Refrigeration Units 113,114 & 115 Flashcards

1
Q

In the case of a simple ice box which of the following heat transfers is correct?

a) Air loses latent heat, ice does not gain any heat.
b) Air loses sensible heat, ice does not gain any heat. c) Air loses sensible heat, ice gains sensible heat.
d) Air loses sensible heat, ice gains latent heat.
e) Air loses latent heat, ice gains latent heat

A

d) Air loses sensible heat, ice gains latent heat.

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2
Q

Which of the following is an example of a loss of latent heat?

i) water evaporating
ii) ice melting
iii) refrigerant evaporating
iv) air cooling

a) iv only
b) iii only
c) i, iii, and iv
d) both i and iii
e) none of the above

A

e) none of the above

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3
Q

The function of the condenser is to

a) vaporize the liquid refrigerant
b) change high pressure refrigerant vapour to liquid
c) pressurize low pressure refrigerant vapour
d) vent off vaporized refrigerant
e) lower the liquid refrigerant pressure

A

b) change high pressure refrigerant vapour to liquid

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4
Q

Which of the following statements about low-side pressure and temperature is false?

a) The evaporation temperature of the refrigerant should be 5 - 10 degrees C higher than that of the cooled medium.
b) For a given amount of heat transfer an oversized evaporator can be operated at a higher temperature. c) The low side pressure depends on the type of evaporation used.
d) The evaporation temperature of the refrigerant will be higher if the evaporator lowers the refrigerant pressure.
e) All of the above.

A

a) The evaporation temperature of the refrigerant should be 5 - 10 degrees C higher than that of the cooled medium

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5
Q

Which of the following statements about high-side pressure and temperature is true?

a) The heat flow is from the cooling medium to the hot refrigerant.
b) The condensing temperature of the vapour is 15 - 20 degrees C higher than the temperature of the medium used in the condenser.
c) The condensation temperature of the refrigerant will be lower if the pressure of the vapourized refrigerant is lowered.
d) The condenser functions by taking latent heat from the surrounding air and adding it as sensible heat to the refrigerant.
e) None of the above

A

b) The condensing temperature of the vapour is 15 - 20 degrees C higher than the temperature of the medium used in the condenser.

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6
Q

The rate at which a system will remove heat from the refrigerated medium is defined as

a) coefficient of performance
b) net refrigerating effect
c) refrigeration capacity
d) compression ratio
e) differential efficiency

A

c) refrigeration capacity

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7
Q

Refrigerant mediums will evaporate

a) when pressure is increased
b) when temperature is increased
c) when they are diluted
d) when temperature is decreased
e) when heat is removed

A

b) when temperature is increased

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8
Q

One tonne of refrigeration is

a) 13958 kJ per day
b) 100 kJ per minute
c) 233 kJ per minute
d) 13958 J per hour
e) 335 J per second

A

c) 233 kJ per minute

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9
Q

If a cooled medium had an evaporation temperature of 2 degrees C, the evaporation temperature of the liquid refrigerant should be approximately

a) 2 degrees C
b) 6 - 8 degrees C
c) 1 degree C
d) 0 degrees C
e) -8 to -3 degrees C

A

e) -8 to -3 degrees C

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10
Q

Which column in the refrigerant table lists the absolute pressure in kPa?

a) Column 1
b) Column 2
c) Column 3
d) Column 4
e) None of the above

A

b) Column 2

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11
Q

Which of the following characteristics is common in all of the group B refrigerants?

a) High toxicity
b) High flammability
c) Average Flammability
d) Low Toxicity

A

a) High toxicity

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12
Q

R-22 (Freon-22) is nontoxic and nonflammable. Which group does it belong to?

a) Group A2
b) Group B4
c) Group A1
d) Group A3
e) Group B

A

c) Group A1

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13
Q

What is the name of the refrigerant that has the following characteristics? It is nonflammable, odourless, nontoxic, it does not have a corrosive effect on metal if water is present and at atmospheric pressure it has a boiling point of -40.6 degrees C.

a) Ammonia
b) Freon-22
c) Sulphur Dioxide
d) Butane
e) Propane

A

b) Freon-22

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14
Q

The ideal commercial refrigerant should

a) have a low latent heat capacity
b) have a high boiling point
c) have high condensing pressure
d) be environmentally friendly
e) be the least costly

A

d) be environmentally friendly

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15
Q

Ammonia refrigerants

a) have high sensible heat capacity
b) mix well with oil
c) are very expensive
d) are well suited for industrial refrigeration
e) are ideally suited to copper piping system

A

d) are well suited for industrial refrigeration

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16
Q

The refrigerant R-11 belongs to the following group

a) group “A2”
b) group “B1”
c) group “A3
d) group “2B”
e) group “A1”

A

e) group “A1”

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17
Q

Which of the following is a thermodynamic property of heat?

a) entropy
b) enthalpy
c) density
d) volume
e) all of the above

A

e) all of the above

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18
Q

The property which has to be known for the calculation of the size of control valve and piping etc, is

a) specific volume
b) enthalpy
c) refrigerating effect
d) density
e) boiling point

A

d) density

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19
Q

The refrigerating effect of a refrigerant is

a) equal to its latent heat of vaporization
b) greater than its latent heat of vaporization
c) less than its latent heat of vaporization
d) equal to its specific heat capacity
e) equal to its specific volume

A

a) equal to its latent heat of vaporization

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20
Q

The standard refrigeration cycle is used to compare refrigerants and machines operating under comparable conditions. These standard conditions are:

a) 1030 kPa and atmospheric pressure
b) 30 degrees Celsius condensing and -15 degrees Celsius evaporating
c) 30 kPa and atmospheric pressure
d) -30 degrees Celsius condensing and 15 degrees Celsius evaporating
e) 30 kPa and atmospheric temperature

A

b) 30 degrees Celsius condensing and -15 degrees Celsius evaporating

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21
Q

The latent heat of fusion of ice

a) is the sensible heat required to melt ice
b) is 335 kJ per 1 kg
c) is 335 kJ per 1 ton
d) is the latent heat required to evaporate ice
e) is 4.2 kJ per gram

A

b) is 335 kJ per 1 kg

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22
Q

The ability of a refrigerant to be dissolved into oil and vice versa is called

a) moisture reaction
b) enthalpy
c) density
d) leakage tendency
e) miscibility

A

e) miscibility

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23
Q

Which of the following is not a physical property of refrigerants?

a) Toxicity
b) Odour
c) Leakage tendency
d) Density
e) Explosiveness

A

d) Density

24
Q

Ammonia is the only commonly used refrigerant which has the physical property of

a) miscibility
b) enthalpy
c) flammability
d) density
e) low condensing pressure

A

c) flammability

25
Q

Molecular mass is a dependent factor in which of the following physical properties?

a) miscibility
b) leakage tendency
c) toxicity
d) flammability
e) explosivenes

A

b) leakage tendency

26
Q

Freon 22 refrigerant

a) is not miscible with oil
b) is mostly used in packing plants
c) is corrosive on copper
d) is corrosive on aluminum
e) is a heat transferring medium

A

e) is a heat transferring medium

27
Q

Which of the following are principal parts in a closed cycle compression refrigeration system?

i) Absorber
ii) Evaporator
iii) Compressor
iv) Condenser

a) both i and ii
b) iii only
c) i, ii, iv
d) ii, iii, iv
e) i, ii, iii

A

d) ii, iii, iv

28
Q

Raising the condensing point (saturation temperature) of the refrigerant vapour above the temperature of the cooling medium is the function of the

a) compressor
b) condenser
c) evaporator
d) absorber
e) refrigerant

A

a) compressor

29
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of the low pressure side of the system?

a) compressor discharge
b) evaporator
c) downstream side of the regulating valve
d) medium to be cooled
e) all of the above

A

a) compressor discharge

30
Q

The temperature in the evaporator

a) depends on pressure in the receiver
b) will decrease when the compressor stops
c) depends on the pressure in the evaporator
d) depends on the ambient temperature
e) is controlled by the charging valve

A

c) depends on the pressure in the evaporator

31
Q

A purpose of a liquid refrigerant control or regulating valve is

a) to drain the receiver
b) to regulate the refrigerant flow to the evaporator
c) to maintain a constant level in the receiver
d) to regulate the cooling water to condenser
e) to isolate the high side from the low side

A

b) to regulate the refrigerant flow to the evaporator

32
Q

Refrigerant condensers

a) are always water cooled
b) cool the gas refrigerant discharged from the compressor
c) have a safety valve
d) remove sensible heat only from the refrigerant
e) are not required for freon type refrigerants

A

b) cool the gas refrigerant discharged from the compressor

33
Q

For a direct expansion system which of the following statements is true?

a) The evaporator in this system is never in direct contact with the material or space being refrigerated. b) For large systems calcium chloride brine is cooled by the evaporator then pumped to the area being refrigerated.
c) Water cooled by the chiller evaporation coils is used to refrigerate at temperatures below 0 degrees C.
d) The evaporator can be located in air circulating ducts communicating with the material or space being refrigerated.
e) Water cooled by the chiller evaporation coils is

A

d) The evaporator can be located in air circulating ducts communicating with the material or space being refrigerated.

34
Q

The primary difference between direct and indirect refrigeration systems is the

a) type of heat transfer medium
b) type of refrigerant
c) evaporator pressure
d) compressor location
e) evaporator location

A

e) evaporator location

35
Q

Which of the following statements about a system that circulates warm brine or water back to a chiller tank is true?

a) The system is a direct refrigeration system.
b) The evaporator in the system is located in direct contact with the material being refrigerated.
c) The brine or water is the refrigerant.
d) The evaporator cools the brine or water.
e) All of the above.

A

d) The evaporator cools the brine or water.

36
Q

The type of brine used for skating and hockey rink refrigeration systems is usually

a) calcium sulphate
b) calcium chloride
c) calcium carbide
d) calcium nitrate
e) sodium chloride

A

b) calcium chloride

37
Q

Refrigerant evaporators

a) always have the refrigerant on the shell side
b) are located between the expansion valve and the receiver
c) may have brine pumped past the coils in an indirect system
d) may be of the walk-in type
e) are usually oil cooled

A

c) may have brine pumped past the coils in an indirect system

38
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a factory assembled packaged refrigerant?

a) Components are designed to match each other.
b) Parts can be ordered and installed separately.
c) The unit is more compact.
d) Space requirements are minimized.
e) The unit is equipped with all the required auxiliary equipment.

A

b) Parts can be ordered and installed separately

39
Q

Which of the following statements about the economisers is false?

a) It controls the flow of liquid refrigerant from the low pressure evaporator to the high pressure condenser.
b) It is composed of two chambers.
c) The upper float chamber is connected to the bottom of the condenser.
d) The economiser float chamber is connected via the motor to the second stage inlet of the compressor. e) Liquid refrigerant levels in each chamber are controlled by a float operated valve in the evaporator.

A

a) It controls the flow of liquid refrigerant from the low pressure evaporator to the high pressure condenser

40
Q

Which of the following is a result of an economiser on the refrigeration system?

a) an intercooling effect on the compressor
b) reduction of the power required for compression in the second stage compressor
c) reduction of flash vapour in the evaporator
d) increase in the refrigerating capacity of a system
e) all of the above

A

e) all of the above

41
Q

In actual systems there will be a gradual pressure drop through each side of the system due to

a) the economiser
b) friction in the evaporator, condenser, and piping
c) decomposition of refrigerants
d) coefficients of expansion of system components
e) superheating effects

A

b) friction in the evaporator, condenser, and piping

42
Q

In a system controlled by a high pressure float valve insufficient liquid will cause which of the following results?

A) Starving the evaporator and reducing the capacity of the system

B) Boosting the compressor’s pressure

C) Automatic system shut down

D) The compressor will run continuously

E) Liquid being carried over to the compressor with the vapour

A

C) Automatic system shut down

43
Q

The safety head of a refrigeration compressor is designed to:

A) Relieve pressure due to liquid in the cylinder

B) Relieve high-pressure gas compression

C) Prevent explosion damage

D) Operate in place of a safety relief valve

E) Pop when the pressure is too high

A

E) Pop when the pressure is too high

44
Q

Pistons and connecting rods are found in which of the following types of compressors?

A)  Centrifugal
B)  Reciprocating
C)  Rotary & Centrifugal
D)  Reciprocating & Centrifugal
E)  Rotary
A

D) Reciprocating & Centrifugal

45
Q

Which of the following steps is not a step in the start-up of a reciprocating or rotary compressor
refrigerating system?

A) Valves in lines connecting suction gauges should be closed
B) Check the setting of high and low pressure cut out switches
C) All shutoff valves in the system should be open except bypass valves used for other purposes
D) Open shutoff valves in the cooling water supply and return lines of water-cooled condensers
E) Check oil level in the compressor, it should be at or above the centre of the sight glass

A

A) Valves in lines connecting suction gauges should be closed

46
Q

The absorber in the lithium bromide refrigeration system is equipped with a pump for which of the
following reasons?

A) To force water into a finely divided state
B) To decrease the refrigerant evaporation point
C) To keep the cycle pressure constant
D) To decrease contact between absorbent and refrigerant
E) To speed the absorption of water vapour

A

E) To speed the absorption of water vapour

47
Q

Which of the following statements about double tube condensers is true?

A) Cannot be used with air, cooled condensers
B) Has a small condenser for a large capacity system
C) Water flows in the inner tube in the opposite direction of the flow of refrigerant
D) Consists of two separate tubes side by side
E) Has the highest efficiency of the water-cooled condensers

A

C) Water flows in the inner tube in the opposite direction of the flow of refrigerant

48
Q

In order to lower the boiling point of the refrigerant in the lithium bromide system it is important that
the system maintain what?

A)  High absorbent circulation
B)  Very low temperatures
C)  High rate of refrigerant flow
D)  An extremely high vacuum
E)  Very high pressure
A

D) An extremely high vacuum

49
Q

When initially charging a refrigeration system:

A) It is done with a liquid refrigerant
B) It must be done at the compressor suction
C) Water should be added to dilute the refrigerant
D) It must be done with the liquid line shutoff valve open
E) It must be done after the unit is shut down

A

A) It is done with a liquid refrigerant

50
Q

The current code requires that pressure limiting devices shall be provided on all systems operating
above atmospheric pressure, containing more than _____ of group A1 refrigerant:

A)  10 kg
B)  5 kg
C)  7 kg
D)  9 kg
E)  3 kg
A

D) 9 kg

51
Q

Defective condenser operation is a result of the presence of all of the following except:

A)  Scale forming chemicals
B)  Dirty cooling water
C)  Loss of refrigerant
D)  Low coolant circulation
E)  Non-condensable gases
A

C) Loss of refrigerant

52
Q

Higher than normal head pressure is undesirable for all of the following reasons except:

A)  It increases power consumption
B)  It is detrimental to compressor lubrication
C)  It decreases condenser capacity
D)  It over stresses compressor parts
E)  It reduces compressor capacity
A

C) It decreases condenser capacity

53
Q

Over charging the system with refrigerant will create:

A) A high discharge condition
B) The formation of bubbles in the sight glass
C) A low oil pressure condition
D) The formation of frost at the compressor inlet
E) A low-pressure suction condition

A

A) A high discharge condition

54
Q

The type of operation that stops the compressor when the desired low temperature of the substance to
be cooled is reached and starts the compressor up again when the temperature rises to a set level is
called:

A)  Continuous operation with reduced output
B)  Intermittent operation
C)  Variable guide operation
D)  Unloading operation
E)  Cylinder bypass operation
A

B) Intermittent operation

55
Q

The net refrigerating effect of a refrigerant is the amount of heat:

A) Discharged by the condenser
B) Absorbed by the evaporator
C) Absorbed by the refrigerant in the evaporator
D) Discharged by the refrigerant in the evaporator
E) Absorbed by the refrigerant in the condenser

A

C) Absorbed by the refrigerant in the evaporator

56
Q

In the evaporator:

A) The refrigerant rejects heat to the cooling tower
B) The refrigerant is condensed
C) The refrigerant absorbs heat from the surrounding medium
D) The refrigerant absorbs heat from the compressor cooling system
E) The surrounding medium evaporates

A

C) The refrigerant absorbs heat from the surrounding medium