Regional hazmat SOG's Flashcards

1
Q

RHMRT site safety plan document #

A

ICS 208HM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Purpose of emergency response plan?

A

provide RHMRT with county wide organization to mitigate an emergency involving Hazardous materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is the seven (7) person team made up?

A
2-entry
2-backup
1-decon leader
1-hazmat group supervisor
1-hazmat safety officer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the role of RHMRT?

A

confinement and containment, then incident priorities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

who has the authority to terminate any strategy or tactic considered unsafe ?

A

Hazmat group supervisor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who assumes command in the absence of a formal command structure or IC?

A

Hazmat group supervisor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hazmat control guidelines include:

A
plugging and packing of containers
product transfer
overpack drums
flairing of gases
direction of defensive operations
diking, confinement and redirection of materials
Neutralizaton
venting guidelines
vapor dispersion or suppression.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

RHMRT have how long to respond once requested?

A

5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Palm Beach county Hazmat ordinance?

A

98-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are operational periods organized?

A

initial- 4hrs
greater than 1 entry- may request add’l team
greater than 4 entries - requires IC notification
extended ops defined as: (2) 4hr ops periods or greater than 4 entries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who gets notified when situation is IDLH and involving extremely hazardous substances?

A
Need for Toxmedic
(4) FRO for decon ops
palm beach county dept emergency mgt. PBCDEM
county warning point CWP
state warning point SWP
Florida division of emergency mgt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a level 1 response?

A
dealing w/ known substances
no deaths or injures
limited area less than 300ft
less than 25 gallons
evacuation not more than 4 hrs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

is a level 3 incident

A

Severe incident
injuries or deaths may have already occurred
large area, impacting essential services
large amt of hazardous substance or LIMITED VERY hazardous sub.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

is a level 3 response

A

Severe incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a level 4 incident?

A
classified as major or severe
release of chemical over extended area.
Will spread to a larger area.
HIGHLY TOXIC, VERY REACTIVE UNSTABLE flammable/explosive.
Affects large area and several hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When can RHMRT supervisor transfer responsibilities to another group supervisor?

A

with the concurrence of the IC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Technical details may be provided to the IC/PIO if selected by who?

A

Hazmat group supervisor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the curriculum that a hazmat group supervisor must complete?

A

Florida state emergency response commissions guideline for public sector hazardous materials training.

Hazardous materials incident commander and OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120 (q)(6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How often do supervisors and coordinators meet to implement changes to response plan, SOG’s, equipment, and training?

A

Quarterly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The county Emergency response plan will be reviewed how often?

A

AT LEAST annually.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Overall success of an incident depends on what?

A

initial operations set up by first arriving agency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the minimum distance that allows for a a safe retreat?

A

330ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The best positioning of vehicles with variable winds is?

A

uphill.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Refuge area is defined as what?

A

area designated for contaminated persons within the exclusionary/ initial isolation zone .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ERG is good for directions up to what time frame?

A

30min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Operational persons will operate in what mode during hazmat incidents

A

Defensive mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is an INITIAL strategy that can be used in DEFENSIVE mode?

A

Spill control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

First response agency technicians can be utilized in what positions only?

A

Any positions except Entry team members or Hazmat group supervsor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Who or which agency is responsible for which zones?

A

1- PBC
2-WPB
3-PBC
4-Boca/delray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is zone 4 notified for a hazmat response?

A

Through Boca Raton communications center by direct telephone line and Boca will contact Delray beach communications center.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Individual response units will acknowledge what information on PBCF tactical channel fire main?

A

Enroute to call and request a channel for assignment.
arrival at incident
commencing EXTENDED operations - (if after 4 hours)
Completed assignment and available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Medical exams are conducted when?

A
at least q 12 months
prior to assignment and exit from a team
as deemed necessary by a physician
upon s/s of an exposure.
cases of suspected exposure  above a PEL.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Medical exam to include what? in addition to regular physical?

A
Complete h/p
occupational hx.
heavy metals screening
RBC cholinesterase
stress test.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How often are medical records reviewed?

A

q 4 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What staffing is needed prior to teams making entry?

A

Dedicated rescue w/ paramedics for entry.

If entry is into an IDLH then Toxmedics are required

35
Q

What are the pre-entry V/S parameters?

A
BP < 160/100
HR< 120
RR <24
Oral temp >100F (DOT is 97-99.5)
recent medical hx
new medications
open skin conditions or severe sunburn
chemical sensitivity
Upon concurrence of paramedic and assistant Safety officer.
36
Q

How often does post entry eval occur?

A

immediately after exiting and 10min.

37
Q

The adequate supply of medication required to be maintained in the Tox box is what?

A

Enough medication to treat 4- 100kg pt’s per Florida regional common EMS protocols.

38
Q

The ICS structure for a hazmat incident is based on what?

A

the incident needs.

39
Q

Who establishes command on an incident?

A

the first arriving fire rescue unit or senior official having authority.

40
Q

Minimum number of technicians to start offensive ops?

A

7- seven

41
Q

When the decision NOT to execute and order what happens?

A

must be documented in writing by the hazmat group supervisor referencing the SOG or safety guidelines.

42
Q

12 activities of the hazmat group supervisor

A
  1. briefing
  2. control zones
  3. public protection actions
  4. weather
  5. environment monitoring
  6. site safety plan
  7. safety meetings
  8. develop IAP
  9. safe SOP’s followed
  10. PPE
  11. notifications made
  12. 214 forms
43
Q

Purpose of establishing control zones?

A

designate areas of specific function
limit levels of contamination
provide areas of safety for first responders and public

44
Q

Control zones are determined by what factors?

A
chemical properties
physical properties
physical state
Size and condition of container
Amt of product leaking
natural barriers
weather
recognized standards from resources.
45
Q

What factors determine the Exclusion or HOT zone

A

the area most affected by the release
TLV
will be marked by physical boundaries
Refuge are near reduction corridor.

46
Q

Exclusion zone GUIDELINES for establishment ?

A

toxicity based on reading greater than published TLV/TWA or PEL
Any flammability reading from a CGI
O2 deficient <19.5% or enriched >23.5%
radioactivity w/ readings above backround

47
Q

Support Zone- COLD zone critera

A

stages command and control functions
functional area for decontaminated victims
area for staging, media and non-essential personnel.

48
Q

When does a person become assigned to research of a chemical?

A

When the level of response is II, III, IV.

49
Q

Research of a product will consist of the what items?

A
physical properties
PPE
Decon
first aid
antidotes
incompatability
50
Q

What is the number of resources that should be used for researching a chemical?

A

at least 2 preferably 3.

51
Q

Technical resource assistance includes what resources?

A

agencies and resources listed on RHMRT resource list
chemtrec/ national response center
industry technical representatives and hotlines
manufacturer and product institutes
governmental or environmental resources.

52
Q

How are hazardous materials identified with regard to train cars?

A

the word “DANGEROUS” is marked beneath the car.

53
Q

What are the shipping papers call for a train?

A

waybills are shipping for products- the CONSIST gives order of cars.

54
Q

With regards to Decontamination what is the primary objective?

A

Prevention

55
Q

How is contamination prevented according to the RHMRT?

A
minimize contact w/ substances
protecting instruments 
using remote sampling techniques
disposable CPC
protecting and wearing SCBA
56
Q

When do hazmat victims become patients?

A

after decontamination.

57
Q

If hazmat victims are in immediate life threatening situations that require medical attention what should be done?

A

emergency gross decon.

58
Q

Notification of Decontaminated patients going to a facility should be told what information?

A
Number of patients
type and amt of contamination
medical conditions
time of arrival
migratory times of other victims coming on their own.
59
Q

Monitoring protocols and procedures fall under what compliance standards?

A

OSHA 1910.120, 40 part 311

NFPA 471

60
Q

Entry monitoring is monitoring for what initially?

A

IDLH and PEL

61
Q

What is the minimum level of CPC when monitoring initially?

A

Level B

62
Q

Monitoring for unknown products will include?

A
radioactivity  Radioactivity- 100mR/hr
pH  PH - <4 or >12
Combustibility oxygen levels <12.5    LEL>10% of LEL
H2S
CO
organic vapor
colormetric tubes
chemical WMD
biological agents
63
Q

Parameters for CGI action levels?

A

known product >50% LEL
Unknown >25% LEL
confined space >10% LEL

<10-16% most CGI’s will not operate properly
< 19.5% O2- wear SCBA while monitoring
23.5% for fire potential of confined space
25% fire potential consult specialist

64
Q

Radiation action levels?

A

2 x background requires high and low range dosimetry.

65
Q

Level A CPC gives what protection

A

highest skin, respiratory , and eye protection

1991 NFPA standard.

66
Q

what is the time limit of work in level A CPC?

A

20 min at temps above 70F

67
Q

what is the rest time for max amt of time in level A CPC?

A

60 min.

68
Q

Max amt of time in level A CPCina 24 hour period?

A

2 cycles of work.

69
Q

What is Level B CPC protection for?

A

protection from liquid splash and particulate exposure.

70
Q

What does Level C CPC provide for protection?

A

solid and liquid splash with known atmospheres and no IDLH

NFPA 1993

71
Q

How often does Level A CPC get tested?

A

Annually.

72
Q

Supplied air lines have a maximum length of?

A

300ft from the air source

73
Q

When does rehab begin for entry and decon personnel?

A

immediately upon exit from the decon corridor.

74
Q

The heat stress index is defined as?

A

above 90F .

75
Q

electrolyte solutions are ?

A

50/50 .

76
Q

Constant monitoring after entry will continue till?

A

till v/s are returned to pre-v/s status. 3.0% of total body weight is an issue.

77
Q

What steps are to be taken prior entry in exclusion zone?

A
Tactical plan completed
site safety plan ICSHM-208
Pre entry briefing
back up team ready
PPE verified
Decon established.
78
Q

On level II incidents hazmat materials are contained or secured to what extent?

A

only to the extent that there is no longer an immediate threat to life, property, or environment outside the emergency site.

79
Q

Private contractors for clean-up shall meet what standard and use PPE deemed necessary by who?

A

29 CFR OSHA 1910.120 Incident commander, safety officers or hazmat group supervisor.

80
Q

If a contractor resists working with proper PPE then?

A

compliance should be coordinated through entity contracted, if no compliance then activity for contractor to be terminated until in compliance or another contractor is procured.

81
Q

IF no contractor or responsible party is available then what?

A

Department of environmental protection may be utilized.

Last resort- may contract for disposal at the expense of the AHJ.

82
Q

What are the post incident guidelines?

A

debriefing
cost recovery
PIA
after action reports

83
Q

When should the RHMRT be released post incident?

A

after stabilization or elimination of the situation.

84
Q

Before returning to service the ________must be completely rehabilitated.

A

entry team.

85
Q

A the termination of an incident what must be provided to every responder?

A

Names of substances
symptoms of exposure
specific action to be taken for decontamination.

86
Q

Under termination, a PIA will be conducted under what requirements?

A

response of more than 1 RHMRT and completed as soon as possible after the incident.