regulations Flashcards

1
Q

WHICH OF THE NOTICES SPECIFIES A DATE FROM WHICH IT WILL BE EFFECTIVE?

A

FINAL NOTICE

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2
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A PRA SENIOR MANAGER FUNCTION FOR A UK BANK?

A

EXECUTIVE DIRECTOR FUNCTION

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3
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT REGULATED UNDER FSMA 2000?

A

SHARE ADVICE IN A. NEWSPAPER COLUMN

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4
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DOES FSMA 2000 MAKE RESPONSIBLE FOR ENSURING A FIRM COMPLIES WITH APPROPRIATE REGULATIONS?

A

THE FIRM ITSELF.

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5
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A PILLAR OF THE FCA SUPERVISION MODEL?

A

PROACTIVE INTERVENTION MODEL.

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6
Q

FSMA 2000 DOES NOT REQUIRE THE BUSINESS CARRYING OUT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TO BE AUTHORISED?

A

ADVISING ON CURRENCIES

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7
Q

FCA CAN IMPOSE FINES

A

THERE ARE NO MAXIMUM LIMITS ON FINES

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8
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDUCT RULES APPLY TO ALL SMCR FUNCTIONS?

A

OBSERVE PROPER STANDARDS OF MARKET CONDUCT.

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9
Q

UNDER FCA SMCR WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS MOST LIKELY TO BE A SENIOR MANAGEMENT FUNCTION FOR A UK BANK?

A

MLRO

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10
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A SPECIFIED INVESTMENT?

A

NATIONAL SAVINGS CERTIFICATE

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11
Q

WHAT IMMEDIATELY FOLLOWS THE RECEIPT OF A WARNING NOTICE?

A

THE OPPORTUNITY TO MALE REPRESENTATIONS AND MEDIATE AN AGREEMENT WITH THE RDC DECISION COMMITTEE

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12
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE CONSIDERED IN ASSESSING THE FITNESS AND PROPRIETY OF A FIRM?

A
  • COMPETENCE AND EXPERIENCE OF THE BOARD
  • THE ABILITY TO COMPLY WITH THE FINANCIAL RESOURCES REQUIREMENT REGULATIONS ON AN ON-GOING BASIS
  • THE SPECIFIC ACTIVITIES TO BE PERFORMED.
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13
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INVESTMENTS IS REGULATED BY FSMA 2000?

A

DEBENTURES

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14
Q

IF AN AUTHORISED FIRM IS UNHAPPY WITHT HE RESULTS OF AN FCA INVESTIGATION, THEY MAY GO TO THE TCCUT UNDER WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING NOTICES?

A

EITHER A SUPERVISORY OR A DECISION NOTICE

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15
Q

WHO AUTHORISES MARKET MAKERS IN THE WHOLESALE MONEY MARKETS IN THE UK?

A

FCA

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16
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING NOTICES CAN BE PUBLISHED IN ACCORDANCE WITH DISCIPLINARY PROCESSES AND MEASURES WITHOUT THE CONSENT OF THE RECEIVING PARTY?

A
  • FINAL DECISION NOTICE

- FINAL SUPERVISORY NOTICE

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17
Q

WHEN DOES THE FCA ISSUE A FINAL NOTICE?

A

NO SOONER THAN 28 DAYS AFTER A DECISION NOTICE

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18
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE NOT SPECIFIED INVESTMENTS AS DEFINED BY THE REGULATED ACTIVITIES ORDER?

A

PREMIUM BONDS AND CURRENCIES

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19
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DOES NOT REQUIRE FCA/PRA AUTHORISATION?

A

WRITING A NEWSPAPER COLUMN ADVISING ON INVESTMENTS.

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20
Q

WHERE A FIRM SUBMITS A REQUEST FOR APPROVAL AND BECOMES AWARE OF ANY CHANGES TO THE PERSONAL DETAILS OF THE SENIOR MANAGER SEEKING FIT AND PROPER STATUS, THE FIRM MUST NOTIFY THE REGULATOR

A

IMMEDIATLY

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21
Q

ACCORDING TO THE GENERAL PROHIBITION (S19 FSMA 2000) WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ACTIVITIES WOULD NOT REQUIRE A FIRM TO GAIN AUTHORISATION BY THE REGUALATOR?

A

ADVISING ON CURRENCIES

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22
Q

IF AN ADVISOR CARRIES ON REGULATED ACTIVITIES WITHOUT HAVING SOUGHT PART 4A PERMISSION FROM THE FCA, WHAT IS THE EFFCET ON ANY CONTRACT WITH A CLIENT?

A

IT IS VOIDABLE AT THE OPTION OF A CLIENT

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23
Q

IN THE SUPERVISION SOURCEBOOK THE FCA SETS OUT THE ROLES WITHIN A FIRM THAT REQUIRE APPROVED PERSON STATUS. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT INCLUDED AS A SENIOR MANAGER FUNCTION?

A

INVESTMENT ADVISER

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24
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A REGULATED ACTIVITY UNDER FSMA 2000?

A

DEALING IN US dollars

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25
Q

THE FCA ENFORCEMENT OFFICERS ARE INVESTIGATING A BREACH OF REGULATION BY AN AUTHORISED FIRM. THEY HAVE THE POWER TO DO ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT:

A

REMOVE ORIGINAL DOCUMENTATION FOR FURTHER INSPECTION

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26
Q

CAN AN AUTHORISED FIRM APPEAL A DECISION NOTICE?

A

YES

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27
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT ONE OF THE REGULATOR’S SUPERVISORY TOOLS?

A

DUE DILLIGENCE

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28
Q

S71 OF FSMA 2000 ALLOWS PRIVATE PERSONS TO CLIAM DAMAGES FOR LOSSES CAUSED BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

A

AN AUTHORISED FIRM

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29
Q

A FIRM WISHES TO PROVIDE SERVICES IN INVESTMENTS. ACCORDING TO THE REGULATED ACTIVITIES ORDER, WHIHC OF THE FOLLOWING INVESTMENTS WOULD NOT REQUIRE THE FIRM TO SEEK AUTHORISATION FROM THE FCA/PRA?

A

FOREIGN EXCHANGE

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30
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE OF DESIGNATED PROFESSIONAL BODIES?

A

EXEMPTION VIA A DPB IS ONLY ALLOWABLE WHERE THE REGULATED ACTIVITIES ARE INCIDENTAL TO THE MAIN BUSINESS OF THE PROFESSIONAL.

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31
Q

WHEN A FIRM IS FOUND IN BREACH OF THE REGULATIONS,

A
  • INVESTIGATION
  • PRELIMINARY FINDINGS LETTER
  • RDC SENDS A DECISION NOTICE
  • DISCIPLINARY ACTION
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32
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A SPECIFIED INVESTMENT UNDER FSMA 2000?

A

RESIDENTIAL PROPERTY

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33
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING COULD BE A REASON FOR THE FCA TO NOT PUBLISH A FINAL NOTICE?

A

IF PUBLISHING WOULD BE PREJUDICIAL TO THE INTERESTS OF CONSUMERS

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34
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD THE FCA NOT CONSIDER ACTS OF MISCONDUCT SUBJECT TO DISCIPLINARY PROCEEDINGS?

A

DEALING AHEAD OF THE FIRM’S RESEARCH PUBLICATIONS WHERE THE RESEARCH IS INTENDED FOR THE FIRM’S USE ONLY

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35
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE SPECIFIED INVESTMENTS AS DEFINED BY THE REGULATED ACTIVITIES ORDER?

A
  • OPTIONS ON THE FTSE 100 INDEX

- OPTIONS ON GOLD

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36
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING OCMES IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE ISSUE OF A WARNING?

A

RESPONSE AND RIGHT TO HEARING

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37
Q

PERSONAL RESPONSIBILITY FOR SENIOR MANAGER FUNCTIONS IS ENFORCED BY

A

A SET OF CONDUCT RULES BACKED BY A DUTY OF RESPONSIBILITY

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38
Q

THE FCA HAS THE RIGHT TO DEMANS THAT FIRMS MAINTAIN A HIGHER CAPITAL REQUIREMENT THAN THAT STATED IN GENPRU. IN TERMS OF THE TOOLS OF SUPERVISION THIS WOULD BE AN EXAMPLE OF WHAT TOOL?

A

PREVENTATIVE

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39
Q

When the Regulator receives an application for a senior manager to become an approved person and finds some problems, they will return the application:

A

To the firm and wait for clarification or amendments before considering their decision

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40
Q

Which of the following is not a conduct rule which must be followed by accountability regime persons?

A

Communicating in a clear, fair and non-misleading manner

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41
Q

If the FCA is asked to pursue ‘redress’ it will:

A

Consider the different methods of redress available to it

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42
Q

Which is not a specified investment?

A

An option on physically delivered gas oil

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43
Q

A Multilateral Trading Facility (MTF) is best described as:

A

A system that brings together multiple parties that are interested in buying and selling financial instruments and which allows them to do so

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44
Q

Which of the following is a regulated activity?

A

Establishing a stakeholder pension

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45
Q

Significant decisions on appropriate disciplinary measures are made by:

A

The RDC

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46
Q

How would you describe a firm which has gained Part 4A permission?

A

Authorised

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47
Q

S56 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 allows the FCA to prohibit individuals from carrying out specified functions in relation to regulated activities, i.e. a ‘prohibition order’. What penalty can the FCA impose on an individual in breach of S56 FSMA 2000?

A

A fine

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48
Q

What is the maximum number of employees permitted to work in an authorised firm’s compliance department?

A

No maximum

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49
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to the Training and Competence Sourcebook?

A

FCA firm employees must have their competency reviewed regularly​

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50
Q

All of the following are true with regards to FCA investigations except:

A

A certified person, once served with a notice of investigation, must cease all regulated activities immediately

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51
Q

Under the Individual Accountability Regime a firm must take reasonable care to ensure that individuals undertaking significant harm functions are:

A

Certified persons

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52
Q

Representatives of the FCA and PRA can do all of the following except:

A

Remove any documents from the firm’s business premises

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53
Q

Which of the following would not be considered acts of misconduct by a firm in the financial industry?

A

Not immediately producing adequate information for an FCA inspection

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54
Q

The Regulatory Decisions Committee is required to issue a statutory notice in respect of which of the following?

A

Imposition of a financial penalty on a regulated person

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55
Q

Which of the following is not a direct power available for the FCA to use where it considers appropriate?

A

Impose custodial sentences

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56
Q

When providing services to a professional client, for which of the following investments would a firm not need to gain Part 4A Permission?

A

Gold

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57
Q

Which of the following are not regulated investments, as defined by the Regulated Activities Order?

A

Premium bonds and currencies

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58
Q

The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 states that a Recognised Investment Exchange (RIE) is exempt from the need for authorisation in respect of S19 - the General Prohibition. Which of the following bodies recognises these investment exchanges?

A

The Financial Conduct Authority

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59
Q

On receipt of a warning notice issued by the Regulatory Decisions Committee the recipient will be given the right to make representations in their defence within a reasonable period of not less than:

A

28 days

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60
Q

Which of the following may cause an individual not to be ‘fit and proper’?

A

Undischarged bankruptcy Conviction for tax evasion Refusal of entry into a trade association associated within financial services

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61
Q

Which of the following is true in relation to the Upper Tribunal (Tax and Chancery Chamber)?

A

A recipient of a decision notice may refer the matter to the Tribunal within 28 days

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62
Q

Under the product intervention rules for how long can products be banned by the FCA without consultation with the product provider

A

12 months

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63
Q

Which of the following is a specified investment under the Regulated Activities Order?

A

Shares in an unincorporated business

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64
Q

Which of the following is ALWAYS a certified function?

A

Financial planner

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65
Q

Which of the following is NOT a specified activity?

A

Acting as principal and end user when dealing in shares

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66
Q

What is the maximum penalty for those operating an unauthorised firm carrying out regulated activities in the UK as stated in the Financial Services Markets Act 2000?

A

Two years imprisonment and an unlimited fine

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67
Q

Which ONE of the following is CORRECT concerning a multi-lateral trading facility?

A

It is a system where a firm provides similar services to those offered by exchanges

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68
Q

Which of the following is responsible for hearing appeals from firms who are subject to FCA disciplinary action?

A

The Tax and Chancery Chamber of the Upper Tribunal

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69
Q

What is the territorial scope of the Tax and Chancery Chamber of the Upper Tribunal?

A

United Kingdom only

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70
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the Regulatory Decisions Committee?

A

It may issue a Final Notice

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71
Q

All of the following are true of recognised investment exchanges, except:

A

It guarantees a market place where investors can always deal at fair prices

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72
Q

Under the FCA’s Senior Managers regime which of the following is ALWAYS performing a senior management function?

A

Chairman of the Board of Directors

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73
Q

From which point in time must senior managers and certification functions comply with the Conduct Rules under the FCA’s Accountability Regime?

A

All relevant staff must comply with the Conduct Rules from appointment

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74
Q

Where a firm operates under the Senior Manager and Certification Regime, which ONE of the following roles within always requires approval from the Regulator? Somebody:

A

Acting as a non-executive director

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75
Q

Which of the following are true with respect to decision notices?

A

They may be issued to firms and individuals

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76
Q

Jo Wood has twice failed a key regulatory exam and the bailiffs have repossessed most of his belongings. He might not be considered fit and proper for which of the following reasons?

A

Financially unsound and incapable

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77
Q

When the UK regulator allows a firm to undertake regulated activities, it grants which of the following?

A

Part 4A Permission

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78
Q

Which of the following statements is not true of the Principles for Businesses?

A

They do not apply to UK firms complying with the

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79
Q

Who is the Tax and Chancery Chamber of the Upper Tribunal set up by?

A

The Ministry of Justice

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80
Q

Which of the following is NOT a disciplinary sanction of the Regulatory Decisions Committee?

A

Private warning

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81
Q

An authorised firm must ensure that only certificated persons perform certification functions. Which of the following is most likely to be an example of a certification function?

A

Retail customer adviser

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82
Q

Which of the following is not taken into account when the FCA assesses a firm’s fitness and propriety?

A

The market share the firm has within the financial services industry

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83
Q

Under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000, a person will not be carrying on specified activities if (s)he does which of the following?

A

Advises on foreign currency

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84
Q

Which of the following is not categorised as a disciplinary measure of the FCA?

A

Private warning

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85
Q

For how long after the discovery of a problem can the FCA hold an individual eligible for disciplinary action?

A

Three years

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86
Q

According to Section 19 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (the ‘General Prohibition’), which of the following activities would require a firm to gain authorisation by the FCA/PRA?

A

Professional bodies providing advice in the normal course of business where the advice is separately remunerated

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87
Q

All of the following are specified by the FCA as SM&CR functions except:

A

Dealing with the assets of the firm

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88
Q

The MLRO must report to senior management at least:

A

Once every 12 months

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89
Q

The Markets in Financial Instruments Directive allows for the passporting of certain regulated activities. Which of the following instruments is NOT covered by this?

A

Sports spread bets

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90
Q

Before conducting designated investment business for a new customer, the money laundering regulation

A

To identify someone, an official document bearing a photograph should always be obtained, whether the new business is opened face-to-face or through the post.

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91
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered as ancillary services under MiFID?

A

Making a personal recommendation on a CAC 40 stock

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92
Q

An organisation is excluded from the scope of MiFID if it produces a commodity and:

A

Trades that commodity’s futures on its own account to hedge its exposure

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93
Q

At which stage of the money laundering process are the proceeds of crime separated from their source?

A

Layering

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94
Q

A UCITS collective investment scheme cannot invest in which of the following?

A

Gold

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95
Q

Which of the following is a principle of the Takeover Code?

A

The target company directors must advise shareholders on its view about the impact of the bid

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96
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a money laundering offence, as defined in the Proceeds of Crime Act?

A

Dealing on price sensitive information

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97
Q

Which of the following gives the FCA the power to prosecute insider dealing offences?

A

Financial Services and Markets Act 2000

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98
Q

Which of the following would be committing an offence under the Criminal Justice Act 1993 if they purchased shares in ABC plc?

A

An insider must knowingly have inside information (i.e. price sensitive and not public) from a known inside source. If there is no intent, then there is no offence. Being a market maker is an acceptable defence.

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99
Q

Which does the Capital Requirement Directive require? All firms:

A

Under the scope of MiFID should have more than the amount of regulatory specified capital

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100
Q

Which of the following is outside the scope of MiFID?

A

Oil

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101
Q

Market making is a specific defence against insider trading if the market maker:

A

Acts in good faith

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102
Q

Which two of the following are FALSE of the Money Laundering Regulations?

A

Not reporting when there are ‘reasonable grounds’ to suspect money laundering exists is not an offence
The regulations only apply to drugs laundering operations

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103
Q

Which of the following is untrue of the FCA rules and the legislation on money laundering?

A

A firm does not have to identify a client if the transaction is one off and for €30,000

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104
Q

Compliance with capital requirement rules for MiFID firms is imposed by:

A

The home state

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105
Q

Sue becomes suspicious of a ‘high number of sales’ by her client to an unknown party. Sue should report her fears to:

A

The MLRO

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106
Q

Which of the following is an ancillary service as defined under the Markets in Financial Instruments Directive?

A

Services relating to investment research

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107
Q

EMIR sets out requirements for reporting and risk management in the OTC derivative markets. Which firms are covered by this regulation?

A

All EEA-incorporated and established entities

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108
Q

Under the Money Laundering Regulations all of the following are considered high-risk factors EXCEPT:

A

Transactions within a pooled client account

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109
Q

To whom must the Money Laundering Reporting Officer report suspicious activities?

A

National Crime Agency

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110
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of the Money Laundering Regulations 2017?

A

All firms subject to the regulations must appoint a Money Laundering Reporting Officer

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111
Q

Which organisation would a Money Laundering Reporting Officer normally report suspicions of money laundering to?

A

National Crime Agency

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112
Q

Under the Money Laundering Regulations a firm must ensure that they have appropriate internal controls. One of these is the appointment of a money laundering reporting officer. Which of the following is not true of the MLRO?

A

They are a member of the National Crime Agency

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113
Q

Which of the following are TRUE regarding insider dealing?

A

Offences are committed by individuals, not corporations
Encouraging a third party to deal is an offence
UK equities and gilts and their derivatives are covered
Disclosure of inside information, other than in

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114
Q

In relation to money laundering, which of the following is FALSE?

A

Firms have to report money laundering suspicions to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

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115
Q

In relation to the insider dealing legislation, which of the following individuals would be considered to be an insider?

A

The audit partner who sells shares after reading the audit report prior to publication of the financial statements

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116
Q

Are promotions in respect of Undertaking for Collective Investments in Transferable Securities (UCITS) funds allowed on a general marketing basis in the UK?

A

Yes

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117
Q

Which of the following is least likely to supply information as an insider?

A

A small shareholder

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118
Q

Under the European Markets Infrastructure Regulation, which of the following is not a requirement on those that trade derivatives?

A

To ensure the orderly functioning of markets

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119
Q

Which of the following is not covered by the insider dealing legislation?

A

Building society deposits

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120
Q

Which ONE of the following is the best description of the purpose of the UCITS legislation?

A

To facilitate the marketing and sale of unit trusts and ICVCs in the EEA on the basis of authorisation in the home state

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121
Q

For the purposes of money laundering if a client is acting on behalf of a third party, whose identity needs to be established?

A

Both the client and the third party

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122
Q

Which institutions are included in MiFID?

A

An institution offering underwriting in tradable securities on a commitment An investment firm that offers services within its own group
Portfolio management firms
Corporate finance firms offering financial advice in EU

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123
Q

What kind of offence is insider dealing?

A

Criminal

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124
Q

Which of the following is neither considered an ancillary service nor a financial instrument as defined under MiFID?

A

A commodity producer managing risk through investment in commodity derivatives

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125
Q

The purpose of the Joint Money Laundering Steering Group (JMLSG) is:

A

To provide firms with guidance in respect of money laundering regulations

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126
Q

Which of the following are TRUE of money laundering?

A

There are three stages: placement, layering and integration
Assisting a money launderer, failure to report and tipping off are all offences
The firm must appoint an appropriate person to handle suspected cases
Records must be maintained for five years under the Money Laundering Regulations

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127
Q

A chairman has access to price sensitive information about his company’s shares. In which of the following circumstances could a director in the company trade?

A

The director would follow the PDMR rules

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128
Q

A firm of fund managers lets the market know that it is very keen to buy substantial quantities of shares in Benno plc, when actually it holds a smaller quantity of shares in Benno that it plans to sell. Which of the following criminal offences, under the Financial Services Act 2012 is the firm most likely to be guilty of?

A

Misleading impressions

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129
Q

The purpose of a transaction report is:

A

To allow the FCA to review transactions

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130
Q

Inside information could be which of the following?

A

Information which, if made public, could significantly affect the share price

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131
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the specified types of market abuse?

A

Processing proceeds of crime

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132
Q

Which of the following are NOT permitted under UCITS, but is under MiFID?

A

Commodity derivatives

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133
Q

Which of the following would not be committing an offence under the Criminal Justice Act 1993 if they purchased shares in ABC plc?

A

A non-executive director of ABC who resigned seven months ago who expects profits to show an unexpected rise when published

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134
Q

According to the Money Laundering Regulations,

A

The firm must keep records for five years.

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135
Q

Which of the following is excluded from the Markets in Financial Instruments Directive regulations?

A

Insurance firms

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136
Q

A client requests an investment manager to carry out a trade in a listed security. Who is responsible for the transaction report?

A

Investment manager

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137
Q

Which TWO of the following would constitute insider dealing?

A

Dealing on unpublished, price-sensitive information

Encouraging another person to deal on unpublished, price-sensitive information

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138
Q

The rules concerning the capital resource requirements for MiFID firms are contained in:

A

The General Prudential Sourcebook

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139
Q

Which of the following prosecutes insider dealers?

A

Financial Conduct Authority

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140
Q

If a chairman wanted to deal shares in their company (s)he would inform:

A

Their company

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141
Q

Which of the following is NOT an offence under the insider dealing legislation?

A

A director dealing in shares two months before announcement of results

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142
Q

In relation to the insider dealing legislation which ONE of the following is a SPECIAL or specific defence against insider dealing?

A

The individual acted in accordance with the stabilisation rules

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143
Q

Who would receive notification of a director trading shares in their own company?

A

Their company

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144
Q

All of the following are covered by the UK insider dealing legislation except:

A

Forward foreign exchange contracts

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145
Q

Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Markets in Financial Instruments Directive?

A

To ensure the profitability of firms offering financial services across the EEA

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146
Q

In relation to data protection, to whom does a firm’s Data Input Officer report?

A

The firm’s Data Controller

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147
Q

The EU Transparency Directive sets 5% as the level of notifiable interest.

A

In the UK it is 3%.

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148
Q

Post-trade transparency, reporting and publication requirements require the publication of the price and volume of completed trades which are undertaken. These rules apply to which one of the following?

A

All deals by any investment firm

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149
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the insider dealing legislation under the Criminal Justice Act?

A

Disclosure of information to a third party outside the company affected is not an offence

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150
Q

At which stages of the money laundering process are investment firms generally most vulnerable to being involved in money laundering activities?

A

Layering and integration

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151
Q

Which ONE of the following is a defence against S89-91 of Financial Services Act 2012 - making misleading statements or impressions?

A

Adherence to Stabilisation Rules

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152
Q

With regard to money laundering, all suspicions should be reported by employees to the MLRO, who in turn reports to?

A

NCA

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153
Q

Which are TRUE of money laundering?

A

The JMLSG Guidance Notes have received Treasury approval
It is a criminal offence not to report a suspicion
It is a criminal offence not to have procedures in place

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154
Q

Under the scope of MiFID, in which of the following situations would the French COBS apply in full if the client is France based?

A

Firm is located in the France

Firm is located in the EEA and the branch is in the France

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155
Q

To whom must the Money Laundering Reporting Officer report suspicious activities?

A

National Crime Agency

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156
Q

The rules on data protection require data not to be transferred out of which jurisdiction without ensuring there is an adequate level of protection?

A

EEA

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157
Q

Market abuse involving manipulating devices would cover:

A

Shares in an investment trust

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158
Q

Which of the following is an ancillary service under the Markets in Financial Instruments Directive?

A

Providing investment research into equities

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159
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of insider dealing?

A

It only applies to dealings via a regulated market

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160
Q

Which of the following is FALSE with regard to the money laundering regulations?

A

A Money Laundering Reporting Officer is only required for large, complex organisations

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161
Q

A director of a company has recently informed a friend about a pending takeover of the company, telling them that since this information is not public, they can make a quick profit by buying the company’s shares. The friend declines to trade on this information. Who has committed an offence under insider dealing legislation?

A

The director

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162
Q

Which of the following is a general defence to insider dealing?

A

Would have dealt anyway

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163
Q

Where can the law relating to insider dealing as a criminal offence be found?

A

The Criminal Justice Act 1993

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164
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding market abuse?

A

Intention does not need to be proved

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165
Q

According to the Markets in Financial Instruments Directive, which of the following is NOT a core investment service or activity?

A

Giving advice on capital structure

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166
Q

All of the following represent data protection principles under GDPR, except:

A

Processed in a manner which is clear, fair and not misleading

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167
Q

With whom must a processor of personal information register?

A

Information Commissioner

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168
Q

Under which of the following is insider dealing a criminal offence?

A

Criminal Justice Act 1993

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169
Q

Which EU Directive relates to passporting of financial services?

A

MiFID

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170
Q

Which European regulation relates to the transparency and risk management in the OTC derivative markets?

A

European markets infrastructure regulation

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171
Q

The individual acted in accordance with the stabilisation rules

A

Buying or selling securities and derivatives

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172
Q

The process where an EEA firm opens up a branch in another EEA country without obtaining local authorisation is known as:

A

Passporting

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173
Q

Which of the following would not be classed as an act of terrorism?

A

Chaining yourself to the railings outside 10 Downing Street

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174
Q

Which of the following is an inter-governmental body which sets international standards that aim to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing activities and the harm they cause to society?

A

Financial Action Task Force

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175
Q

What is the aim of the money laundering regulations?

A

To prevent the proceeds of crime from entering the financial system

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176
Q

Which of the following would not be considered a suspicious transaction under the Money Laundering Regulations?

A

The customer is unable to prove his identity through the usual means, but is willing to offer other forms of identification

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177
Q

The FCA Conduct of Business rules apply to all the following firms engaged in investment business, except which of the following?

A

Causing a dematerialised instruction to be sent from a foreign country to a UK exchange

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178
Q

Which of the following is NOT taken into account when reclassifying a retail client as a professional client?

A

Integrity and reputation

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179
Q

Limit orders not executed immediately must be made public to:

A

A regulated market

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180
Q

How do the FCA regulations apply to an appointed representative of a firm?

A

Indirectly

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181
Q

In which of the following situations would the firm need to apply the client money rules? If the money:

A

Is interest paid on any holdings of client money

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182
Q

Which of the following would be considered client money?

A

Cheque drawn up on client’s account that has not been cleared

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183
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of the order execution policy?

A

A firm must monitor the effectiveness of the policy on a transaction by transaction basis

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184
Q

Which ONE of the following is LEAST likely to cause a conflict of interest?

A

Customer instructs firm to buy shares when the firm holds a position

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185
Q

If a promotion is communicated solely by telephone, when must information be provided?

A

In good time before the consumer is bound by a distance offer or contract

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186
Q

When must a firm disclose charges to a retail client?

A

Before providing the service

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187
Q

If a firm performs an ancillary service for a client, how long should the firm hold on to the records of the client agreements?

A

Whichever is longest five years or the duration of the relationship with the client

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188
Q

According to the COBS, the financial promotion rules always apply to a firm in relation to the communication of a financial promotion:

A

From the UK to a person inside the UK

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189
Q

In relation to the conduct of business rules in respect of disclosure of conflicts of interest, which ONE of the following is FALSE of the disclosure?

A

It can be made verbally

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190
Q

An authorised firm wishes to increase its retail client base by launching a cold calling campaign. Which of the following would be permitted?

A

Discussion about listed shares

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191
Q

Which one of the following, if unsolicited, would not be regarded as a cold call under the financial promotion rules?

A

An email

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192
Q

Which of the following is a ‘personal recommendation’ under MiFID?

A

Suggesting the purchase of a particular investment instrument

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193
Q

When a firm communicates initially with a retail client, COBS requires it to provide ‘appropriate information’, which includes all of the following except:

A

Who to refer complaints to if they cannot be resolved by the firm

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194
Q

Graham has been accused of making a misleading impression in an attempt to encourage someone to deal. Which of the following would give him a defence?

A

Price stabilisation rules

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195
Q

Inside information could be which of the following?

A

Information which, if made public, could significantly affect the share price

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196
Q

Which of the following is an insider according to the Criminal Justice Act 1993?

A

An employee whose work involves inside information

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197
Q

All of the following are considered a core activity under MiFID except:

A

Safe custody

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198
Q

The Takeover Code covers all of the following elements of a takeover EXCEPT:

A

Ensuring the financial and commercial advantage of the takeover

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199
Q

Which of the following is the requirement concerning the holding of personal data under Principle 3 of the Data Protection Act 2018?

A

Adequate, relevant and not excessive

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200
Q

Which of the following pieces of legislation cover money laundering?

A

Proceeds of Crime Act 2002

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201
Q

Which of the following would NOT be covered by the insider dealing legislation?

A

Unit trust

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202
Q

To which of the following must a Money Laundering Reporting Officer report money laundering suspicions?

A

National Crime Agency

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203
Q

Which of the following is true regarding money laundering?

A

All suspicions should be reported by employees to the MLRO

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204
Q

Under Data Protection Principle 1, information must be processed:

A

Lawfully and fairly

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205
Q

In respect of Money Laundering Regulations which of the following is NOT true?

A

Once an employee has reported suspicions to their Money Laundering Reporting Officer they have a further duty of disclosure to the authorities

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206
Q

Which of the following requires immediate notification by the firm to the PRA?

A

When it has breached the financial resources requirement
IIWhen it believes that it may shortly breach the financial resources requirement
IVWhen a systems failure means that the firm is unable to produce accounting records which disclose the financial position of the company

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207
Q

If an employee notices a suspicious transaction, which of the following is the correct first course of action?

A

The employee reports to the MLRO

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208
Q

Under the UCITS Directive, in which of the following is it NOT permissible to invest?

A

Residential property

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209
Q

The MLRO is an officer of the firm with what characteristics?

A

The authority and sufficient independence within the firm to carry out the duty

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210
Q

Under the FCA client money rules (CASS 7), in which of the following situations is a firm deemed to have discharged fiduciary duty?

A

At the point where the payment clears from the client account

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211
Q

To whom should a firm produce a document about compensation claims when carrying on MiFID business?

A

All clients

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212
Q

When a professional client is initially classified, which of the following terms is used?

A

Per se

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213
Q

A firm provides services to retail clients in many products. In which of the following situations would it need to prepare a key information document (KID)?

A

The client wishes to receive advice on purchasing a structured product

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214
Q

For a UK firm operating in the UK the rules on personal account transaction are based on which of the following general approaches?

A

Home state basis

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215
Q

A firm may treat a client as an elective professional client for non-MiFID business if:

A

The qualitative test is passed and there is a statement that protection will be lost

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216
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of an eligible counterparty?

A

They can be individuals who have opted up from an elective professional client

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217
Q

The custody rules do not apply to delivery versus payment transactions if which of the following are met?

A

Delivery is due within one day of payment

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218
Q

The firm is holding money belonging to clients. When would it NOT need to comply with the client money rules? If the money is:

A

Coins held for the value of their metal

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219
Q

If a firm is aware that Bob is acting as an agent for Bill, then Bill will be the firm’s client if:

A

Bob and the firm have agreed in writing to treat Bill as the client

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220
Q

To whom do the client money rules apply?

A

All clients

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221
Q

If the firm aggregates a client’s order with a transaction for its own account, which of the following is true?

A

client’s allocation, if the order is partially allocated, must take priority

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222
Q

A firm that manages a client’s investments must ensure that which of the following occurs?

A

They specify any index against which performance will be compared

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223
Q

With reference to appointed representatives giving advice on packaged products, who is responsible for maintaining written records covering the agent’s scope of advice and range of products?

A

The appointing firm

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224
Q

What must be disclosed in all written communication with a retail client?

A

The name and business address of the firm
IIThe status of the individual sending the communication
IIIThe regulatory authority over the firm’s business

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225
Q

In which of the following legislation would you find details of whether a firm is subject to the Conduct of Business rules contained within the FCA Handbook?

A

Financial Services and Markets Act

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226
Q

In order to gain favourable terms for its clients, a firm aggregates several client orders with its own order. During execution, only part of the order is filled. How must the order be allocated?

A
  • In line with the allocation policy
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227
Q

Which of the following are true with relation to a firm providing designated investment business to a retail client?

A

The firm must pay due regard to the information needs of clients when communicating with them
IIThe information should be sufficient to enable the client to understand the nature and risk of the service and investment
IIIThe information communicated must be fair, clear and not misleading
IVThe firm must provide appropriate information about itself to retail clients

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228
Q

Under the COBS, a professional client or an eligible counterparty can ask for a re-categorisation in which of the following cases?

A

It is permitted on a trade by trade basis
IIIt is permitted in general for all trades
IIIIt is permitted on individual instrument classes

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229
Q

A member of the compliance team is confirming the compliance of a financial promotion with FCA rules. Which of the following must be included in the promotion?

A

Capital at risk products are clearly referred to as such

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230
Q

According to COBS, which of the following is not considered an execution venue?

A

Retail broker

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231
Q

In the case of MiFID business, a firm must keep a copy of the periodic reports for:

A

A period of five years from the date of dispatch

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232
Q

It is always classified as a professional client

A

Simulated past performance is based on actual past performance of instruments that are the same as or underly the investment concerned

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233
Q

A firm is approached by an authorised collective investment scheme (CIS) in relation to designated investment business. Which of the following best represents the conditions under which the CIS will get classified as a professional client?

A

It is always classified as a professional client

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234
Q

Where a communication by a firm contains information about past performance, this must cover a minimum period of:

A

Five years

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235
Q

A firm provides personal recommendations to a retail client. After ensuring suitability, in which of the following situations would the firm need to provide the client with a suitability report?

A

When the firm recommends the investor to invest in an ISA wrapped investment trust

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236
Q

When the firm recommends the investor to invest in an ISA wrapped investment trust

A

Retail clients only

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237
Q

Which of the following statements is true with respect to cancellation rights on the sale to a retail client of a packaged product? Cancellation rights:

A

Should be offered

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238
Q

Under FCA rules on client categorisation, which of the following would ALWAYS be considered a per se professional client?

A

Special purpose vehicle

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239
Q

When entering into a distance marketing contract for a life policy, how much time must a retail client be given to cancel the contract if they wish to do so?

A

30 calendar days

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240
Q

Which of the following are not protected by the conduct of business rules sourcebook?

A

Property purchases by a retail client

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241
Q

If a person associated with the firm wishes to make a cold call, they must:

A

Give a contact point for the client during the call

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242
Q

The website of a firm shows two products; details on one are available only by post and of the other only online. Which of the two is a written financial promotion?

A

Both products are considered written financial promotions.

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243
Q

The requirement for the firm to deliver the best possible result when executing client orders is expected for:

A

All types of financial instruments

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244
Q

The following are true of investment advertisements sent to retail clients except that they must:

A

Not use any past performance data

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245
Q

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for an elective professional client status according to the Conduct of Business rules?

A

The client’s cash deposits are in excess of 20,000 euros. There is no explicit requirement on the size of the client’s cash deposits. The requirement is that the portfolio, including cash deposits must be greater than 500,000 euros.

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246
Q

In respect of the Conduct of Business Rules which of the following does NOT qualify as a ‘durable medium’?

A

Internet websites

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247
Q

In the description of an investment within a financial promotion, in light of the ‘fair, clear and not misleading’ rule, the firm should always include which of the following?

A

If fees cannot be specifically given, the basis on which these fees are assessed should be presented

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248
Q

A firm needs to assess the appropriateness of an investment or service for a retail client when the service is:

A

To arrange the purchase of a contingent liability instrument

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249
Q

A firm has just executed an order for a retail client. Within what period of time must the confirmation of trade be sent?

A

Within one business day

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250
Q

When can a retail client expect to receive information regarding their right to cancel an agreement to purchase units in an authorised unit trust?

A

Before or after entering into the agreement depending on the situation

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251
Q

Which of the following could be classified as communicating a financial promotion?

A

Internet website
IIMailshot
IIICall centre making calls
IVSales aid

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252
Q

When carrying out client orders the firm must ensure:

A

Comparable orders must be carried out sequentially except in specific conditions

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253
Q

When considering best execution criteria for a retail client, which of the following would NOT be considered when obtaining the best possible result?

A

The costs incurred by the client payable to the firm

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254
Q

A retail client would normally expect to get a periodic statement of their non-leveraged security based account at least:

A

Every three months

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255
Q

If an analyst invests in a UCITS collective investment scheme. How soon should they contact the compliance team to inform them of any increase in the number of units they hold?

A

There is no need if the analyst has no management relationship with the CIS

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256
Q

All are true in respect of churning and switching except:

A

The rules on churning and switching apply to retail clients only for advisory services and any client for discretionary services

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257
Q

In relation to MiFID business, how long must a firm retain records of trade confirmations sent to a client?

A

Five years from date of dispatch

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258
Q

A firm produces research with the sole intent of making this the focus of a recommendation to clients. When presenting such research recommendations, the firm must be considered as being bound by:

A

Financial Promotion Rules

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259
Q

A firm receives an order from a retail client, but there are problems in carrying out the instruction. When must a firm inform the client about this problem?

A

At once

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260
Q

A firm has searched through its client list, looking for those that have been inactive for some time. They plan to cold call these clients. If these clients are retail clients, which of the following products are permitted to be sold on the cold call?

A

A generally marketable low volatility packaged product

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261
Q

An authorised firm provides a service to a retail client. The FCA requires that the firm discloses its charges to that client. When should this disclosure occur?

A

Before doing business

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262
Q

In relation to MiFID business, which of the following is permissible for the presentation of past, simulated past or future performance of a UK investment?

A

The reference period and source of information are clearly stated

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263
Q

A website is a permissible method of communication with clients if which of the following criteria are met?

A

The provision of the information in that particular medium is appropriate to the investment, service and client

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264
Q

A firm discovers that an elective professional client’s portfolio has reduced in size to less than €150,000 and the number of trades has been reduced to an average of four per quarter over the last 12 months. What actions should the firm take?

A

Reclassify the individual as a retail client and notify the client of the action

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265
Q

An investor opens a non-exempt cash ISA with an authorised bank to benefit from the tax advantages offered. What is the minimum cancellation period the bank must offer?

A

14 calendar days

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266
Q

If a client is unwilling to provide sufficient information for a firm to assess suitability in respect of a personal recommendation, what should the firm do next?

A

Act for a professional client on a non-advised execution only basis as long as the client provides instruction for the trades

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267
Q

The requirements for record keeping according to MiFID are:

A

Five years

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268
Q

When providing which of the following activities must a retail client be assessed for appropriate levels of knowledge by the firm?

A

Executing a deal on an equity warrant

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269
Q

Executing a deal on an equity warrant

A

Misleading statements and impressions

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270
Q

According to the FCA Conduct of Business Rules Sourcebook, which of the following is the best definition of durable media?

A

Media that can be accessed by clients and allows unchanged reproduction of the information

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271
Q

Martin gives an instruction to a stockbroking firm to sell a holding of shares at a limit price much higher than the firm is willing to buy. Assuming that there have been no specific instructions beyond the order itself, which of the following best reflects what the firm should do next?

A

Place the order on a regulated market

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272
Q

In which of the following circumstances may a firm aggregate a client’s order with an own account order?

A

It is likely that the aggregation will not work to the disadvantage of each of the clients concerned

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273
Q

Which of the following will be included in a trade confirmation notice?

A

The date on which the trade took place
IIThe time at which the trade took place
IIIThe total consideration paid/received in the transaction
IVExecution venue

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274
Q

All of the following may be considered “proper fees” under the FCA inducements rules EXCEPT:

A

The cost of general office software

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275
Q

When communicating with retail clients, a firm producing information must ensure that:

A

The name of the firm is included
IIThe information does not emphasise any potential benefits of relevant business without risks being related
IIIIt is presented in a manner that is likely to be understood by the average member of the target group
IVIt does not obscure important items

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276
Q

If a financial analyst (a relevant person) is providing investment research for dissemination to its clients in particular financial investments, when would the analyst be permitted to deal on that information?

A

They would be permitted to deal on the information if granted approval by the firm’s compliance

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277
Q

What must the firm’s conflict of interest policy ensure?

A

All groups have sufficient guards on the information flow between each other

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278
Q

Which of the following sets of information is not required in a direct offer financial promotion to a retail client?

A

Execution venues where trading will occur

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279
Q

If an eligible counterparty requests to be dealt with for certain transactions as a professional client, what may the firm do?

A

Treat them as a professional client

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280
Q

Eligible counterparty status is not available to:

A

An expert individual client

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281
Q

When would an employee of an authorised firm MOST LIKELY be permitted to enter into a personal account transaction? If the transaction:

A

Is from an employee that is neither involved in the higher control functions nor the provision of designated investment business

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282
Q

For which of the following would the Financial Promotions regulations need to be applied?

A

Retail clients

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283
Q

From which of the following must a firm keep client money segregated?

A

Money belonging to the firm

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284
Q

From which of the following must a firm keep client money segregated?

A

Is compatible with the client’s level of experience and understanding of the risks involved

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285
Q

Which is FALSE in terms of the aggregation of orders?

A

Firms must aggregate firm and client orders together

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286
Q

If, during the reconciliation process, discrepancies are noticed, which of the following must the firm do?

A

Make up for the shortfall itself

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287
Q

Which clients need to have the most comprehensive risk explanation provided to them?

A

An execution only retail client buying options

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288
Q

Which of the following would not be automatically given retail client protection by an FCA member firm under client categorisation?

A

A listed company with funds of €2 million and assets of €25 million

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289
Q

During the provision of a service to a professional client, a firm discovers a conflict of interest that it is unable to manage. What should the firm disclose?

A

The sources of the conflicts before any transactions proceed on a durable medium

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290
Q

When is it allowable for an unauthorised person to communicate a financial promotion?

A

After reasonable care has been made to establish that an authorised firm has ensured that the promotion is in compliance with the relevant rules

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291
Q

What information must always be included in a firm’s order execution policy for retail clients?

A

The process the firm uses to specify relative importance of the execution factors

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292
Q

Which of the following is not defined as a packaged product according to COBS?

A

A government or public security

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293
Q

If the firm wishes to communicate electronically with clients, which of the following conditions must be met?

A

There is evidence that the client has means to communicate this way
IIThe client has consented to that form of communication
IIIThe website must be made known to the client

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294
Q

A firm wishes to execute a client order outside a regulated market or multilateral trading facility. When would this be permitted under the FCA conduct of business rules?

A

If there is prior consent from the client

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295
Q

All of the following could be considered a professional client. Which of them is MOST LIKELY to have reached that status through election?

A

Local authority

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296
Q

Which of the following is true of trail commissions for retail client advisers?

A

Trail commissions are not allowed

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297
Q

With respect to MiFID business, when a loan is made to a retail client how long should the records be kept?

A

Five years from the date the loan ended

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298
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement for recategorisation as a professional client according to conduct of business rules in relation to MiFID business?

A

The client has stated they are of sufficient experience, have sufficient understanding and pass the quantitative tests

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299
Q

If a client can be considered as a professional client, then the firm may assume that they have sufficient knowledge of which risks?

A

Risks of the designated investments for which they are classed as professional

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300
Q

To be treated as an elective eligible counterparty for MiFID business, a company must satisfy which conditions using the net turnover and/or funds criteria?

A

Net turnover of at least €40 million and company funds of at least €2 million

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301
Q

When can a UK firm communicate an unsolicited real time financial promotion to an client in another EEA country?

A

When it complies with the UK COBS

302
Q

Which of the following communications would not have to follow the COBS promotions rules?

A

An advert in a national newspaper communicating the logo of the firm, a contact point and the regulated activities provided

303
Q

Financial advisers acting for retail clients must not accept commission for their services, but a fee instead. Which piece of regulation stipulates this rule?

A

The Retail Distribution Review

304
Q

When is the FCA’s Conduct of Business Rule relating to suitability required? When the firm is performing:

A

Discretionary MiFID services on behalf of retail and professional clients

305
Q

According to client asset rules (CASS), a firm may deposit client money in which of the following?

A

A central bank

306
Q

Which ONE of the following is a responsibility of the HOST state regulator under the MiFID directive when a firm is conducting business from a branch in that state?

A

Conduct of business rules

307
Q

The rules on front-running of investment research require a firm to wait for how long before conducting own account trades following the publication of research to its clients?

A

Until the client has had a reasonable time to react to the research

308
Q

Which one of the following conduct rules applies to all persons captured by the SM&CR regime? You must:

A

Observe proper standards of market conduct

309
Q

Under the European Markets Infrastructure Regulation, which of the following is not a requirement on those that trade derivatives?

A

To ensure the orderly functioning of markets

310
Q

Which of the following statements complies with the inducements rules?

A

An acceptable commission is one that has been paid to a client

311
Q

When a firm provides designated investment business to a retail client, the training and competency requirements do not apply for which of the following?

A

Arranging

312
Q

All of the following concerning general guidance notes issued by the FCA are true, except that they:

A

Are binding on the firm

313
Q

Market abuse is different from the offence of insider dealing in all of the following ways except:

A

It should be easier for the FCA to impose a custodial sentence

314
Q

Which of the following would not be considered a suspicious transaction under the Money Laundering Regulations?

A

The customer is unable to prove his identity through the usual means, but is willing to offer other forms of identification

315
Q

To whom is the PRA directly accountable?

A

Bank of England

316
Q

If an independent financial adviser (IFA) passes on the business of a client to a life assurance company, which of the following would be true? The life assurance company:

A

Can rely on the information about the client provided by the IFA

317
Q

In respect of the Conduct of Business Rules which of the following does NOT qualify as a ‘durable medium’?

A

Internet websites

318
Q

If a company prepares financial reports how long is the close period under the ‘Persons Discharging Managerial Responsibility’ (PDMR) regime of directors’ dealings?

A

30 days

319
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of an offence of ‘receiving a bribe’ under the United Kingdom’s Bribery Act 2010?

A

Requesting a bribe is an offence, regardless of whether or not the bribe is actually received

320
Q

Which of the following is not a sanction available to the FCA in relation to a breach of the conduct of business rules?

A

Disqualification of directors

321
Q

Under the Proceeds of Crime Act if you made an illegal disclosure in respect of an investigation into money laundering, you would be guilty of which of the following offences?

A

Tipping-off

322
Q

The Takeover Code covers all of the following elements of a takeover EXCEPT:

A

Ensuring the financial and commercial advantage of the takeover

323
Q

What is the primary reason for a collective investment scheme to seek regulated status? So that:

A

It may advertise itself to the general public

324
Q

How often should an authorised firm report to the FCA in respect of customer complaints?

A

Twice a year

325
Q

A financial adviser makes a personal recommendation on a retail investment product to a retail client. For which of the following reasons would the adviser NOT need to send out a suitability report? The recommendation relates to:

A

A small life policy from a friendly society

326
Q

Under the COBS rules, which one of the following rules would apply to eligible counterparties?

A

Client categorisation

327
Q

The FCA rules on financial promotions expand which Principle for Businesses?

A

Customers’ Interests

328
Q

The FCA guidance on electronic communication with a client states that a firm should do all of the following, except:

A

Be able to demonstrate that it made it clear to the client that instructions communicated in this manner may not be acted upon immediately

329
Q

Which of the following functions captured under the SM&CR regime is not classified as a senior manager function?

A

Investment adviser

330
Q

How long after a transaction must a confirmation be sent to the client?

A

By the next business day

331
Q

What is the minimum period of reflection required by the FCA following the sale of a life or pension product, irrespective of whether the firm offers advice?

A

30 days

332
Q

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the ‘Persons Discharging Managerial Responsibility’ (PDMR) regime?

A

It is designed to protect directors from the appearance of insider dealing

333
Q

Which one of these is not a per se eligible counterparty?

A

Local authority

334
Q

If a chairman wanted to deal shares in their company (s)he would inform:

A

Their company

335
Q

Which of the following best represents the FCA view on industry guidance?

A

The FCA will not monitor or enforce compliance

336
Q

Firm XYZ is an authorised person in the UK and communicates a promotion from Firm JKL, an authorised overseas person. Which of the following is TRUE?

A

The extent to which the compensation will or will not be available must be stated

337
Q

A financial promotion to which of these groups does not require approval prior to communication?

A

Eligible counterparty

338
Q

The Criminal Justice Act regarding insider dealing contains a special defence providing the person was acting in good faith. This defence applies to:

A

Market makers

339
Q

A client approaches your firm wishing to engage you to provide a discretionary service on his account. In order to trigger the requirement to provide a client agreement before providing services the client must be:

A

Either a retail client or professional client, as both are protected by this rule

340
Q

If the FCA requires inspection of documents during an investigation, what is the time limit for a regulated firm to produce them?

A

A reasonable time period

341
Q

In the process of action taken by the FCA under the Decision Procedure and Penalties Manual, which of the following should follow immediately after the firm receives a warning notice?

A

The firm has the right to make representation, which may lead to the FCA amending the notice or even cease action

342
Q

Which ONE of the following is ALWAYS required to be an approved person under the Accountability Regime rules?

A

Non-executive director

343
Q

A firm is able to execute a client order on venue A or venue B. If the spread associated with venue A is better, the firm must execute on:

A

Either venue A or venue B provided the cost difference only reflects actual execution cost differences

344
Q

Once a warning notice has been issued, what would be issued next to inform the firm that the investigation is no longer proceeding?

A

Notice of discontinuance

345
Q

Which of the following would not be considered market abuse?

A

An employee of a firm trades on price-sensitive information that has been disclosed through an RIS

346
Q

According to the JMLSG’s guidance notes, for what length of time should client verification records be kept?

A

Five years from the date the account was closed

347
Q

Which of the following is true of exempt persons under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000?

A

They cannot be both authorised and exempt regardless of activities

348
Q

Which of the following best describes the objective of conduct risk regulation?

A

Rules do matter, but outcomes for consumers and markets are the principal focus of regulatory concern

349
Q

Under the regime created by the retail distribution review, which of the following is TRUE?

A

The charge can be ongoing and based on a percentage of the funds invested

350
Q

To which one of the following activities do the conduct of business rules apply?

A

Long-term insurance business in relation to life policies

351
Q

The Tax and Chancery Chamber of the Upper Tribunal is operated by:

A

A government department

352
Q

If an authorised firm is conducting unauthorised regulated activities, this will be considered to be which ONE of the following?

A

A criminal matter

353
Q

Assuming abusive effect was identified, which of the following is not considered market abuse?

A

Following the conduct of business rules

354
Q

The Collective Investment Scheme Sourcebook does not apply to which of the following?

A

Director of an investment trust

355
Q

Which of the following best describes the right to appeal to the Tax and Chancery Chamber of the Upper Tribunal following the issue of a decision notice?

A

There is a right to appeal in all circumstances

356
Q

Who has overall responsibility for the UK’s financial system, including the institutional structure and the legislation that governs it?

A

HM Treasury

357
Q

Which one of the following is ALWAYS a specified activity under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000?

A

Operating a stakeholder pension scheme

358
Q

Which of the following is client money?

A

Money held in excess to a client’s obligations

359
Q

A broker is aware that his firm is involved in takeover proceedings involving company GHI plc. The broker receives a client order to sell all their stock ‘At best’. According to the Market Abuse Regulation what should the dealer do?

A

Take the order and execute it

360
Q

In the course of MiFID business, in which one of these situations does the rule of appropriateness apply to a firm?

A

Arranging a swap transaction for a client without giving any advice

361
Q

In relation to the Client Asset Sourcebook rules, client money is money held separately from the:

A

Firm’s money

362
Q

Graham accepts regular deposits from the director of a small overseas company. Which of the stages of money laundering could Graham find himself under suspicion of under the Money Laundering Regulations?

A

Placement

363
Q

A firm is required to organise and control their affairs responsibly and effectively, and the FCA sets down high-level competence requirements for them to achieve this.
Which of the following sourcebooks contained within the FCA Handbook outline these requirements for ALL firms?

A

Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Controls

364
Q

How much notice does the FCA need to give before entering a firm’s premises during an investigation?

A

A reasonable period

365
Q

“An employee has noticed that one of his clients has started settling transactions in Australian dollars. There is nothing in the ‘Know Your Customer’ information that would suggest this is to be expected.
Which is the following is the best description of the action that the employee should take?”

A

Report the client to their Money Laundering Reporting Officer

366
Q

Report the client to their Money Laundering Reporting Officer

A

Act in accordance with the order execution policy

367
Q

Where an agent is acting on behalf of a number of underlying clients (who are all, by written agreement, to be treated as clients of the firm), the firm is permitted to send a single communication to the agent, expressed to cover each underlying client in respect of which one of the following?

A

Terms of agreement

368
Q

What must a firm do if it considers, on the basis of information received, that a particular product is not appropriate for a client?

A

Warn the client that, in its view, the product is not appropriate

369
Q

Thomas works at a small bank. Over the last few months he has been accepting deposits from an individual who visits the UK regularly. This is most likely to be which stage in the process of money laundering?

A

Placement

370
Q

Which of the following is a breach of the principle of integrity?

A

Misleading a client about a transaction

371
Q

The sourcebook ‘Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Controls’ requires records to be retained by the firm regarding the apportionment of senior management responsibilities. For how long must these records be retained?

A

Six years from any change in senior management responsibilities

372
Q

Which of the following is NOT an objective of the FCA Handbook, Senior Management Arrangements Systems and Control Sourcebook?

A

To ensure that directors and senior management spend more time trying to detect money laundering

373
Q

When considering the rule on product information to be disclosed before providing services, to whom would the firm need to make these disclosures?

A

Retail clients only

374
Q

Which of the following is an eligible complainant under the FCA regulations?

A

A private individual who has never worked in the financial sector

375
Q

Churning is the name given to:

A

Overtrading in securities

376
Q

A firm has received several execution only client orders for purchases in Company A. The firm also has an order to purchase shares in that company. Which ONE of the following statements is FALSE in respect of the execution of these orders?

A

The firm can only rely on aggregation if the orders cannot be executed sequentially

377
Q

Churning relates to:

A

The overtrading of investments only

378
Q

Which of the following are in the scope of the market abuse regime:

A

Shares traded on NEX
IICopper futures traded on the LME
IIIShares on the Official List of the LSE
IVGas oil futures traded on ICE Futures

379
Q

Which of the following is not a threshold condition for a firm seeking Part 4A permission under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000?

A

Market conduct

380
Q

According to COBS, a firm must take reasonable steps to manage any conflicts of interest with respect to independent research in which of the following cases?

A

The firm is making a recommendation to a client

381
Q

Which of the following does not have any rights under the Financial Services Compensation Scheme?

A

An authorised firm with respect to general insurance

382
Q

Steve is a director within a broking firm. Under the general requirements in the Senior Manager Arrangements, Systems and Controls Sourcebook, the FCA would expect Steve to have which of the following characteristics?

A

He must be of good repute and sufficiently experienced

383
Q

According to the Money Laundering Regulations, which of the following is FALSE?

A

A firm must keep records for a minimum of three years
Explanation
The firm must keep records for five years.

384
Q

Under UKLA disclosure and transparency rules, concert parties must disclose shareholdings to a company where they acquire:

A

3%

385
Q

In which of the following circumstances may an unauthorised firm make a financial promotion? It:

A

Is permitted to make a financial promotion only if the content and inducement have been approved by an authorised person

386
Q

Which of the following are covered under MiFID investments?

A

Corporate bonds

387
Q

Which of the following is false in relation to the sale of cash deposit ISAs sold via a distance contract and without advice?

A

The maximum period of reflection is 30 days

388
Q

Which one of the following would be required to seek authorisation under S19 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000?

A

Advising on stakeholder pensions

389
Q

Can a third party appeal to the Tribunal on behalf of an authorised firm against a decision notice?

A

Yes, if the appeal is made within 28 days of the notice being issued

390
Q

With regard to the approval of a non-real time financial promotion, which of the following is true? A firm:

A

Can use any authorised third party and the promotion becomes the responsibility of the third party

391
Q

Can use any authorised third party and the promotion becomes the responsibility of the third party

A

Five years from the date it receives the complaint

392
Q

The Tax and Chancery Chamber of the Upper Tribunal’s responsibilities include:

A

Hear appeals from authorised firms facing disciplinary action from the FCA

393
Q

A UK authorised firm has acquired a passport from the FCA to conduct business from a branch office in Spain. When conducting business from that branch office with its Spanish clients, which of the following rules would be governed by the host state regulator?

A

The rules that govern how the firm conducts business with its Spanish clients

394
Q

Which ONE of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a professional client?

A

Unauthorised firm

395
Q

With regards to a MiFID business, which of the following do not require Part 4A authorisation?

A

French company with clients in the UK

396
Q

In respect of the Criminal Justice Act 1993, which of the following is most likely to be an insider?

A

An employee who received price sensitive information in the normal course of business

397
Q

Which of the following is least likely to give rise to a conflict of interest?

A

Encouraging a client to buy when a firm has gone short

398
Q

Under Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Controls (SYSC), when a firm apportions its responsibilities amongst its directors and senior management it must ensure all of the following, except:

A

That records of responsibilities are publicly available and sent to all clients before conducting designated business

399
Q

Which of the following are eligible to claim financial loss from the Financial Ombudsman Service?

A

A charity with income of £250,000

400
Q

For what time period would a firm keep records on confirmation of trades for MiFID business?

A

Five years from dispatch

401
Q

Which of the following best reflects the reactive supervision work of the FCA?

A

It is remedial work to deal with problems that are emerging or have happened

402
Q

Any firm providing execution services for a client must produce an order execution policy. Which of the follow is not true with regard to a firm’s order execution policy? It must:

A

Be assessed by a third party firm before being shown to clients

403
Q

With which of the following conduct rules are all approved persons required to comply?

A

Observe proper standards of market conduct

404
Q

Which of the following applies to a UK firm dealing in shares with an eligible counterparty?

A

It is an eligible counterparty business and therefore has limited exposure to the conduct of business rules

405
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding the types of notices that can be issued by the Regulatory Decisions Committee (RDC)?

A

On the issuance of a decision notice the recipient has the right to appeal to the Upper Tribunal within 36 days

406
Q

Who implements and administers the Freedom of Information Act 2000?

A

The Information Commissioner’s Office

407
Q

What is MOST likely to be covered by the FCA rules on financial promotions?

A

Promotion aimed at private investors

408
Q

For which one of these financial instruments is a firm required to assess appropriateness when performing execution only services?

A

Securitised debt embedding a derivative

409
Q

Which one of the following is NOT regarded by the FCA as a reasonable inducement to be paid by a product provider to a firm in relation to the sale of packaged products?

A

Office rent

410
Q

Which of the following bodies is responsible for promoting stable and prudent operation of the financial system through the effective regulation of deposit taking institutions, insurers and investment banks?

A

Prudential Regulation Authority

411
Q

Which of the following is TRUE in respect of the conflicts of interest policy?

A

Where a firm is part of a group, the policy should take account any potential conflicts arising from that group

412
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the protections offered to ‘whistle-blowers’ as applied under the Public Interests Disclosure Act (PIDA)?

A

It protects persons from retaliation where they inform the regulatory authorities of concerns that might come to their attention at their place of work

413
Q

Which of the following penalties are NOT available to the FCA for cases of market abuse?

A

A prison sentence

414
Q

Which ONE of the following investments is NOT permitted under the Markets in Financial Instruments Directive?

A

Mortgages

415
Q

Who must a data controller be registered with under the Data Protection Act?

A

Information commissioner

416
Q

Where a firm becomes aware of a conflict of interest that may damage a particular client’s interests, which of the following procedures must the firm follow?

A

Manage the conflict and continue to deal

417
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding the Financial Services Compensation Scheme?

A

Eligible counterparties may never make a claim on the scheme

418
Q

Which of the following is a provision of the Money Laundering Regulations?

A

Training must be given to employees in relation to money laundering prevention

419
Q

Which of the following best describes the cancellation period offered to a client of the firm?

A

Compulsory for certain products

420
Q

Which of the following is a general defence for insider dealing?

A

An individual who would have dealt anyway

421
Q

Which of these is true in relation to COBS for a MiFID firm?

A

They must follow COBS

422
Q

Under which of the following circumstances do the conduct of business rules not require a firm to enter into a client agreement?

A

The client enters into an insurance contract with the firm as principal

423
Q

Which European regulation relates to the transparency and risk management in the OTC derivative markets?

A

European markets infrastructure regulation

424
Q

To be marketed in an EEA country a UK unit trust must:

A

Conform with UCITS directive and member state’s regulations

425
Q

Which of the following is true of trail commissions?

A

Trail commissions of any sort are not allowed

426
Q

Where money is held in connection with a delivery vs. payment transaction, the client money rules will not apply for:

A

Up to three business days

427
Q

Which activity is the subject of the defence in relation to distorting market prices of ‘acting in accordance with the rules of’?

A

Price stabilisation

428
Q

When a decision notice is referred to the Tax and Chancery Chamber of the Upper Tribunal, a full re-hearing is given to the matter that gave rise to the referral. What evidence may be considered at the re-hearing?

A

Any evidence relating to the decision whether or not it was available to the FCA at the time of the decision

429
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of the Money Laundering Regulations 2017?

A

All firms subject to the regulations must appoint a Money Laundering Reporting Officer

430
Q

What best describes the guidance notes from the Money Laundering Steering Group?

A

They provide an indication of how firms should interpret the laws on money laundering

431
Q

To whom is the FCA directly accountable?

A

HM Treasury

432
Q

When comparing conduct risk regulation with compliance with rules, which of the following is true?

A

Compliance with rules is retrospective, the conduct risk approach is forward looking

433
Q

If a retail client wishes to ensure that they do not lose any money in a deposit, which of the following is the most suitable deposit?

A

Up to £85,000 in a UK bank account

434
Q

Which one of the following is not defined as the client of a firm?

A

A person acting through an agent

435
Q

Money laundering relates to:

A

Cash and assets from a criminal source

436
Q

Which ONE of the following supervisory tools are designed to limit or reduce identified risks and prevent them crystallising or increasing?

A

Preventative

437
Q

Which regulatory body safeguards the members of defined benefit pension schemes?

A

The Pensions Regulator

438
Q

When the holdings of a married couple are automatically aggregated as a result of deciding if one of the sizable holdings rules have been broken, this is known as working as:

A

Connected parties

439
Q

When the holdings of a married couple are automatically aggregated as a result of deciding if one of the sizable holdings rules have been broken, this is known as working as:

A

Up to £85,000 in a UK bank account

440
Q

A defence against a charge of carrying out a regulated activity without authorisation could be:

A

Managing own portfolio

441
Q

If a firm is providing investment research for dissemination to its clients in particular financial investments, when would the firm be permitted to deal on that information?

A

If a firm is providing investment research for dissemination to its clients in particular financial investments, when would the firm be permitted to deal on that information?

442
Q

If a firm is providing investment research for dissemination to its clients in particular financial investments, when would the firm be permitted to deal on that information?

A

All clients

443
Q

If a retail client has not advised the firm differently, how often must firms send periodic statements?

A

Quarterly

444
Q

Under the Financial Services Act 2012 who is responsible for the soundness of ‘significant investment firms’?

A

PRA

445
Q

Are promotions in respect of Undertaking for Collective Investments in Transferable Securities (UCITS) funds allowed on a general marketing basis in the UK?

A

Yes

446
Q

In respect of the Conduct of Business rules which of the following does NOT qualify as a ‘durable medium’?

A

Website

447
Q

Once the FCA has issued a warning notice under the powers granted under s387 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000, in which of the following circumstances can the FCA decide to discontinue any further action?

A

At any time by issuing a written notice of discontinuance

448
Q

Which of the following does NOT require a key information document?

A

Cash deposit individual savings account

449
Q

In respect of the responsibilities of an authorised firm which of the following is TRUE?

A

A firm must take reasonable care to establish and maintain systems and controls that are appropriate to the business

450
Q

According to the Financial Services Act 2012, which one of the following is a statutory objective of the FCA?

A

Protecting and enhancing the integrity of the UK financial system

451
Q

Under the individual accountability regime, which of the following is a conduct rule applying to certified persons?

A

Act with due skill, care and diligence

452
Q

The rules on market abuse apply to:

A

Regulated individuals and members of the public

453
Q

A firm must assess the expertise of elective professional clients. This is known as:

A
  • Qualitative test
454
Q

You have gained a new client who wishes to take advantage of your online facilities. Through which of the following methods must you inform your client of the firm’s website address?

A

Through an e-mail sent to the client’s email address

455
Q

The purpose of the Public Interest Disclosure Act 1998 in terms of whistleblowing is:

A

To invalidate clauses in employment contracts that preclude protected disclosures

456
Q

Under the SMCR, which of the following would definitely require certification from the employee’s firm?

A

Advising clients

457
Q

Durable media are those which according to COBS:

A

Can be accessed by a person and which allows unchanged reproduction of the information stored on it

458
Q

EMIR sets out requirements for reporting and risk management in the OTC derivative markets. Which firms are covered by this regulation?

A

EEA-incorporated and established entities

459
Q

Which of the following would NOT be seen by the FCA as meeting the requirement in terms of use of charges for research?

A

The research payment account cannot be funded by research charges made to clients

460
Q

If a company prepares semi-annual financial reports how long is the close period under the ‘Persons Discharging Managerial Responsibility’ (PDMR) regime of directors’ dealings?

A

One month

461
Q

In which of the following circumstances would identification be required on establishing new business?

A

A potential new client resident in the UK

462
Q

What is the maximum claim on the Financial Services Compensation Scheme in the event of an insolvency of a firm where the investor has lost money through protected investment business?

A

£85,000

463
Q

If a collective investment scheme wishes to attain compliance with the Undertakings for Collective Investments in Transferable Securities Directive in order to market itself throughout the EEA, which of the following would the manager not be permitted to include in his portfolio?

A

Options on gold

464
Q

Which one of the following is NOT true about the information that must be disclosed by a firm to a client before providing services?

A

The information must be in a format that is specific to each client

465
Q

EMIR sets out requirements for reporting and risk management in the OTC derivative markets. Which firms are covered by this regulation?

A

All EEA-incorporated and established entities

466
Q

According to the inducement provisions stated by the FCA, which of the following is not an appropriate payment by the firm?

A

A third party providing general office equipment used for word processing and accountancy in the normal running of the firm’s activities

467
Q

With regards to money laundering, the FCA will check whether a firm is in breach of the rules on systems and controls with reference to the firm’s adherence to:

A

JMLSG guidance

468
Q

Who is allowed to make a mass detriment reference?

A

FOS and Authorised firms

469
Q

Under the retail distribution review (RDR), financial advisers must complete CPD. What does the abbreviation CPD refer to?

A

Continuous professional development

470
Q

In the event of a firm being unable to execute a client limit order immediately, the firm must make that order public in all but which of the following situations?

A

The client has informed the firm that they do not wish the trade to be made public

471
Q

In relation to financial promotions, the guidance for a firm wishing to communicate or approve a financial promotion aims to amplify which Principles for Businesses?

A

‘Customers’ interests’ and ‘Communication with clients’

472
Q

For the purpose of the best execution rule, which one of the following is not an acceptable execution venue?

A

Any over the counter arrangement

473
Q

Which of the following would be a breach of the Conduct Rule ‘Integrity’?

A

Misleading a client by providing false information

474
Q

In relation to MiFID business, what minimum value must be exceeded by the portfolio of an elective professional client?

A

500,000 euros

475
Q

Which of the following best reflects the ‘issues and products’ work of the FCA?

A

It is intensive campaigns on sectors of the market or products posing risk to consumers

476
Q

Which execution only client is MOST LIKELY to need to have the most comprehensive risk explanation provided to them?

A

A retail client buying options

477
Q

Which of the following is true of trail commissions?

A

Trail commissions are no longer allowed

478
Q

Which of the following would be considered a general defence against the accusation of insider dealing as defined under the Criminal Justice Act?

A

Did not expect to gain a profit

479
Q

When an FCA firm undertakes a promotion to a retail client, which is TRUE?

A

There must be a warning that any performance data is not a reliable indicator of future performance

480
Q

Which of the following would ALWAYS be contained within the key information document?

A

A description of the terms and features of a product

481
Q

Who performs the regulatory check of a mail-shot sent by an appointed representative?

A

The compliance department of the appointing firm

482
Q

Which of the following is not true in relation to the prospectus regulation?

A

It requires a prospectus to be approved by each member states

483
Q

An authorised firm, acting on behalf of a client, has received an order to buy 5,000 shares in XYZ plc just before the market opens. The firm believes that the market will open with a sharp fall due to significant losses on the S&P 500 overnight. When should the firm execute the transaction?

A

The firm may delay execution if it believes it is in the best interests of the client

484
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding market abuse?

A

Intention does not need to be proved for a conviction

485
Q

When a firm is carrying out which type of business is the FCA’s Conduct of Business Rule relating to suitability required?

A

Advisory MiFID services on behalf of retail and professional clients

486
Q

Dealing on which of the following would be classified as an offence under the insider dealing legislation?

A

Inside information when the person knows that it is inside information and knows that it is from an inside source

487
Q

The FCA intend to take action against a firm for a breach of a rule. Which of the following will inform the firm of the action proposed?

A

Warning notice

488
Q

Which of the following is a statutory objective of the FCA?

A

To ensure that the relevant markets function well

489
Q

In relation to MiFID business, eligible counterparty status exists in relation to:

A

Eligible counterparty business only

490
Q

John works in a Spanish branch of company XYZ. Barry is one of the directors in the UK office who has found out that John has been involved in a criminal activity. Should Barry blow the whistle?

A

Yes; regardless of where the offence has been committed

491
Q

The main objective of the ‘Persons Discharging Managerial Responsibility’ (PDMR) regime is:

A

To ensure the LSE is perceived to be a fair and orderly market

492
Q

A firm providing services in which of the following investments would not qualify for MiFID status?

A

Instruments of payment

493
Q

If a complaint has NOT been resolved by a firm who should the complainant turn to next?

A

FOS

494
Q

In relation to data protection, to whom does a firm’s Data Input Officer report?

A

The firm’s Data Controller

495
Q

A retail client who is habitually resident overseas does not wish to be sent a basic agreement letter for insurance business. The firm should:

A

Not send them a client agreement

496
Q

A firm must retain records relating to an assessment of appropriateness for a minimum of:

A

Five years

497
Q

Which of the following is the best description of an outcomes-focused approach to regulation?

A

More reliance on high level objectives and less attention to detailed rules

498
Q

Which of the following statements is true with respect to cancellation rights on the sale to a retail client of a packaged product?

A

Cancellation rights should be offered

499
Q

Which of the following is TRUE in respect of the principles of membership of the Chartered Institute for Securities and Investment’s Code of Conduct?

A

Members must comply with the principles

500
Q

What do insider dealing and market abuse have in common?

A

They can both involve the use of non public information

501
Q

How long must records of non-MiFID custody assets be kept under the client asset rules?

A

Three years after they were made

502
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of the FCA’s principles-based approach to money laundering in their Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Controls (SYSC) Sourcebook? Firms should:

A

Establish and maintain effective systems and controls for compliance with JMLSG

503
Q

Which of the following roles should be performed by an approved person?

A

Non-executive directorship

504
Q

What is the scope of the United Kingdom’s Bribery Act 2010?

A

Worldwide

505
Q

The process where an EEA firm opens up a branch in another EEA country without obtaining local authorisation is known as:

A

Passporting

506
Q

Which of the following instruments is NOT within the scope of the Criminal Justice Act 1993 (Insider Dealing)?

A

Building Society share account

507
Q

Which of the following is not an appropriate action for avoidance of a conflict of interest?

A

Implementing Chinese walls in place of a personal account notice

508
Q

If the FCA requires information from an authorised firm for the purpose of an investigation, which is NOT a method through which the firm is usually informed?
A

A

An e-mail giving 24 hours’ notice

509
Q

Under anti-money laundering provisions, which ONE of the following is TRUE in respect of suspicious transactions? Employees should:

A

Ensure a report is made to their firm’s MLRO

510
Q

How soon must the firm correct a discrepancy after completing a client money reconciliation?

A

As soon as possible

511
Q

Which of the following best describes Chinese walls? An arrangement that requires:

A

Information held by a person in the course of carrying on one part of its business to be withheld from, or not to be used by, persons with or for whom it acts in the course of carrying on another part of its business

512
Q

According to the Conduct of Business Rules, when an appointed representative communicates a financial promotion, who ultimately bears responsibility for that communication?

A

The authorised firm that approves the promotion

513
Q

The MLRO must report to senior management at least every:

A

12 months

514
Q

Which of the following would not be able to take advantage of the FSCS?

A

An authorised collective investment scheme investing in designated investments
Explanation

515
Q

Which of the following is true of the training and competence rules?

A

Authorised firms are required to ensure their employees are competent for their role in the firm under Principle for Businesses 3, Management and Control

516
Q

Which one of these is not an acceptable reason for a firm to fail to execute otherwise comparable orders sequentially?

A

A retail client’s order was given priority over other clients

517
Q

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the FCA, the PRA and the board of the Financial Services Compensation Scheme (FSCS)?

A

The Chairman of the board of the FSCS is appointed by the FCA and the PRA jointly

518
Q

Which ONE of these per se professional clients is not permitted to become an eligible counterparty?

A

An institutional investor that is not an authorised or regulated person

519
Q

Which of the following statements is false with regards to whistleblowing?

A

The rules allow an employee to breach rules on client confidentiality at all times

520
Q

Under the liquidity framework, the PRA requires a firm to perform all of the following, except:

A

Call on the resources of other companies of the same group

521
Q

In the context of market abuse which of the following circumstances would not be considered an offence?

A

Short selling

522
Q

Which of the following functions in an authorised firm is LEAST likely to require approval under the individual accountability regime?

A

Customer advisor on investments

523
Q

A client asks for a copy of a trade confirmation for a trade that was carried out six years ago. Which would be a valid response to the client?

A
  • Records are only kept for five years from the date of dispatch
524
Q

If the criteria for a concert party are established under the Disclosure and Transparency Rules, an obligation to notify the company occurs at a collective holding of:

A

3%

525
Q

Which of the following is the best description of criminal property?

A

Any benefit (money or otherwise) that has arisen from criminal conduct

526
Q

Which of the following is the correct interaction between the FCA regulations on money laundering and the JMLSG guidelines?

A

Firms cannot usually be disciplined for not following the regulations if they follow the JMLSG guidelines

527
Q

All key features documents must include information:

A

Explaining relevant cancellation procedures

528
Q

What must the firm do when a specific instruction from a client would prevent a firm from following its order execution policy when carrying out the transaction?

A

Carry out the order as instructed

529
Q

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A

Both the FCA and PRA are funded by fees paid by regulated firms

530
Q

In relation to MiFID business, how many transactions per quarter (over the previous four quarters) must a client have carried out in order to be treated as an elective professional client?

A

10

531
Q

When the Regulations Decision Committee issues a final notice to a firm at the end of the investigation procedure, which of the following is not included on a final notice?

A

The disciplinary action taken by the firm

532
Q

Under the Joint Money Laundering Steering Group Guidance Notes, which of the following would identify why enhanced due diligence is required for a politically exposed person?

A

Due to their position, they are more vulnerable to corruption

533
Q

A retail client wishes to opt up to a professional client. Which of the following is a requirement under the quantitative test?

A

Portfolio of investment assets above €500K

534
Q

When a firm uses a website to promote a product and gives the facility for an online application this would be considered to be?

A

Direct non real-time offer

535
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of the statutory notices issued by the RDC?

A

A decision notice may suggest actions that differ from the warning notices

536
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to the Training and Competence Sourcebook?

A

FCA firm employees must have their competence regularly reviewed

537
Q

Where a dual-regulated firm applies for Part 4A permission, which of the following threshold conditions is the sole responsibility of the Financial Conduct Authority?

A

Appropriate non-financial resources

538
Q

The COBS relating to financial promotions require an individual with appropriate expertise to check that the promotion is fair, clear and not misleading. For which of the following types of financial promotion is such a confirmation exercise required before issue?

A

Non real-time financial promotions

539
Q

Which of these is an eligible complainant under the FOS?

A

A business with a turnover of €1.3m

540
Q

The purpose of the Capital Requirements Directive is to ensure that firms maintain adequate resources in excess of their:

A

Capital resource requirements

541
Q

What must a firm do when a client has placed a limit order in respect of shares traded on a regulated market and the order is not immediately executed by the firm under prevailing market conditions?

A

Make the order public with a view to having it executed as soon as possible

542
Q

A retail client approaches a financial advisor (FA) to gain advice on a pension product. Which of the following must be disclosed regarding the scope and range of the advice by the FA before doing business?

A

Scope and range of advice in a durable medium

543
Q

Assuming that the activity is to be performed in the UK, which of the following would require authorisation under s19 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000, the ‘General Prohibition’?

A

Arranging currency options

544
Q

Which of the following are not protected by the conduct of business rules sourcebook?

A

Property purchases by a retail client

545
Q

To assess suitability for a retail client which one of the following, regarding the client, is the first thing that a firm should obtain from the client?

A

Knowledge and experience

546
Q

Which one of these is not an excluded communication under the financial promotion rules?

A

An unapproved financial promotion by an unauthorised firm

547
Q

Following an FCA investigation, the Regulatory Decisions Committee can issue a range of statutory notices. What is the best description of a warning notice?

A

Sent when the FCA believes that there is sufficient evidence to suggest wrongdoing has taken place and it intends to discipline

548
Q

In relation to rules governing regulated and unregulated activities, Part 9A of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 empowers the FCA to do which one of the following?

A

Create rules that are legally binding on authorised firms concerning regulated activity and also activity that is not regulated

549
Q

Under the client asset rules contained within the FCA Handbook, all of the following are classified as client money except:

A

Monies due to the firm

550
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of insider dealing?

A

It only applies to dealings via a regulated market

551
Q

Which of the following bodies oversees a firm’s behaviour towards their clients and the markets on which they participate?

A

Financial Conduct Authority

552
Q

Which of these is an eligible claimant under the FSCS?

A

A shareholder who owns < 5% of an organisation

553
Q

To whom would a firm report suspicions of money laundering?

A

National Crime Agency

554
Q

A firm discovers that it can execute a trade more favourably than the specific client instruction it has received. According to the specific client instructions rules, how should the firm proceed?

A

Execute according to the client’s instructions

555
Q

A broker is unable to execute a client order due to a trading halt on the exchange. This has led to the client order being postponed. In which of the following situations would the broker have to notify the client? If the order:

A

Came from a retail client

556
Q

Which of the following would not be an acceptable method of managing a conflict of interest?

A

Ensuring that client trades are executed first when a conflict arises

557
Q

Section 168 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 permits the FCA to appoint competent persons to carry out investigations on its behalf if:

A

An offence has been committed

558
Q

In relation to providing investments, the rule on inducements in the Conduct of Business rules, which ONE of the following is TRUE?

A

The rules allow the firm to pay an inducement to the client

559
Q

If providing execution only services in a non-complex product, the only information a firm requires is the client’s:

A

Name and address

560
Q

Although a client provides a firm with specific instructions, the firm executes the trade in accordance with their own trade execution policy. What must the firm do?

A

Report itself to the FCA, as it is potentially in breach of regulations

561
Q

Which of the following is true of internal reconciliations of clients’ assets?

A

If a firm cannot comply with the requirements on reconciliation it must notify the FCA

562
Q

Which of these would be exempt from the need for authorisation under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000?

A

A French firm conducting an FX trade with a UK counterparty

563
Q

Which of the following would be considered a retail investment product, but not a packaged product?

A

Shares in an investment trust

564
Q

According to guidance in the FCA handbook which of the following would BEST indicate that an investment manager of a client portfolio was engaged in churning?

A

Excessive activity in a client’s portfolio containing shares

565
Q

If the FCA is leading an investigation into insider dealing, who can use the special defence of ‘acting in good faith’?

A

Market-maker

566
Q

Which of the following are penalties available to the FCA for cases of market abuse?

A

Restitution order
IIUnlimited financial penalty
IIIWithdrawal of approval
IVIssue a public statement

567
Q

An authorised firm wishes to conduct business over the internet with its clients. Which of the following is NOT an obligation on the firm when considering this form of business?

A

Explain that orders received electronically may not be acted on immediately

568
Q

Which of the following would not be a valid exception to the rule prohibiting the front running of investment research?

A

The research is for eligible counterparties only

569
Q

In relation to an authorised firm placing reliance on others for information, which of the following is not a qualifying criteria?

A

The information provider must be based in the UK

570
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding market abuse?

A

Intention does not need to be proved

571
Q

What disclosure obligations does a shareholder have if they own 18% of the shares of Widget plc, a listed company and sell 1% of their holdings?

A

Disclose the sale to the company concerned within two business days

572
Q

The financial promotion rules do not apply to marketing communications in respect of which one of the following?

A

A predator company posting details of a takeover to shareholders

573
Q

The Appropriateness rule, in the FCA Conduct of Business rules, applies to:

A

A professional client purchasing a capital at risk structured product with no advice

574
Q

Which ONE of the following needs to be included in a firm’s order execution policy?

A

Execution venues

575
Q

A firm has received a sell limit order from a professional client. The order is the tenth order received from that client over a period of three months. The order cannot be executed immediately through the firm.
Which of the following reasons would justify the firm not making the order public on the LSE?

A

The client has instructed otherwise

576
Q

Which of the following could be categorised as an elective professional client?

A

The head of research at a fund management firm with a portfolio worth €700,000

577
Q

Under the Market Abuse Regulation the FCA has the power to do which one of the following with respect to market abuse?

A

Civil enforcement

578
Q

All of the following statements regarding Chinese walls are true except:

A

The FCA specify that Chinese walls must be implemented in all asset management firms

579
Q

In the event that a firm breaches the general prohibition under S19 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000, which of the following is TRUE?

A

Any agreements with the firm are unenforceable against the client

580
Q

Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Markets in Financial Instruments Directive?

A

To ensure the profitability of firms offering financial services across the EEA

581
Q

Which of the following gives the FCA the power to prosecute insider dealing offences?

A

Financial Services and Markets Act 2000

582
Q

In relation to the provision of research under the Conduct of Business Sourcebook, a broker must do which of the following?

A

Receive payment from the recipients of the research

583
Q

A firm engaging in a transaction triggered the COBS requirement to display proof of appropriateness for the transaction because the client:

A

Engaged in execution only trades

584
Q

The FCA is pursuing an investigation into insider dealing. Which of the following would provide the accused with a special defence under the Criminal Justice Act against an accusation?

A

Market maker acting in ordinary course of business

585
Q

All of the following must always be complied with in relation to customer complaints, except:

A

Always paying compensation

586
Q

As part of the requirements set out in SYSC, which of the following is TRUE?

A

All firms must maintain clear apportionment of significant responsibilities among directors

587
Q

How soon on meeting a new client must a firm obtain appropriate identification in accordance with the money laundering regulations?

A

As soon as reasonably practicable

588
Q

In respect of the personal accounting dealing rules, the firm does not need to do which of the following?

A

Ensure that the employee only uses the firm for its personal account dealing transactions

589
Q

Fatima’s role involves dealing with customers, specified as a significant harm function by the regulator. Under the certification regime, which of the following is true?

A

Fatima needs to be certified by her firm before performing the role and annually thereafter

590
Q

Which of the following represents an acceptable inducement under COBS?

A

Management fees

591
Q

All of the following are specified by the FCA as a certification function except:

A

Information providers

592
Q

When considering whether to make a public disclosure and impose a financial penalty on an approved person, the RDC will take into account all of the following, except the fact that:

A

Whether the firm continues to employ the individual

593
Q

Money that is proceeds of crime is placed on deposit in the UK. It is then transferred overseas in an offshore bank account. Which stage of money laundering does this transfer represent?

A

Layering

594
Q

Which one of the following notices would give the recipient no further right of recourse against the FCA?

A

Final

595
Q

Insider trading legislation does not cover which ONE of the following?

A

Forward foreign exchange contracts

596
Q

In relation to the following communication which ONE could an authorised firm approve on behalf of a firm which is NOT authorised?

A

Magazine advert

597
Q

In the absence of agreement to the contrary, what must the firm do if a per se eligible counterparty asks to be subject to conduct of business protections?

A

Re-categorise it as an elective professional client

598
Q

Once a prospectus prepared under the Prospectus Regulation by a UK issuer has been approved:

A

The issuer can market their securities throughout the EU

599
Q

Which of the following can a collective investment scheme invest in under UCITS III?

A

Derivatives

600
Q

When ensuring compliance with anti-money laundering procedures and the combating of financing of terrorism, which (if any) should financial services firms prioritise?

A

Both are equally important

601
Q

Assuming that the client has approached the firm to request recategorisation, which one of the following could not be considered an elective eligible counterparty?

A

An individual trading for their own account with 10 years of professional experience

602
Q

Under FCA regulations, which of the following is true of a written financial promotion?

A

A firm can arrange for a third party to carry out the confirmation exercise and the responsibility for the promotion remains with the firm

603
Q

Which of the following is a statutory objective of the FCA?

A

Protecting the integrity of the financial system

604
Q

What is the MAIN purpose of the appropriateness requirement by the FCA?

A

To perform a duty of care for retail clients when providing execution only services

605
Q

An unsolicited real-time communication is simply an elaborate regulatory description of a cold call, but what can be promoted via such a communication?

A

A personal pension

606
Q

Which ONE of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a professional client?

A

Unauthorised firm

607
Q

EMIR sets out requirements for reporting and risk management in the OTC derivative markets. Which firms are covered by this regulation?

A

All EEA-incorporated and established entities

608
Q

A firm has given a personal recommendation to a client. For which of the following would a suitability report NOT be required?

A

Transactions in a regulated collective scheme for a professional client

609
Q

On which of the following trading platforms is an exchange trade reported automatically and published immediately?

A

SETS

610
Q

An existing client approaches their firm and requests that they give him a lower level of protection. Which of the following would be appropriate action for the firm to take? The firm must:

A

First assess the client and then, if necessary, warn them of the additional risks

611
Q

Which one of the following does a firm NOT need to obtain information about in order to assess suitability?

A

The identity of the client’s existing investments

612
Q

Money laundering covers:

A

All benefits of criminal activity

613
Q

When a firm holds client money with a third party, it must inform:

A

A retail client

614
Q

Which of the following best describes the FCA’s attitude with regard to the enforcement of the Principles for Business?

A

FCA firms can be disciplined because of a principle violation

615
Q

An authorised firm provides a service to a retail client. The FCA requires that the firm discloses its charges to that client. When should this disclosure occur?

A

Before doing business

616
Q

Which of the following firms would be required to comply with the UK Conduct of Business rules?

A

A UK subsidiary of a foreign firm writing insurance business for UK clients

617
Q

The UCITS directive allows which of these to market themselves to UK clients?

A

EU firms

618
Q

Which of the following would be considered a retail investment product, but not a packaged product?

A

Shares in an investment trust

619
Q

If a firm is holding money belonging to clients, which of the following is a reason for the firm to be exempt from the CASS 7 client money rules?

A

The money is coins held for the value of their metal

620
Q

When a firm communicates initially with a retail client, COBS requires it to provide ‘appropriate information’, which includes all of the following except:

A

Who to refer complaints to if they cannot be resolved by the firm

621
Q

Under the capital adequacy requirements, what is the purpose of stress tests?

A

To assess how well the capital resources stand up against a range of adverse scenarios over specified time periods

622
Q

The Financial Conduct Authority’s Principles for Businesses do NOT include which of the following statements? A firm must:

A

Operate an appropriate and effective complaints procedure

623
Q

As part of the requirements set out in SYSC, which of the following is TRUE?

A

All firms must maintain clear apportionment of significant responsibilities among directors

624
Q

The PRA replaced which one of the following?

A

FSA

625
Q

According to the Regulated Activities Order 2001, which of the following are specified investments?

A

Units in a collective investment scheme

626
Q

Which one of these statements is false in relation to a firm which holds itself out as giving independent advice on packaged products?

A

It must require the client to pay for its advice with an up-front fee

627
Q

In the event that a firm breaches the general prohibition, which of the following is TRUE?

A

Any agreements with the firm are unenforceable against the client

628
Q

According to the Terrorism Act 2000, by when must any suspicions of terrorist financing be reported?

A

As soon as reasonably practicable

629
Q

If an applicant for approved person status has a criminal history covered by the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 which of the following describes the right of the FCA to take this into account?

A

It might be taken into account if relevant

630
Q

When confirming whether a financial promotion complies with the financial promotions regulations, which of the following is TRUE?

A

Confirmation of compliance must be made by a person with appropriate expertise

631
Q

The maximum amount that a firm is bound to pay under FOS (plus costs) is:

A

£355,000

632
Q

When a firm trades with an eligible counterparty, which one of the following rules does not apply?

A

Selling and advising

633
Q

Which legislation establishes a framework of rights and duties to safeguard personal data?

A

DPA 2018

634
Q

Under the Criminal Justice Act, which of the following constitutes a special defence against an insider dealing prosecution?

A

Market information

635
Q

When a person is communicating a non-written financial promotion on behalf of an authorised firm which of the following must they always do?

A

Identify himself and the firm he represents

636
Q

Which of the following is an ancillary service under the Markets in Financial Instruments Directive?

A

Providing investment research into equities

637
Q

The FCA will consult which of the following sources of information in relation to money laundering offences?

A

The Joint Money Laundering Steering Group

638
Q

Which of the following would not be exempt from requiring authorisation?

A

Lloyd’s of London

639
Q

Which one of the following is overseen jointly by both the FCA and PRA?

A

FSCS

640
Q

According to the conduct of business rules and in relation to MiFID business, a firm must have in place a client agreement when it carries on:

A

Designated investment business for a retail client and MiFID business for a professional client

641
Q

In relation to the best execution rules in the conduct of business sourcebook, is it acceptable for a firm to charge different amounts for conducting the same trade on TWO different execution venues?

A

Yes - provided the difference between the charges represents differences in trading costs on the execution venues

642
Q

A firm is considering putting its own buy order on the same ticket as one of its client’s buy orders. Which of the following is true before the firm does this?

A

The firm has disclosed to the client that aggregation may operate to the disadvantage of clients

643
Q

The FCA has investigated an authorised firm and discovered that an employee has grossly misled the market through his actions and statements. As a response to this the FCA wish to prohibit the individual under the powers granted to them in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000. When will the FCA publish details of the prohibition order?

A

After the issuance of a final notice

644
Q

Which one of the following would automatically be treated as a per-se professional client for MiFID business?

A

An authorised firm with a balance sheet of €18m and own funds of €32m

645
Q

When must confirmation of a transaction be dispatched to a retail client?

A

No later than the end of the next business day

646
Q

The Senior Management and Arrangements, Systems and Control (SYSC) regulations encourage directors and senior managers of authorised firms to do all of the following, EXCEPT:

A

Take more time to identify transactions involving money laundering

647
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of the Joint Money Laundering Steering Group in the financial sector?

A

An independent body that provides guidance for financial institutions on fulfilling their duties in relation to money laundering

648
Q

Chinese walls have been breached and one particular employee has received sensitive information with regards to a firm takeover. What should the firm do?

A

Restrict the employee from advising clients if related to the target company

649
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a statutory objective of the FCA under the Financial Services Act 2012?

A

Promoting the safety and soundness of authorised persons

650
Q

Under the SM&CR set out by the FCA, which one of the following is least likely to be a senior manager function?

A

Customer advisor supervisor

651
Q

The FSCS deposit compensation limit is:

A

£85,000

652
Q

Under the professional standards of the retail distribution review (RDR), which of the following actions by an adviser would NOT require the firm to notify the FCA?

A

She has maintained her level of competence

653
Q

What is the minimum amount of net turnover that a trust must have to be classified as professional client for MiFID business?

A

€40 million

654
Q

At what time of day may a cold call be made?

A

An appropriate time

655
Q

When the FCA grants an exchange with recognised status, it:

A

Requires that the exchange must be fit and proper

656
Q

An employee of an authorised firm suspects that deposits being made by a client are suspicious. Which of the following would allow the employee to identify funds being deposited for terrorist activities rather than funds being deposited for money laundering?

A

Knowledge of the legitimacy of the source of funds

657
Q

Knowledge of the legitimacy of the source of funds

A

The information disclosure complied with accepted market practices

658
Q

In which of the following circumstances would it be permissible to not give a client a client agreement?

A

Retail clients paying for advice only with no resultant deals

659
Q

What sort of financial promotion may a firm not approve on behalf of an unauthorised firm?

A

Telephone calls

660
Q

How is the Pension Protection Fund (PPF) funded?

A

They take on assets from schemes tranferred to the PPF

661
Q

Which of the following actions is not defined as an act of terrorism under the Terrorism Act 2000?

A

Advance social causes

662
Q

Which ONE of the following is TRUE regarding the conflicts of interest rules in the Conduct of Business sourcebook?

A

The policy must specify procedures for managing the conflicts

663
Q

A fund manager sends out a mailshot blindly to several clients. The email contains information regarding the manager’s products and his website. Which of the following is covered under the Distance Marketing Directive?

A

The email and the website

664
Q

According to the Conduct of Business Rules, in which of the following situations would an authorised firm need to assess whether an investment or service is appropriate for a client?

A

Arranging a deal in a warrant for a retail client who has responded to a direct offer

665
Q

According to the Capital Requirements Directive, what should a firm do if its financial resources fall below the financial resources requirement set by the PRA?

A

Inform the PRA immediately

666
Q

For which personal account purchase would it be necessary for a relevant employee to obtain prior permission to deal, according to the personal account dealing rules?

A

Shares purchased by the employee on behalf of her spouse

667
Q

Which of the following are NOT permitted under UCITS, but is under MiFID?

A

Commodity derivatives

668
Q

Under the FCA Financial Promotions Rules a firm is permitted to disclose its opinion of the future performance of an investment. Which of the following is not permitted when taking advantage of this?

A

Projecting future performance from simulated past performance

669
Q

The directors of a UK financial institution use an overseas agent who, it has been proved, has accepted and used bribes in their activities. Which of the following would be a valid defence against any of the four offences of the Bribery Act 2010?

A

The directors could prove that adequate procedures are in place to prevent bribery

670
Q

Why does a firm have a written money laundering policy?

A

To ensure that there is a framework with which to deal with money laundering

671
Q

In order for an authorised firm to assess the suitability of a transaction

A

Financial situation

672
Q

In relation to the insider dealing legislation which ONE of the following is a SPECIAL defence against insider dealing?

A

The individual acted in accordance with the stabilisation rules

673
Q

Where would a firm seeking authorisation to perform certain regulated activities find the statutory procedures for seeking permission to perform regulated activities?

A

The Financial Services and Markets Act

674
Q

When an appointed representative is communicating a promotion to retail clients, and making appointments, which of the following is not required?

A

The detailed risks of the investment

675
Q

If a German firm has obtained a licence to sell securities in Germany, it will have to:

A

Notify the German authorities if it intends to provide services in the France

676
Q

Which one of the following can NOT be a per se eligible counterparty?

A

A local authority

677
Q

Under the passporting regulations, which one of the following is not the responsibility of the home state?

A

Conduct of business

678
Q

After the initial investigation by the FCA officers, the information is typically handed over to the Regulatory Decisions Committee who would decide what action is necessary. Any proposed action would be stated in a warning or supervisory notice. Which of the following could be issued by the RDC instead of these notices?

A

Notice of discontinuance

679
Q

If client A is advised by firm B on his investments, and then client A asks firm C to execute a trade for him, then firm C should keep a recording of the conversation between whom?

A

Between A and C covering the instruction to execute the trade

680
Q

Which of the following is not a sanction that the PRA can impose on a firm breaching PRA rules?

A

Maximum fine of £250,000

681
Q

A per se professional client asks an authorised firm for it to be categorised as a retail client for extra protection for MiFID business. Which is TRUE about the firm’s response?

A

The firm would enter into a written agreement regarding re-categorisation

682
Q

A fund manager is providing a discretionary management service to their clients. Halfway through their normal reporting period, the manager makes a large investment for the fund. When do they have to notify the client of the details of this purchase?

A

In the periodic statement

683
Q

A person buys an unusually large number of a particular share near the end of the day. Which of the following is most likely true in relation to market abuse?

A

The trade could lead to investors making the wrong decision

684
Q

With which of the below principles for business would you associate the outcomes of fair treatment of customers?

A

Principle 6

685
Q

If the Chairman of a UK listed company is aware of price sensitive information, but this is not known by anyone else, under what circumstances are other directors permitted to trade in their own-company shares?

A

The directors follow the rules of the PDMR regime

686
Q

What is the maximum that can be claimed from the FSCS by eligible claimants in respect of sterling deposit losses in a single institution?

A

£85,000 per individual

687
Q

The Panel on Takeovers and Mergers is:

A

An independent body that issues and administers the City Code

688
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four types of market manipulation set out in the Market Abuse Regulation?

A

Manipulating impressions

689
Q

An authorised firm communicates a financial promotion on a specific product containing past performance figures. Which of the following is true?

A

A warning about the effects of currency fluctuations if the figures are in a currency other than the client’s domestic currency

690
Q

What is the role of the Tax and Chancery Chamber of the Upper Tribunal?

A

If a firm is unhappy with the decisions of the FCA they may refer it to the Upper Tribunal

691
Q

When may a senior manager, having applied for approval from the FCA, perform a senior manager function?

A

As soon as the FCA grants approved status the manager may perform the function

692
Q

Which of the following would best describe criminal property?

A

Property which is, or represents, a person’s benefit from criminal conduct, where the alleged offender knows or suspects that it is such

693
Q

Which of the following would be considered a retail investment product, but not a packaged product?

A

Shares in an investment trust

694
Q

In which of the following situations would a firm need to perform appropriateness checks?

A

For non-advised services in complex products provided to both retail and professional clients

695
Q

Which one of the following is not a senior manager function?

A

Significant harm function

696
Q

Who does the Regulatory Decisions Committee report to?

A

The Financial Conduct Authority

697
Q

Which of the following is true of the Financial Action Task Force?

A

It continuously adapts its standards to address new risks

698
Q

In which of the following situations would a firm need to perform appropriateness checks?

A

Elias buys illiquid shares in an unquoted company brokered by an authorised firm

699
Q

The FCA has decided to discipline a firm or employee for a breach of a regulation. Which of the following notices are used to inform them?

A

Decision notice

700
Q

Which of these would be exempt from the financial promotions rules?

A

Communications by a government

701
Q

Which of these is described as exempt from the need for authorisation under FSMA Exemption Order 2001, but only for accepting deposits?

A

Local Authority

702
Q

If a financial analyst is providing investment research for dissemination to its clients in particular financial investments, when would they be permitted to deal on that information?

A

The financial analyst, as a relevant person, would be permitted to deal on the information if granted approval by the firm’s compliance

703
Q

What is the purpose of the Pension Protection Fund?

A

To compensate members of insolvent final salary pension schemes

704
Q

Under the Money Laundering Regulations all of the following are considered high-risk factors EXCEPT:

A

Bilateral transactions with an authorised counterparty

705
Q

Which of the following points is true in relations to the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002?

A

Money Laundering covers property related to all crimes

706
Q

Under the Securities Financing Trasactions Regulation (SFTR) which of the is true of the reporting obligations?

A

Securities financing transactions need to be reported at initiation and for lifecycle events

707
Q

Which of the following statements is true under the FCA’s periodic reporting rules?

A

Where a client has a leveraged portfolio, the periodic statement must be sent out monthly

708
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Chinese walls are false?

A

The FCA specify that Chinese walls must be implemented in all asset management firms

709
Q

A Money Laundering Reporting Officer (MLRO) has not organised any money laundering training in the firm for the past 30 months.
Two new employees, who joined the firm last month, have been found to have been involved in handling criminal funds. The criminals have since fled the UK.
Which of the following parties are the FCA most likely to prosecute?

A

The MLRO will be personally liable

710
Q

An authorised firm has made a mass detriment reference to the FCA, because it feels that if the customer complaint was referred to the FOS, that the FOS is likely to find in favour of the complainant.
What action, if any, is the FCA required to make?

A

The FCA must respond within 90 calendar days to the firm

711
Q

After completing the sale of a personal pension to a retail client, the advisory firm must follow up with which of the following?

A

A suitability report within 14 calendar days

712
Q

What information must always be included in a firm’s order execution policy for retail clients?

A

The process the firm uses to specify relative importance of the execution factors

713
Q

A broker receives an order from a professional client to sell 1,000 shares at a limit price of 100p via a firm-provided mobile phone.
How long should the broker keep a record of this phone call?

A

5 years

714
Q

Under the FCA Training and Competency rules, who must be supervised?

A

All staff performing specified activities

715
Q

EMIR sets out requirements for reporting and risk management in the OTC derivative markets. Which firms are covered by this regulation?

A

All EEA-incorporated and established entities

716
Q

The FCA has found that a firm’s structured product contains unacceptable risks to consumers. Under the powers granted by the Financial Services Act 2012, which of the following steps can the FCA take to manage these risks?

A

The FCA can ban the product for up to 12 months without consultation with the firm

717
Q

For which of the following products is a firm required to judge appropriateness when approached by a retail client for execution only services?

A

Warrants

718
Q

One of the FCA Supervisory Principles is to focus on two-way communication. What does this mean the FCA will do?

A

Engage directly with consumers to understand the issues they face

719
Q

According to COBS, a firm must take reasonable steps to manage any conflicts of interest with respect to independent research in which of the following cases?

A

The firm is making a recommendation to a client

720
Q

Who, under the Training and Competence rules, is responsible for setting out the standards of competence for employees of authorised firms?

A

The authorised firm

721
Q

Which of these is true in relation to comparisons provided in a promotion for a MiFID investment?

A

The source of the data must be stated

722
Q

Which of the following set out regulations ensuring firms control information to prevent the exchange of information that may harm the interests of one or more clients?

A

Financial Conduct Authority

723
Q

Which of the following is responsible for regulating the capital adequacy of large investment firms in the UK?

A

Prudential Regulation Authority

724
Q

Principle of Business 10 (client assets) applies to:

A

Retail Clients, Professional Clients and Eligible Counterparties

725
Q

Which of these is a senior manager function?

A

Chair of Risk Committee

726
Q

As a designated body under the Unfair Terms in Consumer Contracts Regulation 1999, the FCA has the power to:

A

Force financial services firm to amend or remove unfair contract terms

727
Q

Which of the following is an exemption from the rule on front running?

A

Market making in the normal course of business

728
Q

What is the notice issued by the PRA stating when it will take disciplinary action against an authorised firm or approved individual called?

A

Final notice

729
Q

Which of these is true in relation to the Tax and Chancery Chamber of the Upper
Tribunal?

A

Its decisions are binding on the FCA

730
Q

When a firm’s application for authorisation is reviewed, the FCA follows a set of principles. Which of the following is NOT such a principle?

A

Look closely at the business model and the viability of the firm over the long-term

731
Q

If an organisation is declined part 4a permission the decision will be communicated by the:

A

RDC

732
Q

When disclosing past performance regarding a seven year old equity fund to retail clients, which of the following is required according to the COBS?

A

The impact of fees and commissions must be clearly displayed

733
Q

An individual who is accused of insider dealing may not be able to use which of the following defence?

A

Dealt in the process of stabilisation

734
Q

Under which piece of legislation is the FCA empowered to issue fines for money laundering offences?

A

FSMA 2000

735
Q

Which of the following is a difference between money laundering and terrorist financing?

A

Terrorist financing may involve legitimate funds

736
Q

Which of the following is able to perform their job role under supervision prior to attaining the full qualification that is required of them?

A

An overseer

737
Q

For which of the following actions can a firm NOT appeal to the Tax and Chancery Chamber of the Upper Tribunal?

A

Imposition of penalties under the Criminal Justice Act

738
Q

A technology firm has decided to sell its shares to the public using the internet. Which of the following rules would govern this offer?

A

Promotions rules

739
Q

A sponsor suspects that the organisation they are working with may be involved with money laundering. To whom would they report this information?

A

MLRO or Nominated officer

740
Q

Which of these would be exempt from the need for authorisation under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000?

A

A French firm conducting an FX trade with a UK counterparty

741
Q

A trade in a UK exchange traded security is executed off-order book at 5:23. When does the trade report need to be made?

A

Before the start of the next trading period

742
Q

A broker is unable to execute a client order due to a trading halt on the exchange. This has led to the client order being postponed. In which of the following situations would the broker have to notify the client? If the order:

A

Came from a retail client

743
Q

When must a firm gather more information from the client in order to assess appropriateness?

A

Information already held by the firm was provided by the client and the firm is aware it is out of date

744
Q

What is the purpose of the Prospectus Regulation?

A

Make it easier and cheaper for companies to raise capital in Europe

745
Q

To whom should a firm report if it is unable to obtain satisfactory corporate verification?

A

NCA

746
Q

Which of the following best reflects the territorial scope of MiFID?

A

EEA

747
Q

For the Senior Management Arrangements, Systems and Controls with respect to money laundering, which one of the following is true?

A

Appropriate training should be provided to employees who might be exposed to money laundering activities

748
Q

Which of these are specified investments?

A

Warrants

749
Q

Which of the following is a general defence for insider dealing?

A

An individual who would have dealt anyway

750
Q

Which of the following is not true in relation to the prospectus regulation?

A

It requires a prospectus to be approved by each member states

751
Q

From which point in time must certification functions comply with the Conduct Rules under the SMCR regime?

A

All relevant staff are immediately on appointment bound by the Conduct Rules