REG Flashcards
Who is a tax preparer? Who is not?
A tax preparer is one who prepares income tax returns for COMPENSATION.
Define an “unreasonable tax position” and “reasonable basis standard.”
Unreasonable tax position: Tax positions that are not disclosed and lack substantial authority. Must be at least 40% probability of tax position being sustained on merits.
Define “tax shelter.”
Tax shelter: Any arrangement (trust, partnership, etc) that is entered with the main purpose of avoidance or evasion of federal income tax.
List 8 reasons that a tax preparer can be awarded a penalty.
- Willful or reckless conduct (unreasonable tax position, or deliberately understating tax liability)
- Unauthorized disclosure of client information (except to peer review panel)
- Failure to provide copy of tax return
- Failure to sign tax return
- Failure to furnish identifying number
- Failure to retain records
- Failure to correct information returns
- Endorsing or negotiating a refund check issued to a taxpayer
*Penalty for unauthorized disclosure is $250. Other penalties are $50 each.
What is the penalty for deliberately understating a client’s tax liability?
The greater of $5,000, or 50% of the income derived from preparing the return.
List the 3 courts and their powers.
- US Tax Court (adjudicates only tax-related issues)
- US District Court (Jury trial is available)
- US Court of Federal Claims (Requires payment of the tax before taxpayer’s filing the tax claim. A jury trial is not allowed.)
Ninety-day letter is an IRS letter providing taxpayer with a 90-day window to file a petition in the Tax Court or satisfy any unpaid tax deficiency.
How are standards of tax position strength quantified?
Frivolous position: 0% probability. Bad faith and is patently improper.
Reasonable basis: 20% chance of a tax position being sustained on merits
Substantial authority: 33% to 50% probability.
More-likely-than-not: Greater than 50% chance the tax position will be upheld if challenged by the IRS.
What is the penalty for: (1) failure-to-pay and (2) failure-to file?
Base rate 5% per month of the unpaid tax, not to exceed 25% of tax due.
What is the penalty amount for: (1) negligence, (2) substantial understatement of tax penalty, (3) substantial valuation of misstatement, (4) tax shelter abuse, and (5) accuracy-related misstatement?
Base penalty is 20% of the understantement of tax. Substantial understatement is defined as the amount exceeding the greater of 10% of the tax due or $5,000.
*For substantial valuation misstatement, the penalty can be 40% if valuation exceeds 200% of the correct amount.
List the US federal tax law hierarchy.
- US Constitution
- Internal Revenue Code (IRC)
- Treasury Regulations
- US Supreme Court
- US Circuit Court of Appeals
- Federal courts of original jurisdiction
Define a “tort”.
Tort refers to a negligent or intentional civil wrong not arising out of a contract or statute. Torts include ordinary negligence, actual fraud, and constructive fraud.
Demonstrating that the CPA acted with “due care” is the best defense because it establishes the absence of ordinary negligence.
List 5 criteria that must be proven to establish fraud or gross negligence.
M - Misrepresentation of material facts
S - Scienter (deception) and reckless disregard of truth
R - Reasonable reliance on accountant’s work
I - Intention of CPA for client to rely on misrepresentation
D - Damages were suffered by client
List the 4 ways agency can be established.
- Agency by agreement: Formed by consent, written or oral
- Agency by implication: Formed by implied acts, written or oral
- Agency by ratification: Formed by an act/agreement whereby principal ratifies (consents to) conduct of a person who is not their agent.
- Agency by estoppel (apparent authority): Formed when the principal allows third-party to believe an agency relationship exists with the alleged agent.
Distinguish “terminination by agreement” vs “termination by operation of law”.
Termination by agreement of parties: Lapse of time, purpose achieved, occursence of triggering event, mutual agreement, termination by one party
Termination by operation of law: Death or insanity, impossibility (loss or destruction of subject matter), changed circumstances, bankrupcy, loss of required license, agency coupled with interest, agency terminated by principal
List the 4 types of agent authority.
- Express authority
- Implied authority
- Apparent authority
- Ratification (principal accepts responsibility for agent’s unauthorized acts)
What are the agent’s duties to the principal? Principal’s duties to agent?
Agent’s duties to principal: Due care, inform, accounting, loyalty, obedience
Principal’s duties to agent: Indemnification, compensation, reimbursement
Describe the two scenarios of liability of a contract formed by an agent, depending on how the principal is classified at the time the contract is executed.
- Disclosed principal: Disclosed principal is liable for contract.
- Undisclosed principal: Principal is liable, but agent must not have apparent authority. A third-party may not exit the deal because of an undisclosed principal. If there is a breach, both principal and agent are liable.
Describe agents’ liability vs principals’ liability in event of torts.
- Agents are liable for the own tortious acts, both intentional and negligent.
- Principals are liable for tortious acts of their agents when the principal authorizes the act during agent’s employment, when the agent acted on belief of implied authority, when there is innocent misrepresentation on part of agent.
List the 6 required elements of a valid contract.
- Offer
- Acceptance
- Consideration (Something of value given up by either side of the contract)
- Proper form (Contract is in writing, if necessary)
- Lawful object (Subject matter of contract must be legal)
- Two or more competent parties
Explain the mailbox rule.
The mailbox rule applies to acceptance of a contract. Acceptance of an offer is valid when SENT (not received).
What is the “Statute of Frauds?”
“Statute of Frauds” says certain contracts must be written to be enforceable (“proper form” criteria of a valid contract). Consider GRIPE + Marriage:
G - Goods sold over $500 (Uniform Commercial Code)
R - Real estate contracts
I - Impossible to complete within one year
P - Promise to answer debt of another
E - Executor’s promise to be liable for debts of an estate
+ - Contracts for marriage
SoF also says that the contract needs only to be signed by one party.
What are the rules if a minor wants to disaffirm a contract?
To disaffirm a contract, the minor needs only to return what they obtained as a result of the contract. Once they become an adult, they can subsequently ratify the contract.
However, a minor cannot disaffirm a contract for life-saving care. Also, they will still be liable in the event they commit a tort, such as lying about their age.
Explain express vs implied contracts, and formal vs informal contracts.
Express contract: Formed via express written or verbal agreement of parties.
Implied contracts: Formed, at least in part, by the parties’ conduct.
Formal contracts: Require a special form of creation, like letters of credit.
Informal contracts: All contracts that are not “formal contracts.”
Define “Parole Evidence Rule.”
Parole Evidence Rule: States that any pre-existing oral or written evidence that was discussed before the written contract is inadmissible in court to prove the content of a contract (Evidence “inadmissible in court” is outside evidence that may not be introduced to a jury to prove the party’s claim). Helps protect parties from having portions of a negotiation brought into a contract dispute.
Explain “assignment” vs “delegation” of contracts as it pertains to the involvement of third-parties not explicitly stated in the contract itself.
- Assignment: When original party is replaced with new party, and original party is no longer responsible for any portion of the contract.
- Delegation: Original party substitutes another party into the contract to do some/all of the items promised by original party. BOTH the original party and new party will both be responsible for the contract.
List the 5 types of remedies for breach of contract.
- Compensatory damages
- Specific performance (when monetary damages is insufficient to repay party for breach of contract)
- Injunction (court order requiring one party
to either do or refrain from doing a specific act) - Rescission: (restoring the parties’ conditions to their original positions pre-contract)
- Liquidating damages
Distinguish “implied warranties” vs “express warranties.”
Implied warranty: Warranties that require no words, either oral or written. For example, in implied warranty of merchantability, a merchant promises, without saying as
such, that their goods are fit and safe for normal use.
Express warranty: Warranties that a buyer receives from a seller, and typically include a material representation of a fact, or facts, regarding the goods being sold. A breach of these warranties is grounds for litigation.
Distinguish “implied warranties of title” vs “implied warranties of fitness.”
Implied warranties of title: Warranties given specifically to goods to help guarantee the owner of those goods. The title the buyer of the goods acquires cannot be a “better”
title than the seller has to give.
Implied warranty of fitness: Warranties given for a particular purpose. Buyer is relying on seller’s expert opinion and the seller must know purpose of purchase.
List the 4 elements of negligence that must be proven.
- Duty of care: The seller owes buyer the duty of due care
- Breach: The seller failed to use reasonable care
- Damages: The buyer suffered damages
- Causality: Seller’s breach caused the buyer’s damages.
List the 5 items that individuals harmed by a product must prove in order to sue the maker of the product under strict liability.
- Defective product: Must show a Defective product
- Cause: Must show the defect caused injury
- Unreasonably dangerous: Must show the defect was unreasonably dangerous to users and consumers
- Business: Must show seller was engaged in that Business
- Changes: Must show it reached the user without substantial changes
Define “surety.” List the 3 rights of a surety.
Surety: promises to pay a creditor the amount owed by the debtor, if debtor defaults on a debt.
- Right of Subrogation: after surety pays debt to the creditor in full, the surety obtains all of creditor’s rights.
- Rights of Reimbursement: surety has right to recover from debtor all money that surety paid to the creditor after debtor defaulted on the loan
- Right of Exoneration: surety can obtain a court order that establishes that debtor is most liable for the debt amount (and not the surety)
Define the rights of creditor after debtor defaults.
- Demanding payment of the debt from the Surety (after other options have been exhausted)
- Demanding payment of the debt from the Debtor
- Attempting to possess any collateral that exists that was used to help secure the loan
List the defenses of a surety from the creditor.
- Lack of writing or consideration
- Payment or performance by debtor
- Fraud by the creditor
- Increased risk that exceeds agreement terms
Distinguish Chapter 7, 11, & 13 Bankruptcy.
Ch. 7 Bankruptcy is liquidation bankruptcy; debtor’s assets are liquidated in order to pay their debt owed to creditors. (However, excludes banks, insurance companies, railroads, savings/loan associations, credit unions, HMOs)
Ch. 11 Bankruptcy permits the reorganization of an entity’s debt. (However, excludes stockbrokers, commodities brokers, banks, savings/loan associations.)
Ch. 13 Bankruptcy permits the reorganization of debt by individuals. Requirements are less than $383,175 in unsecured debt and $1,149,525 in secured debt.
What are the conditions necessary for creditors to file for involuntary Ch. 7 Bankruptcy?
If less than twelve (12) creditors exist, any single creditor who is owed more than $15,325 in unsecured debt may file a petition. Or, if more than twelve (12) creditors exist, at least three of the unsecured creditors must join in the filing to meet the $15,325 total amount needed. Also, there must be no dispute over the amount owed on the debt.
What are the 5 criteria that must be satisfied to ensure no asset-liquidation transfers are preferential in a bankruptcy settlement?
T - Transfer of property that benefits a creditor
A - Antecedent, pre-existing debt
N - Ninety day window in order to make transfer
I - Debtor must be insolvent
M - Creditor received More than would have via bankruptcy
List the 3 types of claims a creditor can make against the debtor.
Property claim: If a creditor has right to a piece of property held by the debtor, the property is turned over to creditor.
Trust claim: If creditor is a beneficiary for trust property, that property is not considered part of the debtor’s estate.
Secured claim: Claims that held by a creditor who has an interest in a specific piece of property.
Distinguish “secured creditor” vs “unsecured creditor.”
Secured creditors have attached specific piece of property held by the debtor in exchange for something of value.
Unsecured creditors are paid in full at each level of priority before any claims at a lower level are paid.
List the 3 ways an attachment of security interest can be perfected.
Attachment: Formal process of placing a claim on property owned by the Debtor, in exchange for credit
Perfection by Possession: when the Creditor takes the collateral used to secure the debt with debtor’s agreement.
Perfection by Filing: when the Creditor files a Financing Statement with the appropriate state agency.
Perfection by Attachment: form of perfecting a security interest to collateral automatically. Can only occur with PMSI Creditors in consumer goods.
Distinguish FICA, FUTA, & WC.
FICA: Federal Insurance Contribution Act. FICA represents the federal payroll tax imposed on employees, employers, and independent contractors to fund Social Security and Medicare. 85% of all FICA benefits received are taxable.
FUTA: Federal Unemployment Tax Act. FUTA provides for unemployment benefits to be collected by employees who have lost their jobs through no fault of their own. Employers pay FUTA when paid $1500 in wages in a year.
WC: Workers Compensation. Provides insurance benefits to employees injured within the scope of employment.
Define ERISA.
ERISA: Employee Retirement Income Security Act. Sets standards for funding and investment of pension plans to help ensure that there is no mismanagement of the investment funds contributed by both employees and employers.
List the laws pertaining to environmental regulation.
- National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
- Clean Air Act (CAA)
- Clean Water Act (CWA)
- Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA)
- Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
How did Tax Cuts and Jobs Act (TCJA) affect the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA)’s requirement that all individuals enroll in a health insurance plan?
TCJA repealed the individual mandate that all persons must obtain health insurance. As of 2019, taxpayers no longer have to pay a penalty if they do not have health insurance.
What are the filing and registration requirements for formation of the 4 major types of business entities?
- Sole proprietorship: No specific filings or registrations.
- Partnership: Partnership agreement, although not required to be in writing. Dissolution can occur by either an act of one of the partners, or by operation of law.
- Corporation: Must file Articles of Incorporation with the state, disclosing Stock Provisions (number of authorized shares, voting stock, and a capital structure for the stock), names of the Corporation, its registered agent, and all incorporators.
- LLC: Must file Articles of Organization within the state, disclosing name of the LLC, and where its owners have limited liability. Must file Operating Agreement as well.
List the steps toward approval of merger/consolidation of a corporation.
Approval steps for merger or consolidation
1. Submit a formal plan of merger or consolidation to both boards and get majority approval.
2. Submit to all stockholders and get majority approval (give notice of time, date and place).
3. Submit a plan to the secretary of state, who issues a certificate of the merger upon approval. (Short form merger is when a parent merges with a 90%+ owned sub)
Define the elements of a property deed, and the major types of deeds.
Elements of a deed: An effective real property deed must be made in writing, signed by the grantor (seller), containing a description of the property, and be delivered to the grantee (buyer).
General warranty deed: guarantees owner that they have title, including the right to convey that title, that
there are no unstated encumbrances on the property.
Special Warranty Deed: only guarantees ownership for the time in which the seller owns a piece of property.
Quitclaim Deed: deed where grantor gives whatever title or interest he has but doesn’t guarantee he has anything. This is the deed with the least protection.
List the elements of a valid mortgage.
A mortgage requires four elements: must be made in a writing, signed by the mortgagor, contains a description of the property, and delivered to the mortgagee.
Define a lease.
A lease is an agreement whereby the renter has the right to exclusive possession of a piece of property, but does not have ownership of that property.
Unlike mortgages, leases do not require writing unless the lease is for 1+ year. If the lease is in writing, it must include a description of the leased premises.
List the categories of property that are eligible for their own tax treatment.
- Real property: Land and anything attached to the land.
- Personal property: Anything else that is moveable and is not real property.
3: Conversion: From personal to real property, or vice versa.
Define “tax basis” of property transactions, and how it is calculated.
Tax basis: The portion of the asset’s value from which tax liability is calculated.
Initial basis: Purchase price plus costs to ready the asset for its intended purpose.
Adjusted basis: Initial basis plus improvements, less depreciation or depletion.
Define the formula for tax basis of assets acquired in a basket purchase.
Determine the Relative FMV by taking the FMV of each house divided by the total FMV of all houses. Multiply this amount by the purchase price of the land to determine the amount of the purchase price of the land allocated to each house.
Define the formula for tax basis of sale of a gift.
Basis of property received as a gift, GAIN = Amount sale of gift above DONOR’s basis.
Basis of property received as a gift, LOSS = Lesser of FMV or donor’s basis.
Define the formula for basis of stock dividends.
Tax basis of stock dividend = Number of shares distributed, times FMV per share at date of distribution. This is the taxable dividend income amount.
What is the holding period of gifted property? What is the significance of the holding period?
Gifted property will have a holding period determined by whether the taxpayer is using the GAIN basis, or the LOSS basis. Holding period determines whether the sale is a long-term vs. short-term capital gain or loss.
Gift sold at GAIN = Basis is donor’s basis. Holding period of donee begins on date when the donor purchased the gift.
Gift sold at LOSS = Lesser of the donor’s basis or FMV at the date of gift. If donor’s basis, then holding period is the date of the gift. If FMV, then holding period begins on the date the donor originally purchased the item.
Define a “like-kind exchange.”
Like-kind exchange: An exchange transaction limited to business-use real property that is given up in exchange for similar business-use real property.
Basis of like-kind exchange = Basis of property given up + [Gain recognized] + [Boot basis paid] - [Loss recognized] - [FMV of boot received]
Define “boot.”
Boot: Any property given up or received that is not a like-kind. The most
common type of boot is cash, or liabilities assumed.
How does boot (received or paid) influence the tax basis of new property received?
Boot received: Reduction in basis.
Boot paid: Plus, or addition, in basis.
How do assumed liabilities influence the tax basis of new property received?
Treatment of liability (mortgage) assumed:
1) Each taxpayer nets the mortgage assumed by the other taxpayer and the
new mortgage being taken on from the other taxpayer.
2) If the netting of the mortgages results in net boot RECEIVED, add net boot received from the mortgages to cash received to arrive at total net boot received. Recognized gain = Lesser of realized gain OR total boot received (cash only).
3) If the netting of the mortgages results in net boot PAID, net boot received will
only be the cash received. Net boot paid from the netting of the mortgages will still affect calculation of basis of the new property.
Explain the distinction between “gain realized” vs “gain recognized.”
Though the gain is calculated as realized one way, for tax purposes, it is more important to determine gain RECOGNIZED to the extent of: (1) lesser of the realized gain, or (2) the net boot received from netting the mortgages.
Define calculation of gain or loss in an “involuntary conversion.”
Involuntary conversions cover theft, casualty or condemnation. Proceeds would typically be insurance proceeds, if any.
Gain or loss in involuntary conversion = Insurance proceeds less the property’s adjusted basis