Regulations Flashcards

1
Q

Facility

A

Skilled nursing facility or nursing facility that may include a distince part of an institution but does not include an institution fo rth ementally retarded or related conditions.

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2
Q

Skilled Nursing Facility

A

institution which is primarily engaged in providing skilled nursing care and related services for residents who require medical, nursing or rehab care and is not primarily fo rthe care of mental diseases and has a transfer agreement with 1 or more hospitals

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3
Q

Nursing Facility

A

institution which is primarily engaged in providing skilled nursing care and related services for residents who require medical, nursing or rehab care, or on a regualar basis health related care and services to people who because of their mental or physical condition reuqire care above room and board which can on be provided through institutional facilities and is not primarily fo rthe care of mental diseases and has a transfer agreement with 1 or more hospitals

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4
Q

Resident Rights

A

Exercise rights
Be informed about rights and responsibilities
Have facility manage personal funds
Choose physician, treatment, participate in decisions and care planning
Privacy and confidentiality
Voice grievances and have facility respond
Examine survey results
Work or not work
Privacy in sending and receiving mail
Visit and be visited by others from outside
Use telephone in privacy
Retain and use personal possessions to extent space and safety allow
Share room with spouse if mutally agreeable
Self administer meds if determined safe
Refuse transfer from distinct part of facility

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5
Q

Rights - Exercise rights

A

Resident has coice to max possible about how they wish to live and receive care subject to facility rules (that do not violate regs)

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6
Q

Rights - Reprisal

A

To protect resident in exercise of rights.

Facility must not retaliate, behaviors must support and encourage resident participation in using rights

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7
Q

Rights - Incompetent Resident

A

Rights are exercised by person appointed by court, State law or legal-surrogate

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8
Q

Rights - Records

A

Resident or legal representative has right upon oral or written request have access to all records including current clinical records within 24 hours (not including holidays or weekends)

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9
Q

Rights - Records copies

A

After receipt of records for inspection they have the right to purchase any portion of them upon request with 2 working days notice (cost is community standard or set by state)

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10
Q

Rights - Language

A

Resident has right to be fully informed in language they can understand of total health status, including medical condition.

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11
Q

Total health status

A

functional status, medical care, nursing care, nutrititional status, rehavilitation and restorative potential, activities potential, cognitive status, oral health status, psychosocial status, sensory and physical impairments

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12
Q

Rights - Informed

A

Resident has the right to be fully informed in advance about care and treatment adn any changes in care or treatment that may affect well being

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13
Q

Rights - Refuse

A

Resident has right to refuse treatment, participate in experimental research, formulate advance directive

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14
Q

Treatment

A

care provided for purposes of maintaining/restoring health, improving functional level, or relieving symptoms

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15
Q

Experimental research

A

development and testing of clinical treatments, such as investigational drug therapy involving treatment and/or control groups

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16
Q

Advance directive

A

wirtten instruction, such as living will, durable power of attorney for health care

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17
Q

Rights refusal - facility responsible to

A

Facility should determine what and why for refusal, address concerns, assess reasons for refusal, clarify and educate resident of consequences of refusal, offer alternative treatments, continue to provide other services.

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18
Q

Rights refusal - significant change

A

Facility should reassess resident and institute care plan changes, must still provide highest practicable physical, mental and phychosocial well being in context of making the refusal

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19
Q

Rights - Informed rights

A

Facility must inform orally and in writing in language resident understands of their rights, including any State developed under the Act, and rules and regulations governing resident conduct and responsibilities during stay. Notification must be made prior to or upon admission and during the resident stay, receipt must be acknowledged in writing including any amendments to it

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20
Q

Rights - Inform Medicaid benefits

A

Inform each resident who is entitled to Medicaid in writing at admission or when resident becomes eligible - items which are included and that may not be charged to resident AND other items and services offered which the resident may be charged, and the amount charged, residents must be informed when there are changes

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21
Q

Rights - charges

A

Residents should be told in advance when charges will occur in their bills

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22
Q

Periodically (charges)

A

whenever changes are being intorduced that will affect the residents liability and whenever there are changes in services

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23
Q

Rights - charges Medicare

A

Facility must inform each resident before or at time of admission and periodically during stay of services available in facility and charges for services including any charges for services not covered under Medicare or by facility per diem rate

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24
Q

Rights - description

A

Facility must furnish written description of legal rights

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25
Q

Rights - description personal funds

A

Description of manner of protecting personal funds - resident has right to manage their financial affairs, facility may not require resident to deposit personal funds with facility - upon written authorization facility must hold, safeguard, manage and account for personal funds of resident deposited with facility - funds over $50 must be deposited in interest bearing account separate from any facility operating acounts, in pooled accounts there must be separate accounting for each residents share - funds less than $50 in non-interest bearing accounts, interest bearing account, or petty cash fund - exception is Medicare SNF resident minimum is $100 to interest bearing account

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26
Q

Personal funds accounting and records

A

Facility must establish and maintain system with full complete and separate accounting of each resident’s personal funds entrusted to facility - must preclude any commingling of resident funds with facilitiy funds or funds of any person other than another resident - individual record must be available through quarterly statements and on request to resident or legal representative

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27
Q

Personal funds notice of certain balances

A

Facility must notify each residents that receives Medicaid when amount in account reaches $200 less than SSI resource limit for 1 person - If amount in addition to value of residents other nonexempt resources reaches SSI resource limit for 1 person, the resident may lose eligibility for Medicaid or SSI

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28
Q

Personal funds conveyance upon death

A

Upon death of resident with personal fund deposited with the facility, the facilty must convey within 30 days the resident’s funds and final accounting of those funds to individual or probate jurisdiction administering the estate

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29
Q

Personal funds assurance of financial security

A

The facilty must purchase a surety bond or toherwise provide assurance for the security of all personal funds of residents deposited with the facility

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30
Q

Personal funds limits on charges

A

Facilty may not charge agains personal funds any item or services which payment is made under Medicaid or Medicare (except applicable deductible and coinsurance) - facility may charge for requested services more expensive than or in excess of covered services

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31
Q

Services/items which may not be charged under Medicare or Medicaid

A

Nursing services, dietary services, activitiy programs, room/bed maintenance, routine personal hygiene items and services (hair, soap, cleansing agents, razor, toothbrush, lotion, deodorant, incontinence, towels, OTC drugs, laundry, ect.), medically related social services

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32
Q

Services/Items which may be charged under Medicare or Medicaid

A

May be charged if requested by resident, if facility informs resident there will be charge and there is no MA or MC payment - telephone, personal TV/radio, personal comfort items (smoking, novelties, confections), cosmetic/grooming in excess of covered items, personal clothing, personal reading matter, gifts, flowers/plants, socal events and entertainment outside scope of activities programs, noncovered special care services (private nurse/aide), private room unless therapeutically required (isolation), specially prepared or alternative food instead of what is offered by facility

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33
Q

Personal funds requests for items/services

A

Facility must not charge resident for any item or service on requested by resident, facility may not require resident request any item or services as condition of admission or stay, facility must inform resident of charge for any item or service and what charge will be

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34
Q

Rights - eligibility for Medicaid

A

description of requirements and procedures for establishing eligibility for Medicaid, including right to request and assessment which determines extent of couples non-exempt resources at the time of admission and attributes to the community spouse an equitable share of resources which can’t be considered available for payment toward the cost of admitted spouses medical care in his or her process of Medicaid spending down

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35
Q

Protection and Advocacy network

A

refers to system established to prtect and advocate the rights of individuals with developmental disabilities, and the prtection and advocacy system established under the protection and advocacy for mentally ill individuals act

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36
Q

Rights - posted information

A

posting of names, addresses, phone numbers to all pertinent state client advocacy groups such as State survey and certification agency, licensure office, ombudsman, protection and advocacy network, and Medicaid fraud control, and a statement that the resident my file a complaint with the agency concerting abuse, neglect, misappropriation of resident property and noncompliance with advance directives

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37
Q

Rights - Advance Directives

A

Facilty must maintain written policies and procedures regarding advance directives, including provisions to inform and provide written information to all residents concerning the right to accept or refuse medical or surgical treatment and the individuals option, formulate an advance directive, including wirtten descripton of facilities policies to inplement advance directives and applicable State law

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38
Q

Rights - Physician information

A

Facility must inform each resident of name, specialty and way to contact the physician responsible for their care

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39
Q

Rights - Medicare/Medicaid benefits appy

A

Facility must prominently display written information and provide residents and applicants for admission oral and written information about how to apply for and use Medicare and Medicaid benefits, and receive refunds for previous payments covered by such benefits

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40
Q

Rights - Notification of change

A

Facility must immediately inform resident; resident physician;legal representative; interested family member when - an accident involving resident which results in injury and has potential for physician intervention, significan change in physical, mental or psychosocial status, need to alter treatment significantly, decision to transfer or discharge resident from facility, change in room or roommate assignment, change in resident rights

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41
Q

Demographic contact information

A

Facility must record and periodically update adress and phone number of resident’s legal representative or interested family member

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42
Q

Personal funds

A

Facility must have written authorization,

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43
Q

Basic personal laundry

A

does not include dry cleaning, mending, washing by hand or other specialty services resident may be charged for these services

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44
Q

Hair hygiene supplies

A

refers to combs, brush, shapmoo, trims, simple hari cuts provided by faciltiy staff as part of routine grooming, hair cuts, ect performed by beauticians not employed by facility may be charged

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45
Q

Nail hygiene services

A

routine trimming, cleaning, filing and individually care for ingrown or damaged nails but not polishing of undamaged nails

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46
Q

Rights - personal physician

A

Resident has right to choose peronal physician - however if physician fails to fulfill requirements, facility has the right after informing resident to seek alternate physician participation to assure provision of appropriate and adequate care/treatment, facility may not place barriers to resident choosing own physician, facility may require physician be choosed from ones with practice privileges at facility

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47
Q

Rights - Privacy and confidentiality

A

Resident has right to privacy and confidentiality of personal and clinical records

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48
Q

Rights - Personal privacy

A

includes accommondations, medical treatment, written and phone communications, personal care, visits, meetings of family and resident groups, does not require private rooms

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49
Q

Rights - Records

A

Resident may approve or refuse release of personal and clinical records to any individual outside facility, right to refuse does not apply when resident is transferred to another health institution or release is required by law

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50
Q

Rights - Confidential records

A

Facility must keep all information in resident records regardless of form or storage except when release is required by - transfer to another health care institution, law, thrid party payment contract, the resident

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51
Q

Rights - Grievances

A

Resident has right to voice grievances without descrimination or reprisal, including respect to treatment, furnished or not furnished

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52
Q

Rights - Resolve grievances

A

Prompt efforts by facility to resolve grievances including those regarding behavior of other residents

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53
Q

Rights - Survey

A

Resident has right to examine results of most recent survey, results placed readily accessible to residents and post notice of their availablility

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54
Q

Rights - client advocacy

A

resident has right to receive information from agencies and have the opportunity to contact these agencies

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55
Q

Rights - Work

A

resident may refuse to perform services for facility, perform services for facility if they choose when - faciliyt documents the need or desire for work in plan of care, plan specifies the nature of services and if voluntary or paid, compensation for paid services are at or above prevailing wages, resident agrees to arrangement in plan of care

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56
Q

Rights - Mail

A

Resident has right to privacy in written communications, send and receive mail promptly and unopened, access to stationery, postage, writing implements at residents own expense

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57
Q

Promptly - regarding mail

A

Delivery of mail to resident within 24 hours of delivery by postal service, delivery to postal service within 24 hours except when there is no scheduled postal delivery or pick up

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58
Q

Rights - Access and visitation

A

Resident has right and facility must provide immediate access to any resident - any representative of the secretary, representative of the state, residents individual physician, ombudsman, agency responsible for protection for develpmentally disabled, agency responsible for protection of mentally ill, immediate family or other relatives, others who are visiting with consent of resident, reasonable access by any entity providing health, social, legal or other services to resident

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59
Q

Ombudsman access

A

Facility must allow ombudsman to examine resident’s clinical records with permission of resident or representative

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60
Q

Rights - Telephone

A

Resident has right to reasonable access to phone where calls are not overheard, reasonable access means phones at hright accessible to wheelchairs, adapting phones for impared hearing

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61
Q

Rights - Personal Property

A

Resident has right ot retain and use personal items including furnishing, appropriate clothing, as space permits unless it would infringe upon rights, health or safety of other residents

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62
Q

Rights - Married couples

A

Resident has right to share room with spouse when in same facility and both consent, payment sources may prevent this, the facility is not required to compel another resident to relocate to accomidate a spouse

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63
Q

Rights - Self Administration of Drugs

A

Resident may self administer durgs if the interdisciplinary team determines this is safe

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64
Q

Rights - Refusal of transfer

A

Resident has right to refuse transfer to another room if purpose is to relocate - from SNF to non SNF room or NF to SNF room, refusal to transfer does not affect eligibility or entitlement to Medicare or Medicaid benefits

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65
Q

Transfer & Discharge definition

A

includes movement of resident to a bed outside of the certified facility whether that bed is in the same physical plant or not, transfer and discharge does NOT refer to movement of a resident to a bed within the same certified facility

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66
Q

Transfer

A

moving the resident from the facility to another leggally responsible institutional setting, including moving resident from FN bed to SNF bed withing facility if they are under separate provider agreements

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67
Q

Discharge

A

moving resident to a non-intitutional setting when the releasing facility ceases to be responsible for the residents care

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68
Q

Transfer & Discharge restrictions

A

may not transfer or discharge unless - is necessary to meet welfare and the welfare can’t be met in facility, appropriate because health has improved services no longer needed, saftey of individuals in facility is endangered or would otherwise be endangered, resident has failed after notice to pay for stay, facility ceases to operate, any of these must be documented in clinical record, notice must be given including right to appeal

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69
Q

Exception to 30 day notice

A

Endangerment to health or safety of others, resident’s health improved to allow immedicate transfer or discharge, urgent medical needs, has not resided in facility for 30 days

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70
Q

Transfer & Discharge documentation

A

If transfered for welfare or improved health documentation must be made by residents physician

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71
Q

Rights - Notice before transfer

A

Before transfer or discharge facility must - notify resident and if known family member or legal representative of transfer or discharge and reasons for move in writing and language they understand, record reasons in clinical record

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72
Q

Rights - Timing of Notice

A

Except in exception notice of transfer or discharge must be made by the facility at least 30 days before transfer or discharge

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73
Q

Rights - Contents of notice

A

Written notice must include - reason for transfer or discharge, effective date, location to which resident is being transfered or discharged to, statement that resident has right to appeal to State, contact information for ombudsman, contact information for agency providing advocacy for developmentally disabilities, contact information for agency providing advocacy for mentally ill

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74
Q

Rights - Orientation for transfer or discharge

A

Facility must provide sufficient preparation oand orientation to residents to ensure safe and orderly transfer or discharge

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75
Q

Notice bed hold policy notice before transfer

A

2 notieces required, first notice of bed-hold policies provides written infomration of duration of bed-hold policy under State plan may be issued ahead of time but must be reissued if State or facility bed-hold policy changes, second notice specifies duration of the bed-hold policy must be issued at time of transfer, in ER it must be provided with written notification within 24 hours of transfer requirement is met if notice is sent with other papers accompanying the resident to hospital

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76
Q

Bed-hold days in excess

A

considered non-covered swervices which resident could use own income to pay ofr bed-hold, Non Medicaid residents may be requested to pay for all days of bed-hold

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77
Q

Return to facility

A

Facility must establish written policy which resident whose hospitalization or leave exceeds the bed-hold period under State plan, is readmitted to facility immediately upon first availablitliy of bed in semi-private room if resident requires services of facilty and is eligible for Medicaid facility services

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78
Q

Equal access to quality care

A

facility must establish and maintain identical policies and practices regarding transfer, discharge and services under the State plan for all individuals regardless of source of payment

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79
Q

Charges

A

Facility may charge any amount for services frnished to non-Medicaid residents consistent with notice requirements and describing the charges

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80
Q

Admission policy

A

Facility must not require residents or potential residents to waive rights to Medicare or Medicaid, require oral or written assurance that they will not apply for Medicare or Medicaid

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81
Q

Payment - third party guarantee

A

facility may not require third party guarantee of payment as condition of admission or stay however facility may require individual with legal access to residents income to pay for facility to sign contract with no personal financial liablility to provide payment from residents income

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82
Q

Restraints

A

resident has right to be free from any physical or chemical restraints imposed for discipline or convenience and not required to treat the resident’s medical symptoms

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83
Q

Physical restraints

A

any manual method, physical or mechanical device, material, equipment attached or adjacent to resident’s body that individual conat remove easily which restricts freedom oof movement or normal access to one’s body

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84
Q

Chemical restraints

A

any drug that is used for disipline of convenience and not required to treat medical symptoms

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85
Q

Discipline

A

any action taken by facility for the purose of punishing or penalizing residents

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86
Q

Convenience

A

any action taken by the faciltiy to control a residents behavior or manage a residents behavior with a lesser amount of effort by the facility and not in the residents best interest

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87
Q

Medical symptom

A

an indication or characteristic of a physical or psychological condition

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88
Q

Rights - Abuse

A

resident has right to be free from verbal, sexual, physical, and mental abuse, corporal punishment and involuntary seclusion, from anyone

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89
Q

Abuse

A

willful infliction of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or punishment with resultin gphysical harm, pain or mental anguish, this also includes the deprivation of an individual of goods or services necessary to attain or maintain well-being

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90
Q

Verbal abuse

A

useof oral, wirtten or gestured language that willfully includes disparaging and derogatory terms to residents or their families within their hearing distance,m regardless of age, comprehension or disability

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91
Q

Sexual abuse

A

sexual harassment, seual coercion, or sexual assault

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92
Q

Physical abuse

A

hitting, slapping, pinching and kicking, controlling behavior thorugh corporal punishment

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93
Q

Mental abuse

A

humiliation, harassment, threats of punishment or deprivation

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94
Q

Involuntary seclusion

A

separation of resident from other residents or from their room or to their room against residnts will, ER or short term selclusion may be permited if limied time and as therapeutic intervention to reduce agitation until plan of care to meet needs is made

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95
Q

Staff treatment of residents

A

facility must develop and implement written polices and procedures that prohibit mistreatment, neglect and abuse of residents and misappropriation of property

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96
Q

Neglect

A

failure to provide goods and services necessary to avoid physical harm, mental naguish, or mental illness

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97
Q

Misappropriation of resident property

A

deliberage misplacement, exploitation, or wrongful, temporary or permanent use of resident’s belongings or money withouth the resident’s concent

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98
Q

7 components for abuse policies

A

screening, training, prevention, identification, investigation, protection and reporting/response

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99
Q

Screening

A

screen potential emplloyees for history of abuse, neglect, mistreating residents through references, checking licensure, registires

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100
Q

Training

A

through orientation, sessions on issues about abuse, appropriate interventions for aggressive or catastrophic reactions of residents, how to report allegations, how to recognize burnout, frustration, stress, what constitutes abuse, neglect, misappropriation

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101
Q

Prevention

A

Provide information to reseidents, families and staff on how and whom to report concerns, incidents, grievances and provide feedback regarding concerns expressed, analysis of phsical environment such as secluded areas, deployment of staff in sufficient numbers to meet needs of residents, supervision of staff to identify inappropriate behaviors, assessment, care planning and monitoring of resident swit hneeds and behaviors which might lead to conflict or neglect such as residents with agressive behaviors, self-injurious behaviors, communication disorders, heavy nursing care

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102
Q

Identification

A

Identify events such as bruising of residents, occurrences, patterns and treands

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103
Q

Investigation

A

have procedures to investigate different types of incidents, identify staf memeber responsible for inititial reproting, investigation of alleged violations and reporting of results to authorities

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104
Q

Protection

A

Procedures to protect residents from harm during investigation

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105
Q

Reporting/Response

A

Procedures to reprot all alleged violations and substantiated incidents to state agency and other agencies as required, and take corrective actions depending on results, reprot to nurse aide registry or licensing authorities any knowledge of any actions by court of law indicating employee unfit for service, determine what changes are needed if any to prevent further occurances

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106
Q

Employment requirements

A

Facility must not employ individuals found guilty o fabuse, neglect or mistreating residents by court of law, or have finding entered into State nurse aide registry concerning abuse, neglect, mistreatment of residents or misappropriation of property

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107
Q

Finding

A

determination made by State that validates allegations of abuse, neglect, mistreatment of residents, or misappropriation o ftheri property

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108
Q

Investigation results

A

All investigation results must be reported within 5 working days of the incident and if the alleged violation is verified appropriate corrective action must be taken

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109
Q

Investigation documentation

A

Facility must have evidence that all alleged violations are throughly investigated and must prevent further potential abuse while investigation is in progress

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110
Q

Injury of unknown source

A

Both conditions met - source of injury not observed by any person or the source could not be explained by the resident AND injury is suspicious because of extent of injury or the location or number of injuries observed at one particular point in time, or the incidence of injuries over time

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111
Q

Immediately

A

As soon as possible but out not exceed 24 hours after discovery of incident

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112
Q

Quality of Life

A

Facility must care for its residents in a manner and environment that promotes maintenance or enhancement of each resident’s quality of life

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113
Q

Dignity

A

Facility must promote care for residents in manner and environment that maintains or enhances each residents dignity and respect in full recognition of their individuality

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114
Q

Dignity examples

A

grooming as resident wishes, dressing in own clothes, attending activities of choosing, labeling clothing respectfully, avoiding plastic cutlery, paper dishware, bibs instead of napkins, staff standing over residents to help eat, staff talking to each other rather than residents, respecting residnts space and property, speaking respectfully to residents, avoiding labels for residents, addressing residents as individuals when providing care, focusing on residents, maintaining environment with no signs posted in resident rooms or public including personal or confidential information, cover catheter bags, comply with toileting assistance requests, restricting from use of common areas

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115
Q

Rights - Self Determination, Participation

A

Resident has right to - choose activities, schedules, and health care consistant with interests, assessments and plans of care, interact with members of community in and out of facility, make choices about life in facility that are significant to resident

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116
Q

Rights - Resident and Family groups

A

Resident has right to organize and participate in resident groups, family has right to meed in facility with other families, facility must provide private space for these meetings, staff or visitors may attend with invitation, facility must provide staff responsible for assistance and responding to requests from group, facility must lesten to and act upon grievances and recommendations of group

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117
Q

Resident or Family group

A

group that meets regularly to discuss and offer suggestions about facility policies and procedures affecting residents care, treatment and quality of life, support each other, plan activities, participate in educational activities, for any other purpose

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118
Q

Resident or Family groups responsibilites

A

Not requried, however must be allowed without interferance if desired, facility must listen to recommendations and grievances, facility does not have to accede to recommendations but must seriously consider recomendations and attampt to accomodate to the extent practiable, facility should communicate decisions to group

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119
Q

Rights - Participate in other activities

A

Resident has right o participate in social, religious, and community activities that do not interfere with right s of other residents in facility

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120
Q

Rights - Accomodation of Needs

A

Resident has right to reside and receive services in faciltiy with reasonable accomodations on needs and preferences, except when health or safety of the individual or another would be endangered

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121
Q

Rights - Room changes

A

Resident has right to receive notice before the residents room or roommate in the facility is changed

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122
Q

Activities

A

Facility must provide ongoing program of activities designed to meet, in accordance wiht assessment the interests, physical, mental and psychosocial well-being of each resident

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123
Q

Activities - definition

A

any endeavor, other than routine ADL’s that resident participates in intended to enhance the sense of well-being and promote or enhance physical, cognitive and emotional health

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124
Q

One-to-One programming

A

programming provided to residents who will not or cannot plan their own activities pursuits or residents needing specialized or extended programs to enhance their daily routine and activities

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125
Q

Person Appropriate

A

idea that each resident has personal identity and history that involves more than just their medical illnessess or functional impairments, Activities should be relevant to specific needs, interests, culture, background o fthe individual whom they are developed

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126
Q

Program of Activity

A

combination of large and small group, one-to-one and self directed activities and a system that supports the development, implementation and evaluation of the activies provided to the residents

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127
Q

Care Planning - Activites

A

involves identification o fresident’s interestes, preferences and abilities and any issues concerns, problems or needs affecting resident involvement in activities, information may also be found in separate activity plan , on CNA flow chart, in progress notes

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128
Q

Activity Goals

A

Should be based on measurable objectives and focused on desired outcomes, not merely on attendance at certain number of activies per week

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129
Q

Activities Director qualifications

A

Qualified therapeutic recreation specialist or activities professional who - licensed or registered if applicable by State, eligible for certification as therapeutic recriation specialist or activities professional by accrediting body or has 2 years experience in social or recreational program within last 5 years, 1 of which was full time in patient activities program in health care setting, or qualified occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant or completed training course approved by State

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130
Q

Social Services

A

Facility must provide medically related social services to attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well being of each resident

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131
Q

Medically-related social services

A

services provided by the facilities staff to assest residents in maintaining or improving their ability to manage their everyday physical, mental, and psychosocial needs

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132
Q

Social Services includes -

A

arrangements for adaptive equpment, clothing, personal items, reproting changes, encouragement to participate in care planning, assisting to inform about health status and health care choices, referrals and obtaining outside services, assisting with financial and legal matters, discharge planning services, arranging or providing counseling services, support individual needs, enhancing and maintinging resident dignity, providing alternatives to drug herapy or restraints, options to help physical and emotional needs,

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133
Q

FT social worker

A

facility with more than 120 beds must employ qualified social worker full time

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134
Q

Social worker qualifications

A

bachelors degree in social work or human services field - sociology, special education, rehabilitation, counseling, psychology and 1 year supervised social work experience in health care setting working directly with individuals

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135
Q

Environment

A

Facility must provide safe, clean, comfortable and homelike environment allwing the resident to use his or her personal belongings to the extent possible

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136
Q

Homelike environment

A

one tha tde-emphasizes the institutional character of the setting to the extent possible and allows the resident to use those personal belongings that support a homeloke environment.

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137
Q

Housekeeping and Maintenance

A

Services are necessary to maintain a nsanitary, orderly, and comfortable interior

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138
Q

Sanitary

A

includes but not limited to, preventing spread of disease by keeping resident care equipment clean and properly stored

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139
Q

Orderly

A

an uncludttered pahysical environment that is neat and well-kept

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140
Q

Linens

A

Clean bed and bath linens that are in good condition

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141
Q

Lighting

A

Adequate and comfortable lighting levels in all areas

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142
Q

Adequate lighting

A

levels of illumination suitable to tasks the resident chooses to perform or the facilty staff must perform

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143
Q

Comfortable lighting

A

minimizes glare and provides maximum resident control, where feasible, over th eintensity, location and direction of illumination so tha tvisually impaired residents can maintain or enhance independent functioning

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144
Q

Comfortable and safe temperatures levels

A

the ambient temperature should be a narrow range that minimizes susceptibity to loss of body heat and risk of hypothermia range between 71 - 81 degrees

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145
Q

Comfortable sound levels

A

levels that do not interfere with resident’s hearing and enhance privacy when provacy is desired and encourage interaction when social participation is desired, particular concern is to resident’s control over unwanted noise

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146
Q

Admission orders

A

At time resident is admitted the facility must have physician orders for residents immediate care

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147
Q

Resident Assessment

A

Facility must conduct initially and periodically a comprehensive accurate standardized reproducible assessment of each residents functional capacity

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148
Q

Physicians orders for immediate care

A

written orders faciltiy needs to provide essential care to resident consistent with residents mental and physical stauts upon admission including at leave dietary, drugs, routine care

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149
Q

Intent of assessment

A

to provide facility with information to develop care plan to provide appropriate care and services and to modify care plan based on residents status

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150
Q

Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)

A

facility must make comprehensive assessemnt of residents needs using RAI specified by the State

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151
Q

RAI - must include

A
identification and demographic info
customary routine
cognitive patterns
communication
vision
mood and behavior patterns
psychological well-being
physical functioning and stuctural problems
continence
disease diagnosis and health conditions
dental and nutritional status
skin conditions
activity pursuit
medications
special treatments and procedures
discharge potential
documenation of participation in assessment
documentation of summary information regarding the additional assessment on care areas triggered by completion on MDS
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152
Q

Customary routine

A

information regarding residents usual community lifestyle and daily routine in the year prior to date of entry to nursing home

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153
Q

Cognitive patterns

A

residents ability to problem solve, decide, remember, and be aware of and respond to safety hazards

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154
Q

Communitcation

A

ability to hear, understand others, make understood

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155
Q

Vision

A

visual acutity, limitations and difficulties and appliances used to enhance vision

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156
Q

Mood and behavior patterns

A

residents patterns of mood an dbehavioral symptoms

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157
Q

Psychosocial well-being

A

resident’s positive or negative feelings about self or social relationships

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158
Q

Physical functioning and structural problems

A

residents physical functional status, ability to perform activities of daily living and residents need for staff assistance and assistive devices or equipment to maintain or improve fuctional abilities

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159
Q

Continence

A

residents patterns of bladder and bowel continence pattern of elimination and appliances used

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160
Q

Dental condition status

A

condition of teeth, gums an dother sturctures of oral cavity that may affect residents nutritional status, commuication or quality of life

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161
Q

Nutritional status

A

weight, height, hematologic and biochemical assessments, clinical observations of nutrition, nutritional intake, residents eating habits and preferences, dietary restirctions, supplements and use of applances

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162
Q

Skin conditions

A

residents development or risk of development of pressure sores

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163
Q

Activity pursuit

A

resident’s ability and desire to take part in activities which maintain or improve, physical, mental and psychosocial well-being

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164
Q

Medications

A

all prescription and over-the-counter medications taken by resident including dosage, frequency of administration and recognition of sidnificant side effects most likely to occur - this does not need to be in assessment but must be in clinical record and care plan

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165
Q

Special treatments and procedures

A

treatments and procedures not part of basic services provided

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166
Q

Discharge potential

A

facilities expectation of dischargeing resident from facility within next 3 months

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167
Q

Documentation of participation in assessment

A

who participated in assessment process, including direct observation and communcation with resident as well as with licensed and nonlicensed care staff

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168
Q

Comprehensive Assessment done within

A

14 calendar days after admission excluding readmissions in which there is no significant change in physical or mental condition

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169
Q

Assessment after significant change within

A

14 days after determines or should have determined there has been significan change in physical or mental condition

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170
Q

Significant change

A

Major decline or improvement in residents status that will not normally resolve itself without further intervention by staff or by implementing standard disease-related clinical interventions that has an impact on more than one area of the residents health status, and requires interdisciplinary review or revision of the care plan

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171
Q

Significant change reassessment indicated

A

resident elects, and revokes hospice benefit

if decline or improvement is consistently noted in 2 or more areas of decline or improvement

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172
Q

Annual resident assessment frequency

A

Must be completed within 366 days after the ARD of most recent comprehensive resident assessment

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173
Q

Quarterly review assessment frequency

A

Facility must assess resident using quarterly review instrument specified by State not less than once every 3 months

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174
Q

ARD

A

Assessement reference date

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175
Q

Resident assessments maintained for

A

facility must maintain all resident assessments completed within the previous 15 months in the residents active record

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176
Q

Thinned RAI information

A

after 15 month period RAI information may be thinned from clinical record and stored provided it is easily retrievable if requested

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177
Q

Encoding Data

A

Within 7 days after factility completes residents assessment facility must encode: admission assessment, annual assessment updates, sidnificant change in status assessments, quarterly review assessments, subset of items upon transfer, reentry, discharge and death, background infomration if no admissionm assessment for each resident in facility

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178
Q

Encoding time frames

A

7 days after assessment completed facility must be capable of transmitting, must be transmitted withing 14 days after assessment completed

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179
Q

Transmittal requirments

A

Facility must electronically transmit at least monthly MDS data to state for all assessments conducted during previous month

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180
Q

Data format

A

Facility must transmit data in format specified or approved by CMS

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181
Q

Encoding

A

Entering MDS infomration into computer

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182
Q

Transmitting data

A

electronically sending encoded MDS from the facility to teh QIES ASAP system

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183
Q

Capable of transmitting

A

facility has encoded and edited according to CMS specifications, the record accurately reflects residents overall clinical status

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184
Q

Passing standard edits

A

Encoded responses to MDS items are consistent and within range in accordance with CMS standards

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185
Q

Accuracy of assessment - reg

A

Assessment must accurately reflect the residents status

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186
Q

Accuracy of assessment - def

A

the appropriate, qualified health professional correctly documents the resident’s medical, functional, psychosocial problems and identifies resident strengths to maintain or improve medical status, functional and psychosocial problems and identifies resident strengths to maintain or improve status, intitial comprehensive assessment provides baseline data for ongoing assessment

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187
Q

Coordination of assessment

A

RN must conduct or coordinate each assessment wiht the appropriate participation of health professionals

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188
Q

Certification of assessment

A

RN must sign and certify that assessment is completed, each individual who completes portion of assessment must sign and certify the accuracy of that protion of assessment

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189
Q

Penalty for falsification

A

CMS any person who certifies a material and false statment in assessment is subject to penalty of not more than $1,000 per assessement, or causes another to certify a false statment in assessment is subject to penalty of not more than $5,000 per assessment - Clinical disagreement does not constitute a material and false statement

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190
Q

Comprehensive care plan

A

Facility must develop care plan that includes measureable objectives and timetables to meet residents medical, nursing, mental and psychosocial needs that are identified in comprehensive assessment

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191
Q

Care plan must include

A

services that are to be furnished to attain or maintain highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well being,
any services that would be provided but are not provided due to residents right to refuse

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192
Q

CAA

A

care area assessment

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193
Q

CAA summary

A

should show evidence of residents status triggered in CAA areas, facilities rationale for deciding whether to proceed with care planning, evidence thta facility considered the development of care planning interventions for all CAA’s triggered by MDS

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194
Q

Resident participation in care plan

A

Resident has right unless adjudged incompetent or incapacitated under State law to participate in planning care and treatment or changes in care or treatment

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195
Q

Participate in planning care and treatment

A

Resident is afforded opportunity to select from alternative treatments, this applies to both initial dcisions and changes in care and treatments

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196
Q

Comprehensive care plan must be - time

A

developed within 7 days after completion of comprehensive assessment

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197
Q

Comprehensive care plan must be - who

A

prepared by interdisciplinary team including: attending physician, RN with resonsibilities for resident, other appropriate staff in disciplines as determined by residents needs, resident, residents family or legal representative as practicable

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198
Q

Comprehensive care plan review

A

periodically reviewed and revised by team of qualified persons after each assessment

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199
Q

Services provided or arranged by facility must

A

Meet professional standards of quality and be provided by qualified persons in accordance with each residents plan of care

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200
Q

Professional standards of quality

A

services that are provided according to accepted standards of clinical practice

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201
Q

Discharge summary

A

when facility anticipates discharge resident must have discharge summary that includes - recapitulation of resident stay, final summary of resident status including items in assessment, post-discharge plan of care

202
Q

Coordination - assessements

A

facility must coordinate assessments with pre-admission screening and resident review program under Medicard to avoid duplicative testing and effort

203
Q

Preadmission screening - mental illness/mental retardation

A

Facility must not admit new residents with Mental illness or mental retardation, unless State authority has determined that physical and mental condition requires level of services in nursing facility and if individual requres specialized services for mental retardation

204
Q

Specialized services

A

Services the State is required to provide or arrange for that raise the intensity of services to the level needed by resident, they are an add-on to NF services and are hight intensity than rehabilitation services provided by NF

205
Q

Exemptions for mentally ill screening

A

If they are certified by physician prior to admission to require NF stay less than 30 days and require care at nursing facility for same condition for which they were hospitalized

206
Q

Intent of quality of care

A

facility must ensure that resident obtains optimal improvement or does not deteriorate within the limits of residents right to refuse treatment and limits of the normal aging process

207
Q

Arterial ulcer

A

ulceration that occurs as the result of arterial occlusive disease when non-pressure related disruption or blockage of the arterial blood flow to an area causes tissue necrosis

208
Q

Venous ulcer (stasis ulcer)

A

open lesion of skin and subcutaneous tissue of lower leg

209
Q

Diabetic neuropathic ulcer

A

resident must be diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and have peripheral neuropathy

210
Q

ADL

A

Activities of daily living - bathe, dress and groom, transfer and ambulate, toilet, eat, use speech, language or other functional communication systems

211
Q

Activities of daily living abilities

A

Based on comprehensive assessment facility must ensure that residents ADL abilities do not diminish unless it is part of the clinical condition that was unavoidable

212
Q

Independent

A

Resident completed activity with no help or staff oversight, or help/oversight only 1 or 2 times in prior 7 days

213
Q

Supervision

A

Oversight encouragement or cuing provided 3 or more times during last 7 days or supervision + physical assistance provided 1 or 2 times in last 7 days

214
Q

Limited Assistance

A

Resident highly involved in activity and received physical hlep in guided maneuvering of limbs and/or other non-weight bearing assistance 3 or more times in last 7 days

215
Q

Extensive Assistance

A

While resident performed part of activity over last 7 days help of either was provided 3 or more times - either weight bearing support 3 or more times or full staff performance of activity during part of last 7 days

216
Q

Total dependence

A

Full staff performance of an activity with no participation by resident for any aspect of the ADL, resident was unwilling or unable to perform any part of the activity over entire last 7 days

217
Q

Activities of daily living treatments

A

Resident is given appropriate treatement and services to maintian or improve abilitities for ADL’s

218
Q

Activities of daily living assistance

A

Resident who is unable to carry out ADL’s receives necessary services to maintain good nutrition, grooming and personal and oral hygiene

219
Q

Vision and hearing

A

Resident receives proper treatment and assistive devices to maintain vision and hearing abilities facility must make appointments and arrange for transportation to the appointments

220
Q

Pressure sores - developing

A

Based on comprehensive assessment facility must ensure that resident who enters facility without pressure sores does not develop pressure sores unless clinical condition demonstrates they were unavoidable

221
Q

Pressure sores - existing

A

Based on comprehensive assessment facility must ensure resident having pressure sores receives necessary treatment and services to promote healing, prevent infection and prevent new sores from developing

222
Q

Pressure ulcer

A

any lesion caused by unrelieved pressure tha tresults in damage to the underlying tissue, although friction and shear are not primary causes they are important contributing factors to development

223
Q

Avoidable

A

resident developed pressure ulcer and facility did not do one or more of the following: define and implement interventions consistent with resident needs, goals and recogized standards of practice, monitor and evaluate impact of interventions or revise interventions as appropriate

224
Q

Unavoidable

A

resident developed pressure ulcer even though facility had evaluated clinical condition and risk factors, defined and implemented interventions consisitent with needs, goals, recognized standards of practice, monitored and evaluated impact of interventions and revised approaches as appropriate

225
Q

Cleansing

A

use of appropriate device and solution to clean surfacxe of wound bed and remove foreign debris or contaminants in order to decrease microbial growth

226
Q

Irrigation

A

type of mechanical debridement which uses appropriate solution delivered under pressure to the wound bed to remove debris from wound bed

227
Q

Colonized

A

presence of bacteria on the surface or in the tissue of a wound without signs and symptoms of infection

228
Q

Infected

A

presence of micro-organisms in sufficient quanitity to overwhelm defenses of viable tissues and produce the signs and symptoms of infection

229
Q

Debridement

A

removal of devialized/necrotic tissue and foreign matter from a wound to improve or facilitate the healing process

230
Q

Autolytic debridement

A

use of moisture retentive dressings to cover a wound and allow devitalized tissue to self digest by action of enzymes present in wound fluids

231
Q

Enzymatic (chemical) debridement

A

topical application of substances to break down devitalized tissue

232
Q

Mechanical debridement

A

removal of foreign material and devitalized or contaminated tissue from wound by phyical rather than chemical or autolytic means

233
Q

Sharp or surgical debridement

A

removal of foreign material or deviatlized tissue by surgical instrument

234
Q

Maggot debridement therapy

A

sterilie intentional biological debridement using sterile maggots to clean wounds by dissolving the dead and infected tissue and killing bacteria

235
Q

Eschar

A

thick leathery, frequently black or brown in color necortic or deviatlized tissue that has lost its usual physical properties and activity, may be loose or firmly adhered to the wound

236
Q

Slough

A

necrotic tissue in process of separating from the viable portions of the body usually light colored, soft, moist and stringy

237
Q

Exudate

A

any fluid that has been forced out of the tissues or capillaries because of inflamation or injury, may contain serum, cellular debris, bacteria and leukocytes

238
Q

Purulent exudate/drainage, discharge

A

any product of inflammation that contains pus

239
Q

Serous drainage of exudate

A

watery, clear or slightly yellow/tan/pink fluid that has separated from teh blood and presents as drainage

240
Q

Friction

A

mechanical force exerted on skin that is dragged across any surface

241
Q

Shearing

A

indication of both gravity and friction against the surfact of the skin, shearing occurs when layers of skin rub against each other or when the skin remains stationary and the underlying tissue moves and stretches and angulates or tears the underlying capillaries and blood vessels causing tissue damage

242
Q

Granulation tissue

A

pink-red moist tissue that fills an dopen wound when it starts to heal

243
Q

Tunneling

A

passageway of tissue destruction under the skin surfact that has an opening at the skin level from the edge of the wound

244
Q

Sinus tract

A

cavity or channel underlying a wound that involves an area larger than the visible surface of the wound

245
Q

Undermining

A

destruction of tissue or ulceration extending under th eskin edges so that the pressur ulcer is larger at its base than at the skin surgace, often develops from shearing forces and is different from tunneling by the larger extent of the wound edge involved in undermining an the absenceof a channel or tract extending from the pressure ulcer under th adjacent intact skin

246
Q

Stage 1

A

observable pressure related alteration of intact skin whose indicators as compared to another area my include changes in skin temp, tissue consistency, sensation, defined area of persistent redness, red, blue, purple hues

247
Q

Stage 2

A

Partial thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with red pink wound bed without slough, may also present as intact or ruptured blister

248
Q

Stage 3

A

Full thickness tissue loss, subcutaneous fat may be visible but bone, tendon, or muscle is not exposed, slough may be present but does not obscure the depth of tissue loss, may include undermining or tunneling

249
Q

Stage 4

A

Full thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon or muscle slough or eschar may be present on some parts of the wound bed, often includes undermining and tunneling

250
Q

Urinary incontinence - catheterization

A

Based on comprehensive assessment facility must ensure resident who enters facility without an indwelling catheter is not catheterized unless the residents clinical condition demonstrates that catheterization was necessary

251
Q

Urinary incontinence - UTI

A

Based on comprehensive assessment facility must ensure resident who is incontinent of bladder receives appropriate treatment and services to prevent urinary tract infections and restore as much normal bladder function as possible.

252
Q

Severity level 4

A

Immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety, facility has caused or is likely to cause serious injury, harm, impairment or death and requires imediate correction

253
Q

Severity level 4

A

Immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety, facility has caused or is likely to cause serious injury, harm, impairment or death and requires imediate correction

254
Q

Severity Level 3

A

Actual harm that is not immediate jeopardy, noncompliance that results in actual harm and can include clinical compromise, decline, or residents ability to maintain and/or reach hights practicable well being

255
Q

Severity Level 3

A

Actual harm that is not immediate jeopardy, noncompliance that results in actual harm and can include clinical compromise, decline, or residents ability to maintain and/or reach hights practicable well being

256
Q

Severity Level 2

A

No actual harm with potential for more than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy, results in resident outcome of no more than minimal discomfort and has potential to compromise hightest practicable level of well being, potential for greater harm if interventions are not provided

257
Q

Severity Level 2

A

No actual harm with potential for more than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy, results in resident outcome of no more than minimal discomfort and has potential to compromise hightest practicable level of well being, potential for greater harm if interventions are not provided

258
Q

Severity Level 1

A

No actual harm with potential for minimal harm

259
Q

Severity Level 1

A

No actual harm with potential for minimal harm

260
Q

No limits - range of motion

A

Facility must ensure that resident who enters facility without limited range of motion does not experience reduction in range of motion unless clinical condition demonstrates that reduction is unavoidable

261
Q

No limits - range of motion

A

Facility must ensure that resident who enters facility without limited range of motion does not experience reduction in range of motion unless clinical condition demonstrates that reduction is unavoidable

262
Q

Limited - range of motion

A

Factility must ensure resident with limited range of motion receives appropriate treatment and services to increase range of motion and prevent further decrease

263
Q

Limited - range of motion

A

Factility must ensure resident with limited range of motion receives appropriate treatment and services to increase range of motion and prevent further decrease

264
Q

Range of motion

A

extent of movement of joint

265
Q

Range of motion

A

extent of movement of joint

266
Q

Limited - mental and physchosocial functioning

A

Based on assessment facility must ensure resident who displays mental or psychosocial adjustment difficulty receives appropriate treatment and services to correct the assesed problem

267
Q

Limited - mental and physchosocial functioning

A

Based on assessment facility must ensure resident who displays mental or psychosocial adjustment difficulty receives appropriate treatment and services to correct the assesed problem

268
Q

No limits - mental and physchosocial

A

ensure they do not display a pattern of decreased social interaction and/or decreased social interaction, increased withdrawal, anger, depressive behaviors unless clinical condition demonstrates such pattern is unavoidable

269
Q

No limits - mental and physchosocial

A

ensure they do not display a pattern of decreased social interaction and/or decreased social interaction, increased withdrawal, anger, depressive behaviors unless clinical condition demonstrates such pattern is unavoidable

270
Q

Mental and psychosocial adjustment difficulties

A

refers to problems residents have in adapting to changes in lifes circumstances

271
Q

Mental and psychosocial adjustment difficulties

A

refers to problems residents have in adapting to changes in lifes circumstances

272
Q

No naso gastric tubes

A

Facility must ensure resident who has been able to eat alone or with assistance is not fed by naso gastric tube unless clinical condition demonstrates useof tube was unavoidable

273
Q

No naso gastric tubes

A

Facility must ensure resident who has been able to eat alone or with assistance is not fed by naso gastric tube unless clinical condition demonstrates useof tube was unavoidable

274
Q

Naso gastric tubes

A

Facility must ensure resident fed by tube receives appropriate treatment and services to prevent aspiration pneumonia, diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, metabolic abnormalities, and nasal pharyngeal ulcers and to restore if possible normal eating skills

275
Q

Naso gastric tubes

A

Facility must ensure resident fed by tube receives appropriate treatment and services to prevent aspiration pneumonia, diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, metabolic abnormalities, and nasal pharyngeal ulcers and to restore if possible normal eating skills

276
Q

Accident

A

any unexpected or unintentional incident which may result in illness or injury to resident

277
Q

Accident

A

any unexpected or unintentional incident which may result in illness or injury to resident

278
Q

Avoidable accident

A

accident occurred because facility failed to: identify hazard, evaluate hazard, implement interventions, monitor effectivness of interventions

279
Q

Avoidable accident

A

accident occurred because facility failed to: identify hazard, evaluate hazard, implement interventions, monitor effectivness of interventions

280
Q

Unavoidable accident

A

accident occurs despite facility efforts to identify hazards, evaluate hazards, implement interventions, monitor effectiveness of interventions

281
Q

Unavoidable accident

A

accident occurs despite facility efforts to identify hazards, evaluate hazards, implement interventions, monitor effectiveness of interventions

282
Q

Accidents

A

Facility must ensure that resident environment remains as free of accident hazards as possible and that each resident receives adequate supervision and assistance devices to prevent accidents

283
Q

Accidents

A

Facility must ensure that resident environment remains as free of accident hazards as possible and that each resident receives adequate supervision and assistance devices to prevent accidents

284
Q

First degree burn

A

top layer of skin (minor sunburn), red and painful to touch skin will show mild swelling

285
Q

First degree burn

A

top layer of skin (minor sunburn), red and painful to touch skin will show mild swelling

286
Q

Second degree burn

A

first two layers of skin, deep reddening of skin, pain, blisters, glossy appearance from leaking fluid possible loss of skin

287
Q

Second degree burn

A

first two layers of skin, deep reddening of skin, pain, blisters, glossy appearance from leaking fluid possible loss of skin

288
Q

Third degree burn

A

penetrate the entire thickness of the skin permanently destroy tissue, loss of skin layers, often painless, may appear charred or patches that appear white, brown or black

289
Q

Third degree burn

A

penetrate the entire thickness of the skin permanently destroy tissue, loss of skin layers, often painless, may appear charred or patches that appear white, brown or black

290
Q

Safe temperatures for bathing

A

100F or 37C

291
Q

Safe temperatures for bathing

A

100F or 37C

292
Q

Portable electrical space heaters

A

Life Safety Code prohibits use in resident areas

293
Q

Portable electrical space heaters

A

Life Safety Code prohibits use in resident areas

294
Q

Extension cords

A

Should not take place of adequate wiring, should be properly secured, not placed overhead, under carpets or rugs, anywhere it can cause trips, falls, or overheat, connected to only one device, not have grounding device removed

295
Q

Extension cords

A

Should not take place of adequate wiring, should be properly secured, not placed overhead, under carpets or rugs, anywhere it can cause trips, falls, or overheat, connected to only one device, not have grounding device removed

296
Q

Power strips

A

may be used for computer, monitor and printer, not used with medical devices, placed to prevent tripping

297
Q

Power strips

A

may be used for computer, monitor and printer, not used with medical devices, placed to prevent tripping

298
Q

Nutrition

A

Facility must ensure that resident maintains acceptable parameters of nurtitional status such as body weight and protein levels, unless the residents clinical condition demonstrates that this is not possible adn receives a therapeutic diet when there is a nutritional problem

299
Q

Nutrition

A

Facility must ensure that resident maintains acceptable parameters of nurtitional status such as body weight and protein levels, unless the residents clinical condition demonstrates that this is not possible adn receives a therapeutic diet when there is a nutritional problem

300
Q

Hydration

A

Facility must provide each resident with sufficient fluid intake to maintain proper hydration and health

301
Q

Hydration

A

Facility must provide each resident with sufficient fluid intake to maintain proper hydration and health

302
Q

Special needs ensure proper treatment and care for

A

Injections, Parenteral and enteral fluids, colostomy, ureterostomy, illeostomy care, tracheostomy care, tracheal suctioning, respiratory care, foot care, prostheses

303
Q

Special needs ensure proper treatment and care for

A

Injections, Parenteral and enteral fluids, colostomy, ureterostomy, illeostomy care, tracheostomy care, tracheal suctioning, respiratory care, foot care, prostheses

304
Q

Unnecessary drugs

A

Each resident drug regimen must be free from unnecessary drugs: excessive dose, excessive duration, without adequate monitoring, without adequate indications for its use, presence of adverse consequences, combination of any above

305
Q

Unnecessary drugs

A

Each resident drug regimen must be free from unnecessary drugs: excessive dose, excessive duration, without adequate monitoring, without adequate indications for its use, presence of adverse consequences, combination of any above

306
Q

Medication error

A

Preparation or administration of drugs or biologicals which is not in accordance with physicians orders, manufacturers specifications, accepted professional standards and principles

307
Q

Medication error

A

Preparation or administration of drugs or biologicals which is not in accordance with physicians orders, manufacturers specifications, accepted professional standards and principles

308
Q

Significant medication error

A

One which causes the resident discomfort or jeopardizes health or safety

309
Q

Significant medication error

A

One which causes the resident discomfort or jeopardizes health or safety

310
Q

Medication error rate

A

Facility must ensure that the medication error rate is 5% or less and that residents are free of any significant medication errors

311
Q

Medication error rate

A

Facility must ensure that the medication error rate is 5% or less and that residents are free of any significant medication errors

312
Q

Severity level 4

A

Immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety, facility has caused or is likely to cause serious injury, harm, impairment or death and requires imediate correction

313
Q

Severity Level 3

A

Actual harm that is not immediate jeopardy, noncompliance that results in actual harm and can include clinical compromise, decline, or residents ability to maintain and/or reach hights practicable well being

314
Q

Severity Level 2

A

No actual harm with potential for more than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy, results in resident outcome of no more than minimal discomfort and has potential to compromise hightest practicable level of well being, potential for greater harm if interventions are not provided

315
Q

Severity Level 1

A

No actual harm with potential for minimal harm

316
Q

No limits - range of motion

A

Facility must ensure that resident who enters facility without limited range of motion does not experience reduction in range of motion unless clinical condition demonstrates that reduction is unavoidable

317
Q

Limited - range of motion

A

Factility must ensure resident with limited range of motion receives appropriate treatment and services to increase range of motion and prevent further decrease

318
Q

Range of motion

A

extent of movement of joint

319
Q

Limited - mental and physchosocial functioning

A

Based on assessment facility must ensure resident who displays mental or psychosocial adjustment difficulty receives appropriate treatment and services to correct the assesed problem

320
Q

No limits - mental and physchosocial

A

ensure they do not display a pattern of decreased social interaction and/or decreased social interaction, increased withdrawal, anger, depressive behaviors unless clinical condition demonstrates such pattern is unavoidable

321
Q

Mental and psychosocial adjustment difficulties

A

refers to problems residents have in adapting to changes in lifes circumstances

322
Q

No naso gastric tubes

A

Facility must ensure resident who has been able to eat alone or with assistance is not fed by naso gastric tube unless clinical condition demonstrates useof tube was unavoidable

323
Q

Naso gastric tubes

A

Facility must ensure resident fed by tube receives appropriate treatment and services to prevent aspiration pneumonia, diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, metabolic abnormalities, and nasal pharyngeal ulcers and to restore if possible normal eating skills

324
Q

Accident

A

any unexpected or unintentional incident which may result in illness or injury to resident

325
Q

Avoidable accident

A

accident occurred because facility failed to: identify hazard, evaluate hazard, implement interventions, monitor effectivness of interventions

326
Q

Unavoidable accident

A

accident occurs despite facility efforts to identify hazards, evaluate hazards, implement interventions, monitor effectiveness of interventions

327
Q

Accidents

A

Facility must ensure that resident environment remains as free of accident hazards as possible and that each resident receives adequate supervision and assistance devices to prevent accidents

328
Q

First degree burn

A

top layer of skin (minor sunburn), red and painful to touch skin will show mild swelling

329
Q

Second degree burn

A

first two layers of skin, deep reddening of skin, pain, blisters, glossy appearance from leaking fluid possible loss of skin

330
Q

Third degree burn

A

penetrate the entire thickness of the skin permanently destroy tissue, loss of skin layers, often painless, may appear charred or patches that appear white, brown or black

331
Q

Safe temperatures for bathing

A

100F or 37C

332
Q

Portable electrical space heaters

A

Life Safety Code prohibits use in resident areas

333
Q

Extension cords

A

Should not take place of adequate wiring, should be properly secured, not placed overhead, under carpets or rugs, anywhere it can cause trips, falls, or overheat, connected to only one device, not have grounding device removed

334
Q

Power strips

A

may be used for computer, monitor and printer, not used with medical devices, placed to prevent tripping

335
Q

Nutrition

A

Facility must ensure that resident maintains acceptable parameters of nurtitional status such as body weight and protein levels, unless the residents clinical condition demonstrates that this is not possible adn receives a therapeutic diet when there is a nutritional problem

336
Q

Hydration

A

Facility must provide each resident with sufficient fluid intake to maintain proper hydration and health

337
Q

Special needs ensure proper treatment and care for

A

Injections, Parenteral and enteral fluids, colostomy, ureterostomy, illeostomy care, tracheostomy care, tracheal suctioning, respiratory care, foot care, prostheses

338
Q

Unnecessary drugs

A

Each resident drug regimen must be free from unnecessary drugs: excessive dose, excessive duration, without adequate monitoring, without adequate indications for its use, presence of adverse consequences, combination of any above

339
Q

Medication error

A

Preparation or administration of drugs or biologicals which is not in accordance with physicians orders, manufacturers specifications, accepted professional standards and principles

340
Q

Significant medication error

A

One which causes the resident discomfort or jeopardizes health or safety

341
Q

Medication error rate

A

Facility must ensure that the medication error rate is 5% or less and that residents are free of any significant medication errors

342
Q

Influenza policies & procedures

A

Ensure resident receives education regarding benefits and side effects, offered between Oct 1 and March 31 unless contraindicated or already immunized, has the opportunity to refuse, that medical record documents education, and immunization received, contraidicated, refused

343
Q

Pneumococcal policies and procedures

A

Ensure resident receives education regarding benefits and side effects, offered unless contraindicated or already immunized, has the opportunity to refuse, that medical record documents education, and immunization received, contraidicated, refused

344
Q

Nursing services

A

Facility must have sufficient nursing staff to provide nursing and related services to attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well being of each resident

345
Q

Charge nurse

A

Facility must designate a licensed nurse to serve as charge nurse on each tour of duty

346
Q

Director of Nursing

A

Facility must designate a registered nurse as director of nursing on a full time basis, DON may serve as change nurse only when the facility has an average daily occupancy of 60 or fewer residents

347
Q

Registered nurse

A

Facility must use services of registered nurse for at lease 8 consecutive hours a day, 7 days a week

348
Q

Waiver of 24 hour licensed nurse requirement

A

State may waive if: facility demonstrates that it is unable, despite diligent efforts to recruit, waiver will not endanger health or safety of residents, an RN or physician is obligated to respond immediately to calls from facility. Waiver granted subject to annual Stte review, may require other qualified licensed personnel be used, notice of waiver provided to Obudsman, residents notified of waiver

349
Q

Waiver of RN more than 40 hr requirement

A

State may waive if: facility is located in rural area and supply of SNF in area not sufficient to meet needs in area, facility has one full time RN regularly on duty 40 hours, only has patients whos Dr have indicated in writing they do not require services of RN or MD for more than 48 hours, or has made arrangements for RN or MD to spend time at facility as necessary to provide SN on days when RN not on duty, notice given to ombudsman, residents notificed, subject to annual renewal

350
Q

Posting staffing requirements

A

Facility must post daily - facility name, current date, total number and actual hours worked by RN, LPN, CNA’s, resident census, it must be in clear readable format, in prominent place accessible to residents and visitors, must maintain posted data for minimum of 18 months

351
Q

Dietary services

A

Facility must provide resident with nourishing, palatable, well balanced diet that meets daily nutritional and special dietary needs of each resident

352
Q

Dietitian staff

A

Facility must employ a qualified dietitian either full, part time or as a consultant

353
Q

Director of food service

A

If qualified dietitian is not employed full time faclity must designate a person to serve as director of food service who receives frequently sceduled consultation from qualified dietitian

354
Q

Qualified dietitian

A

Qualified based upon either registration by the Commission on Dietetic Registration of the American Deitetic Association or on the basis of education, training, or experience in identification of dietary needs, planning and implementation of dietary programs

355
Q

Sufficient support personnel - dining

A

enough staff to preparte and serve palatable, attractive, nutritionally adequate meals at proper temperatures and appropriate times and support proper sanitary techniques being utilized

356
Q

Menus

A

Must meet the needs of the residents in accorddance with recommended deitary allowances, menues and nutritional adequacy, be prepared in advance and be followed

357
Q

Food should be

A

prepared by methods that conserve nutritive value, flavor, appearance, palatable, attractive and at the proper temperature

358
Q

Food prepared in form

A

designed to meet individual needs

359
Q

Food substitutes

A

ofered of simular nutritive value to resident who refuse food served

360
Q

Therapeutic diet

A

diet ordered by physician as part of treatment for a disease or clinical condition or to eliminate or decrease specific nutrients in the dient or increase specific nutrients in the died or provide food the resident is able to eat

361
Q

Mechanically altered diet

A

the texture of a diet is altered, when texture is modified the type of texture modification must be specific and part of the physicians order

362
Q

Meal times

A

Resident receives and facility provides at least 3 meals daily at regular times comparable to normal mealtimes in the community

363
Q

Time between meals

A

There must be no more than 14 hours between substantial evening meal and breakfast the following day

364
Q

Snack

A

Facility must offer snacks at bedtime daily

365
Q

Extended time between meal

A

When nourishing snack is provided at bedtime, up to 16 hours may elapse between evening meal and breakfast if resident group agrees to the span

366
Q

Substantial evening meal

A

offering of 3 or more menu items at one time, one of which includes a high quality protein such as meat, fish, eggs or cheese, meal should represent not less than 20% of days total nutritional requirements

367
Q

Nourshing snack

A

verbal offering of items, single or combination from the basic food groups

368
Q

Assistive dining devices

A

Facility must provide special eating equipment and utensils for residents who need them

369
Q

Paid feeding assistant

A

Facility may use if completed state approed course, use is approved by state, under supervision of RN or LPN, in ER must call nurse, no residents with complicated feeding problems

370
Q

Complicated feeding problems include not limited to

A

dfficulty swallowing, recurrent lung aspirations, tube feeding

371
Q

Facility must procure food from

A

sources approved or considered satisfactory by Federal, State of local authorities

372
Q

Facility must store, prepare, distribute and serve food under

A

santitary conditions and dispose of garbage and refuse properly

373
Q

cross contamination

A

transfer of harmful substances or disease causing microorganisms to food by hands, contact surfaces, sponges, cloth towels or utensils which are not cleaned after touching raw food

374
Q

danger zone

A

refers to temperature above 41 degrees and below 135 degrees that allow rapid growth of microoganisms that cause foodborne illnedss

375
Q

danger zone times

A

Food held in danger zone for more than 4hours being prepared or 6 hours if cooked and cooled by cause illness if consumed

376
Q

Dry storage

A

storing/maintaining dry foods

377
Q

food contanimation

A

unintended presence of potentially harmful substances including microorganisms, chemicals, or physical objects in food

378
Q

food preparation

A

series of operational processes involved in getting foods ready for serving such as washing, thawing, mixing ingredients, cutting, slicing, diluting, cooking, ect

379
Q

food service/distribution

A

process involved in gettign food to the resident, including steam table or refregeration, dispensing food portions, family styal and dining room service

380
Q

foodborne illness

A

illness caused by ingestion of contaminate food or beverage

381
Q

PHF and TCS

A

Potentially hazardous food, time/temperature control for safety - food that requires time temperature control for safety

382
Q

antimicrobial gel

A

can not be used in place of proper hand washing in a food service setting

383
Q

glove changing

A

gloves are single use item and shold be discarded after each use to prevent cross contanination

384
Q

hair restraints

A

dietary staff must wear hair restrants

385
Q

nails

A

clean and neat

386
Q

jewelry

A

reommended keep to minimum and cover with gloves when handling food

387
Q

dry food storage

A

designated for storage, keep in clean, dry area free from contaminants, controlling temp, humidity, infestation

388
Q

dry food practices

A

keep off floor, clear of sprinklers, sewer pipes, vents, manage receipt and storage, remove foods not safe, keep in closed containers and rotating supplies

389
Q

refrigerated storage temps

A

at or below 41 degrees

390
Q

frozen foods temp

A

must keep food frozen solid

391
Q

monitoring temps and function

A

montitor fredgeration daily and at routine intervals during all hours

392
Q

cooling hot foods

A

in shallow containers to allow to cool quickly

393
Q

raw animal foods storage

A

separate from each other, store bleow fruits, vegs so meat does not drip on these foods

394
Q

labeling

A

dating and monitoring so it is used by use by date or frozen or discarded

395
Q

thawing frozen foods

A

refrigerator in drip proof container, or part of ontinuous cooking process

396
Q

thawing in water

A

completely submerged 70 degrees or less, water running fast enough to agitate and float off loose ice particles

397
Q

thawing in microwave

A

then cooking and serving immediately

398
Q

Final cooking temperatures

A

Monitoring internal temp for 15 seconds

399
Q

Poultry and stuffed foods

A

165 degrees

400
Q

ground meat, eggs

A

at least 155 degrees

401
Q

fish other meats

A

145 degrees

402
Q

unparteurized eggs

A

eaten proptly after cooking 145 degrees for 15 secons, white completely set youk congealed

403
Q

cooking raw animal foods in mircowave

A

rotated and stirred during process so all parts are heated to at least 165 degrees and allowed to stand covered for at least 2 minutes after cooking

404
Q

Fresh, frozen or caned fruits and veg

A

135 degrees

405
Q

reheated foods

A

16r5 degrees

406
Q

ready to eat foods

A

best taken directly from sealed container or intact package 135 degrees

407
Q

Steam table

A

is not acceptable to reheat foods as it does not bring to the proper temerature within accepatble time

408
Q

Cooling time/temp

A

colled within 2 hours from 135 to 70 degrees, 4 hours to 41 degrees, total time should not exceed 6 hours

409
Q

temperate mechanically altered food

A

if temperature drops below 135 degrees in must be reaheated to 165 for 15 seconds

410
Q

unpasteuized eggs

A

waivers for undercooked unparteurized eggs are not acceptable even for preference

411
Q

raw eggs

A

damaged shells are unsafe

412
Q

max time on steam table

A

4 hours

413
Q

reheating food

A

once to 165 degrees descard if not eaten within 2 hours

414
Q

refrigeration temp

A

keep foods at or bleow 41 degrees

415
Q

freezer temp

A

must keep frozen foods frozen solid

416
Q

dishwasher heat sanitation wash

A

wash 150 - 165 degrees

417
Q

dishwasher heat final rinse

A

180 degrees or 165 for stationary rack

418
Q

dishwasher chemical sanitation wash

A

wash 120 degrees

419
Q

dishwasher chemical rinse

A

50 ppm hypochlorite on dish surface

420
Q

manual washing 3 part steps

A
  1. wash thorough using hot water,
  2. rinsing with hot water
  3. sanitizing with either hot water or chemical soltion in correct concentration
421
Q

manual wash temp

A

hot water at least 170 degrees for 30 seconds

422
Q

manual wash chemical sanitizing solution

A

according to manufactuers instructions, or if not provided:
Chlorine 50-100 ppm 10 sec contact time
Iodine 12.5 ppm minimum 30 sec contact time
QAC Quaternary 150-200 ppm contact time per manufacturer

423
Q

towel or cloth drying

A

may increase risk for cross contamination

424
Q

serving temperatures

A

cold at or below 41 degrees

hot at or above 135 degrees when served

425
Q

records for comopliance in kitchen

A

policies and procedures, foot temp records from tray line, fridge, dishwasher, maintenance records, infection control records

426
Q

plated food

A

for transport not out of temp control for more than 4 hours from time it is plated

427
Q

garbage and refuse containers

A

good condition (no leaks), lids or covered, storage area maintained in sanitary condition, covered when being removed from kitchen to dumpster,

428
Q

areas used to transport both garbage and clean food

A

clean, free from debris, free of foul odors and waste fat

429
Q

Physician admittion

A

physician must personally approve in writing a recommendation that individual be admitted to facility, resident must remain under care of physician

430
Q

physician supervision

A

medical care of each resident is supervised by physician and another physician supervisies when their attending is unavailable

431
Q

Physician visits

A

Physician must review residents total program of care incuding medications, tratments at each visit

432
Q

Physician visit signature

A

physician must write, sign and date progress notes at each visit, sign and date all orders

433
Q

physician visit frequency

A

residents must be seen by physician at least once every 30 days for the first 90 days after admission and at least once every 60 days after that

434
Q

physician visit timely

A

visit considered timely if it occurs not later than 10 days after the date the visit was required

435
Q

physician visits personnaly

A

at option of physician required visits after the intitial visit may alternate between personal visits by the physician and visits by a PA, APRN, or clinical nurse specialist

436
Q

physician availablility

A

facilty must provide or arrange or provision of physician services 24 hours a day in case of emergency

437
Q

Physician extender not allowed

A

Not allowed to be facility employee

438
Q

Specialized rehabilitave services

A

defferentiated from restorative services which are provided by nursing staff, they are provided by or coordinated by qualified personnel

439
Q

Specialized services for MI or MR

A

services provided by State which can only be delivered by peronnel or programs other than those of the NF because the overal level of NF is not as intense as necessary to meet the individual needs

440
Q

Mental health rehabiltative services for MI and MR

A

Services of lesser frequency or intensity to be implemented by all levels of nursing facility staff

441
Q

Specialized rehavilitative services must be

A

provided under the written order of a physician by qualified personnel

442
Q

Dental services

A

Facility must assist resident in obtaining routine and 24 hour emergency dental care

443
Q

Dental services Medicare or private pay

A

Facility must provide or obtain routine and ER dental services, may charge resident additional amount for services

444
Q

Dental services Medicaid

A

Facility must provide or obtain routine and ER dental services, without charge to resident for services covered under State plan

445
Q

Dental services for all residents

A

Must assist if needed making appts, arranging transportation, refer residents with lost or damaged dentures

446
Q

Pharmacy services

A

facility must provide routine and ER drugs and biologicals to residents or obtain them under an agreement

447
Q

Drug administration

A

Facility may permit unlicensed personnel to administre drugs if State law permits if under general supervision of licensed nurse

448
Q

Pharmacy consultation

A

Facility must employ pharmacist to consult all aspects of provision of pharmacy services, establish system of records of receipt and dispostion of drugs to allow accurate reconciliation, determine drug records are in order and account of all controlled drugs in maintained and reconciled

449
Q

Drug regimen review

A

must be reviewed at least once a month by licensed pharmacist

450
Q

Drug review irregularities

A

Pharmacist must report any irrecgularities to attending physician and DON and reports must be acted upon

451
Q

Drug and biological labeling

A

Facility must lable in accordance with currently accepted professional principles and include accessory and cautionary instructions and expiration date

452
Q

Drug and biological storage

A

Facility must store in locked compartments under proper tem controls and permit only authorized personnel to have access to keys

453
Q

Drug storage room

A

Facility must provide separately locked permanently affixed compartments for storage of controlled drugs and other durgs subject to abuse, except when facility uses single unit package drug where quantity is minimal and missing dose can be readily detected

454
Q

Infection control

A

Facility must establish and maintain an infection control program designed to provide a safe, sanitary and comfortable environment and to help prevent th development and transmission of disease and infection

455
Q

Infection control program

A

Investigates, controls, and prevents infections, decides what procedures should be applied to situation, maintains record of incidents and corrective actions related to infections

456
Q

Resident with infection

A

Facility must isolate the resident

457
Q

Employee with communicable disease or infected skin lesions

A

Facility must prohibit direct contact with residents or their food, if direct contact will transmit disease

458
Q

Hand washing

A

Facility must require staff to wash hands after direct resident contact where indicated by professional practice

459
Q

Linens

A

Personnel must handle, store, process and transport linens as to prevent the spread of infection

460
Q

Life safety from fire

A

facility must meet provisions for 2000 edition of the life safety code of the national fire protection association

461
Q

Life safety code does not apply where

A

State law adequately protectis patients, residents and personnel in logn term care facilities

462
Q

Emergency lighting

A

3/16/2006 long term care facility must be in compliance

463
Q

alcohol based hand rub dispensers

A

may be bloaced if it does not conflict with any State or local codes prohibiting or otherwise restricting placement of dispensers

464
Q

dispenser placement

A

installed in manner that minimizes leaks and spills that could lead to falls, adequately prtects against access by vulnerable populations

465
Q

Battery operated smoke detectors installed in

A

resident sleeping rooms and public areas by 3/24/2006

466
Q

smoke detector testing

A

facility must have program for testing, maintenance, battery replacement to insure reliability of dectectors

467
Q

battery operated dectector exception

A

if facility has hard wired AC smoke dectection system in same areas same checks, or has sprinkler system throughout that is installed, tested, and maintained

468
Q

Emergency power required

A

at least lighting all entrances and exits, fire dectection equipment, alarm, extinquishing systems, life support systems

469
Q

space and equipment

A

facilty must provide sufficient space and equipment in dining, health services and recreation areas to enable staff to provide residents with needed services ans required and in plan of care

470
Q

Resident room occupants

A

no more than 4 residents

471
Q

resident room size

A

at least 80 square feet per resident in multiple resident rooms at least 100 square feet in single resident room

472
Q

Resident room access

A

direct access to exit corridor

473
Q

Room privacy

A

be designed or equipped to assure full visual privacy for each resident

474
Q

Semi private room curtains

A

After 3/31/1992 semi private rooms must have ceiling suspended curtains which extend around the bed to provide total visual privacy in combination with adjacent walls and curtains

475
Q

Bedroom window

A

must have one window to the outside, sill height shall not exceed 36 inches, must be operable

476
Q

Bedroom level

A

must be at or above grade level, above surrounding exterior ground level

477
Q

Bedding

A

Each resident must have separate bed of proper size and height for convenience of resident, clean comfortable mattress, bedding appropriate to weather and climate

478
Q

furniture

A

Functional funtiture appropriate to residents needs and individual private closet space in bedroom with rachs and shelves accessible to resident

479
Q

Toilet facilities

A

Each room must be equipped with or located near toilet facilities

480
Q

Call system

A

Nurse station must be equipped to receive residents calls through communication system from resident rooms and toilet, bathing facilities

481
Q

Dining, residents activities

A

One or more rooms desinated for resident dining and activities, well lighted, well ventilated with nonsmoking areas identified, adequately furnished, sufficient space to accomidate

482
Q

Water availability

A

procedures in place in ensure water available to essential areas in loss of normal water supply

483
Q

ventilation

A

adequate outside ventilation by means of windows, or mechanical ventilation or combination

484
Q

handrails

A

equip corridors with firmly secured handrails on each side

485
Q

governing body

A

facility must have governing body legally responsible for establishing and implementing policies regarding management and operation

486
Q

Administrator

A

appointed by governing body, licensed by state, responisble for management of facility

487
Q

nurse aide

A

facility must not use person more than 4 months unless competent to provide services, completed training and competency evaluation program approved by state

488
Q

registry verification nurse aide

A

faciltiy must receive registry verification aide has met competency evaluation from every state believed to have information on person

489
Q

retraining

A

if moren than 24 consectutive months providing no nursing related services must complete new training and competency evaluation

490
Q

inservice

A

must complete performatnce review every 12 months and proved at least 12 hours coninuing competence per year, must address weakness from reviews, address care of cognitively impaired, demential management, patient abuse prevention

491
Q

medical director

A

facility must designate physician to medical director to implement resident care policies, coordinate medical care in facility

492
Q

laboratory services

A

must provide or obtain to meet the needs of residents, facility is responsible for quality and timeliness of services

493
Q

lab tests done when

A

ordered by attending physician only, attending physician promptly notified of results

494
Q

clinical records

A

facilty must maintain records on each resident, complete, accurate, readily accessible, organized

495
Q

clinical records contain

A

identify resident, assessments, plan of care and services provided, preadmission screening results, progress notes

496
Q

clinical record retention

A

period of time required by state, 5 years from date of discharge when no requirement by state, 3 years after residetn reaches legal age if minor under state law

497
Q

disaster and emergency preparedness

A

must have detailed written plans and procedures to meet all potential emergencies and disasters such as fire, severe weather, missing residents

498
Q

disaster training

A

must train all employees in er procedures when begin to work in facility and review procdures with existing staff, carry out unannounced staff drills using procedures

499
Q

transfer agreement

A

must have written transfer agreement with one or more hospital participating under Medicare programs

500
Q

transfer agreement content

A

residents will be transferred from facility to hospital timely admission when appropriate, medical information for care will be exchanged, considered in effect if good faith effort has been made

501
Q

Quality Assessment and Assurance

A

quality assessment and assurance committe - DON, physician, 3 other members of staff, meets at least quarterly, identify issues to which quality assessment and assurance activities are necessary, develops and implements plans of action to correct quality deficiences