Recruitment & Selection Flashcards
1
Q
Set of potential candidates who may be interested in, and who are likely to apply for a specific job
A
Applicant Pool
2
Q
External Factors of Recruitment
A
- Labour Market
- Legal Environment
- Diversity Recruitment
3
Q
Internal Factors of Recruitment
A
- Business Strategy
- Job level and Type
4
Q
The process of anticipating and providing for the movement of employees into, within, and out of the organization
A
Human Resources Planning
5
Q
Includes newspapers, professional periodicals and trade journals, radio and TV, public displays, open houses, job fairs,employee referral, networking
A
Job Advertisements
6
Q
Includes Service Canada agencies, private employee agencies, executive search firms, in-house recruiters, temporary help agencies
A
Employment agencies
7
Q
Sources of recruits for organizations seeking entry-level technical, professional, and managerial employees
A
Educational institutions
8
Q
TRUE OR FALSE: Social network recruiting may have adverse impact on members of protected groups.
A
True
9
Q
When a job candidate has the KSAs required by the job in question
A
Person-job fit
10
Q
When a job candidate fits the organization’s values and culture and has the contextual attributes desired by the organization
A
Person-organization Fit
11
Q
Procedure designed to reduce turnover and increase satisfaction among newcomers to an organization by providing job candidates with accurate information about the job and the organization
A
Realistic Job Preview
12
Q
Which of the following is a behavioural measure that can be used to evaluate recruitment efforts?
A. Commitment to the organization
B. Job satisfaction
C. Sales quotas
D. Turnover rates
A
D. Turnover rates - The turnover rate is a behavioural measure that can be used to evaluate recruitment efforts
13
Q
TRUE OR FALSE: Using emotional appeals rather than relying solely on facts and rational arguments are more effective.
A
True
14
Q
TRUE or FALSE: Focus on the needs of applicants rather than on the requirements of the job to improve application rate.
A
True
15
Q
Types of Performance measures
A
Performance Ratings
Sales Quotas
Performance potential
16
Q
Which of the following best defines performance management?
A
Organizational processes used to improve employee and organizational performance in the workplace
17
Q
Which measures of job performance attempt to capture individual differences among employees with respect to job-related behaviours?
A
Criteria
18
Q
Which of the following defines the concept that is described as activities or behaviours that are not part of a worker’s formal job description but that remain important for organizational effectiveness?
A
Contextual performance
19
Q
Which of the following best defines job criteria?
A
Measures of job performance that attempt to capture individual differences among employees with respect to job-related behaviours.
20
Q
Which of the following is an example of contextual behaviour?
A
Extra effort
21
Q
Which of the following is job task behaviour for a retail worker?
A
Explaining product benefits
22
Q
Which performance behaviour is similar to contextual performance behaviour?
A
Adaptive behaviour
23
Q
According to a research study investigating the use of personal Facebook pages to predict job performance, what advice should HR managers give to hiring managers concerning the use of Facebook posts by applicants to predict which candidates will be successful?
A
It’s of no value
24
Q
Which of the following best defines job performance?
A
The observable things employees do that are relevant to accomplishing the goals of the organization.
25
Which of the following is a job task behaviour for an airplane pilot?
Navigation
26
As the HRM, you are responsible for defining sets of related behaviours that are derived from organizational goals and linked to successful job performance. What are these behaviours called?
Performance dimensions
27
In Campbell’s theory of work performance, what concept refers to the degree to which individuals are committed to performing all job tasks, to working at a high level of intensity, and to working under adverse conditions?
Demonstrating effort
28
Which concept refers to voluntary behaviours that violate significant organizational norms and in so doing threaten the well-being of an organization, its members, or both?
Counterproductive work behavious
29
Which of the following is NOT an objective measure of job performance?
Earnings per share
30
Which of the following is NOT a common type of counterproductive work behaviour?
Workaholism
31
Which method allows the rater to compare the overall performance of each worker with that of every other worker being evaluated?
Paired comparison
32
Psychological withdrawal occurs when employees withhold effort and do not perform to their fullest capabilities. Which if the following is a form of psychological withdrawal?
Workplace violance
33
Which of the following actions is NOT part of the new protections from violence and harassment that employers in Ontario need to provide for workers?
Providing an employee assistance program to ensure workers have access to psychological resources immediately following a violent or harassing incident.
34
Which of the following concept is known as the degree to which the criterion measure is influenced by, or measures, behaviours or competencies that are NOT part of the job performance?
Criterion contamination
35
Which concept is defined as the degree to which the criterion measures or captures behaviours or competencies that constitute job performance?
Criterion relevance
36
Into which subcategories would you break job performance behaviours?
Task
Contextual
Adaptive
Counterproductive behaviours
37
With respect to criterion measures, what is one disadvantage of practicality?
The measures do not meet the standards of reliability and validity.
38
Which of the following researchers recognized that an ultimate criterion would rarely, if ever, be found in practice?
Thorndike
39
Which of the following is an absolute rating system?
Graphic rating scale
40
TRUE or FALSE: Job performance domain refers to the set of related behaviours that are derived from an organization’s goals and linked to successful job performance.
True
41
TRUE or FALSE: Performance is NOT the consequence or result of action; it is the action itself.
True
42
TRUE or FALSE: Persisting with enthusiasm and extra effort as necessary to complete one’s own task activities successfully is an example of contextual performance.
True
43
TRUE or FALSE: Contextual performance is closely related to organizational citizenship behaviour.
True
44
TRUE or FALSE: The usefulness of selection measures is assessed by how well they predict performance.
True
45
TRUE or FALSE: Engaging in unsafe work practices is a counterproductive performance behaviour.
True
46
TRUE or FALSE: Cognitive ability appears to be the best predictor of task performance across all job situations.
True
47
TRUE or FALSE: To evaluate the effectiveness of selection systems, companies must measure the task, adaptive, contextual, and counterproductive performance behaviours that are important for job success.
True
48
TRUE or FALSE: Reliability is the degree to which the criterion measure captures behaviours or competencies that constitute job performance.
False - Criterion Relevance
49
TRUE or FALSE: Performance measurement is always subjective and is not reliable to predict future performance.
False
50
TRUE or FALSE: Absolute rating systems compare the performance of one worker with an absolute standard of performance.
True
51
TRUE or FALSE: Behaviour observation scales are very similar to behaviourally anchored rating scales (BARS) in that the starting point is an analysis of critical job incidents by those knowledgeable about the job to establish performance dimensions.
True
52
TRUE or FALSE: The perceived fairness and perceived justice of the performance appraisal process plays a central role in determining employee reactions.
True
53
What is the initial step in the selection process?
Recruitment
54
Which term defines a set of potential candidates who maybe interested in, and who are likely to apply for, a specific job?
An applicant pool
55
What concept refers to the generation of an applicant pool for a position in order to provide the required number of qualified candidates for selection or promotion?
Recruitment
56
According to the opening vignette, Employers Brew up New Ways to Recruit Talent, what percentage of positions is never advertised?
70%
57
According to the textbook, which of the following is NOT an external factor affecting recruitment?
Sustainability
58
Which of the following refers to contracting with an outside agent to take over specified human resource functions?
Outsourcing
59
Which factor defines the intentional or unintentional exclusion of designate groups through recruitment and selection?
Systemic discrimination
60
According to the textbook, which of the following internal factors affects recruitment?
Supply of labour
61
What is the initial step in developing a recruitment action plan?
Develop a recruitment strategy
62
Which of the following is NOT an internal method of recruitment?
Job advertisements
63
Which of the following external methods is associated with the highest retention rates?
Referrals
64
Which term refers to advertising that is designed to raise an organization’s profile in a positive manner in order to attract interest from job seekers?
Image advertising
65
What is the primary advantage of Internet recruiting?
Reaching a large applicant pool at minimal cost
66
Which of the following is a disadvantage of internal job postings?
There is motivational impact on candidates not selected.
67
What occurs during the recruitment and selection process when candidates form an opinion that they do not want to work in the organization for which they are being recruited?
Self-selecting out
68
Which of the following would NOT be considered an effective recruiting guideline?
Give serious consideration to the content of information presented to candidates, rather than the context in which it is presented.
69
What term is defined as the process through which an organization reaches a decision that a job candidate fits the organization’s values and culture, and has the attributes desired by the organization?
Person-organization fit
70
Which of the following is NOT an outcome of a mismatched individual relative to the job and the organization?
Presenteeism
71
Which of the following is NOT a factor that plays an influential role in creating accurate expectations that candidates hold about prospective jobs?
Information technology
72
What type of measures used to evaluate recruiting methods includes turnover and absenteeism?
Behavioural
73
True or False: Recruitment is done separately from the selection process.
False
74
True or False: The best defence against charges of systemic discrimination is to document that every attempt has been made to attract members from the protected group.
True
75
True or False: Employment equity involves policies and practices to increase the presence of visible minorities and gay individuals in the workplace.
False
76
True or False: Mission and values do NOT play a role in the recruitment process.
False
77
True or False: There is evidence that employees recruited by referral remain longer in the organization.
True
78
True or False: Walk-in and write-in methods of job recruitment are inexpensive ways to fill entry-level positions, and they are more effective than referrals because there is no nepotism.
False
79
True or False: One disadvantage of employee referrals is that they may lead to discrimination and inbreeding.
True
80
True or False: According to the textbook, approximately 87% of respondents to a Jobvite survey indicated that they use some form of social media to recruit.
False
81
Tru or False: Unlike job boards, there is no cost to joining a social network.
True
82
True or False: One disadvantage of Internet recruiting is that it results in an overwhelming number of applicants, many of whom are unqualified.
True
83
True or False: Social network sites for job applicants might be discriminatory if disabled individuals are required to post photographs of themselves.
True
84
True or False: Social network sites protect the private information of job applicants such as age, religion, and ethnicity, and are not discriminatory.
False
85
True or False: One disadvantage of using Canada Employment Centres for recruitment is that hiring success is limited certain occupational categories.
True
86
True or False: Ensuring accurate job expectations during the recruitment and selection process helps develop a good organization-job fit between the person and the organization.
True
87
True or False: Realistic job previews are intended to improve the fit between the job candidate and the organization.
True
88
Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 groups designated in the federal government’s Employment Equity Act
Immigrants
89
Which term refers to the amount of knowledge, skills, abilities, and experience required for minimally acceptable job performance?
Minimum qualifications
90
What are screening procedures designed to do?
Reduce number of job applicants.
91
What concept refers to the proportion of applicants who are hired for one or more positions?
Selection ratio
92
Which law prohibits federally regulated employers from discriminating on prohibited grounds?
Canadian Human Rights Act
93
Which concept refers to individuals who are predicted to perform successfully in a given position but who do not perform at satisfactory levels when placed on the job?
False positive
94
If you had 500 applicants for 10 positions, what is the selection ratio?
0.02
95
Which methods determine if an applicant is most qualified for the job?
Employment testing and employment interview
96
Which term is defined as the relationship between the actual number of people hired and the number who applied for a position, expressed in terms of proportion?
Selection ratio
97
Scribe Engineering, an information technology company, recently made a costly screening error when it underestimated the potential of a software engineer, resulting in a no-hire decision. The applicant accepted a position with a competing organization and developed a new, leading-edge software, taking away substantial market share from Scribe Engineering. What is this error called?
False negative
98
A company screening job applicants wants the relationship between the actual number of people hired and the number who applied for a position to yield 0.10. What is this proportion of applicants called?
Selection ratio
99
Which of the following is NOT a commonly used screening method?
Application forms
100
Which method is used to determine whether an applicant meets the minimum requirements for the job?
Application form
101
What must a potential employer be able to demonstrate if an application form asks for information related to a prohibited ground?
Bonafide occupational requirements
102
What screening method would you use to screen for a lifeguard’s CPR certification?
Application form
103
Which of the following are criterion measures used to establish the validity of a (WAB) Weighted Application Blank?
Absenteeism and turnover
104
What does a biographical information blank include?
Educational experiences, hobbies, life experiences
105
Which of the following does NOT enhance the predictive value of reference checks?
The applicant is the same gender and ethnicity as the supervisor on the previous job.
106
True or False: Screening begins before the Human Resources Department receives the application.
False
107
True or False: Screening is the firs step of the selection process. It involves identifying individuals from the applicant pool who have minimum qualifications for the targeted position.
True
108
True or False: Recruitment involves identifying individuals from the applicant pool who have minimum qualifications for the targeted position.
False
109
True or False: Screening refers to the early stages of a sequential selection process in which applicants who meet the selection criteria are selected for further consideration and more assessment.
True
110
True or False: Selection identifies whether candidates who applied for a position meet minimum requirements.
False
111
True or False: Screening seeks to find a sufficient number of qualified applicants.
False
112
True or False: Individuals who are predicted to perform successfully for a given position, but who do not perform satisfactory when placed on the job, are referred to as false negatives.
False
113
True or False: Screening must be done with great care as this process is often prone to errors. There can be false negatives, which means individuals who are predicted to perform successfully for a given position do not perform at satisfactory levels when placed on the job.
False
114
True or False: A weighted application blank is a form used by job candidates to provide an employer with basic information about their knowledge, skills, education, or other job-related information.
False -
A WAB is a formal method for quantitatively combining information from application blank items by assigning weights that reflect the value of each item in the prediction of job success
115
True or False: Before any screening tool is used, it should be reviewed with respect to human rights legislation.
True
116
True or False: WABs are particularly effective in predicting overall job performance.
False
117
True or False: Weighted application blanks are developed in relation to criterion measures of performance established for current and previous employees.
True
118
True or False: Compared to other screening selection tools, biodata tends to have little or no adverse impact.
True
119
True or False: The intent of the resume is to introduce the job applicant to the organization through a brief, accurate, written self-description.
True
120
True or False: The first impression created by the resume is not a factor in screening.
False
121
True or False: It is important to look for career regression and unexplained gaps in work or education when reviewing a resume from a potential applicant.
True
122
True or False: Reference checks generally take place early in the screening process as a way to reduce the applicant pool.
False
123
True or False: Reference information is usually collected through telephone interviews with the referees by using a checklist of job-related question.
True
124
True or False: Reference checks require a job applicant’s consent for an employer to gather information about the candidate from any referees.
True
125
True or False: An online work simulation is an example of a virtual job audition.
True
126
In which of the following tests is each candidate is required to respond to a standardized set of short reports, notes, telephone messages, and memos of the type that most managers must deal with on a daily basis?
In-basket test
127
What is psychological testing NOT used for?
To assist in screening applicants
128
Which one of the following criteria does NOT need to be met to be accepted as a professional testing standard?
Tests must be cost effective
129
Which of the following is described as an aptitude test?
Comprehensive Ability Battery (CAB)
130
Which of the following concepts refers to an enduring, general trait or characteristic on which people differ and that they bring to a work situation?
Ability
131
Which concept refers to an individual’s degree of proficiency or competency on a given task that develops through performing the task?
Skill
132
Suppose you are seeking an individual with quick finger dexterity for a keyboard operator position. In which of the following categories would dexterity be classified?
Ability
133
What kind of test is the Wonderlic Personnel Test?
Cognitive Ability Test
134
What kind of knowledge is derived from experience when learning is not the primary objective?
Tacit knowledge
135
Which of the following is NOT a psychological test used to select employees?
A genetic test
136
What is the term for a specific, narrow ability or skill that may be used to predict job performance?
Aptitude
137
What is the term for an individual’s degree of proficiency or competency on a given task that develops through performing task?
Skill
138
Which of the following is NOT considered a cognitive ability?
Finger dexterity
139
Which term refers to intelligence, general mental ability, or intellectual ability?
Cognitive ability
140
Why is the use of general mental ability (GMA) tests for selection to be approached cautiously?
Test scores have not been shown to correlate with job performance.
141
How can you avoid the adverse impact of cognitive ability tests?
Carry out structured interviews
142
Which of the following terms refers to knowledge that is derived from experience when learning is not the primary objective?
Tacit knowledge
143
If a manager requires an applicant to have the ability to get things done without the help of others, what test would measure this?
A practical intelligence test
144
Which of the following refers to the ability to appropriately regulate and express emotion?
Emotional intelligence
145
According to the textbook, which of the following is NOT an example of a psychomotor ability?
Oral ability
146
Which test has good predictive validity for measuring motor coordination in many industrial jobs?
A psychomotor ability test
147
What type of test would you use to assess for motor coordination of firefighter applicants?
Psychomotor ability test
148
Which of the following abilities corresponds to near and far vision, speech recognition, and colour discrimination?
Sensory or perceptual abilities
149
What type of test would you use to assess construction worker applicants for their strength to lift construction material and their balance to keep from falling off a roof?
Physical and sensory/perceptual ability
150
SeaWave is a company that builds and repairs ocean and lake marinas and docks in eastern Canada. The company hires deep-sea divers. What type of test should SeaWave use t select its applicants?
Physical fitness test and medical examination
151
What are the physical fitness and medical examinations designed to do?
Ensure that an applicant meets minimum standards of health to cope with the physical demands of the job
152
When should fitness test or medical exam be given to applicants?
After the applicant has been given an offer of employment, which is made conditional on the applicant’s passing the test or exam
153
Which of the following statements regarding genetic testing is correct?
It is prohibited under federal legislation
154
Which “Big Five” personality trait has been found to be related to job success across most organizations and occupations?
Conscientiousness
155
Theft is costing Canadian grocery stores millions of dollars a day. Many have implemented a controversial, inexpensive test to screen out potential thieves, and this has had a negative impact on public relations and left applicants feeling that their privacy has been invaded. What type of test are the grocery stores using?
An honesty test
156
Which term refers to testing procedures that require job candidates to produce behaviours related to job performance under controlled conditions and that approximate those found on the job?
Work sample
157
According to the textbook, which concept refers to a simulation exercise designed to assess leadership, organizational, and communication skills?
A leaderless group discussion
158
Which of the following integrity tests has a high potential for faking, is available in French, but violates APA recommendations for category scoring?
Reid report
159
Which of the following integrity tests has weak evidence of dimensionality, reliability, and validity?
Personnel Decisions Incorporated Employment Inventory
160
Which of the following is NOT a guideline for balancing validity and diversity in selection?
Use well-established predictor measurement methods when feasible
161
Applicants react most favourably when employers use which of the following selection methods?
Interviews and work samples
162
True or False: Integrity tests that try to predict whether employees will steal, be absent, or otherwise take advantage of an employer don’t work very well in practice because so many people lie on them or fake their answers.
False
163
True or False: Although people use many terms to describe different personalities, there are only four basic dimensions of personality as captured by the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI).
False
164
True or False: Despite the popularity of drug testing, there is no clear evidence that applicants who score positive on drug tests are less reliable or productive employees.
True
165
True or False: Being very intelligent can be a disadvantage for an employee working at a low-skilled job.
False
166
True or False: The central requirement for any selection tests or assessment procedures is that they accurately assess the individual’s performance, or capacity to perform, the essential components of the job in question safely, efficiently, and reliably.
True
167
True or False: The employer’s goal for employment testing is to select those candidates who best posses the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other attributes that lead to successful job performance.
True
168
True or False: The Human Rights Commission will not accept being free from HIV/AIDS as a bona fide occupation requirement unless it can be proven that such a requirement is essential to the safe, efficient, and reliable performance of the essential functions of a job or is a justified requirement for receiving programs or services.
True
169
True or False: Psychological testing is a standardized procedure used to obtain a sample of a person’s behaviour and to describe the behaviour with the aid of some measurement scale.
True
170
True or False: The common wisdom in the literature on employee selection - that cognitive ability testing is not biased against minority group members - is now being significantly challenged.
True
171
True or False: There is minimal evidence that cognitive ability measurements can serve as a consistent predictor in training and on the job performance.
False
172
True or False: A specific, narrow ability or skill that may be used to predict job performance is also called cognitive ability.
False
173
True or False: General cognitive ability is among the most powerful predictors of success in training and job performance for a variety of occupational groups.
True
174
True or False: Physical requirements for occupational tasks usually fall into 3 categories: strength, endurance, and speed.
False
175
True or False: A disability cannot be used to screen out applicants unless it can be demonstrated that the ability in question is a bona fide occupational requirement.
True
176
True or False: The intent of physical fitness tests is to ensure that an applicant meets minimum standards of health to cope with the physical demands of the job.
True
177
True or False: Employers have an obligation to accommodate all workers who have a medical or physical condition.
False
178
True or False: Fitness testing or physical or medical examinations should be administered only after the applicant has been given an offer of employment, which is made conditional on the applicant’s passing the test or exam.
True
179
True or False: Employers have an obligation to accommodate workers with medical or physical conditions on an individual basis.
True
180
True or False: Positive drug test results always lead to dismissal of the tested employee from the job.
False
181
True or False: Canadian employers can discriminate on the basis of medical, genetic, or physical condition if the condition poses a serious and demonstrate impediment to the conduct of the work or poses serious threats to the health and safety of people.
True
182
True or False: Work samples and simulations are testing procedures that require job candidates to produce behaviours related to job performance under controlled conditions that approximate those found in the job.
True
183
True or False: Situational exercises assess aptitude or proficiency in performing important job tasks by using tasks that are abstract and less realistic than those performed on the actual job.
True
184
True or False: Testing as a stand-alone program doesn’t provide employers with the best results.
True
185
True or False: There is very little difference among personality inventories in terms of how well they predict an employee’s performance.
False
186
True or False: Applicants react most favourably to tests that allow them to demonstrate their creativity.
False
187
According to the textbook, which of the following would NOT be of a job-specific task proficiency to evaluate a security dispatcher?
Persisting with extra effort
188
What is the concept that refers to the ratings or rankings made by supervisors, peers, or other that are used in assessing individual job performance?
Subjective performance measures
189
TRUE or FALSE: Criterion deficiency is defined as those task performance behaviours or competencies that are NOT measured by the criterion.
FALSE- job performance behaviour
