Recordkeeping and Electronic Filing Flashcards

1
Q

With regard to effective recordkeeping, which of the following statements is false?

A. Records should show how much of an individual’s earnings are subject to self-employment tax.

B. A canceled check always proves payment and establishes a tax deduction.

C. The invoice, paid receipt, or canceled check that supports an item of expense should be retained.

D. Records should identify the source of income in order to determine if an income item is taxable or nontaxable.

A

A canceled check always proves payment and establishes a tax deduction.
Answer (B) is correct.
The IRS recommends that taxpayers keep all sales slips, invoices, receipts, canceled checks, or other financial documents that prove the amounts shown on a return as income, deductions, and credits. Although a canceled check indicates payment, the IRS may require more substantive proof of payment in order for a deduction to be allowed.

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2
Q

Employers are required to keep records on employment taxes (income tax withholding, Social Security, Medicare, and federal unemployment tax) for

A. An indefinite time.

B. The statutory period for assessment of the employees’ taxes.

C. At least 4 years after the date the tax becomes due or is paid, whichever is later.

D. At least 3 years after the due date of the return or 2 years after the date the tax was paid, whichever is later.

A

At least 4 years after the date the tax becomes due or is paid, whichever is later.
Answer (C) is correct.
A person required to keep records relating to employment taxes and the collection of income tax must keep them at a convenient and safe location accessible to the IRS and available for inspection at all times. The records must be maintained for at least 4 years after the due date of the tax for the return period or the date such tax was paid, whichever is later.

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3
Q

In the process of preparing Purple Corporation’s 2019 return, John, an enrolled agent, provided to Purple Corporation calculations he had prepared computing basis of property that was sold and reported on the Form 4797 filed with Form 1120. Later, when Purple Corporation’s 2019 return was examined by the Internal Revenue Service, Purple Corporation refused to provide the Internal Revenue Service with the calculations, claiming that this was a privileged communication between Purple and its federally authorized practitioner. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Purple Corporation does not have to provide the calculations to the Internal Revenue Service because it is privileged under the Federal Tax Practitioner privilege rules.

B. Purple Corporation must provide the calculations to the Internal Revenue Service because privilege does not apply to a determination with respect to an item that will be presented to the government on an original return.

C. Purple Corporation must provide the calculations to the Internal Revenue Service because the Federal Tax Practitioner privilege does not apply to documents written by John as he is not a CPA.

D. Purple Corporation does not have to provide the calculations to the Internal Revenue Service if they believe this transaction might be construed as a tax shelter.

A

Purple Corporation must provide the calculations to the Internal Revenue Service because privilege does not apply to a determination with respect to an item that will be presented to the government on an original return.
Answer (B) is correct.
Section 7525 states that the taxpayer has a privilege of confidentiality with his or her federally authorized tax preparer with regard to tax advice. This privilege can only be asserted in noncriminal hearings. However, this privilege does not apply to the determination of an item on an original income tax return. Finally, this section does not apply to any tax shelters.

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4
Q

Which of the following statements with respect to effective recordkeeping is false?

A. Records should identify the source of income in order to determine if an income item is taxable or nontaxable.

B. If an individual cannot provide a canceled check to prove payment of an expense item, (s)he may be able to prove it with certain financial account statements.

C. Records that support the basis of property should be kept until the statute of limitations expires for the year that the property was acquired.

D. Records should show how much of an individual’s earnings is subject to self-employment tax.

A

Records that support the basis of property should be kept until the statute of limitations expires for the year that the property was acquired.
Answer (C) is correct.
Section 6001 requires every person liable for any tax imposed by the Internal Revenue Code to keep records sufficient to establish the amount of items required to be shown by such a person in any return of tax or information. Regulation 1.6001-1(a) provides that books of account or records should be sufficient to establish the amount of gross income, deductions, credits, or other matters required to be shown by such persons in any tax or information return.
Regulation 1.6001-1(e) provides that a taxpayer’s records must be kept as long as the contents may be material in the administration of any Internal Revenue law. Records relating to the basis of property should be retained as long as they may be material [Reg. 1.6001-1(e)]. The basis of property is material until the statute of limitations expires for the year in which the property is sold.

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5
Q

How long should you keep your records?

A. 3 years if you owe additional tax.

B. 7 years if you file a claim for a loss from worthless securities.

C. No limit if you do not file a return.

D. All of the answers are correct.

A

All of the answers are correct.
Answer (D) is correct.
Generally, tax records should be retained 3 years from the date a return was due or 2 years from the date the tax is paid, whichever is later. If a taxpayer owes additional tax, records should be retained for 3 years. If a taxpayer claims a loss from worthless securities, records should be kept for 7 years. If a taxpayer does not file a return, there is no limitation period. Therefore, records should be retained indefinitely (Publication 552).

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6
Q

Leslie Oak, an enrolled agent, prepared the 2019 tax return for Ms. Barbara Smith. The Form 1040 tax return of Ms. Smith contained capital gains and losses (Schedule D), wages (Form W-2), and rental income (Schedule E). Ms. Smith signed a Form 8879, IRS e-file Signature Authorization, which allowed Leslie to electronically file Ms. Smith’s tax return. Based upon the information in the 2019 tax return of Ms. Smith, which statement below best describes the documents that Leslie Oak is required to maintain for Ms. Smith’s 2019 electronically filed tax return?

A. Leslie Oak must retain two signed copies of Form 8879.

B. Leslie Oak does not have to retain any of the documents used in preparation of Ms. Smith’s return. Leslie should secure from Ms. Smith a list of all the documents used in preparation of the return and that they were all returned to Ms. Smith.

C. Leslie Oak must retain a copy of the signed Form 8879, copies of all Forms W-2, and supporting documents not included in the electronic records submitted to the IRS.

D. Leslie Oak must only retain a copy of the signed Form 8879.

A

Leslie Oak must retain a copy of the signed Form 8879, copies of all Forms W-2, and supporting documents not included in the electronic records submitted to the IRS.
Answer (C) is correct.
An income tax return preparer must furnish a completed copy of any return or refund claim pertaining to tax that (s)he prepares for the taxpayer either before or at the same time as (s)he presents the return to him or her for signing. The preparer or employer of the preparer must retain a completed copy of the return for a 3-year period. A return filed in the Form 1040 IRS e-file Program consists of electronically transmitted data and certain paper documents. The paper portion of the return consists of Form 8879 and other paper documents that cannot be electronically transmitted. Leslie Oak must retain a copy of Form 8879.

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7
Q

Bethany timely filed her 2016 1040 tax return and paid the $2,000 tax as shown on the return at the time of filing. The return was subsequently examined and Bethany signed an agreement form for the proposed changes on August 20, 2018. She paid the additional tax due of $5,000 on September 30, 2018. In 2019, Bethany located missing records, which she believes would make $3,000 of the additional assessment erroneous. Which of the following statements accurately states the date by which Bethany must file a claim for refund to get the $3,000 back?

A. August 20, 2020, 2 years from signing the agreement form.

B. April 15, 2020, 3 years from the due date of the original return.

C. September 30, 2020, 2 years from when the additional tax was paid.

D. No claim for refund can be filed since an examination agreement form was signed.

A

September 30, 2020, 2 years from when the additional tax was paid.
Answer (C) is correct.
The records must be kept available at all times for inspection by IRS officers and designated employees and must be retained as long as they may be material. Since the IRS generally has 3 years from the date a return was due or filed or 2 years from the date the tax was paid, whichever is later, to assess tax, a taxpayer must retain all records and forms until the later time. If Bethany files for a credit or refund after she files her return, then the statute of limitations is the later of 3 years or 2 years after the tax was paid. Since she paid the most recent assessment on September 30, 2018, Bethany has until September 30, 2020, to file a claim for a refund.

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8
Q

Nancy, a calendar-year taxpayer, filed her federal income tax return for tax year 2017, which was due on April 15, 2018, on May 1, 2018. Nancy did not request and therefore did not receive an extension of time to file her 2017 federal income tax return. Nancy paid the amount due as shown on the 2017 return on June 30, 2018. Based on these facts, the last day for the IRS to assess additional tax with respect to Nancy’s 2017 return is

A. June 20, 2020.

B. April 15, 2021.

C. May 1, 2021.

D. June 20, 2021.

A

May 1, 2021.
Answer (C) is correct.
The IRS generally has 3 years from the date a return was due or filed or 2 years from the date the tax was paid, whichever is later. Because Nancy filed her return on May 1, 2018, the 3-year period ending on May 1, 2021, is the time the IRS has to assess additional tax.

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT a specific record required to be kept for income tax withholding?

A. Each employee’s date of birth.

B. The fair market value and date of each payment of noncash compensation made to a retail commission salesperson if no income tax was withheld.

C. The total amount and date of each wage payment and the period of time the payment covers.

D. For accident or health plans, information about the amount of each payment.

A

Each employee’s date of birth.
Answer (A) is correct.
Under Reg. 31.6001-5(a), every employer required to withhold income tax on wages must keep records of all remuneration paid to the employees. The list of items required to be shown in such records does not include each employee’s date of birth.

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10
Q

With regard to expenses, the taxpayer should keep all of the following records EXCEPT

A. Canceled checks.

B. Cash register receipts.

C. Invoices.

D. Original copies of all records.

A

Original copies of all records.
Answer (D) is correct.
A taxpayer can replace hard copies of books and records using an electronic storage system provided the system is in compliance with IRS requirements.

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11
Q

You must keep your records as long as they may be needed for the administration of any provision of the Internal Revenue Code. Generally, this means you must keep records that support items shown on your return until the period of limitations for that return runs out. The period of limitations is the period of time in which you can amend your return to claim a credit or refund, or the Internal Revenue Service can assess additional tax. Which statement listed below is incorrect?

A. If no other provisions apply, the statute of limitations is 3 years after the return was due.

B. If more than 25% of gross income has been omitted from the tax return, the statute of limitations is 6 years after the return was filed, unless the omitted amount was disclosed in the return or in a statement attached to the return, in a manner adequate to apprise the Internal Revenue Service of the nature and amount of the omission.

C. If a fraudulent return is filed, the statute of limitations is 7 years.

D. If a tax return is not filed at all, there is no statute of limitations.

A

If a fraudulent return is filed, the statute of limitations is 7 years.
Answer (C) is correct.
Publication 552 lists the statute of limitations in certain situations as follows:
1. If you owe tax and items 2., 3., and 4. below do not apply to you, then the statute of limitations is 3 years.
2. If you do not report income that you should and it is more than 25% of the gross income on the return, then the statute of limitations is 6 years.
3. If you file a fraudulent return, then there is no statute of limitations on that return.
4. If you do not file a return, then there is no statute of limitations on that return.
5. If you file for a credit or refund after you file a return, then the statute of limitations is the later of 3 years or 2 years after the tax was paid.
6. If you file a claim for a loss from worthless securities, then the statute of limitations is 7 years.
Thus, a fraudulent return does not have a statute of limitations.

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12
Q

Which of the following items represents sufficient documentary evidence to substantiate expenditures for travel, entertainment, or gift expenses?

A. A canceled check written to pay a motel bill on a business trip.

B. A statement from the taxpayer’s employer.

C. An account book maintained daily by the taxpayer for business meals (no meal was over $75).

D. Memos on a desk calendar.

A

An account book maintained daily by the taxpayer for business meals (no meal was over $75).
Answer (C) is correct.
Regulation 1.274-5 outlines rules for substantiation. Substantiation of who, when, where, why, and how much is generally required. A taxpayer must maintain adequate records or sufficient evidence corroborating the taxpayer’s statement. An account book maintained daily by the taxpayer would meet the rules for substantiation. Documentary evidence such as a receipt is not required for meals costing less than $75 [Reg. 1.274-5(c)(2)(iii)].

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13
Q

Jackson Corp., a calendar-year corporation, mailed its Year 6 tax return to the IRS by certified mail on Friday, April 7, Year 7. The return, postmarked April 7, Year 7, was delivered to the IRS on April 19, Year 7. The required length of time to maintain sufficient records ends on

A. December 31, Year 9.

B. April 7, Year 10.

C. April 16, Year 10.

D. April 19, Year 10.

A

April 16, Year 10.
Answer (C) is correct.
A calendar-year C corporation return is due on April 15 of the following year. Assuming delivery in due course, a postmarked date will be deemed the filing date. Returns filed early will be considered as filed on the last day prescribed for filing, which is April 15. Thus, the required length of time to maintain sufficient records ends on April 16, Year 10.

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14
Q

A calendar-year taxpayer filed an individual tax return for Year 6 on March 20, Year 7. The taxpayer neither committed fraud nor omitted amounts in excess of 25% of gross income on the tax return. What is the latest date that the taxpayer must keep records available?

A. March 20, Year 10.

B. March 20, Year 9.

C. April 15, Year 10.

D. April 15, Year 9.

A

April 15, Year 10.
Answer (C) is correct.
The general statute of limitations for assessment of a deficiency is 3 years from the later of the return filed or due date. Thus, the taxpayer must make records available for 3 years from the date the return was filed or due. An income tax return filed before the due date for the return is treated as if filed on the due date. Since the taxpayer’s return was due April 15, Year 7, the statute of limitations will expire 3 years from that date.

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15
Q

Keen, a calendar-year taxpayer, reported gross income of $100,000 on his Year 6 income tax return. Inadvertently omitted from gross income was a $20,000 commission that should have been included in Year 6. Keen filed his Year 6 return on March 17, Year 7. To collect the tax on the $20,000 omission, the Internal Revenue Service can review the records no later than

A. March 17, Year 10.

B. April 15, Year 10.

C. March 17, Year 13.

D. April 15, Year 13.

A

April 15, Year 10.
Answer (B) is correct.
The general statute of limitations for assessment of a deficiency is 3 years from the later of the return filed or due date. Thus, the taxpayer must make records available for 3 years from the date the return was filed or due. An income tax return filed before the due date for the return is treated as if filed on the due date for statute of limitations purposes. Since Keen’s return was due April 15, Year 7, the statute of limitations will expire 3 years from that date.

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16
Q

On April 15, Year 7, a married couple filed their joint Year 6 calendar-year return showing gross income of $120,000. Their return had been prepared by a professional tax preparer who mistakenly omitted $45,000 of income, which the preparer, in good faith, considered to be nontaxable. No information with regard to this omitted income was disclosed on the return or attached statements. Until what date must the couple maintain their tax records?

A. April 15, Year 13.

B. December 31, Year 12.

C. April 15, Year 10.

D. December 31, Year 9.

A

April 15, Year 13.
Answer (A) is correct.
If an omission in excess of 25% of gross income stated in the return occurs, the statute of limitations for assessment is 6 years from the date the return was filed (or the due date, if later). This applies even if the omission is made in good faith.

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17
Q

Which of the following is a situation in which records must be maintained indefinitely?

A. Overstatement of a credit on a return that equals 25% of gross income.

B. De minimis mathematical error on a return.

C. Waiver of restrictions.

D. Failure of the taxpayer to file a return.

A

Failure of the taxpayer to file a return.
Answer (D) is correct.
There are several exceptions to the statute of limitations. If you do not file a tax return or you file a fraudulent return, then there is no statute of limitations.

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18
Q

Books of account or records sufficient to establish the amount of gross income, deductions, credit, or other matters required to be shown in any tax or information return

A. Do not need to be kept.

B. Must be maintained forever.

C. Must be maintained for at least 4 years after the
due date of the return or payment of tax.

D. Must be maintained as long as the contents may be material in administration of any internal revenue law.

A

Must be maintained as long as the contents may be material in administration of any internal revenue law.
Answer (D) is correct.
Books of account or records sufficient to establish the amount of gross income, deductions, credit, or other matters required to be shown in any tax or information return must be kept. Records must be maintained as long as the contents may be material in administration of any internal revenue law.

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19
Q

Harold Thompson, a self-employed individual, had income transactions for 2015 (duly reported on his return filed in April 2016) as follows:

Gross receipts——————————————–$400,000
Less: Cost of goods sold and deductions——(320,000)
Net business income————————————-$80,000
Capital gains————————————————–36,000
Gross income———————————————–$116,000

In March 2019, Thompson discovers that he had inadvertently omitted some income on his 2015 return. He retains Mann, EA, to determine his position under the statute of limitations. Mann should advise Thompson that the 6-year statute of limitations would apply to his 2015 return only if he omitted from gross income an amount in excess of

A. $20,000

B. $29,000

C. $100,000

D. $109,000

A

$109,000
Answer (D) is correct.
The normal statute of limitations is 3 years after the later of the due date of the return or when the return was filed. A 6-year statute of limitations applies if gross income omitted from the return exceeds 25% of gross income reported on the return [Sec. 6501(e)(1)]. For a trade or business, gross income means the total of the amounts received from the sale of goods before deductions and cost of goods sold. The 6-year statute of limitations will apply if Thompson omitted from gross income an amount in excess of $109,000 [($400,000 + $36,000) × .25].

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20
Q

Richard Baker filed his 2019 individual income tax return on April 15, 2020. This return reflected that 100 shares of stock that he owned had become worthless in 2019. How long must he maintain records of this stock transaction?

A. 2020.

B. 2022.

C. 2025.

D. 2026.

A

2026.
Answer (D) is correct.
A 7-year period of limitation for filing a refund claim is allowed if the overpayment of tax is due to losses from worthless securities. The period of limitation is 7 years from the date prescribed for filing the return for the year with respect to which the claim is made.

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21
Q

Which of the following statements about the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) is false?

A. The FOIA requires the IRS to release all documents that are subject to FOIA requests.

B. All IRS records are subject to FOIA requests.

C. The IRS may withhold information pursuant to nine exemptions and three exclusions contained in the FOIA statute.

D. Documents must be made available electronically by the IRS.

A

The FOIA requires the IRS to release all documents that are subject to FOIA requests.
Answer (A) is correct.
All IRS records are subject to FOIA requests. However, FOIA does not require the IRS to release all documents that are subject to FOIA requests. The IRS may withhold information pursuant to nine exemptions and three exclusions contained in the FOIA statute. Documents must be made available electronically.

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22
Q

A 2019 Form W-2 for a calendar-year taxpayer will first be available from the IRS as part of a transcript in which of the following years?

A. 2019

B. 2020

C. 2021

D. 2022

A

2020
Answer (B) is correct.
Form W-2, Form 1099 series, Form 1098 series, or Form 5498 series transcripts for the current year (2019) are generally available after July of the following year. The W-2 for a calendar year taxpayer is filed the following year; therefore, a 2019 Form W-2 filed in 2020 will generally be available from the IRS after July of 2020.

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23
Q

According to Publication 1915, which of the following documents is only acceptable for foreign status requests of dependents under the age of 6?

A. Divorce decree.

B. Civil birth certificate.

C. National identification card.

D. Medical record.

A

Medical record.
Answer (D) is correct.
Publication 1915 lists documentation requirements for foreign status and for identification: Passport; U.S. citizenship and immigration services photo ID; visa from the U.S. Department of State; U.S. driver’s license; U.S. military ID card; foreign driver’s license; foreign military ID card; national ID card; U.S. state ID card; foreign voter’s registration card; civil birth certificate; medical records (only valid for dependents under 6 years of age); school records (only valid for dependents under 18 years of age).

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24
Q

Which of the following records is NOT listed by the IRS as a recommended item for taxpayers to keep?

A. Sales slips.

B. Applications.

C. Invoices.

D. Receipts.

A

Applications.
Answer (B) is correct.
Persons subject to tax or required to file an information return with respect to income must keep permanent books of account or records that are sufficient to establish the amount of gross income and deductions, credits, and other matters shown on a return. The IRS recommends that taxpayers keep all sales slips, invoices, receipts, canceled checks, or other financial account statements relating to a particular transaction. Although an application may lead to a contract or other documentation that shows a taxable transaction has taken place, an application alone does not document a taxable transaction.

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25
Q

Specific records required to be kept for income tax withholding by an employee include

A. The amount of tax collected with respect to a remuneration payment.

B. The amount of remuneration that constitutes wages subject to withholding.

C. Health and accident plan payments.

D. None of the answers are correct.

A

None of the answers are correct.
Answer (D) is correct.
An employer required to withhold income tax on wages must keep records of all employee compensation. Employees are not required to keep additional records relating to employment taxes and withholding of income tax.

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26
Q

Select the true statement regarding a person who employs one or more income tax return preparers.

A. The employer must prepare a return setting forth certain information.

B. Each preparer’s place of work does not have to be disclosed.

C. Required records must be kept for 2 years.

D. The employer must disclose the wage paid to each employee.

A

The employer must prepare a return setting forth certain information.
Answer (A) is correct.
A person who employs one or more income tax return preparers must make a return setting forth the name, identifying number, and place of work of each preparer and keep the records for up to 3 years.

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27
Q

Identify the true statement regarding charitable cash contributions.

A. Contributions of $250 or more require acknowledgment from the donee.

B. A canceled check is not sufficient documentation for a cash contribution of less than $250.

C. A taxpayer may deduct charitable cash contributions without supporting documentation.

D. Separate contributions are combined to determine whether a contribution is $250 or more.

A

Contributions of $250 or more require acknowledgment from the donee.
Answer (A) is correct.
For cash contributions of less than $250, a canceled check, bank/credit union/credit card statement or receipt letter/other written communication from the donee is sufficient and permissible documentation. Contributions of $250 or more require acknowledgment from the donee. The documentation must show the name of the donee, date contributed, and amount contributed.

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28
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding IRS transcripts used by tax practitioners?

A. Transcripts are printouts of a taxpayer’s account that show actions taken by the IRS.

B. Tax practitioners use transcripts when representing their clients before the IRS.

C. Tax practitioners can make an online request of a client’s transcript and receive it within a few days.

D. In many cases, transcripts are used instead of making copies of tax returns.

A

Tax practitioners can make an online request of a client’s transcript and receive it within a few days.
Answer (C) is correct.
Tax practitioners can request transcripts of their client’s tax records and receive them within minutes (not days) using an online tool delivered through the IRS Business Systems Modernization program. Authorized tax practitioners use the electronic tool to order tax information for their clients. The documents are returned to the practitioner’s computer through a secure online connection within minutes. Paper requests for the same information can take days or weeks to complete.

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29
Q

How long should copies of actual tax returns be kept by a taxpayer?

A. 1 year.

B. 3 years.

C. 6 years.

D. Permanently.

A

Permanently.
Answer (D) is correct.
Supporting tax documentation can generally be thrown out 3 years after the return’s due date. In some special circumstances, however, the taxpayer may need to hold on to tax documentation longer. Copies of actual tax returns should be kept permanently by the taxpayer.

30
Q

Which of the following agencies must provide certain records upon request per the Freedom of Information Act?

A. Any state agency.

B. The U.S. Supreme Court.

C. Congress.

D. The IRS.

A

The IRS.
Answer (D) is correct.
The FOIA was enacted in 1966 and generally provides that any person has the right to request access to federal agency records or information. All executive branch agencies must disclose any requested information outside of certain exceptions. State, legislative, and judicial agencies are not subject to the Act’s requirements.

31
Q

Regarding taxpayers’ recordkeeping requirements, which of the following is true?

A. Taxpayers who store their documents electronically require written IRS approval in order to destroy original documents.

B. If a taxpayer does not have complete records, then deductions are not allowed.

C. If a taxpayer is missing documents due to events beyond their control, they can claim a deduction by reconstructing the records.

D. Taxpayers must keep original documents in addition to electronic documents.

A

If a taxpayer is missing documents due to events beyond their control, they can claim a deduction by reconstructing the records.
Answer (C) is correct.
If a taxpayer cannot produce a receipt because of reasons beyond the taxpayer’s control (floods, fires, etc.), then the taxpayer can prove a deduction by reconstructing his or her records.

32
Q

A taxpayer is provided a $300 per month mileage allowance for business travel from their employer. In order for this to be a non-taxable item, which of the following must be true?

A. The taxpayer must return any excess reimbursement within 180 days after the expense was paid or incurred.

B. The taxpayer must adequately account for the expenses within 60 days after they were paid or incurred.

C. The taxpayer must receive the advance within 60 days of the time the taxpayer has the expense.

D. The taxpayer must adequately account for the expenses within 120 days after they were paid or incurred.

A

The taxpayer must adequately account for the expenses within 60 days after they were paid or incurred.
Answer (B) is correct.
Taxpayers must keep permanent books of account or records that are sufficient to support items shown on a return. Taxpayers are required to substantiate business deductions for travel and entertainment expenses. Substantiation of amount, time, place, business relationship, and business purpose is generally required. For an expense to be accounted for within a reasonable period of time, the taxpayer must account for expenses within 60 days after they were paid or incurred.

33
Q

An Enrolled Agent’s communications with a client may be privileged if they concern

A. Encouraging the client to participate in a tax shelter.

B. Preparing the client’s tax return.

C. Representing the client in an IRS examination.

D. A criminal tax investigation.

A

Representing the client in an IRS examination.
Answer (C) is correct.
Section 7525 states that the taxpayer has a privilege of confidentiality with his or her federally authorized tax preparer with regard to tax advice. Representation before the IRS is a noncriminal tax matter.

34
Q

Samantha Sharp, an enrolled agent, prepares and electronically files Form 1040 tax returns. Samantha prepared the 2019 tax return for Tom, her client. Tom uses Form 8453 and attaches a Form 8332. On March 2, 2020, Samantha electronically filed Tom’s tax return, which was a refund return. On March 3, Samantha received acknowledgment from the Internal Revenue Service that Tom’s return had been accepted. On March 10, Tom received his refund. By what date must Samantha mail the executed Form 8453 to the IRS?

A. By March 13, 2020 (within 3 business days after Tom receives his refund).

B. By March 7, 2020 (within 5 business days after the return was electronically filed).

C. By March 6, 2020 (within 3 business days after the return is acknowledged as accepted by the IRS).

D. By March 31, 2020 (all Forms 8453 signed during the month must be sent to the IRS by the last day of the month).

A

By March 6, 2020 (within 3 business days after the return is acknowledged as accepted by the IRS).
Answer (C) is correct.
For a taxpayer submitting a Form 8453 and attaching certain documents for filing, the provider must submit Form 8453 within 3 business days after the return is acknowledged as accepted by the IRS.

35
Q

Which of the following e-file provider options may NOT be subject to a suitability check?

A. Electronic return originators.

B. Software developers.

C. Reporting agents.

D. Transmitters.

A

Software developers.
Answer (B) is correct.
Publication 3112 states that to become an e-file provider, an applicant must submit an e-file application, meet the eligibility criteria, and pass a suitability check. However, for software developers performing no other e-file provider role, the suitability check is not required.

36
Q

Michael Young, an Authorized Internal Revenue Service e-file Provider, prepared and electronically transmitted the Form 1040 return of Vivian Blue to the Internal Revenue Service. The Internal Revenue Service notified Michael that the electronic portion of Vivian’s return was rejected for processing. Which statement listed below best explains what Michael must do?

A. Michael must advise the taxpayer that the return may never be filed electronically. Vivian must return to the office, sign a paper copy of Form 1040, and mail it to the Service.

B. If Michael cannot correct the error with the information in his possession, he must take reasonable steps to inform the taxpayer of the rejection within 24 hours and provide the taxpayer with the reject code(s) accompanied by an explanation.

C. Michael must mail a paper copy of the return to the IRS with the original Form 8453 that Vivian signed.

D. If Michael cannot correct the error with the information in his possession, he must take reasonable steps to inform the taxpayer of the rejection by the return due date or within 1 week, whichever date is earlier.

A

If Michael cannot correct the error with the information in his possession, he must take reasonable steps to inform the taxpayer of the rejection within 24 hours and provide the taxpayer with the reject code(s) accompanied by an explanation.
Answer (B) is correct.
If the IRS rejects the electronic portion of a taxpayer’s return and the reason for the rejection cannot be rectified by the actions described in the Rev. Proc. 98-50, the ERO must take reasonable steps to inform the taxpayer that the taxpayer’s return has not been filed within 24 hours of receiving the rejection. When the ERO advises the taxpayer that the taxpayer’s return has not been filed, the ERO must provide the taxpayer with the reject code(s), an explanation of the reject code(s), and the sequence number of each reject code.

37
Q

Which fee arrangement described below is permissible for an electronic return originator (ERO)?

A. Fees based on AGI from the tax return.

B. Fees based on percent of refund.

C. Separate fees for direct deposits.

D. None of the answers are correct.

A

None of the answers are correct.
Answer (D) is correct.
An ERO may not charge fees based on the refund amount or any other amount from the tax return. Furthermore, an ERO may not charge separate fees for direct deposits (Publication 1345).

38
Q

If a taxpayer’s return is rejected by the IRS and the ERO cannot fix the problem and retransmit the return in the time prescribed, the ERO must make reasonable attempts to notify the taxpayer of the reject. How long from the time the return is rejected does the ERO have to try to contact the taxpayer?

A. 12 hours.

B. 24 hours.

C. 48 hours.

D. 1 week.

A

24 hours.
Answer (B) is correct.
If the IRS rejects the electronic portion of a taxpayer’s return and the reason for the rejection cannot be rectified by the actions described in Rev. Proc. 98-50, the ERO, within 24 hours of receiving the rejection, must take reasonable steps to inform the taxpayer that the taxpayer’s return has not been filed. When the ERO advises the taxpayer that the taxpayer’s return has not been filed, the ERO must provide the taxpayer with the reject code(s), an explanation of the reject code(s), and the sequence number of each reject code.

39
Q

The contractual agreement for a Refund Anticipation Loan (RAL) is between which of the following?

A. Taxpayer and lender.

B. Taxpayer and electronic filing provider.

C. Electronic filing provider and the lender.

D. IRS and the taxpayer.

A

Taxpayer and lender.
Answer (A) is correct.
A refund anticipation loan (RAL) is money borrowed by a taxpayer that is based on a taxpayer’s anticipated income tax refund. The IRS has no involvement in RALs. A RAL is a contract between the taxpayer and the lender. A refund anticipation loan indicator must be included in the electronic return data transmission to the IRS.

40
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding electronically filed returns?

A. A return for a deceased taxpayer may be electronically filed.

B. U.S. Individual Income Tax Return for tax year 2019 may not be electronically filed after April 15, 2020.

C. For tax year 2019, current- and prior-year tax returns may not be electronically filed.

D. For tax year 2019, all electronically filed returns require a separate signature document to be submitted to the appropriate Internal Revenue Service Center.

A

A return for a deceased taxpayer may be electronically filed.
Answer (A) is correct.
Decedent’s tax returns are permitted to be electronically filed (Publication 559). The following returns are among those not permitted to be electronically filed: (1) fiscal-year tax period returns and (2) amended returns.

41
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable method of computation for an Electronic Return Originator (ERO) fee?

A. Fees based on time required for preparation.

B. Fees based on AGI from the tax return.

C. Fees based on percent of refund.

D. Flat fee identical for all customers.

A

Flat fee identical for all customers.
Answer (D) is correct.
If an Electronic Return Originator charges a fee for the transmission of the electronic portion of a tax return, the fee may not be based on a percentage of the refund or any other amount from the tax return. An authorized ERO may not charge a separate fee for direct deposits. Therefore, a flat fee for all customers is an acceptable method of computing an Electronic Return Originator fee (Publication 1345).

42
Q

A Refund Anticipation Loan (RAL) is money borrowed by a taxpayer from a lender based on the taxpayer’s anticipated income tax refund. Which of the statements below is true?

A. All parties to Refund Anticipation Loan agreements, including Electronic Return Originators (EROs), must ensure that taxpayers understand that Refund Anticipation Loans are interest bearing loans and not substitutes for a faster way of receiving a refund.

B. The IRS has minimal involvement and responsibility for Refund Anticipation Loans.

C. The Electronic Return Originator should advise the taxpayer that if a direct deposit is not received within the expected time frame, the IRS may be liable to the lender for additional interest on the Refund Anticipation Loan.

D. The IRS is responsible for ensuring that Refund Anticipation Loan indicators are included in the electronic return data that is transmitted to the IRS.

A

All parties to Refund Anticipation Loan agreements, including Electronic Return Originators (EROs), must ensure that taxpayers understand that Refund Anticipation Loans are interest bearing loans and not substitutes for a faster way of receiving a refund.
Answer (A) is correct.
A Refund Anticipation Loan (RAL) is money borrowed by a taxpayer that is based on a taxpayer’s anticipated income tax refund. The IRS has no involvement in RALs. A RAL is a contract between the taxpayer and the lender. A refund anticipation loan indicator must be included in the electronic return data transmitted to the IRS. All parties to the RAL must ensure that the taxpayer understands that a RAL is not a substitute for a faster way of receiving a refund. In addition, any interest accrued as a result of a delay in the return of a refund is not the responsibility of the IRS, since it is not involved.

43
Q

Taxpayers often elect the direct deposit option because it is the fastest way of receiving refunds. The Electronic Return Originator should advise the taxpayer of the option to receive his or her refund by direct deposit or paper check. Select the statement below that is true with respect to direct deposit.

A. The Electronic Return Originator does not have to accept a direct deposit election to a financial institution designated by the taxpayer.

B. Refunds may be direct deposited to credit card accounts.

C. The Electronic Return Originator may make a separate charge of only $15 or less as a processing fee if the taxpayer elects direct deposit.

D. The Electronic Return Originator should caution taxpayers that some financial institutions do not permit the deposit of joint refunds into individual accounts.

A

The Electronic Return Originator should caution taxpayers that some financial institutions do not permit the deposit of joint refunds into individual accounts.
Answer (D) is correct.
Publication 1345 addresses the relevant information regarding electronic filing. This publication discusses the responsibilities of the Electronic Return Originator (ERO) to inform the taxpayer of important information regarding the direct deposit. Direct deposits may be deposited into any qualified account, including checking, savings, share draft, or consumer asset accounts. However, the taxpayer cannot deposit these funds onto a credit card. The ERO should caution the taxpayer that not all financial institutions will allow joint refunds into individual accounts. In addition, the ERO must accept any direct deposit election and may not charge an additional fee for doing so.

44
Q

According to Circular 230, which of the following applies to radio or television broadcasting regarding advertisement of electronic filing?

A. The broadcast must be preapproved by the IRS.

B. The broadcast must be prerecorded.

C. The broadcast advertisement must be kept for a period of 36 months from the date of the last transmission or use.

D. The broadcast must be prerecorded, and the broadcast advertisement must be kept for a period of 36 months from the date of the last transmission or use.

A

The broadcast must be prerecorded, and the broadcast advertisement must be kept for a period of 36 months from the date of the last transmission or use.
Answer (D) is correct.
If an ERO uses radio or television broadcasting to advertise, the broadcast must be prerecorded. The ERO must keep a copy of the prerecorded advertisement for a period of at least 36 months from the date of the last transmission or use.
Publication 3112, IRS e-file Application and Participation, states that copies must be retained until the end of the calendar year following the last transmission or use.

45
Q

By which means can Form 8453, U.S. Individual Income Tax Transmittal for an IRS e-file Return, be sent to the IRS?

A. Mail.

B. Email.

C. Fax.

D. All of the answers are correct.

A

Mail.
Answer (A) is correct.
Form 8453 must be mailed with all required attachments. It cannot be filed electronically.

46
Q

A Form 1065, U.S. Partnership Return, must be filed electronically if the number of partners exceeds

A. 50

B. 75

C. 100

D. 250

A

100
Answer (C) is correct.
Partnerships with more than 100 partners are required to file Form 1065 electronically if not specifically exempted (e.g., partnerships that use a fiscal year).

47
Q

The Internal Revenue Service monitors and performs annual suitability checks on authorized IRS electronic filing providers for compliance with the revenue procedure and program requirements. Violations may result in a variety of sanctions. Which statement is true with respect to sanctions the IRS may impose on an electronic filing provider?

A. The IRS may issue a letter of reprimand or a 1-year suspension as a sanction for a level one infraction in the electronic filing program.

B. The IRS may impose a period of suspension that includes the remainder of the calendar year in which the suspension occurs, plus the next 2 calendar years, for a level two infraction in the electronic filing program.

C. The IRS may suspend or expel an authorized IRS electronic return originator prior to administrative review for a level three infraction in the electronic filing program.

D. The IRS may not impose a sanction that is greater than a 1-year suspension from the electronic filing program.

A

The IRS may suspend or expel an authorized IRS electronic return originator prior to administrative review for a level three infraction in the electronic filing program.
Answer (C) is correct.
The IRS may impose a sanction on an electronic return originator for various infractions. These sanctions range from a written reprimand to expulsion (Publication 3112). These sanctions rank on levels one through three. A level one infraction may result in a written reprimand. A level two infraction may result in a restriction in participation in the IRS e-file Program or a 1-year suspension, in addition to the rest of the calendar year. A level three infraction may result in a suspension from participation in the IRS e-file Program for 2 years in addition to the rest of the calendar year or an expulsion from the program. The IRS reserves the right to select the sanction they wish to impose.

48
Q

According to Circular 230, how long must an electronic filer retain a copy of a prerecorded advertisement?

A. No required period of time.

B. 36 months from the due date of the return.

C. 36 months from the date of the last transmission or use.

D. 12 months from the date of the last transmission or use.

A

36 months from the date of the last transmission or use.
Answer (C) is correct.
Revenue Procedure 98-50 imposes strict advertising standards for authorized IRS e-file providers and financial institutions. If an authorized IRS e-file provider uses radio or television broadcasting to advertise, the broadcast must be prerecorded. The electronic filer must keep a copy of the prerecorded advertisement for a period of at least 36 months from the date of the last transmission or use.
Publication 3112, IRS e-file Application and Participation, states that copies must be retained until the end of the calendar year following the last transmission or use.

49
Q

Which of the following returns may NOT be electronically filed?

A. Amended tax returns.

B. Tax returns with calendar-year periods.

C. Prior-year tax returns.

D. Current-year Form 1040 with foreign address.

A

Amended tax returns.
Answer (A) is correct.
Amended tax returns and returns with fiscal-year tax periods are not processable by the IRS e-file Program.

50
Q

Which of the following statements applies to refund anticipation loans?

A. A refund anticipation loan is money borrowed by the taxpayer from the U.S. Government.

B. A refund anticipation loan indicator must be included in the electronic return data that is transmitted to the IRS.

C. If the anticipated tax refund is not received after a refund anticipation loan is made, the loan is automatically subtracted from the subsequent years’ refunds until paid.

D. The Treasury Department is liable for any loss suffered by taxpayers, electronic return originators, and financial institutions resulting from reduced refunds or from direct deposits not being honored if documentation is provided that correct procedures were followed.

A

A refund anticipation loan indicator must be included in the electronic return data that is transmitted to the IRS.
Answer (B) is correct.
A refund anticipation loan (RAL) is money borrowed by a taxpayer that is based on a taxpayer’s anticipated income tax refund. The IRS has no involvement in RALs. A RAL is a contract between the taxpayer and the lender. An indicator is included in the electronic return data transmitted to the IRS.

51
Q

George knew that he had a substantial refund for the current tax year because he had worked at a high salary early in the year with extra withholding. He was unemployed the rest of the year. He wanted to file the return electronically with direct deposit to expedite the refund. The Fix Tax Co. stated that its fee would be 10% of the refund for preparation and filing, with no additional charge for direct deposit. The No Tax Co. stated that its fee would be $35 regardless of the refund amount but that it charged a $10 fee for direct deposit request. Which of the following is true?

A. George cannot electronically file because he is not employed at the end of the year.

B. The Fix Tax Co. may charge a percentage of the refund because it does not charge for direct deposit.

C. The No Tax Co. may charge the $10 direct deposit fee because its $35 filing and preparation fee is a flat fee.

D. Neither the Fix Tax Co. nor the No Tax Co. is in compliance with electronic filing fee restrictions.

A

Neither the Fix Tax Co. nor the No Tax Co. is in compliance with electronic filing fee restrictions.
Answer (D) is correct.
If an ERO charges a fee for the transmission of the electronic portion of a tax return, the fee may not be based on a percentage of the refund amount or any other amount from the tax return. Also, an authorized ERO may not charge a separate fee for direct deposits.

52
Q

John Jones, an enrolled agent, prepared the tax return for Mr. William Smith. Smith’s return contained a Schedule C, wages (Form W-2), and retirement income (Form 1099-R). Smith signed a Form 8879, IRS e-file Signature Authorization. Based upon the information in Smith’s return, which statement below describes the documents that Jones is required to maintain for Smith’s electronically filed tax return?

A. Jones must only maintain a paper copy of the tax return and W-2.

B. Jones must only retain one signed Form 8879.

C. Jones must retain a copy of the signed Form 8879 and paper copies of Forms W-2 and 1099-R, as well as any supporting documents that are not included in the electronic return data.

D. Jones does not have to retain any of the documents used in the preparation of Smith’s return. Jones should secure a signed statement from Smith that lists all the documents used in the preparation of the return and that they were all returned to Mr. Smith.

A

Jones must retain a copy of the signed Form 8879 and paper copies of Forms W-2 and 1099-R, as well as any supporting documents that are not included in the electronic return data.
Answer (C) is correct.
An income tax return preparer must furnish a completed copy of any return or refund claim pertaining to taxes that (s)he prepares for the taxpayer either before or at the same time as (s)he presents the return to him or her for signing. The preparer or employer of the preparer must retain a completed copy of the return for a 3-year period. A return filed in the Form 1040 IRS e-file Program consists of electronically transmitted data and certain paper documents. The paper portion of the return consists of Form 8879 and other paper documents that cannot be electronically transmitted. An income tax preparer must retain a copy of Form 8879.

53
Q

Which of the following e-file provider options originates the electronic submission of certain returns for its clients and/or transmits the returns to the IRS and must submit Form 8655?

A. Transmitter.

B. Intermediate service provider.

C. Software developer.

D. Reporting agent.

A

Reporting agent.
Answer (D) is correct.
A reporting agent originates the electronic submission of certain returns for its clients and/or transmits the returns to the IRS. A reporting agent must be an accounting service, franchiser, or bank. Form 8655, Reporting Agent Authorization, must be submitted before applying for e-file.

54
Q

Which e-file provider option is a secondary activity to the other provider options?

A. ERO.

B. Transmitter.

C. Reporting agent.

D. Online provider.

A

Online provider.
Answer (D) is correct.
An online provider allows taxpayers to self-prepare returns by entering return data directly on commercially available software, software downloaded from an Internet site and prepared off-line, or through an online Internet site. An online provider also chooses another provider option, as online provider is a secondary activity.

55
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding Form 8879?

A. A copy of the form must be sent to the IRS.

B. This form must accompany specific documentation mailed to the IRS.

C. The form is completed when the Practitioner PIN method is used.

D. Taxpayers may not sign the form using an electronic signature pad.

A

The form is completed when the Practitioner PIN method is used.
Answer (C) is correct.
Form 8879, IRS e-file Signature Authorization, is the declaration document and signature authorization for a return e-filed by an electronic return originator (ERO). This form is completed when the Practitioner PIN method is used or when the taxpayer authorizes the ERO to enter or generate the taxpayer’s PIN on the e-filed individual income tax return.

56
Q

When an electronic return originator (ERO) advises a taxpayer that the taxpayer’s return has been rejected, the ERO must provide all of the following EXCEPT

A. A copy of the IRS acknowledgment file showing the rejection.

B. The sequence number of each reject code.

C. The reject code(s).

D. An explanation of the reject code(s).

A

A copy of the IRS acknowledgment file showing the rejection.
Answer (A) is correct.
If the IRS rejects the electronic portion of a taxpayer’s return and the reason for the rejection cannot be rectified by the actions described in Revenue Procedure 98-50, the ERO must take reasonable steps to inform the taxpayer that the taxpayer’s return has not been filed within 24 hours of receiving the rejection. When the ERO advises the taxpayer that the taxpayer’s return has not been filed, the ERO must provide the taxpayer with (1) the reject code(s), (2) an explanation of the reject code(s), and (3) the sequence number of each reject code. The ERO does not have to provide the taxpayer with a copy of the IRS acknowledgment file showing the rejection of the electronically filed return.

57
Q

Which of the following is NOT a taxpayer’s responsibility when using the Electronic Federal Tax Payment System (EFTPS)?

A. Recording the EFTPS Acknowledgment Number.

B. Ensuring that the tax payment is timely made.

C. Scheduling the transfer at least 3 days in advance of the tax due date.

D. Making sure that the taxpayer’s account contains sufficient funds to cover the payment.

A

Scheduling the transfer at least 3 days in advance of the tax due date.
Answer (C) is correct.
The EFTPS may be used to make electronic tax payments either by phone or online. Both individual and business taxpayers may use this service. All taxpayers have certain responsibilities when using EFTPS. All taxpayers are responsible for ensuring that the tax payment is timely made, recording the EFTPS Acknowledgment Number, and making sure the account contains sufficient funds to cover the payment. Transfers must be scheduled at least 1 day, not 3 days, in advance of the tax due date.

58
Q

Which level of infractions have an adverse impact upon the quality of electronically filed returns or on IRS e-file?

A. Level one.

B. Level two.

C. Level three.

D. Level four.

A

Level two.
Answer (B) is correct.
The IRS may impose a sanction on an electronic return originator for various infractions. These sanctions are ranked on levels one through three. The IRS reserves the right to select the sanction it wishes to impose. Level two infractions have an adverse impact upon the quality of electronically filed returns or on IRS e-file. These infractions include continued level one infractions after the IRS has brought the level one infraction to the attention of the provider.

59
Q

Return transcripts are available for all of the following EXCEPT

A. Form 1040.

B. Form 1099.

C. Form 1065.

D. Form 1120S.

A

Form 1099.
Answer (B) is correct.
Tax returns can be printed as transcripts to show most of the numbers reported on the return and those from accompanying schedules or forms. In many cases, transcripts are used instead of making copies of tax returns. Transcripts are only available for the following returns: Form 1040 series, Form 1065, Form 1120, Form 1120A, Form 1120H, Form 1120L, and Form 1120S. Form 1099 is not available as a return transcript.

60
Q

All of the following are responsibilities of an electronic return originator (ERO) EXCEPT

A. Providing copies to taxpayers.

B. Keeping the taxpayer’s original documentation,
such as a canceled check.

C. Making records available to the IRS.

D. Timely originating the electronic submission of returns.

A

Keeping the taxpayer’s original documentation, such as a canceled check.
Answer (B) is correct.
An ERO originates the electronic submission of tax returns to the IRS. Although an ERO also may engage in return preparation, that activity is separate and different from the origination of the electronic submission of the return to the IRS. In originating the electronic submission of a return, the ERO has a variety of responsibilities. These include, among others, providing copies to taxpayers, making records available to the IRS, and timely originating the electronic submission of returns. Keeping the taxpayer’s original documentation, such as a canceled check, is not one of the ERO’s responsibilities.

61
Q

Which e-file provider option originates the electronic submission of a return after the taxpayer authorizes the filing of the return via IRS e-file?

A. Intermediate service provider.

B. Electronic return originator (ERO).

C. Software developer.

D. Reporting agent.

A

Electronic return originator (ERO).
Answer (B) is correct.
IRS e-file providers electronically file taxpayers’ returns, including business, individual, and information returns. An authorized provider is a business or organization authorized by the IRS to participate in IRS e-file. There are six provider options. An ERO originates the electronic submission of tax returns to the IRS. The ERO is usually the first point of contact for most taxpayers filing a return using IRS e-file. Although an ERO also may engage in return preparation, that activity is separate and different from the origination of the electronic submission of the return to the IRS. An ERO originates the electronic submission of a return after the taxpayer authorizes the filing of the return via IRS e-file.

62
Q

All of the following e-file providers must clearly display the firm’s “doing business as” name EXCEPT

A. Online-provider.

B. Intermediate service provider.

C. Reporting agent.

D. Electronic return originator (ERO).

A

Reporting agent.
Answer (C) is correct.
EROs, intermediate service providers, and online-provider transmitters must clearly display the firm’s “doing business as” name at all locations and sites, including websites at which the ERO or a third party obtains information from the taxpayers for electronic origination of returns by the ERO. A reporting agent does not have to meet this requirement.

63
Q

Identify the false statement regarding refund anticipation loans (RALs).

A. The taxpayer must understand that a RAL is not a substitute for a faster return.

B. An electronic return originator (ERO) may not assist a taxpayer in applying for a RAL.

C. A RAL is a contract between the taxpayer and the lender.

D. A RAL indicator must be included in the electronic return data transmitted to the IRS.

A

An electronic return originator (ERO) may not assist a taxpayer in applying for a RAL.
Answer (B) is correct.
A RAL is money borrowed by a taxpayer based on a taxpayer’s anticipated income tax refund. It is a contract between the taxpayer and the lender. The IRS has no involvement in RALs. An ERO may assist a taxpayer in applying for a RAL, and may charge a flat fee to provide this assistance.

64
Q

Select the true statement about advertising standards for electronic return originators (EROs).

A. An ERO may use “IRS” within the firm’s name.

B. No claims can be made regarding faster refunds by virtue of electronic filing.

C. An ERO must comply with the advertising and solicitation provisions of Circular 230.

D. Advertising for a cooperative electronic return filing project needs to state only one party’s name.

A

An ERO must comply with the advertising and solicitation provisions of Circular 230.
Answer (C) is correct.
An ERO must comply with the advertising and solicitation provisions of Circular 230. This circular prohibits the use or participation in the use of any form of public communication containing a false, fraudulent, misleading, deceptive, unduly influencing, coercive, or unfair statement or claim.

65
Q

Specified tax return preparers are required to electronically file

A. Corporate income tax returns.

B. Payroll tax returns.

C. Income tax returns for individuals.

D. Gift tax returns.

A

Income tax returns for individuals.
Answer (C) is correct.
Paid preparers who prepare income tax returns for individuals, trusts, and estates, such as Forms 1040 and 1041, and who reasonably expect to file 11 or more of these income tax returns in a single year are specified tax return preparers required to file these returns electronically.

66
Q

Which e-file provider option allows taxpayers to self-prepare returns by entering return data directly on software downloaded from an Internet site?

A. Electronic return originator (ERO).

B. Software developer.

C. Online provider.

D. Transmitter.

A

Online provider.
Answer (C) is correct.
An online provider allows taxpayers to self-prepare returns by entering return data directly on commercially available software, software downloaded from an Internet site and prepared off-line, or through an online Internet site.

67
Q

All of the following statements about the e-file provider option of transmitter are true EXCEPT

A. Testing to ensure the compatibility of the provider’s system with that of the IRS is not required.

B. Transmitter responsibilities include timely transmitting of returns to the IRS.

C. Transmitters must promptly correct any transmission error that causes a rejection.

D. A transmitter transmits electronic tax return information directly to the IRS.

A

Testing to ensure the compatibility of the provider’s system with that of the IRS is not required.
Answer (A) is correct.
IRS e-file providers electronically file taxpayers’ returns, including business, individual, and information returns. There are six provider options, one of which is transmitter. A transmitter transmits electronic tax return information directly to the IRS. Prior to transmitting, testing to ensure the compatibility of the provider’s system with that of the IRS must be completed.

68
Q

Regarding entities that are required to file tax returns electronically, which of the following is false?

A. Partnerships with greater than 50 partners must file Form 1065 electronically.

B. Tax-exempt organizations are required to file Form 990 electronically if they own more than $10 million in assets and file at least 250 returns annually.

C. Corporations are required to file Form 1120, 1120S, and 1120-F electronically if they own more than $10 million in assets and file at least 250 returns annually.

D. Charitable trusts and private foundations must file Form 990-PF electronically if they file at least 250 returns annually, regardless of their assets.

A

Partnerships with greater than 50 partners must file Form 1065 electronically.
Answer (A) is correct.
The e-file requirement applies to partnerships with greater than 100 partners, not 50 partners.

69
Q

Form 8453 must be used to send additional documentation to the IRS when a tax return is filed electronically. All of the following forms must be sent with Form 8453 EXCEPT

A. Form 8283, Noncash Charitable Contributions, Section A or B, and any related attachments.

B. Form 2848, Power of Attorney and Declaration of Representative (or POA that states the agent is granted authority to sign the return).

C. Form 8379, Injured Spouse Allocation.

D. Form 1098-C, Contributions of Motor Vehicles, Boats, and Airplanes (or equivalent contemporaneous written acknowledgment).

A

Form 8379, Injured Spouse Allocation.
Answer (C) is correct.
Form 8453 is used to send additional required paper documents to the IRS when a tax return is otherwise filed electronically. Form 8379 can be filed electronically and is not required to be sent separately with Form 8453.

70
Q

What is an EFIN?

A. The number used by the IRS to identify enrolled agents.

B. The number used by the IRS to identify a preparer when a Form 2848 or Form 8821 is used.

C. The number used by the IRS to identify preparers that are not enrolled agents.

D. The number used by the IRS to identify all preparers that are accepted into the e-file program.

A

The number used by the IRS to identify all preparers that are accepted into the e-file program.
Answer (D) is correct.
The Electronic Filing Identification Number identifies only entities that are registered for electronic filing.

71
Q

When an Electronic Return Originator (ERO) receives a reject of an e-filed return and cannot rectify the reason for the rejection, how soon must the ERO take reasonable steps to notify the taxpayer?

A. Within 8 hours.

B. Within 12 hours.

C. Within 24 hours.

D. Within 48 hours.

A

Within 24 hours.
Answer (C) is correct.
If the IRS rejects the electronic portion of a taxpayer’s return and the reason for the rejection cannot be rectified by the actions described in Rev. Proc. 98-50, the ERO must take reasonable steps to inform the taxpayer that the taxpayer’s return has not been filed within 24 hours of receiving the rejection.

72
Q

Which of the following individual tax returns may be filed electronically?

A. Fiscal year tax period returns.

B. Amended Form 1040 tax returns.

C. Tax returns dated 3 years prior.

D. Original Form 1040 returns.

A

Original Form 1040 returns.
Answer (D) is correct.
Form 1040 returns can usually be e-filed.