Recurrent Flashcards
When required to land without delay at the nearest suitable area where safe approach and landing is reasonably assured, the flight manual will use what phrase
Land as soon as possible
The engine out audio signal will be transmitted when the Ng drops below which of the following values?
55%
In the event of an engine failure in flight the collective should be adjusted to maintain a rotor RPM not to exceed which speed?
107%
What is the airspeed for minimum rate of descent in autorotation
55 KIAS
If flameout occurs and automatic relight was unsuccessful, under what conditions may an engine restart be attempted in flight?
Time and altitude permit
What is the airspeed and Nr combination that will allow the pilot maximum time to attempt an air restart?
85% Nr at 55 KIAS.
In the event of an engine overspeed, which of the following should be accomplished first?
Throttle - Retard
Which of the following are indications of an engine compressor stall?
PSI oscillations
During the shutdown from an engine hot start, it is noted that the starter remains engaged until the MGT reaches what temperature?
150 degrees C
In the event of a Main Driveshaft failure, the engine overspeed system will activate at?
118.5% NP
The ENGINE OVSPD caution light will illuminate for which of the following conditions?
Np greater than 102.1% for 2.5 seconds.
What is the procedure for a FADEC FAIL message during start?
Close throttle immediately. Ensure starter is motoring engine until MGT stabilizes at normal temperatures.
In the event of a FADEC failure in flight, the Nr/Np should be maintained between:
95 to 100%
The RPM message will illuminate without audio under which of the following condition?
Nr above 107%
If cabin smoke or fumes are experienced in flight, which of the following procedures are to be accomplished?
Side windows - Open
In the event of a hydraulic system failure, the airspeed should be established:
70 - 100 KIAS.
Which of the following indications are representative of a generator failure?
GEN FAIL message illuminated, AMPS – 0, Volts approx. 24
Indications of an excessive electrical load occur and after performing the appropriate procedure smoke/fumes do not decrease. When using Jet B fuel, prior to battery depletion, you should reduce altitude to below:
9000 feet pressure altitude (Hp).
Assuming 80% charge, how long will the optional 28-amp hr. battery operate the left fuel boost pump and left fuel transfer pump with the generator and battery OFF?
2.5 hours
If the BATTERY HOT message illuminates in conjunction with the BATTERY RLY message, the procedure is to:
Select BATT switch - OFF Select GEN switch - OFF (if conditions permit)
Which of the following conditions will cause the illumination of the BATTERY RLY caution message?
Battery relay remains energized when battery switch is OFF. Battery is still connected to DC BUS.
The XMSN OIL PRESS message will be displayed when the pressure switch detects a decreasing oil pressure at or below:
30 PSI
What is the procedure if any of the following caution messages appear? MGT EXCEED, NG EXCEED, NP EXCEED, or Q EXCEED.
Reduce engine power if possible; maintenance action required prior to the next flight.
The FUEL LOW message will illuminate when the fuel remaining in the aft fuel cell is at which of the following?
100 +/- 10 lbs.
With both fuel transfer pumps inoperative, the unusable fuel may be as high as ___________, so you should do what?
151 lbs.; land as soon as practical.
What are the main components of the FADEC system?
Electronic Engine Control (EEC), Fuel Metering Unit (FMU), and Fuel Pump Power Unit (FPPU).
True or False? During flight with the throttle in FLY or Full Open position, the FADEC has complete control over the engine operation.
True. The FADEC maintains the Main Rotor speed (Nr) within limits.
At what point will the FADEC EEC select between the 28 VDC bus and the FPPU for its primary power source?
Once the engine reaches minimum run speed and higher.
If the FADEC MAINT advisory is displayed during the power-up self-test, this indicates:
The FADEC system requires maintenance.
Under which of the following conditions would the FADEC cutoff fuel to abort the start?
Start MGT reaches 912 °C at pressure altitudes greater than 10,000 ft. and residual MGT is greater than 82.2 °C at initiation of start.
What happens when all drive power is removed from the stepper motor on the FMU?
The fuel is fixed equal to the last command position.
What is the forward tank fuel capacity?
37.6 U.S. gal.
What is the total usable fuel capacity without the auxiliary fuel tank installed?
127.8 U.S. gal
What is the capacity of the auxiliary fuel tank?
19 US gal
In the event the battery switch is selected off during aircraft operation, what circuit allows operation of the left fuel transfer and left fuel boost pumps?
With the FUEL VALVE switch on, battery voltage is supplied by the battery through the alternate circuit.
Fuel quantity is measured by:
3 probes in the fuel tanks used by the fuel signal conditioner to calculate fuel weight.
In the event the signal conditioner should complete a power up BIT check and detects a failure, or if an error is found in the probe signal, what will be the reading on the Fuel Quantity gauge?
The EIS fuel quantity indication will be blanked.
How can the fuel quantity in the forward tank be checked?
By pressing the FUEL QTY FWD TANK button.
The hydraulic system provides pressurized fluid to operate which of the following?
Cyclic, collective, and tail rotor flight control servo actuators.
The solenoid valve is controlled by a HYD SYS switch which is:
Located on the overhead console.
Both hydraulic filters have a filter indicator which activates when the differential pressure across the filter is:
70 +/- 10 PSI.
The hydraulic pressure filter bypass valve will open when the differential pressures reach:
None of the answers are correct; the pressure filter does not have a bypass valve.
The relief valve is incorporated into the hydraulic system between the pressure filter and the solenoid valve. It is designed to open when the pressure exceeds which of the following value:
1225 +/- 150 PSI
To prevent inaccurate indications of the hydraulic filter clogging, the filter indicator will stop working when the hydraulic fluid is below what temperature?
35 °F (2 °C).
The HYDRAULIC SYS CAS caution message will be displayed when the hydraulic pressure decreases below:
650 PSI
What is the maximum allowable cabin deck loading for cargo?
75 lbs. per sq. ft.
With the crew doors removed, how is the indicated altitude affected.
It may be as much as 100 ft. lower than actual altitude.
What is the maximum allowable approved GW with jettisonable external load for takeoff and landing?
6000 lbs
What is the Vne at takeoff power (93.5 to 100% torque?
100 KIAS
What is the maximum operating altitude?
20,000 ft Hd
What is the maximum rate of climb authorized?
2,000 ft/min
If you are planning a slope landing that will require you to have a nose down attitude, what is the maximum allowable angle permitted?
5 degrees
What is the maximum allowable sea level ambient air temperature for operation?
51.7 °C (125 °F).
What is the maximum allowable continuous amp meter reading up to 10,000 ft. pressure altitude when starter generator 206-062-200-113 is installed?
180 amps
What is the maximum allowable starter activation time when using a GPU?
40 seconds.
What is the maximum continuous allowable operation for the gas producer (Ng)?
105%
What is the maximum continuous Power Turbine (Np) limitation?
100%
What is the maximum continuous MGT limitation?
727 degrees C
What is the maximum continuous torque limitation?
93.5%
What is the minimum allowable fuel pressure limitation?
8 PSI
What is the minimum allowable engine oil pressure below 79% Ng
50 PSI
What is the maximum allowable transmission oil pressure?
50 PSI
What is the maximum allowable transmission oil temperature for continuous operation?
110 °C
For cold weather operations where the helicopter and battery have been cold soaked, battery starts have been demonstrated with the standard 17 amp-hour battery to temperatures of:
-22 °F (-30 °C)
Engine oil temperature should be closely monitored when hovering with a tailwind greater than 10 knots at what OAT?
37.8 °C (100 °F)
Failure to remove the rotor tie-downs before engine starting may result in:
Severe damage and possible injury.
When draining the fuel sump, contaminants may not be properly drained under which of the following conditions?
The helicopter is not parked on a level surface.
What is the minimum voltage for engine start?
24
Starter latching is disabled if the throttle is positioned to IDLE for more than:
60 seconds
When below 10,000 ft. pressure altitude it is recommended that the MGT be below which of the following values before attempting an engine start?
150 °C.
After the START switch is momentarily activated, which lights should be illuminated?
The START and AUTO RELIGHT CAS message.
The start must be aborted if the main rotor is not turning by:
25% Ng.
The normal idle speed is which of the following?
63% +/- 1%.
To conduct a dry motoring run, close the throttle and engage the start switch for:
15 seconds.
During engine run-up the throttle is increased smoothly to the FLY detent position while maintaining torque less than:
40%.
RPM warning light and audio should be extinguished at:
95% Nr
The hydraulic check is accomplished when Nr/Np reaches ______ RPM?
100.
The recommended torque setting for takeoff is:
5% above hover power.
At high power and high airspeed, cyclic only accelerations and maneuvering may:
Increase MGT and torque without collective input.
When the ENG ANTI-ICE switch is selected ON the:
MGT will increase.
During descent and landing, an independent increase of Nr may occur:
When large collective reductions are made at heavy GW
Positioning the throttle out of CUT-OFF during Ng spool down may:
Cause a post engine shutdown fire.
How are the rotors slowed down during coastdown?
The rotor brake.
Certain actions, such as installing main rotor blade tiedowns, are required if:
Thunderstorms are forecasted.
True or False? Power assurance check may not be performed in a hover prior to takeoff.
False, it may, depending on ambient conditions and gross weight.
Which of the following switches should be selected off in order to properly perform the power assurance check?
Engine anti-icing.
If the helicopter configuration is invalid, what error message is displayed when performing an automatic power assurance check with the G1000H?
CHK LIMITS.
As temperature increases above standard for an altitude, Hd will also.
Increase to values higher than Hp.
The Height-Velocity Envelope diagrams:
Are valid only if gross weight does not exceed the limits of the Altitude vs. Gross Weight for Height Velocity Chart.
What is important to note when referring to the Hover Ceiling chart?
Hover performance charts are based on 100% rotor RPM.
Using the Rate of climb charts, the recommended best rate of climb airspeed is:
60 KIAS
With any combination of the doors removed, the rate of climb data presented in the rate of climb charts should be reduced:
100 FPM.
Given the following conditions, use the provided Power Assurance Chart to find the maximum allowable MGT. (6000 feet pressure altitude, 75% torque, OAT 15 °
712 °C
Using the provided Density Altitude Chart, find the Density Altitude and True Airspeed for the following conditions. (OAT 10 °C, Pressure Altitude 9000 feet, 100 KCAS
10,500 feet Hp; 117 KTAS.
For the following values, find the appropriate limiting envelope for an aircraft to landing safely following an engine failure. (OAT 20 °C, 4,000 feet pressure altitude, gross weight of 4,200 pound
Region B.
Using the provided chart, determine the allowable gross weight for a Hover In Ground Effect. (Takeoff power, heater ON, anti-ice OFF, OAT 0 °C, pressure altitude of 6,000 feet
5,600 lbs.
For the following conditions, use the rate of climb chart to the maximum rate of climb. (Maximum continuous power, Heater OFF, Anti-ice OFF, 4,000 lbs. gross weight, OAT 20 °C, pressure altitude 8,000)
1250 ft./min.
During takeoff, how much horsepower will the Rolls-Royce 250-C47E/4 powerplant provide?
674
The ENG ANTI-ICE switch, located on the overhead console, controls the engine anti-ice bleed air solenoid valve. In the event of a total electrical failure the system will:
Fail safe to ON.
When the EEC has recorded an Np exceedence, the ENGINE OVSPD CAS message illuminates when Ng speeds reach ______ upon engine shutdown.
9.5%.
What percent of air delivered to the first stage gas producer is required to burn fuel
20 to 25%.
Which of the following is true regarding the Engine Oil gauge?
The engine oil pressure signal is provided by a transducer mounted on the forward right side of the engine gearbox.
The engine oil system pressure must always be greater than torquemeter oil pressure and is regulated to a value of:
115-130 PSI.
What is the approximate capacity of the engine oil tank?
6 qt
How many engine chip detectors are associated with the ENGINE CHIP caution message?
2
Transmission oil level may be determined by:
An oil level sight glass located on the right side of the transmission lower case.
What is the transmission oil pump output per minute?
6.0 to 6.7 gal.
What is the approximate pressure of the transmission oil regulator valve?
52 PSI.
When is the impending bypass indicator on the end of the filter housing in the transmission oil system designed to extend? At:
14 +/- 2 PSI.
At what temperature does the thermostatic valve begin to direct flow to the oil cooler?
Above 66 °C (150 °F).
The XMSN OIL TEMP CAS warning message will be displayed when the transmission oil temperature is at or above:
110 °C.
Which of the following are included in the empty weight of the helicopter?
Optional equipment kits.
Under which of the following conditions is the helicopter empty weight center of gravity chart not valid?
If the aircraft is configured with a non-standard seating arrangement.
Which of the following describes the structural design limit for Cabin floor loading?
75 lbs. per sq. ft.
Which of the following are true regarding baggage compartment loading requirements?
If the load is not secured, the center of gravity must be computed with load in most adverse position
