Recombinant and synthetic DNA techniques Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is a clone?

A

A DNA molecule that is genetically identical to the DNA molecule from which it was derived.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the uses of a cloned piece of DNA?

A

Nucleotide sequence can be determined by sequencing, the amino acid sequence can also be determined and you can use this to determine function.
The clone can be used as a probe to determine where and when the cloned gene is expressed.
Gene function can be determined by over-expression or mutation of the cloned gene = functional analysis.
The gene product can be purified for other applications.
The gene can be artificially expressed in other organisms (transgenesis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the main components of the gene cloning toolkit?

A
Source of gDNA
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Restriction endonucleases
DNA ligase
Vector 
Host
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why do you have to use cDNA to express a eukaryotic gene in a prokaryote?

A

Prokaryotic genes don’t have introns so they lack the machinery required to remove introns from gDNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of restriction endonucleases are most commonly used for gene cloning?

A

Type II restriction endonucleases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a vector?

A

A piece of DNA into which the cloned DNA is inserted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two ways of thinking about gene cloning?

A
  1. As a method of identifying a gene in the first place.

2. As a way of manipulating an identified gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 3 main methods of gene identification?

A
  1. Mapping
  2. Homology
  3. Functional complementation of mutants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the principle of functional complementation of mutants?

A

For example to identify a gene responsible for arginine synthesis, arg- mutants are transformed with randomly cut fragments of WT gDNA to find a fragment allowing growth on medium lacking arginine.
For this to work, the whole gene sequence must be in tact after digestion.
1. Chop up DNA into fragments.
2. Ligate fragments into vector.
3. Tranform plasmids into arg- mutants.
4. Select for transformants containing plasmids.
5. Screen for transformants that can grow on medium lacking arginine.
6. Isolate plasmid from colony
7. Sequence DNA fragment inserted into plasmid.
*The fragment capable of rescuing arg- mutants may be quite big so you can perform further digests until identifying a single gene that can restore arginine synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a gDNA library?

A

A gDNA library is a collection of gDNA fragments ligated into a vector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 2 ways of digesting gDNA to generate a gDNA library?

A

Complete digest.

Partial digest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which kind of digest is best when the sequence of the gene is unknown?

A

A partial digest is performed so that the entire gene sequence can be pieced together with overlapping fragments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is a cDNA library constructed?

A

Extract total RNA from a tissue known to express the gene being cloned.
Purify mRNA from the total RNA using oligo-dT cellulose chromatography.
Using reverse transcriptase, convert the mRNA into double-stranded mRNA-cDNA hybrids (this is sufficient for a PCR template) using oligo-dT primer.
Replace the mRNA strand of the cDNA-mRNA hybrid with DNA generating double-stranded cDNA using RNAse H and DNA polymerase.
Add sticky ends (adaptors) to the dscDNA via blunt end ligation.
Ligate the cDNA into a suitable vector to generate the cDNA library.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the basis of gene cloning by homology?

A

We can screen a gDNA or cDNA library based on sequence homology using DNA probes that hybridise to clones of the target genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why is gene cloning by homology useful?

A
  1. To identify full-length clone sequences if only the partial sequence is known.
  2. To identify a closely-related gene in another species.
  3. To identify the gene sequence from partial protein sequence using oligonucleotide probes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you screen a gene library using a DNA probe?

A

Beginning with colonies on a plate, each colony contains a plasmid with a particular fragment of DNA.
Transfer colonies to a nitrocellulose membrane and some colonies will stick to the membrane.
Lyse the cells to denature the DNA to give ssDNA.
Incubate the radiolabelled probe with the nylon membrane cotaining all the clones.
The probe will hybridise to clones of target gene.
Expose to an X-ray film and align with the original plate to identify the clone, then sequence for conformation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where does the probe DNA come from to screen a gene library based on homology?

A

May be a fragment of the target gene or protein that may have been obtained by PCR.
It could be a fragment of the same gene from another closely related species.
It could be a very short piece of DNA that corresponds to a fragmet of sequence from the protein encoded by the target gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Once we have a full-length clone, what can it be used for?

A
  1. Can analyse the cloned gene sequence… for homology with other genes, or to determine the protein sequences and predict structure, or to identify conserved domain.
  2. Can analyse gene expression profile to determine when and where the gene is expressed by analysing mRNA levels (in situ hybridisation) or fuse it to a fluorescent protein and visualise by microscopy.
  3. Can analyse gene function e.g. generate mutations and examine the phenotype, over-express the gene, ectopically express the gene.
  4. Can produce recombinant protein e.g. to perform biochemical characterisation or raise antibodies for detection of the gene product.
  5. Can make transgenic organisms, express the gene in plants, animals or microbes etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the benefit of using 2 restriction enzymes when inserting clone into vector?

A

Directionality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If the full sequence of a gene is known, is there any need for gDNA or cDNA library?

A

No, you can use the gDNA/cDNA directly as a template for PCR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the basic method of extracting gDNA?

A

Any tissue can be used (all tissues have same gDNA).
Homogenise gDNA in lysis buffer.
Add phenol and shake vigorously.
Centrifuge to separate the aqueous and phenol phase.
The phenol phase contains denatured proteins etc.
The aqueous phase contains DNA and partly degraded RNA.
Pipette aqueous phase into a new tube and discard the phenol phase.
Add sodium acetate and ethanol.
Centrifuge and discard supernatant.
This generates a pellet of DNA and RNA.
Dissolve the pellet in water and treat with RNAse to remove RNA and get pure DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the uses of gel electrophoresis in gene cloning?

A

Confirm the presence of DNA/RNA in a sample.
Separate different sized molecules of DNA or RNA.
Determine the size of DNA or RNA molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the difference between an agarose gel or polyacrylamide gel?

A

Agarose gels are used to separate large DNA fragments of 100’s/1000’s of bp whereas polyacrylamide gels are used to separate smaller DNA fragments/proteins when the difference in size is only perhaps 1 nuc in length.
Polyacrylamide gels have much smaller holes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the relationship between the rate of migration and size of a DNA molecule?

A

The rate of migration of linear molecules is inversely proportional to the log10 of their size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does DNA conformation affect the rate of migration?

A

Supercoiled DNA migrates faster than linear DNA or circular DNA of the same size.
Circular DNA migrates the slowest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the basic method of extracting total RNA?

A

Take a tissue sample from a tissue known to express the gene of interest.
Homogenise in acid phenol/guanidium thiocyanate solution.
Add chloroform and centrifuge to separate aqueous and phenol phases.
The aqueous phase contains RNA, the phenol phase contains denatured protein and DNA.
Add isopropanol to aqueous phase and centrifuge to give the RNA pellet.
Wash RNA pellet with 70% ethanol and dry pellet.
Dissolve the RNA in water and treat with DNAse I to remove any contaminating DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the approximate composition of total RNA?

A

80% rRNA
15% tRNA
2-5% mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What feature of mRNA is used to capture mRNA from total RNA?

A

The polyA tail, a sequence of approx 200 A residues at their 3’ end.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is an oligo-dT primer?

A

A short fragment of 12-20 T residues that base pairs to the polyA tail of mRNA.

30
Q

What are the uses of a cDNA library?

A

Functional complementation
Screening by hybridisation (homology)
PCR template

31
Q

How many different types of restriction enzyme have been characterised?

A

3000

32
Q

Which class of restriction enzymes are used in gene cloning?

A

Type II restriction endonucleases

33
Q

What is the advantage of blunt ended fragments?

A

They can always be ligated back together, you don’t need compatible overhangs and don’t require base pairing.

34
Q

What is the benefit of using sticky-ended fragments?

A

Ligation is much more efficient.

35
Q

What is the EcoRI recogition sequence?

A

5’GAATTC-3’

36
Q

How frequently does a 4bp restriction recognition site occur in the genome?

A

1/256 (1/4x4x4x4)

37
Q

How frequently does a 6bp restriction recognition site occur in the genome?

A

1/4096 (1/4x4x4x4x4x4)

38
Q

How frequently does an 8bp restriction recognition site occur in the genome?

A

1/65,536 (1/4x4x4x4x4x4x4x4)

39
Q

What are isoschizomers?

A

Different restriction enzymes that recognise the same sequence.

40
Q

Give an example of two isoschizomers?

A

PvuI and XorII, both recognise CGATCG

41
Q

What is the name of two restriction enzymes that recognise the same sequence?

A

Isoschizomers

42
Q

What are neoschizomers?

A

Different recstriction enzymes that recognise the same sequence but cut it differently.

43
Q

Give an example of two neoschizomers?

A

SmaI and XmaI both recognise TCTAGA but SmaI cuts to produce blunt ends and XmaI cuts to produce sticky ends.

44
Q

What is the name given to two restriction enzymes that recognise the same sequence but cut it differently?

A

Neoschizomers

45
Q

What organisms make restriction enzymes?

A

Bacteria

46
Q

How do bacteria avoid having their own DNA chopped up by the restriction enzymes they make?

A

The bacteria that make restriction enzymes have a restriction-modification system with two components.

  1. A restriction enzyme
  2. A sequence-specific methylase that methylates bases in the restriction enzyme target site so it is no longer recognised.
47
Q

What is the problem with blunt end ligation?

A

Blunt-end ligation is much less efficient than sticky-end ligation because blunt-end ligation relies on the probability that two ends will bump together in the presence of DNA ligase.

48
Q

What is the typical vector:insert ration used for ligation?

A

1:3, it is better to have lots more insert than vector.

49
Q

What is transformation?

A

The act of putting DNA into the cell.

50
Q

What is transfection?

A

Transformation exclusive to animal cells.

51
Q

What are the two mechanisms by which DNA can be taken up into a cell?

A
  1. Chemical transformation/Heat shock
    Treat E. coli cells with calcium and heatshock at 42 degrees for 30-45s.
  2. Electroporation - brief pulse at 20000V.
52
Q

What is the difference between screening and selecting?

A

A transformed cell is selected based on whether it has a plasmid and selected cells are then screened for which have the insert.

53
Q

What is selection?

A

Selecting for transformed cells, cells that have taken up a plasmid.

54
Q

What is screening?

A

Screening the selected cells for those that have the insert because sometimes the vector re-ligates.
This is essentially selecting for those which have a recombinant plasmid and not those that a reannealed plasmid.

55
Q

How do we select for cells that have taken up a plasmid?

A

The plasmid/vector contains a selectable marker like antibiotic resistance, so by growing the transformed cells in the presence of a bacteria, only those with a plasmid and thus antiobiotic resistance gene survive.

56
Q

What is the selectable marker on the pUC19 vector?

A

Ampicillin resistance.

57
Q

What are the essential features of plasmid vectors?

A

An origin of replication.
One or more unique restriction enzyme sites (only occurring once in the vector).
A means of distinguishing recombinant plasmids from non-recombinant plasmids (screening).

58
Q

What is a polylinker/MCS?

A

A string of many restriction enzyme sites in tandem.

59
Q

Describe how the LacZ can be used to identify recombinant and non-recombinants?

A

Screening by insertional inactivation of LacZ gene.
If a plasmid is recombinant, insertion of the GOI will disrupt the LacZ gene so no beta-galactosidase is produced and hence synthetic substrate Xgal cannot be cleaved to give a blue dye so recombinant colonies are white. Blue colonies are derived from cells with a non-recombinant plasmid because the lacZ gene isn’t disrupted so beta-galactosidase is produced and cleaves X-gal to give a blue dye.

60
Q

What is IPTG?

A

Lactose analogue, it binds the lac repressor and relieves inhibition of the LacZ gene.

61
Q

What kind of vector is needed to be able to express the gene of interest?

A

An expression vector.

62
Q

What is an expression vector?

A

A plasmid which has a promoter next to the MCS that can be recognised by host molecular machinery.
This is a vector that can express (transcribe and translate) the gene of interest in the desired host organism.

63
Q

What kind of vector is pET?

A

An expression vector.

64
Q

Describe the pET system?

A

The target gene is inserted into the MCS next to a T7 promoter, recognised by a highly potent viral T7 RNA polymerase.
This T7 RNA polymerase gene is under the control of the lac promoter.
The lac repressor suppresses genes under control of the lac promtoer.
Addition of lactose analogue IPTG causes the lac repressor to dissociate and we see expression of the T7 gene to produce the T7 RNA polymerase which binds the T7 promoter and transcribes the GOI.

65
Q

What strain of E.coli is required for use of a pET system?

A

BL21 (DE3).

66
Q

How does the pET system allow for easy purification of a recombinant protein?

A

The pET system ensures that after the insert there is a His tag which is read within the reading frame and gets fused to the end of the gene.
You can therefore purify the protein using nickel chromatography.
You must remove the STOP codon from your GOI to ensure the His tag is in frame to be able to generate a fusion protein.

67
Q

Aside from a plasmid what are some other types of cloning vectors?

A
  1. Bacteriophage - based on M13 or phage lambda.
  2. Cosmid - hybrid of plasmid and bacteriophage for larger inserts like 100kb.
  3. Bacterial artifical chromosome - for very large fragments approx 300kb.
  4. Yeast artifical chromosome - for very large DNA fragments 1mb.
68
Q

By what method can plasmid DNA be isolated?

A

Alkaline lysis method.

69
Q

What is the purpose of site-directed mutagenesis?

A

Engineering of specific mutations into DNA sequences.

70
Q

What are the two main approaches of site-directed mutagenesis?

A
  1. PCR-based methods.

2. Plasmid replication-based methods.