Schilder’s

A

A

53
Q

Inspection of the muscular system of a pt reveals fasciculations; Fasciculations are evidence of damage to the:
a. UMN
b. Anterior Horn
c. Cerebral Cortex
d. Motor Unit

A

B; when muscles are involved as a group

54
Q

Indication of Brudzinski’s sign

A

Meningeal irritation

55
Q

A seizure involving a momentary loss of consciousness, usually just a blank stare is referred to as
a. Jackson seizure
b. Patit mal
c. Grand mal
d. Psychomotor seizure

A

B; petit or small mal refers to momentary seizures

56
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to treat petit mal seizures?
a. Phenacemide
b. Primidone
c. Carbamezepine
d. Ethosuximide

A

D

57
Q

Most common tumor of the brain and spinal cord

A

Gliomas

58
Q

Papilledema is a common finding in all of the following except:
a. Intracranial tumors
b. Cerebral trauma
c. Meningitis
d. Syringomyelia

A

D

3rd ME (1 decks)

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