REAL ESTATE Flashcards

1
Q

exemption for professional law firms - ability for law firms to carry out a regulated cativity

A

s 327 FSMA 2000

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2
Q

Definition of development: “carrying out of building, engineering, mining or other operations in, on, over or under land”

A

s 55 town and country planning act 1990 (TCPA)

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3
Q

the requirements of a good root of title:

deal with or show who owns the entire estate that is being sold
contains recognisable description of the land
do nothing to cast doubt on sellers title
be at least 15 years old

A

s 44 LPA 1925

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4
Q

a deed is must be in:

writing
make it clear on the fact it is a deed
be signed by the person granting the interest in the presence of a witness
be delivered as a deed

A

s 1(2) law of property (miscellaneous provisions) act 1989

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5
Q

apply to the Upper Tribunal for modification or discharge of a covenant, on the grounds that the covenants is obsolete or confers no practical benefit or advantage

A

s 84 LPA 1925

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6
Q

a parole lease does not require any formalities and will be binding on the buyer

A

s 54(2) LPA 1925

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7
Q

binding contract for the sale of land: must be in writing, must incorporate all the agreed terms, must be contained in one document, and must be signed by the parties

A

s 1(2) LP(MP)A 1989

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8
Q

a term is implied into a qualified covenant against making ‘improvements’ that the landlord cannot unreasonably withhold tis consent

A

s 19(2) LTA 1027

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9
Q

any qualified covenant is transferred into a fully qualified covenants in the assignment or underlease of a commercial lease , meaning consent cannot be unreasonably withheld

A

s 19(1)(a) LTA 1927

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10
Q

in assignment: landlord and tenants can agree in advance the conditions and circumstances where it would be reasonable for the landlord to refuse consent

A

s 19(1A) LTA 1927

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11
Q

if there is a qualified covenant on assignment or underletting, and the tenant made a written application for consent, the landlord must within reasonable time, give consent, or explain why not.

A

s 1 LTA 1988

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12
Q

what statute is the liability of privity of estate in a new lease?

A

s 3 Landlord and tenants act 1995

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13
Q

where the landlord intends to pursue a former tenant for a breach of leasehold covenant, they must comply with this statutory provision, and serve a “default notice” saying they intend to recover a fixed charge from them. this must be served within 6 months of the breach.

A

s 17 landlord land tenant (covenants) act 1995

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14
Q

the limit of the amount of damages is equal to the amount the landlords reversion diminished in value as a result of the disrepair

A

s 18 LTA 1927

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15
Q

if the lease is granted for more than 7 years and has more than 3 years left to run, notice must be served on the tenant, saying the right to counter notice within 28 days.

this is also the case for forfeiture

A

s 146 Leasehold Property (repairs) act 1938

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16
Q

statutory procedure of forfeiture:

serve a notice, which specifies the breach, requires the breach to be remedied within reasonable time, and require tenant to pay compensation for the breach.

if tenant does not comply, then landlord can forfeit.

A

s 146 LPA 1925

17
Q

for application of the 1954 act to apply, there must be a tenancy that is being occupied by the tenant for business purposes

A

s 23 landlord and tenants act 1954

18
Q

the grounds that the landlord can oppose the tenancys right to a new tenancy:

failure to repair
persistent delay in rent
substantial other breaches
alternative accomodation
underletting of part
demolish or reconstrct
intends to occupy themselves

A

s 30 1954 act

19
Q

service of a landlords notice to terminate a lease

A

s 25 1954 Act

20
Q

service of a tenants notice to request a new tenancy

A

s 26 1954 act

21
Q

tenants serving three months notice on the landlord to terminate the lease

A

s 27 1954 act