Recurrent Flashcards

1
Q

What would cause an external horn to sound?

A

APU fire

AOM VOL 1, Pg. 802

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2
Q

What is the maximum cabin altitude in normal conditions?

A

8,000ft

AOM VOL 1, Pg. 88

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3
Q

The pheunmatic system provides wing anti-ice protection which of the slats?

A

The three outboard slats, (3-4-5).

AOM VOL 1, Pg. 583

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4
Q

If PACK FLOW is selected to LO, NORM or HIGH and only the APU is providing BLEED AIR, what will be the PACK FLOW rate?

A

High flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic.

AOM VOL 1, Pg. 66

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5
Q

What will happen if an APU fire is detected while the aircraft is on the ground?

A

The APU will shut down, A horn will sound in the nose gear, the APU fire extinguisher discharges, ALL OF THE ABOVE.

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6
Q

What is the maximum field elevation for an auto land in the 319/320/321 respectively?

A

9200, 6500, 5750.

COM VOL 1, Pg. 58

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7
Q

What is the active range of the auto thrust with one engine inoperative?

A

Just above idle to MCT detent.

AOM VOL 1, Pg. 264

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8
Q

If ground deicing/ anti-icing is preformed, the flaps, slats and flight controls may be moved?

A

Approximately 3 minutes before takeoff.

AOM VOL 1, Pg. 419

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9
Q

Given the following TAF, could the flight be dispatched with an ETA of 2145Z? Note: KACY is limited to CAT 1 mins of 1/2 SM.

TAF KACY 081443Z 0815/0918 13026G23KT 3SM -RA BKN008
OVC012

FM082100 12023G38KT 1/2SM SN OVC005

TEMPO 0821/0901 1/4SM +SN OVC004

A

Yes, but only under Exemption 3585.

FOM Pg. 111

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10
Q

What method would the pilot use to charge the batteries if BAT voltage was 25.5 volts or below on an originating flight?

A

Charge the batteries with the external power and BAT pbs to Auto for 20 minutes.

AOM VOL 2 Pg. 101

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11
Q

Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?

A

RMP 1.

AOM VOL 2 Pg. 30

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12
Q

If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS BUS powered?

A

AC BUS 2 automatically feeds the AC ESS BUS.

AOM VOL 1

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13
Q

What is the normal inflight power source for the FADEC?

A

The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above 10%.

AOM VOL 1 Pg. 1011

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14
Q

Under what conditions would the flight crew need to manually abort an automatic engine start on the ground?

A

Tailpipe fire.

AOM VOL 2, Pg. 197

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15
Q

What is accomplished when the engine fire PB is pushed?

A

Closes the LP fuel valve.

AOM VOL 1, Pg. 421

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16
Q

What happens if both engine fire loops fail simultaneously?

A

Fire warning will be issued if the failure occurs within 5 seconds of each other.

AOM VOL 1, Pg. 420

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17
Q

How is alternate law indicated on the PFD?

A

Amber X’s

AOM VOL 1, Pg. 477

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18
Q

How is the mechanical back up indicated on the PFD?

A

Red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”

AOM VOL 1, Pg. 480

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19
Q

What should happen to the THS (trimmable horizontal stabilizer) after landing?

A

It resets to zero.

AOM VOL 1, Pg. 482

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20
Q

When would the sideslip index on the PFD change from yellow to blue?

A

An engine failure during takeoff/ go around

AOM VOL 1, Pg. 652

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21
Q

When do the ground spoilers fully extend upon landing if not armed?

A

After both main gear have touched down and reverse is selected on at least one engine.

AOM VOL 1, Pg. 460

22
Q

How is direct law indicated on the PFD?

A

Amber “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM”

AOM VOL 1, Pg. 278

23
Q

To legally depart from an airport without a designated takeoff alternate, weather reported must be?

A

At or above landing minimums at the departure airport.

FOM Pg. 66

24
Q

Severe low level wind shear can be associated with?

A

Thunderstorms and fronts, large temp/ dew point spreads and/ or strong surface winds, the potential for complete loss of the aircraft.

ALL OF THE ABOVE

FOM Pg. 108

25
Q

Regarding airports equipped with runway status light systems (RWSLS)?

A

Illuminated runway entrance lights indicate the runway is not safe.

AIM RWSLS

26
Q

A new airworthiness release is required?

A

After a scheduled check.

FOM Pg. 361

27
Q

Lowest authorized takeoff minimums and/ or requirements per OPSPECS are?

A

At least two RVR Transmissometers must be operational, RVR TDZ 500, MID 500, Rollout 500,
HIRL and CL must be operational.

ALL OF THE ABOVE

OPSPECS C078

28
Q

Which of the following instrument approaches are not authorized in company OPSPECS?

A

LOC back course

OPSPECS C052

29
Q

Circle-to-land maneuvers may only be conducted if?

A

Reported weather is at least ceiling 1000ft, and visibility at least 3sm.

30
Q

Utilizing proper Crew Resource Management involves?

A

Information transfer and problem solving, anticipating contingencies and initiating appropriate actions, conflict resolution, IE: attitudes, behaviors and their effects on others.

ALL OF THE ABOVE

FOM Pg. 63

31
Q

Lowest authorized landing minimums for company aircraft are?

A

As published but not less than RVR 300, RVR 1800

Both A & B

FOM Pg. 78

32
Q

The primary focus of CRM threat and error management (TEM) is?

A

Reduce the likelihood of errors occurring, dealing satisfactorily with errors they occur.

Both B & C

FOM Pg. 358

33
Q

For flight in RVSM primary altimeters should agree within?

A

200ft

FOM Pg. 201

34
Q

Regarding a destination alternate airport, weather forecast at the alternate at ETA must remain at or above?

A

Alternate minimums while the flight is enroute to the destination.

FOM Pg. 361

35
Q

ICAO forms that may be required for entry/ exit are?

A

General manifest, cargo manifest, passenger manifest.

ALL OF THE ABOVE

FOM Pg. 234

36
Q

“hazardous materials” is a DOT term. However, it is known as ____ international carriage?

A

Dangerous Goods

HAZMAT Manual Pg. 56

37
Q

As a Spirit employee or contract vendor your recurrent Hazardous Materials training is required every?

A

1 year per spirit policy

HAZMAT Manual Pg. 65,66

38
Q

The maximum quantity of dry ice allowed per passenger in checked baggage is?

A

2.5Kg or 5.5lbs

FOM Pg. 438

39
Q

What is Spirit Airlines policy for shipping COMAT that contains Hazardous Materials?

A

Ship on a different mode and/ or carrier that is approved to carry HAZMAT.

FOM Pg. 435

40
Q

What does an amber FAULT light on the PTU pb mean?

A

Green or Yellow overheat
Green or Yellow low pressure
Green or Yellow low fluid level

ALL OF THE ABOVE

AOM VOL 1 Pg. 568

41
Q

In which of the following scenarios should engine anti-ice be used?

A

Descending through FL240 in visible moisture, TAT -22, SAT -45.

AOM VOL 2 Pg. 698

42
Q

The red arrow next to the landing gear selector lever illuminates when?

A

The gear is not locked in the down position when the aircraft is in the landing configuration.

AOM VOL 1 Pg. 742

43
Q

When do the strobe lights flash when the pb selected in AUTO?

A

When the main gear strut is not compressed.

AOM VOL 1 Pg. 780

44
Q

What does DMC 1 normally supply?

A

The captains PFD, ND and both ECAM Du’s.

AOM VOL 1 Pg. 646

45
Q

What occurs when the T.O. Config pb is pressed?

A

The system simulates application of T.O. power and checks certain system for proper configuration.

AOM VOL 1 Pg. 627

46
Q

What is the maximum landing weight of the A321?

A

171,519lbs

COM 1 Pg. 24

47
Q

Durning the preliminary cockpit preparation check of the door/oxy page, how would a crew member know if it is necessary to verify that oxygen pressure is sufficient for the scheduled flight?

A

if oxygen pressure is half boxed in amber

AOM VOL 2 Pg. 106

48
Q

What happens when the blower or extract pb is set to override?

A

The ventilation system is in the closed circuit configuration and adds air from the air conditioning system to the ventilation air.

AOM VOL 1 Pg. 104

49
Q

What are some signs that you have flown into a volcanic ash cloud?

A

Smoke or Dust appears on the flight deck possibly with an acid odor similar to electrical smoke. airborne weather radar cannot detect it.

Multiple engine malfunctions such as stats increasing get touching from tail pipe flameout eat.

At night St Elmos fire static discharges may be observed around the windshield accompanied by a bright orange glow in the engine inlets.

ALL OF THE ABOVE

FOM Pg. 454; COM 2 Pg. 777

50
Q

What procedure should be followed if you detect a cracked cockpit window/ windshield?

A

Refer to COM 2 Miscellaneous procedures.

Touch the cracks with a pen or fingernail to determine if the crack is on the cockpit side

If no crack on the cockpit side, no limitation. if cracks on cockpit side, MAX FL 230 or MEA, MAX diff 5psi

ALL OF THE ABOVE

COM 2 Pg. 748