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Reference Ranges Flashcards

1
Q

male RBC count

A

4.73-5.49 ^10.6/uL

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2
Q

female RBC count

A

4.15-4.87 10^6/uL

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3
Q

mean cellular volume

A

76-100 um^3

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4
Q

mean cellular volume def.

A

average volume of RBCs

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5
Q

when MCV increased

A

classifying anemia: increased macrocytosis, with vit. b12 or folic acid deficiency

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6
Q

when MCV decreased

A

microcytosis,iron deficiency anemia

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7
Q

male hgb

A

14.40-16.60 gm/deciliter

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8
Q

female hgb

A

12.2-14.7 gm/deciliter

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9
Q

male hematocrit

A

42.9-49.1%

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10
Q

female hematocrit

A

37.9-43.9%

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11
Q

proportion of blood that is made up of RBCs or percentage of RBCs/total blood volume

A

hematocrit

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12
Q

elevated hgb indicates what?

A

loss of plasma volume (dehydration), high altitude state, smokers (with COPD), congenital heart disease ( cor pulmonade), polycythema vera

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13
Q

decreased hgb indicates what?

A

increased destruction of RBCs decreased production of RBCs, blood loss, pregnancy, vitamin deficiency

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14
Q

WBC value

A

4500-11000 x cells/mm^3

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15
Q

granulocytes include?

A

neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils

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16
Q

agranulocytes include?

A

monocytes, lymphocytes

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17
Q

neutrophils, segmented %WBC count (same for male and female)

A

56%

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18
Q

neutrophil def

A

defense against microbial invasion through phagocytosis

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19
Q

elevated neutrophils indicates

A

bacterial infections, inflammatory conditions, other infections

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20
Q

basophils (%WBC count) (same for males and females)

A

0.5%

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21
Q

which WBC has this function: contain histamine, serotonin, heparin granules

A

basophil

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22
Q

CML, aftermath of splenectomy, polycythemia is indicated by increased what?

A

basophils

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23
Q

decreased basophils indicates

A

rheumatic fever, pregnancy, radiation therapy, steroid therapy

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24
Q

eosinophils range (%WBC count) (same for males and females)

A

2.7%

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25
Q

what WBC contains the majority of histamine in the body

A

eosinophils

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26
Q

when are eosinophils elevated

A

allergic, parasitic infection, or skin disease

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27
Q

NAACP acronym stands for what regarding conditions indicated by increased eosinophils

A

neoplasm, allergy/asthma, addison disease, collagen-vascular disease, parasites

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28
Q

lymphocytes range (%WBC count) (same for males and females)

A

34%

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29
Q

what WBC is increased with all viral infections or lymphocytic leukemia? (ALL, CLL)

A

lymphocytes

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30
Q

WBC: which is the second line of defense against infection

A

monocyte

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31
Q

monocyte (% WBC count) (same for males and females)

A

4%

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32
Q

elevated monocytes

A

bacterial infections

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33
Q

elevated WBC causes

A

acute infections (viral bacterial), leukemia, post-splenectomy, steroids, stress, excitement, pain, trauma, heat

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34
Q

low WBCs

A

viral, overwhelming bacterial infections, hypersplenism, medications/toxins that suppress BM, bm suppression

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35
Q

platelet count male

A

238,000 +/- 49,000/uL

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36
Q

life span of circulating platelets

A

7-10 days

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37
Q

low platelets indicate

A

enlarged spleen, platelet destruction (DIC, ITP), decreased platelet production (BM suppression, viral infection, vitamin deficiency), alcholism

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38
Q

high platelets indicate

A

hemorrhage, splenectomy, inflammation

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39
Q

UA looks at?

A

urologic conditions: stones, uti, malignancy, systemic disease

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40
Q

UA collected when in stream and analyzed when?

A

midstream, 1-2 hrs

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41
Q

physical exam of UA

A

color, clarity, odor

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42
Q

cheimcal exam of UA

A

urine dipstick

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43
Q

microscopic exam of UA

A

wbc, rbc, casts, or crystals

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44
Q

cloudy urine indicates

A

bacteria, blood, crystals

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45
Q

foul odor UA indicates

A

foul=infection (e. coli), sweet=diabetes (ketones from breakdown of fat and extra sugars)

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46
Q

red ua

A

hematouria, kidney stones, UTI, bladder cancer

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47
Q

yellow ua

A

dehydration or carrots

48
Q

brown ua

A

glomerulonephritis, myoglobin, or bile pigments

49
Q

orange ua

50
Q

elevated specific gravity

A

volume depletion

51
Q

decreased specific gravity

A

excessive fluid intake, diuretic therapy, diabetes inspidus

52
Q

increased urine ph

A

vomiing, some urinary infections, kidney disease

53
Q

decreased urine ph

A

aspirin overdose, starvation, alcohol ingestion, high protein diet

54
Q

protein in urine indicates

A

glomerulonephritis, pre-eclampsia, complications from diabetes

55
Q

glucose in urine indicates

A

diabetes, burns, pancreatitis, corticosteroid use, cushion’s disease

56
Q

ketones in urine

A

starvation, alcholism, diabetic ketoacidosis

57
Q

bilirubin indicates

A

hemolysis, biliary obsturction, liver injury

58
Q

blood in urine indicates

A

kidney stones, UTI, uriinary trauma, strenous exercise, bladder cancer

59
Q

leukocyte esterase in urine indicates

A

UTI (enzymes released by WBcs)

60
Q

urobilinogen in urine indicates

A

bacteria in gut: reacts with bilirubin to make this; associated with hemolysis and hepatocellular disease

61
Q

positive nitrites

A

bacterial infection: some bacteria convert nitrates to nitrities

62
Q

how do you prep a ua for microscopic exam

A

centrifuge to separate proteins

63
Q

protein in urine (microscopic exam)

A

bence jones protein assoc. with multiple myeloma

64
Q

crystals in urine

A

kidney stones (cysteine, calcium oxalat, and struvite) made with correct PH, temp and concentration

65
Q

casts in urine def

A

formed in distal convuluted tubule or mucoprotein, sticky, abnormal protein formed during infection or inflammation

66
Q

RBC casts in urine

A

glomerulonephritis

67
Q

WBC casts in urine

A

pyelonephritis

68
Q

elevated AST

A

liver, muscle, or cardiac injury

69
Q

ALT indications

A

liver injury

70
Q

elevated alkaline phosphatase

A

bile duct obstruction, extrahepatic obstruction (cholecystitis) or intrahepatic obstruction (viral hepatitis or cirrhosis), may be associated with new bone cell production (check if they have metastatic bone cancer or recent broken bone)

71
Q

gamma glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) elevated

A

liver injury, biliary obstruction, marker of alcohol use (levels remain elevated for 3-6 weeks

72
Q

elevated unconjugated bilirubin (bilirubin bound by albumin)

73
Q

elevated conjugated bilirubin (bilirubin cleaved of albumin-water soluble)

A

bile duct obstruction

74
Q

what are two markers of good clotting time and liver function?

A

albumin and prothrombin

75
Q

increased prothrombin time

A

deficient numbers of coagulation proteins

76
Q

when to order a coagulation study

A

unexplained bleeding disorder, excessive bruising, consecutive pregnancy loss, puts receiving heparin or coumadin therapy

77
Q

prothrombin time (pt)

A

11.5-13.5 seconds

78
Q

Pro thrombin time measures extrinsic or intrinsic pathway/

79
Q

partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

A

27-38 seconds, intrinsic pathway, monitors heparin therapy

80
Q

prolonged coagulation studies for what

A

pts on coumadin or heparin, liver injury, vitamin k defic.

81
Q

increased levels amylase or lipase

A

pancreatitis, biliary obstruction, pancratic carcinoma

82
Q

is lipase or amylase more specific for pancreatic inflammation?

83
Q

electrocytes can tell waht

A

overall fluid status, acid/base status

84
Q

when to order electrolyes

A

puts receiving IVs, metabolic or endocrine abnormal, meds that interfere with electrolytes, severe vomiting/diarrh.

85
Q

na function

A

maintain blood and body fluids, conduct impulses

86
Q

elevated sodium

A

dehydration, vomiting, diarrhea, endocrine (SIADH, aldosteronism, diabetes inspidus)

87
Q

decreased sodium

A

overhydrated, endocrine (cushion’s disease)

88
Q

elevated K

A

cell injury, kidney failure, endocrine disorders (addisons0

89
Q

decreased K

A

malnutiriton, vomiting, diarrhea, diuretic meds

90
Q

elevated chloride

A

dehydration, overactive parathyroid glands

91
Q

decreased Cl

A

vomiting (loss of gastric acid)

92
Q

elevated mg

A

kidney disease, use of antacids

93
Q

decreased mg

A

inadequate absorption, poor diet, alcoholism, diarrhea, meds like diuretics

94
Q

which calcium is metabolically active

A

ionized in circulation

95
Q

elevated Ca

A

hyperparathyroid hormones, cancer, excessive vit D

96
Q

decreased ca

A

hypoparathyroid hromones, deficient protein, vit d def

97
Q

elevated glucose

A

diabetes, endocrine disorders, prednisone therapy, pancreatitis

98
Q

what does A1c measure

A

glycosylated hemoglobin, avg blood glucose concentration over past 2-3 mos

99
Q

what is urea

A

waste from protein breakdown in liver

100
Q

elevated BUN

A

impaired kidney fun increased protein catabolism, dehydration

101
Q

decreased BUN

A

liver failure, malnutrition, endocrine disorders (SIADH)

102
Q

what does creatinine correlate directly with

A

muscle mass

103
Q

what does creatinine measure

A

kidney fcn (they excrete it) more specific than BUN

104
Q

elevated creatinine

A

impaired renal fcn, large muscle mass

105
Q

decreased creatinine

A

decreased muscle mass, liver disease

106
Q

uric acid formation

A

from breakdown of nucleonic acids and is an end product of purine metabolism, most excreted by kidneys

107
Q

elevated uric acid

A

excessive cell breakdown of nucleonic acids (gout), excessive destruction of cells (leukemia), inability to excrete uric acid (renal failure0

108
Q

elevated TSH

A

hypothyroidism

109
Q

decreased TSH

A

HYPERTHYROIDISM

110
Q

elevated t3 and t4

A

hyperthyroidism

111
Q

decreased t4 and t3

A

hypothyroidism

112
Q

sedimentation rate

A

marker of inflammation

113
Q

d-dimer

A

clotting, screens for DVT or PE

114
Q

brain naturietic peptide

A

hormone produced by ventricles of heart, increased with ventricular volume expansion and pressure overload, increased with CHF

115
Q

platelet count female

A

270,000 +/- 58,000/uL

Lab Medicine (1 decks)

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