Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Cardiology > RCIS > Flashcards

RCIS Flashcards

0
Q

What is the purpose of the pericardium

A

It fits snugly around the heart stretches when the heart gets bigger during diastole and vice versa. it protects the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
0
Q

What will happen to stroke volume and cardiac output in constrictive pericarditis

A

They will decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
0
Q

How do inotropes work on BP

A

They work on the stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

How does chronotrope work on blood pressure

A

They increased heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the normal range of respiratory variation

A

0 to 10 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the pericardium

A

The protective sack that covers the base of the great vessels as well as the heart. normal volume is 5 to 50 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the treatment of cardiac Tamponade.

A

Pericardiocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a patient is on Coumadin what would you do different for a pericardiocentesis

A

Ultrasound guided needle stick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the cause of constrictive pericarditis

A

Unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is cardiac Tamponade

A

Blood is leaking into the pericardial sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens during Tamponade

A

Heart rate increases, pulse ox decreases, alertness decreases, chest pain. Stroke volume goes down due to losing blood to PS and venous constriction. Right and left EDP goes up proportionally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is the needle place during a pericardiocentesis

A

Sub xiphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of constrictive pericarditis

A

Tired, decreased concentration, sleeps a lot, equalization of the RVE DP and LVED P, so sv decreases so heart rate increases, this is what causes fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the formula for blood pressure

A

Heart rate X stroke Volume X SVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which leads show septal anterior wall infarct? Which artery is this

A

V1-V4. LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the three areas where you can affect the blood pressure

A

Heart rate, stroke volume, SVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What leads show inferior wall infarct? Which artery is this?

A

Two, three, AVF

RCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is preload

A

How full the heart is prior to systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What leads show anterior wall infarct? Which artery is this?

A

V2 through V5, LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is afterload

A

How much force does each cardiac muscle fiber have to contract to move blood across the bow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Fick CO

A

O2 consumption/ (hgb x constant x AO sat) - (hgb x constant x PA sat) x 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the normal CO range?

A

4-8 L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which leads show anterior lateral wall infarct? Which artery is this?

A

V2-V6, 1, AVL

LAD, Circ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pulsus paradoxes

A

Respiratory variation greater than 10 mm hg

Caused by Tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which leads show lateral wall infarct? Which artery is this ?

A

V5 V6 1 and AVL

CIRC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens to RVEDP & LVEDP in constrictive pericarditis?

A

The equalize.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Regurgitant Fraction

A 
SV (angio) - SV (thermo)
----------------------------
SV (angio)
Or 
CO (angio) - CO (thermo) 
-----------------------------
CO(angio)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the term used when using angiography to determine CO?

A

LVMF. Left ventricular minute flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ejection fraction (EF)

A

EDV-ESV/EDV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Stroke volume

A

EDV - ESV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Angiographic CO

A

SV (ml) x HR/ 1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which lead shows posterior wall infarct? Which artery is this?

A

V7-V9

Circ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the normal O2 consumption of an adult and child?

A

Adult 250 ml/min

Child 150 ml/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is resistance

A

The Amojnt of work necessary to push blood out of the systemic or pulmonary systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cardiac Index (CI)

A

CO/BSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

AVF (aortic valve flow)

A

SEP (Sec/min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the gorlin formula aortic valve constant

A

44.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

SEP. Systolic Ejection Period

A

The amount of time the AO valve is open for blood to be ejected out of the Aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

DFP (diastolic filling period)

A

Amount of time the mitral valve leaflets are open for blood to eject out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

AVA (aortic valve area)

A

AVF

  1. 5 x square root of mean gradient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is concentric plaque

A

The plaque covers the entire inside if the artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

MVF (mitral valve flow)

A

DFP (sec/min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Haaki formula for valve are

A

Square root of the peak to peak lv AO pressure gradient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the mitral valve gorlin constant?

A

37.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

SBF (systemic blood flow)

A

Systemic arterial 02 - MO2 content x10

(RAo2 or RVo2) is MO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do you convert hybrid resistance units to absolute resistance units?

A

Multiply by 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does AA Araqadonic acid do in the clotting cascade.

A

Helps platelets stick together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

PBF (pulmonary blood flow)

A

Pulmonary venous o2 - pulmonary artery o2 x 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If the shunted blood flow is a negative number, does that indicate a R-L shunt or L-R shunt

A

R-L shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Calculate Qp/Qs ratio

A

(PV o2 - PA o2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the gold standard for figuring valve area?

A

Gorlin formula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How do you calculate shunted blood flow?

A

PBF-SBF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is esentric plaque?

A

Does not cover the entire inside of the artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A Qp/Qs ratio greater that 1 indicates what?

A

PBF exceeds SBF or L-R shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a covered stent used for?

A

Perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What’s are most closure devices made of.

A

Collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the normal mitral valve area?

A

4-5cm2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the normal aortic valve area?

A

3-4 cm2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does ADP do in the clotting cascade.

A

Finds 2b3a and allows it to accept fibrin which allows platelets to stick together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where does Coumadin work

A

Vitamin k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Thrombin a2 (tax2)

A

Causes muscle fibers to contract a tiny bit so there will be less are to cover by clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the normal pulmonic valve area?

A

7cm2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Factor 10a

A

Changes prothrombin to thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does factor vIII do for clotting

A

Helps platelets to collegen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the normal tricuspid valve area?

A

8-10 cm2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How long does it take for the artery to realize this is my new form?

A

14 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What was the original stent? What was the RR?

A

JJ Stent

43-45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the rotoblader used for? What is the RPM range?

A

Calcified lesions

180,000-220,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What was the original elastic recoil of ballooning?

A

44-46%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is ICE?

A

Intracardiac echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the contraindications to using a closure device.

A

Below the bifurcation
Disease in the artery
Immune compromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What pressures does COPD affect?

A

PCW, LA, LVEDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is a cutting balloon used for?

A

Calcified lesions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When do you calibrate the laser?

A

Every use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the inoue balloon used for?

A

Valvioplasty.

Mitral valve only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the normal stroke volume for an adult

A

60-100 cc per beat. Avg is 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How quickly do you pull back the Ivus?

A

O.5 mm per sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the normal RV systolic and diastolic pressure?

A

Systolic 25

Diastolic 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the normal BP?

A

120/80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the angiojet used for?

A

Fresh clot. Peripheral or coronary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the angiojet used for?

A

Fresh clot. Peripheral or coronary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When do you use a filter wire

A

Carotids and grafts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The skeletal muscle pump moves venous blood at what pressure

A

Same as RA. 0-5 mm hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the pulmonary artery pressure?

A

Systolic 25

Diastolic 7-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the normal RA pressure?

A

5 mm hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

If the RA pressure increases, where would this be visible on the pt?

A

Increases HR due to lactic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

As the valve size increases, how does this affect the pressure

A

The larger the valve the less pressure it takes to cross it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What would increase RA pressure?

A

Anything that makes the valve smaller or work harder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the normal LA pressure

A

7-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What would cause the LVEDP to increase and not the LV systolic pressure.

A

LVMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

If a pt has Pulmonic Stenosis how does it affect the RV Systolic pressure

A

PS increases RV Systolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What would cause LV systolic pressure to increase?

A

Valve stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the PA pressure of COPD?

A

Increase PA pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the RA pressure of tricuspid Regurg?

A

Increases pressure due to more volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the PCWP of LVMI

A

Increased LVEDP, LA, PCWP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the best way to decrease blood pressure?

A

Increase the diameter of the vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the PCWP of MS

A

increased pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Dopamine

A

1-5 mg/kg/min dilates Renal arteries to increase urine output. A
5-10 mg/kg/min increases heart rate
Greater than 10 = vasoconstriction to increase BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Dobutamine

A

Increases contractibility to increase SV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the best way to increase blood pressure.

A

Decrease the diameter of the vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Is the LV EF = RV EF

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the normal HR for an adult

A

75-80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the best position to put a pt in with cardiac Tamponade?

A

Sit up 45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the normal CO for and adult.

A

4-8 L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What do chronotropic drugs affect

A

Heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the PCWP of MS

A

Increased pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How does the body control blood pressure?

A

The aortic arch has baroreceptors that stretch. If the stress too much or not enough the brain recognizes and tries to fix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Pulmonary vascular resistance

A

PBF X 80

PBF = CO as long as ther isn’t a shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What will happen to SV & CO in constrictive pericarditis.

A

They will decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

If the brain senses a decrease in BP how does the body react?

A

Basins tells the kidneys to release renin and the liver to release angiotensin. Combined these make angiotensin 1. Angiotensin 1 + ACE makes Angiotensin 2. Angiotensin 2 constricts blood vessels which increases BP. Also tells kidneys to hold into salt. This increases volume which increases SV which increases BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What do inotropic drugs affect.

A

Stroke volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is another name for verapamil

A

Isoptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What areas does inderal work

A

Beta blocker that affects heart and lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

True or False.

Pt develops Tamponade. The LVEDP and RVEDP will equalize.

A

F. The will increases proportional from where they started but will not be the same.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Systolic vascular resistance

A

SBF. X 80

SBF = CO as long as there isn’t a shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When is a PTs heart rate the highest in their life.

A

In the womb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How does increased stenosis of the tricuspid valve affect the pressure?

A

RA systolic pressure will increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How does adrenaline work.

A

Works on beta sites to increase HR. also works on beta sites in airway when exercising.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the normal respiratory variation range.

A

0-10 mm hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How does angiotensin 2 work

A

Tells the kidneys to keep salt. This will increase volume. Increases vine will increase SV. increased SV will increase BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Angiomax

A

Decrease the dose for dialysis dependent PTs or renal insufficiency. ACT usually greater than 350. Half life approx 25 mins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Isuprel

A

Iv infusion for bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is respiratory variation

A

When a pt takes in a deep breath the left lung surrounds the SVC & RA which briefly pushes back blood into the vena ceva. When that happens the SV will decrease. So when you take a deep breath in the pressure will decrease and vice versa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Can you give lidocaine to bradycardia

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Atropine

A

For vasovagal or symptomatic bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Nipride

A

Decreases blood pressure. Mimics nitric oxide that endothelial cells produce to decrease BP. Decreases preload and after load. Work on arteries and veins but mostly arteries. Given in hypertensive emergencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Amiodarone

A

Choice drug for v-fib v-tach.
Causes potassium channels to move less efficiently. Does most of work in ten conduction system. Makes conduction system less sensitive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Epinephrine

A

Stimulates beta sites to increase HR but can also work on Alpha sites to increase BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is heparin reversed with?

A

Protamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Heparin

A

Bolus with infusion. Keeps ACT around 250-300. Bolus is reduced when giving 2b3a inhibitor. Act is then around 200-250.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Ca channel blockers

A

Prevents artery from constricting and dilates them by preventing ca channels which decrease HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What happens in an RVMI

A

RV muscle loss causes systolic pressure and diastolic pressure to decrease. Does not affect the pulmonary valve but RVEDP goes up due to contractability. Remaining muscle gets bigger due to more work which is what decreases contractability do to decreased flexibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Narcan

A

Reversal for narcotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Adenosine

A

To convert Svt

Used during pressure wire to dilate micro vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

During an intervention the ACT should be kept at what level

A

Over 250

101
Q

INR

A

.8–1.2

101
Q

Procainamide

A

VF-VT

101
Q

Beta blockers

A

End in lol

101
Q

Can you give lidocaine to heart block PTs.

A

No

101
Q

Lidocaine.

A

Decreases sensitivity to electrical impulses in entire electrical system.

102
Q

What are two antibiotics that are used in the Cath Lab

A

Ancef And vancomycin

Antibiotics find invading bodies and turn off DNA and damage bacterial walls

103
Q

How many mm is a 8 f catheter

A

2.6 mm

103
Q

T or F. In PTs with a short or narrow AO root, a 3.5 mm tip catheter may be needed.

A

T

103
Q

What is the other name for versed

A

Midazolam

103
Q

Nitro

A

For CP

103
Q

Where the baroreceptors located

A

Aortic arch and carotid bulb. Or carotid bifurcation

103
Q

Chronotrope

A

+ Chronotrope increases HR

- Chronotrope decreases HR

103
Q

Where is the SA node located

A

Atrial side of the wall by the SVC

103
Q

PT/PTT

A

11 - 16 seconds

103
Q

What do you give for contrast allergies.

A

Prednisone, hydrocortisone, Benadryl.

103
Q

Metformin

A

A byproduct of cellular function is lactic acid. Lactic acid is excreted via the kidneys. Metformin prevents the kidneys from eliminating lactic acid. Therefore if lactic acid builds up in the body it changes the pH

103
Q

Name to benzodiazepines used in the Cath Lab

A

Versed and Valium

103
Q

Name 2 vasodilators

A

Nipride

Nitroglycerin

103
Q

Where is the AV node located

A

Av junction

103
Q

Romazicon

A

For over sedation with benzodiazepines

103
Q

What is the other name for Valium

A

Diazepam

104
Q

What catheter would you use for dilated root

A

Anything greater than a 4.0

105
Q

Inotrope

A

Changes force of contraction.

Example: dobutamine = + inotrope

105
Q

What is another name for PLAVIX

A

Chlopidogrel

105
Q

Anti platelets

A

ASA
PLAVIX (chlopidogrel)
Effient (prasagrel)
Brilinta (Ticagrelor)

106
Q

What is it called when the pH is less than 7.35

A

Acidosis

107
Q

What is the normal range for HCO3

A

22-26

107
Q

What is the purpose of bicarb

A

It creates a bond with lactic acid and carries it to the liver

107
Q

What is another name for Effient

A

Prasagrel

107
Q

What is a normal pH range

A

7.35–7.45

107
Q

What is another name for Coumadin

A

Warfarin

107
Q

What is another name for cardizem

A

Diltiazem.

107
Q

Name non-cardio selective beta blocker

A

Inderal (propanolol)

107
Q

Name 2 thrombin inhibitors

A

Coumadin (warfarin)

Pradexa

107
Q

Name 2b3a inhibitors

A

Reopro (abciximab)

Integrelin (eptifibatide)

107
Q

What areas does inderal work

A

Beta blocker that affects heart and lungs.

107
Q

Name cardio selective beta blockers

A

Metoprolol (lopressor)

Atenolol (tenormin)

107
Q

What is another name for Brilinta

A

Ticagrelor

107
Q

What is another name for inderal

A

Propanolol

107
Q

What is the normal range PaCo2

A

35-45

107
Q

What is the other name of Angiomax

A

Bivalrudin

108
Q

If the bicarb is decreased how will this affect the pH

A

PH will be decreased

109
Q

If there is an increased CO2 how does this affect the pH

A

PH will be decreased

109
Q

If the bicarb is increased how will this affect the pH

A

PH will increase

109
Q

If there’s a decrease in CO2 how this affect the pH

A

PH will be increased

109
Q

If the pH abnormality is caused by bicarb is this metabolic or respiratory

A

Metabolic

109
Q

If the bicarb is decreased how will this affect the pH

A

PH will be decreased

109
Q

What is it called when the pH is greater than 7.45

A

Alkalosis

110
Q

Respiratory acidosis

A

Retain CO2, and inadequate ventilation’s, narcotics, barbiturates, cardiac arrest,

Must be compensated via the kidneys

111
Q

In an AV pacer, the first spike is responsible for what?

A

Atrial contraction

112
Q

PH 7.52, CO2 32, HCO3 34

A

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

112
Q

If the pH abnormality is caused by CO2 is this metabolic or respiratory

A

Respiratory

112
Q

PH 7.18, CO2 68, HCO3 29

A

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

112
Q

PH 7.5, CO2 26, HCO3 21

A

Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

112
Q

PH 7.21, CO2 32, HC 03 14

A

Uncompensated metabolic acidosis

112
Q

Metabolic acidosis

A

Caused by strenuous exercise /lactic acid

Compensated via the kidneys(slow)

112
Q

PH 7.02, CO2 60, HCO3 12

A

Uncompensated respiratory and metabolic acidosis

112
Q

What is the goal of the pacemaker

A

Max cardiac output

112
Q

Can you defibrillate a patient with a PPM

A

Yes

112
Q

Respiratory alkalosis

A

Hyperventilation, psych/asthma decrease and respiratory rate/kidneys

112
Q

PH 7.36, CO2 54, HCO3 32

A

Compensated respiratory acidosis

112
Q

If the respiratory rate increases how does this affect the CO2

A

Decreases CO2

112
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

A

Vegetarians, inc. vomiting, decreased respiratory rate.

Compensated via the kidneys

113
Q

Why do paced beats look like PVCs

A

Bc of the time it takes the electrical impulse to do its job

114
Q

If there is a lead only in the atrium, where is the problem

A

Sa, av area

115
Q

Do the leads enter in the subclavian or jugular vein.

A

Subclavian

116
Q

If there is a lead only in the ventricle then where is the problem

A

Sa, av area

117
Q

What are the components of a pacemaker

A

Generator, leads, electrodes

118
Q

Two PTs, one with a BMI of 20 and BMI with a BMI OF 30

Which pt will give you an image with less contrast

A

BMI of 30

118
Q

Cyonotic

A

W/o oxygen. (Blue)

118
Q

What is the intrinsic rate of the AV node

A

40-60. BPM

118
Q

Define capture

A

When the heart response to the pacer

118
Q

What is the purpose of a biventricular pacemaker.

A

Timing between right and left ventricle

118
Q

What does the second letter in pacemaker coding mean

A

Chamber in which the pacer is sensing the hearts natural intrinsic activity

118
Q

What does pulse width represent

A

MA and time

118
Q

Ostium secundum ASD

A

Most common. Occurs in the center of septum. A variant of this is a PFO and is very small.

118
Q

What does the first letter in pacemaker coding mean

A

Chamber being paced

118
Q

Ostium Primum ASD

A

2nd most common type and is located in the lower portion of the atrial septum. This type will often have a mitral valve defect associated with that called mitral valve cleft. A mitral valve cleft is a slit like or elongated hole in one of the leaflets

118
Q

What is sensing threshold measured in

A

Milli volts

118
Q

What is the intrinsic rate of the bundle of his

A

40– 60 BPM

118
Q

What is the intrinsic rate of the Purkinje fibers

A

20–40 BPM

119
Q

True or false

Collimating reduces the skin dose

A

True

120
Q

What is a safe distance to stand back from xray

A

6ft

120
Q

Define isocenter

A

The position at which the object being imaged remains in the center of the field view, minimizing table height and table movement

Isocenter minimizes the need to reposition the patient when the intensifier is rotated

121
Q

What is the best way to minimize radiation dose

A

Decrease time

122
Q

True or false

Collimating reduces scatter radiation

A

True

123
Q

What are the 2 components of an X-ray tube

A

Cathode (-)

Anode (+)

124
Q

What is the best view to minimize radiation

A

AP

125
Q

Two exactly identical patients, same BMI:
Patient #1 image from LAO 60, cranial 30
Patient #2 image from LAO 30

Which image will give clearer detail

A

Patient #2

126
Q

Two exactly identical patients, same BMI:
Patient #1 image from LAO 60, cranial 30
Patient #2 image from LAO 30

Which view will result in more scatter

A

Patient #1

127
Q

Which imaging delivers a higher amount of energy to the patient? Flouro imaging or Cine imaging?

A

Cine

128
Q

True or false

Collimating reduces total radiation to the patient

A

True

129
Q

True or false

0.5 mm lead equivalent or protection provides approx. 95% shielding from X-ray scatter.

A

True

130
Q

True or false

Collimating improves image quality

A

True

131
Q

True or false

Dose is the amount of energy absorbed by tissue from the X-ray beam

A

True

132
Q

True or false

Collar badges give a good measurement of eye exposure

A

True

133
Q

True or false
An object can be delineated in an image only if the X-ray absorbance is sufficiently different from That of it’s surrounding structures to produce different exit beams intensity.

A

T

134
Q

True or false

As X-ray passes through a person there is less available to the deeper tissues.

A

True

135
Q

What is a good sign of an ostial lesion

A

Lack of reflux

136
Q

Which imaging results in an image with more noise. Cine or flouro

A

Flouro

137
Q

The best view for visualization of a stent

  • LAO 60, cranial 30
  • LAO 30, cranial 0
A

LAO 30, cranial 0

Which ever view is closest to AP

138
Q

True or false

Cine acquisition generates a lower dose to the pt than flouro imaging

A

False

139
Q

Why do you give nitroglycerin during an MI

A

Nitroglycerin dilates the veins so more blood is stored in them which decreases preload causing the heart to work less giving it a break

140
Q

Osmolality

A

of particles , increase Osmolality = increased pulling power of fluid out of anatomy

141
Q

Damping

A

Sustoly goes down

142
Q

Hypertonic

A

of particles

143
Q

What piece of anatomy does the circumflex always lie next to.

A

The spine

144
Q

What do you do with the BP cuff and mammary arteries

A

Ipsilateral side (same side)

145
Q

Name the components of the LCA

A 
LAD
  - Septals
  - Diagonals 
CIRCUMFLEX
  - marginals
146
Q

Name the components of the RCA

A

Conus
Acute marginal
PDA

147
Q

Ventricularization

A

Small decrease in systolic pressure and a significant decrease in diastolic pressure. Almost gets even with LVEDP

Same principle as a wedge balloon. The catheter gets wedges and measures capillary pressure

150
Q

Generally how many ml of contrast does it take to fill the LCA

A

7-10 ml

151
Q

T or F. The benefit of advancement of a catheter over a guide wire is reducing trauma to arch atheroma off sets the risk of introducing debris,clot,or air into the aortic arch by performing the first catheter flush in the ascending aorta.

A

T

152
Q

When the spine is on the right side what view does this indicate

A

LAO

153
Q

When the spin is on the left side of an X-ray what view does this indicate

A

RAO

154
Q

T or F complications at the procedure site are the most common problems seen after a cardiac cath procedure

A

T

155
Q

T or F. The main cause for catheterization related strokes is embolic

A

T

156
Q

What is the avg size of a circ.

A

3.4 mm

157
Q

What is the avg Size of a Left Main

A

4.5 mm

158
Q

How many mm is a 6f catheter tip

A

2 mm

159
Q

Generally how many ml of contrast does it take to fill the RCA

A

4-8 ml

160
Q

What is the avg flow rates of a hand injection

A

2-4 ml /sec

161
Q

What is the avg size of an RCA

A

2.8 mm

162
Q

True or false. A significant rise in the PA pressure mean or diastolic pressure should prompt temporary suspension of angiography to prevent pulmonary edema

A

True

163
Q

T or F. The risk of stroke is higher with an intervention

A

T

164
Q

T or F. Vigorous or hard injection despite a dampened or ventricularized pressure waveform predisposes a patient to vfib or dissection of the proximal coronary artery

A

T

165
Q

T or F. Procedure site complications are the single greatest source of procedure related morbidity.

A

T

166
Q

True or false. The diagonal branches supply the anterior lateral free wall of the LV

A

True

167
Q

Is dampening more common in the LCA or RCA

A

RCA

168
Q

T or F most common grafts to LCA arise from the left anterior surface of the aorta

A

T

169
Q

T or F. Grafts to the RCA usually originate from the right anterior surface of the AO

A

T

170
Q

Is Ventricularization more common in the RCA or LAD

A

LAD

171
Q

Do the RCA and circumflex coronary arteries run between The AV sulcus or the intraventricular sulcus

A

A V sulcus

172
Q

True or false. Cannulation of the RIMA my be difficult because of the need to avoid right internal carotid artery

A

True

173
Q

True or false. The conus branch supplies the AV outflow tract

A

True

174
Q

True or false the acute marginal supplies the free wall of the LV

A

True

176
Q

What size is this one wire

A

0.25 or smaller

177
Q

True or false. The obtuse marginal supplies the lateral free wall of the LV

A

False

178
Q

What is the best wire to Cross a stenotic valve

A

Straight wire

179
Q

What is the Rotablator wire size

A

.009

180
Q

Where would you position the wire in relation to the lesion

A

2 to 3 cm

181
Q

What catheter is best used for LV angiogram

A

Multi- hole catheters

182
Q

Which solution are myocardial biopsy samples placed in

A

Formalin

183
Q

How long can a wire/catheter be left in place before removing it to wipe it and flush it

A

2-3 mins.

184
Q

If a patient has an LV aneurysm should an LV angiogram be performed

A

No, there’s usually a clot in the aneurysm

185
Q

What is the best way to view an aortic dissection

A

LAO or LAO cranium

186
Q

What are the indications for a pacemaker

A

Sick sinus syndrome, AV conduction delays due to handling in surgery - handling of the heart can sometimes cause disturbance in conduction system

188
Q

When would you not use a balloon pump

A

Aortic regurgitation, aortic aneurysm

189
Q

How should a sterile pack be open

A

Away first

190
Q

Where should A balloon pump be placed

A

Above the renals and below the subclavian

191
Q

If a patient’s white blood count is high would use A closure device

A

Out

192
Q

What chemical is used for sterilization

A

Ethylene oxide

193
Q

What is asynchronous or fixed pacemaker

A

Set rate and doesn’t check patient’s own heart rate

194
Q

What is the intrinsic rate of the SA node

A

100–115 Bpm (60-80)

195
Q

What does a balloon pump to

A

Decreased afterload, increase coronary perfusion, increase stroke volume, increase cardiac output, decrease extent of an M I

196
Q

Does a balloon pump and inflate from the top-down or bottom-up

A

From the bottom up

197
Q

How does the swan fanzine catheter work.

A

There is a temp sensor on the tip of the catheter. It is placed in the PA. the injection port is 30 cm from the tip and is placed in the RA. Room temp. Saline is injected into the RA. The sensor read the temp change and how long it takes to go back to normal

198
Q

The side port on a swan ganz catheter is how far from the tip

A

30 cm

199
Q

Is the balloon pump inflation during diastole or systole

A

Diastole

200
Q

Does the balloon pump deflate from the top down or from the bottom up

A

It deflates from the top down creating a vacuum to pull oxygenated blood from the LV which increases stroke volume and cardiac output making the heart rate go down so the heart can rest

201
Q

When would you use a balloon pump

A

Large MI, cardiogenic shock

202
Q

What is in Allen’s test

A

The Allen’s test is performed during radial artery heart caths to make sure that the hand has adequate blood flow through the ulner artery during the test.
Is done by holding pressure on the ulner and radial artery while simultaneously having O2 oxygen sat hooked up to the hand until oxygen saturation reads zero. Then remove pressure from ulner artery to see if oxygen saturation returns

203
Q

ASD

A

Acyonotic problem allowed oxygenated blood flow to escape to deoxygenated system

204
Q

If the patient has aortic insufficiency does the hold time increase or decrease

A

Increase

205
Q

What do you look for during cardiovascular assessment

A

Check pulses bilaterally, if patient can’t breeze lying flat ejection fraction could be low, be careful how much food is given. If Neck veins are distended while setting up 30° or higher than the right heart pressures are high

206
Q

How is the battery preserved on a pacemaker

A

Ma and time are set as low as possible

207
Q

If the transducer is too low will the PTs pressure read higher or lower than normal

A

Higher

208
Q

Acyonotic

A

With oxygen

209
Q

What allergy do you check for before a right heart cath

A

Latex allergy, the balloon is made of latex

212
Q

Sinus venous ASD

A

A sinus venous defect is the least common type of ASD, often has an abnormal pulmonary vein connection associated with it. 4 pulm veins. 2 from rt lung and 2 from lt lung normally return red blood to the left atrium. Usually with a sinus Venus ASD, A pulmonary vein from the right lung will be abnormally connected to the right atrium instead of the left atrium. This is called an anomalous pulmonary vein

213
Q

What is Truncus arteriosis

A

Rv and LV share the aortic trunk

214
Q

Define threshold

A

Lowest Amount of electricity needed for the heart to respond, delivers the lowest amount of electricity to increase battery life

215
Q

T or F Every muscle fiber has the same threshold. As muscle enlarges the amount of electricity required to go through it increases

A

T

216
Q

What is a synchronous or demand pacemaker

A

Senses whether patient will produce a beat, if not, it will in order to keep a certain rate

221
Q

First-degree AV heart block

A

PR interval measures greater than .20
The conduction delay takes place in the AV node
Patients are usually asymptomatic

222
Q

Two PTs, one with a BMI of 20 and one with a BMI OF 30

Which pt generates more scatter?

A

Bmi of 30

223
Q

What are the 4 things associated with tetrology of fallot

A

Pulmonic stenosis.
Overriding AO
RVH
VSD

225
Q

What is a normal PR interval

A

.12–.20

226
Q

What is the P-wave representing in the QRS

A

The signal moving from the SA node to the AV node

227
Q

What are the AC LS monophasic defibrillator settings

A

200–300 – 360

228
Q

What is a QRS

A

The signal moving from the AV node through the bundle of His, down the bundle branches and out the Purkinje fibers

229
Q

What does the T-wave represent on an EKG

A

Represents the ventricle returning to its relaxed state

230
Q

Define atrial fibrillation

A

Chaotic electrical activity in the atria without organize P waves. No smooth Atrial contraction only quivering of the atria. Irr regular rate of the QRS

231
Q

What is a normal QRS interval

A

.08–.12

232
Q

What are the symptoms of SVT

A

Blood pressure dropping, sweating, shortness of breath, lightheadedness, fainting, sometimes chest pain.

233
Q

How would you treat symptomatic supraventricular tachycardia

A

Sedation and immediate synchronize cardioversion

234
Q

Second degree heart block type one. (Wenchbach)

A

P waves occurs regularly however the PR interval increases progressively until one P-wave is not conducted through the AV node. This drops the QRS making the QRS rhythm irregular
Not dangerous. PTs may complain of palpitations or skipped beats

235
Q

Second degree heart block type 2 ( mobitz 2)

A

The pr interval remains constant

Some p waves fail to conduct to the ventricle and generate a QRS complex

High risk of progression to complete heart block

236
Q

3rd degree heart block or complete heart block. Also know as AV Dissociation

A

Atria and ventricles be independently of one another meaning the atria and ventricles are controlled by independent pacemakers.

  1. The P2P and the R-R interval will be regular and consistent
  2. The relationship between the P waves and the R waves are irregular
  3. The atrial rate(60-80) is usually greater than the ventricular rate(20-40)
  4. QRS maybe wide or narrow, depending on the origin of the ventricular focus
  5. The danger in third degree heart block : ventricular contraction will not always be preceded by an atrial contraction. Hence, the ventricles are not guaranteed to contain enough blood for a detectable contraction
237
Q

Automaticity

A

Ability to create impulse without external impulse

238
Q

Reografin

A

Too many particles, pulled fluid out of every cell in conduction system. Cells would not be able to act and asystole would result. Did same to GI and would cause vomiting

240
Q

Define synchronize cardioversion

A

Electrical energy discharge from the defibrillator is synchronize with the large R or S wave of the QRS complex. Synchronization times the electricity in the early part of the QRS complex avoiding energy delivery in the early phase of repolarization when ventricular fibrillation can easily be induced

241
Q

How do you test a defibrillator

A

Discharge into a dummy load

242
Q

Define supraventricular tachycardia

A

Any rapid heart rate generated above the ventricles

246
Q

LAD views

A

RAO caudal - LM/ prox. LAD and CIrc
- RAO cranial - mid and distal LAD
-LAO cranial - mid and distal LAD
LAO - LM , prox. Circ

247
Q

RCA views

A

LAO - prox RCA

-RAO - cranial PD

269
Q

What catheters would use for high takeoff

A

Amplatz, JL4,JL5

280
Q

How should a cutting balloon be inflated

A

One ATM per 5 seconds.

Deflate the same way

329
Q

Define defibrillation or unsynchronized cardioversion

A

unsynchronized discharge of energy to an unorganized rhythm. For example. V-fib

330
Q

How many cm in 1inch

A

2.54

331
Q

What’s the formula to covert Celsius to Fahrenheit and vice versa

A

°F to °C Deduct 32, then multiply by 5, then divide by 9

°C to °F Multiply by 9, then divide by 5, then add 32

334
Q

Define ventricular fibrillation

A

Uncoordinated contraction of the ventricles

  1. Most common cause of sudden-death
  2. Requires defibrillation, also known as an unsynchronized cardioversion

Cardiology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions