Regulations Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

14 CFR Part 1 contains what?

A

Contains definitions and abbreviations of many common terms in aviation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

14 CFR part 61 contains what?

A

Certification requirements for Pilots, Flight instructors, and ground instructors. Also contains conditions of use and the privilege and limitations of those certificates and ratings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

14 CFR part 91 contains what?

A

General operating and flight rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the NTSB?

A

National Transportation Safety Board. Establish rules of reporting accidents and incidents in the NTSB part 830

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is NTSB part 830?

A

Rules and requirements for notification and reporting of aircraft accidents and incidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does category refer to?

A

Broad classification of aircraft such as airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the term class refer to?

A

Single engine, multi engine, land, water, helicopter, and balloon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the term type refer to?

A

A specific make and basic model of aircraft, such as Cessna 172 or Gulfstream IV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When must a type rate I get be held?

A

When operating a large aircraft, which is an aircraft of more than 12,500 lbs takeoff weight. All turbojet-powered airplanes require a type rating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Student pilot, rec pilots, and private pilot require what medical certificate compliance with part 68?

A

A third class medical certificate or a BasicMed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

BasicMed applies to what pilot operations?

A

Student pilot, rec pilot, and private pilot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you get a BasicMed?

A

Valid driver’s license, complete comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) with 24 months, and have a physical examination by a state-licensed physician with 48 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What a the limitations of BasicMed?

A

-no more than 5 passengers
-aircraft less than 6,000 lbs
-aircraft can’t hold more than 6
-within US, 250 knots or less, below 18,000 ft
-no compensation for hire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long does first class medical certificate last?

A

6-12 months for commercial, then 12-48 months for private depending on if older than 40.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How long does second- class medical last?

A

Commercial for 12 months, then private for another 12-48 months, depending on if over 40.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How long does third class medical last?

A

24-60 months depending on age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What documents must be in your possession or readily available as PIC?

A

Current pilot license, a photo ID, and a current medical certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How often does a flight review need to be completed?

A

Every 24 months and is recorded in the logbook

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If carrying passengers, what is the requirements for the last takeoff and landings?

A

Within the last 90 days, the PIC must have made 3 takeoffs and 3 landings as the sole manipulator of the controls in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type. Touch and go works, unless it is a tail wheel airplane. If the flight is within 1 hour before or after sunset, that timeframe must have also been done.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is considered a high performance airplane?

A

An airplane that has more than 200 horsepower. Additional training is needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What a the requirements for glider towing?

A

100 hours in the aircraft category, class, and type. Or 200 hours total pilot time and within 24 months made 3 actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied or made 3 toes as PIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How long do you have to notify the FAA of an address change?

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When can a pilot deviate from Part 91?

A

In an emergency and in the interest of safety. Upon request, a written report must be sent to the administrator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When must the PIC haven passengers wear seatbelts?

A

During takeoff, taxi, and landing. A child under two can be held.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How long from bottle to throttle?

A

8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the blood alcohol limit?

A

.04

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How long does a pilot have to notify the FAA civil aviation security division of an alcohol or drug related motor vehicle action?

A

No later than 60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When aircraft of the same category are converging at approx the same altitude, who has the right away?

A

The aircraft on the other’s right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What aircraft has the right-of-way over all other traffic?

A

An aircraft in distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which aircraft on converging courses must yield?

A

The aircraft on the left must yield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are right of way rules for aircraft of different categories? Mainly balloons, gliders, and airships?

A

A balloon has right of way over any other category
A glider has the right of way over an airship, airplane, rotorcraft, weight-shift control, or powered parachute
An airship has right of way over an airplane, rotorcraft, weight-shift control, or powered parachute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What right of way does an aircraft towing other aircraft have?

A

Right of way over all other engine driven aircraft

33
Q

What should happen when aircraft approach each other head on?

A

Each pilot shall alter course to the right

34
Q

Who has right of way when an aircraft is being overtaken?

A

Aircraft being overtaken has the right of way. The overtaking aircraft should alter to the right to pass we’ll clear.

35
Q

Who has right of way when two aircraft are approaching an airport for landing?

A

The aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front.

36
Q

If passengers are carried, when must each occupant wear an approved parachute?

A

If the pilot is intentionally exceeding 60 degrees of bank or 30 degrees of pitch

37
Q

If a parachute is of the chair type, it must be packed by a certificated and appropriately-rated parachute rigger within how many day?

A

180 days

38
Q

If you deviate from a clearance or ATC instructions due to an emergency, when should ATC be notified?

A

As soon as possible

39
Q

If a pilot is given priority over other aircraft by ATC and asked to detailed report, how long do you have?

A

48 hours to submit to the chief of the ATC facility which granted the priority

40
Q

What frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?

A

121.5

41
Q

What is the minimum altitude to maintain anywhere?

A

An altitude that in the event of an engine failure will allow an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

42
Q

What is the minimum safe altitude over congested areas?

A

An altitude of at least 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet. This is a city, town, or settlement or over an open air assembly of people.

43
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

A

500 feet

44
Q

What is the minimum horizontal distance from clouds within class C, D, or E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL

A

2000 feet

45
Q

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

3 miles

46
Q

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is-

A

500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontally. This would be in class b, c, d, or e airspace

47
Q

What is considered Class A airspace?

A

Above 18000 ft MSL including flight level 600. Includes the airspace 12 miles around the 48 states. Unless otherwise authorized, all traffic is IFR

48
Q

What is Class B airspace?

A

Generally the airspace from surface to 10000 MSL around the busiest airports. The configuration is individually tailored and consists of two or three layers. Needs ATC clearance and has separation services.

49
Q

What is class C airspace?

A

Generally airspace from the surface to 4000 above the airport elevation. Individually tailored but usually a 5 NM base and a 10 NM top. Must establish 2 way radio with ATC before entering and within the space.

50
Q

What is class D airspace?

A

Generally, the surface to 2500 ft above the airport elevation. Prior two way communication before entering.

51
Q

What is class E airspace?

A

This is controlled airspace that isn’t classified as A,B,C, or D. Usually extends up to but not including 18,000 ft.

52
Q

What must the ceiling be for VFR conditions in class B, C, D, or E airspace?

A

No less than 1000 feet

53
Q

What must the ground visibility be if a pilot wants to land, take off, or enter a traffic pattern within class B, C, D, or E airspace?

A

At least 3 miles

54
Q

What is the flight visibility and distance from clouds in class B airspace?

A

3 statute miles and clear of clouds

55
Q

What is the flight visibility and distance from clouds for class C airspace?

A

3 statute miles. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal

56
Q

What is the flight visibility and distance from clouds in Class D airspace?

A

3 statute miles. 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, 2000 feet horizontal

57
Q

What is the flight visibility and distance from clouds in class E airspace and less than 10000 ft MSL?

A

3 statute miles. 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, 2000 feet horizontal

58
Q

What is the flight visibility and distance from clouds in class E airspace over 10,000 ft MSL?

A

5 statute miles. 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 statute mile horizontal

59
Q

What is the flight visibility and distance from clouds in class A airspace?

A

Not applicable, only IFR conditions

60
Q

What is class G airspace?

A

Uncontrolled airspace

61
Q

What is the flight visibility and distance from clouds in Class G airspace in day 1,200 ft or less AGL?

A

1 statute mile, clear of clouds. At night it is 3 statute miles- 500 ft below, 1000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal

62
Q

What is the flight visibility and distance from clouds in class G airspace more than 1200 feet above the surface and less than 10,000 during day and night?

A

Day - 1 statute mile, 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, and 2,000 ft horizontal

Night- 3 statute miles, 500 feet below, 1,000 ft above, and 2,000 ft horizontal

63
Q

What is the flight visibility in Class G airspace at more than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL?

A

5 statute miles. 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontal

64
Q

What are the basic VFR weather mínima for a daytime departure from a Class G airport?

A

1 statute mile and clear of clouds

65
Q

What is the minimum safe altitude anywhere?

A

The altitude in which, in the event of engine failure, will allow an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

66
Q

What is the minimum safe altitude over congested areas?

A

At least 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 ft

67
Q

When operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising more than 3,000 feet above the surface and below 18’000 MSL, what rule for an appropriate altitude must be followed?

A

The hemispherical cruising rule. Based on magnetic course, not magnetic heading.

68
Q

When between 3000 ft Above surface and 18000 ft on a magnetic course of 0 through 179, what altitudes are appropriate?

A

Any odd thousand plus 500 ft. 3,500 5,500 7,500 etc

69
Q

When between 3,000 ft above surface and 18,000 ft on a magnetic course of 180-359, which altitudes are appropriate?

A

Even thousands plus 500 feet. Ex. 4,500, 6,500, 8,500

70
Q

What does the term category mean with respect to certification of aircraft?

A

Grouping based on intended use or operating limitations. Examples: normal, utility, aerobatic, restricted, experimental, transport, limited, and provisional

71
Q

What is the max speed limit below 10000 MSL?

A

250 knots

72
Q

What is the max speed limit within Class B airspace?

A

250 knots

73
Q

What is KIAS

A

Knots indicated aire speed

74
Q

What is the max speed in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace or in airspace underlying Class B airspace?

A

200 KIAS

75
Q

What is the max speed limit in Class D airspace?

A

200 KIAS

76
Q

What documents must be aboard the plane during flight?

A

AROW- Airworthiness certificate, Registration, Operating limitations (flight manual and/or markings and placards) Weight and balance

77
Q

What is the AIM?

A

Aeronautical Information Manual and it is the official guide to basic flight information and ATC procedures.

78
Q

What are ADs (Airworthiness Directives)?

A

Identify unsafe aircraft conditions and prescribe regulatory actions or limitations that are mandatory (inspections or modifications)