Recall May Part 1 2024 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the surgery indication for a popliteal artery aneurysm?

A

Diameter > 2.5 cm

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2
Q

What is the surgery indication for splenic and renal artery aneurysms?

A

Diameter ≥ 2 cm

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3
Q

What is the preferred investigation for a primary brain tumor?

A

MRI

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4
Q

What stage is Duke C3 in colorectal cancer (CR) and what surgery is indicated?

A

Duke C3 (local lymph node involvement); Full colectomy

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5
Q

What enzyme is related to the efficacy and metabolism of allopurinol?

A

Cytochrome P450 (CPY 450)

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6
Q

What genetic testing is recommended before starting allopurinol in certain populations?

A

HLA-B*5801 screening

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7
Q

What imaging is used for anterior and lateral neck masses versus posterior neck masses?

A

Anterior and Lateral Neck: Ultrasound; Posterior Neck: CT for high malignancy suspicion

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8
Q

What is the likely cause of toddler diarrhea?

A

Lactose intolerance

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9
Q

How do the histories of appendicitis and mesenteric adenitis typically differ?

A

Mesenteric Adenitis: Long history of symptoms; Appendicitis: Acute presentation

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10
Q

What hormone level is indicative of a prolactinoma?

A

Prolactin > 4000

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11
Q

What initial management step is recommended for SVT with a heart rate > 200 and < 200?

A

> 200: Consider electrical shock if unstable; <200: Use Valsalva maneuver; if ineffective, consider adenosine

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12
Q

How does the location and pain of lymph nodes indicate infection or non-infection?

A

Painless Below Ligament: Likely non-infected; Painful: Likely infected

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13
Q

Which nodes are located above and below the inguinal ligament?

A

Above Inguinal Ligament: Inguinal nodes; Below Inguinal Ligament: Femoral nodes

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14
Q

What follow-up procedure is indicated for HPV types 16 and 18 in cervical cancer screening?

A

Colposcopy

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15
Q

What are common causes of nocturia in men?

A

BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia) and prostate cancer

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16
Q

What mnemonic helps remember the causes of acute pancreatitis, and which two causes are specifically mentioned?

A

“I GET SMASHED” - Steroids and Scorpion can cause pancreatitis”

•	I: Idiopathic (unknown cause)
•	G: Gallstones
•	E: Ethanol (alcohol)
•	T: Trauma
•	S: Steroids
•	M: Mumps (and other infections)
•	A: Autoimmune disease
•	S: Scorpion sting
•	H: Hypercalcemia / Hyperlipidemia
•	E: ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography)
•	D: Drugs (certain medications)
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17
Q

What is a common symptom of temporal arteritis?

A

Headache in 70-80% of patients

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18
Q

What are the symptoms and treatment for salivary duct issues related to chewing problems and high temperature?

A

Chewing Problem: Obstruction (sialolithiasis); High Temperature: Sialadenitis (infection); Treat bacterial infection with ceftriaxone

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19
Q

What type of fractures are indicated by horizontal and vertical patterns in orbital fractures?

A

Horizontal: Zygomatic fractures; Vertical: Orbital fractures

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20
Q

What are the initial and best investigations for mesenteric ischemia, and associated findings?

A

Initial: X-ray (thumbprinting sign); Best: CT angiography; Associated: Lactic acidosis, AF on ECG

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21
Q

What are the typical early and late post-operative complications related to stents?

A

Early: Stent cardiac tamponade; Late: Stent thrombosis (e.g., 5 days)

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22
Q

How do TSH levels differ in secondary hypothyroidism and subclinical hypothyroidism?

A

Secondary Hypothyroidism: TSH normal, issues outside thyroid; Subclinical Hypothyroidism: Elevated TSH, normal T3/T4

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23
Q

What is the recommended change in antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia with delusions?

A

Stop haloperidol, start quetiapine

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24
Q

What is the initial and best investigation for suspected PE in pregnant women?

A

Initial: ECG if no VQ scan available; Best: CTPA

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25
Q

How do ACL and meniscus injuries typically present regarding swelling?

A

ACL: Immediate swelling; Meniscus: Swelling later

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26
Q

What is the first step in the infertility workup?

A

Test sperm before evaluating the woman

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27
Q

What type of fluid is recommended for isotonic loss?

A

Isotonic fluid

28
Q

What is the treatment progression for motor and vocal tic disorders?

A

Motor Tic: Start with psychotherapy, then risperidone; Vocal Tic: Consider Tourette’s

29
Q

What asthma medication is recommended for children over 5 years?

A

Fluticasone

30
Q

What is the management for renal masses based on size?

A

<1 cm: Observe; <4 cm: Partial nephrectomy; 4-7 cm: Total nephrectomy; >7 cm: Radical nephrectomy; Biopsy required if ≥3 cm

31
Q

What is essential for glucose control in diabetes before driving?

A

Ensure normal glucose levels

32
Q

What is the next best step and subsequent investigation for chronic elbow pain in a carpenter?

A

Next Best: MRI; Then: Ultrasound

33
Q

What is a known side effect of long-term ACE inhibitor use?

A

Angioedema

34
Q

What is the initial and confirmation step for neonatal sepsis management?

A

Initial: Blood culture; Confirmation: Lumbar puncture after blood culture

35
Q

What medications are used for remodeling in heart failure?

A

Beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, spironolactone, SGLT2 inhibitors

36
Q

What is the likelihood of renal stones <7 mm passing naturally?

A

Likely to pass naturally

37
Q

What is an alternative treatment for osteoporosis when bisphosphonates are contraindicated?

A

Strontium

38
Q

What is the first-line treatment for surgical menopause? Or menopause

A

Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT)

39
Q

What knee injury triad

Knee Injury Triad

A

involves ACL, medial meniscus, and MCL?

40
Q

What is the treatment for cat scratch disease with and without systemic symptoms?

A

With Systemic Symptoms: Cephalexin; Otherwise: Flucloxacillin

41
Q

What drugs can cause postural hypotension?

A

Thiazide diuretics, nitrates, SSRIs, and CCBs

42
Q

Which diuretic has less impact on hyperlipidemia?

A

Indapamide

43
Q

What are the recommended treatments for hypertension in pregnancy for simple and emergency cases?

A

Simple: Methyldopa; Emergency: Labetalol

44
Q

What is the management strategy for hypertension by age and ethnicity?

A

> 55 Years: Diuretics; <55 Years: ACE inhibitors; African Descent: Diuretics for <55 years

45
Q

What is the survival expectation for TGA with VSD and ASD?

A

Survival more than one day

46
Q

How do the recovery times for vasovagal syncope and HOCM compare?

A

Vasovagal: Recovers within minutes; HOCM: Longer recovery, family history

47
Q

What is the treatment for SVT in patients with asthma?

A

Verapamil

48
Q

What imaging modalities are used for diagnosing an aortic aneurysm?

A

X-ray, CT, Echo

49
Q

What is a known complication of cyclophosphamide?

A

Painful hematuria

50
Q

What symptom confirms delirium tremens?

A

Visual hallucinations (seeing insects on the wall)

51
Q

Why is diazepam preferred in pregnancy for certain conditions?

A

Longer half-life, fewer doses needed

52
Q

What condition is associated with anti-histone antibodies?

A

Drug-induced lupus, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

53
Q

At what ages are FOBT and CRC screenings recommended for categories 1 and 2?

A
  • No family history: No relatives with colorectal cancer.
  • One first-degree relative (e.g., parent, sibling) diagnosed at age 60 or older: Slightly above average risk.
  • One first-degree relative diagnosed before age 60.
  • One first-degree relative plus one or more second-degree relatives (e.g., grandparent, aunt/uncle) diagnosed at any age.
  • Two first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age.
  • Two first-degree relatives plus one second-degree relative, with one diagnosed before age 50.
  • Two first-degree relatives plus two or more second-degree relatives diagnosed at any age.
  • Three or more first-degree relatives diagnosed at any age.
  • Include both sides of the family.
  • Verify family history information as patients’ reports may be inaccurate.
  • Update family history regularly.
  • Screening: iFOBT every two years from age 45 to 74.
  • Aspirin: Consider low-dose (100 mg) daily from age 45 to 70.
  • Screening: Colonoscopy every five years from age 50 or 10 years younger than the earliest diagnosis, up to age 74.
  • Aspirin: Consider low-dose (100 mg) daily from age 45 to 70.
  • Screening: Colonoscopy every five years from age 40 or 10 years younger than the earliest diagnosis, up to age 74.
  • Aspirin: Consider low-dose (100 mg) daily from age 45 to 70.
  • Referral: Consider referral to a family cancer clinic.

By simplifying the categories and screening recommendations, this information should be easier to understand and follow.

Category 1: Age 60; Category 2: Age 50

Organised screening by iFOBT is recommended for the asymptomatic (average risk) population from 50 years of age every two years (A) until 74 years of age with repeated negative findings.- racgp

54
Q

What is the initial management for Perthes disease?

A

Crutches, physiotherapy

55
Q

What is the first-line treatment for alcohol dependence?

A

Naltrexone; Second-line: Acamprosate

56
Q

What is the initial management for uterine atony?

A

Uterine massage and oxytocin

57
Q

What blood loss defines post-partum hemorrhage (PPH) for vaginal delivery and C-section?

A

Vaginal Delivery: >500 mL; C-section: >1000 mL

58
Q

What is the next step after antibiotics for empyema management?

A

Intercostal drainage (chest tube)

59
Q

What is the best investigation for eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

Endoscopy with biopsy

60
Q

What are common symptoms of tinea pedis?

A

Itching, scaling, skin cracks

61
Q

What is the first-line treatment for tinea?

A

Terbinafine 1% cream

62
Q

What characteristic rash is associated with scabies?

A

Raised papules, burrows

63
Q

What management steps are taken for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) based on age?

A

0-6 Months: Pavlik harness with traction; 3-18 Months: Closed or open reduction, pelvic cast; >18 Months: Open reduction

64
Q

What are the management steps for a Bartholin cyst?

A

Persistent: Incision with catheterization; Recurrent: Marsupialization; Abscess: Incision and drainage

65
Q

What are the initial and best investigations for a femoral aneurysm?

A

Initial: Ultrasound; Best: CT angiography

66
Q

When should a caval filter be considered?

A

Repeated PE

67
Q

What criteria diagnose SIADH?

A

Hyponatremia, low serum osmolality (<275 mOsm/kg), urine osmolality >100 mOsm/kg