RC Respirology Flashcards

1
Q

What is an abnormal pulsus paradoxus?

A

> /10 mmHg between inspiration and expiration

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2
Q

DDX for abnormal pulsus

A

Tamponade
Asthma exacerbation
COPD exacerbation
Constrictive pericarditis
PE
Morbid obesity

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3
Q

Effects of hyperoxia on respiratory system

A

Hypercapnia, CO2 retention
Direct O2 toxicity from ROS - interstitial and alveolar edema due to leaky capillary endothelium, hyperoxic bronchitis
Absorption atelectasis
Instability of units with low V/Q ratios causing shunt
Retinopathy of prematurity (not respiratory)

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4
Q

Benefits of HFNC in patients with respiratory failure

A

Heated and humidified - reduces WOB, allows secretion clearance
Provides PEEP - decreases WOB, prevents atelectasis
Provides PEEP - prevents atelectrauma
High flows - washours out upper airway dead space, reliable FiO2 delivery due to minimal entrainment, decreases upper airway resistance

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5
Q

Who should have extubation to HFNC

A

Extubation of surgical patients
Extubation of non surgical patients at low/mod risk of extubation failure

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6
Q

Sources of physiological shunt

A

Bronchial arteries emptying into pulmonary veins
Thebesian veins emptying into left ventricle
Functional shunt: V/Q <1

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7
Q

Limitations/assumptions of the shunt equation

A

CcO2 = CAO2 = perfect diffusion between alveoli and capillaries
We assam PcO2 = PAO2 (from alveolar gas equation)
We assume that SaO2 = 1

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8
Q

Differences between central and mixed venous gas

A

ScvO2 = central line, normal is 65-70% (>80% (high PaO2 or left to right shunt) vs <65% (impaired tissue oxygenation))
SvO2 = pulmonary artery, normal is 60-65%

basically ScvO2 should have higher O2 because it doesn’t get the low O2 blood from the SVC

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9
Q

DDX for high O2 Extraction Ratio

A

Sepsis, fever
Shock
Seizures
Hyperthyroidism
Hypoxemia
Anemia

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10
Q

DDX for low O2 Extraction Ratio

A

Hypothyroidism
Hypothermia
Sedation
Mitochondrial dysfunction in sepsis
Cyanide toxicity
Hyperbaric oxygen
Hyperoxia
Polycythemia

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11
Q

Impact of Positive Pressure Ventilation on the heart

A

Decreased preload to RV and LV
Increased afterload to RV, decreased afterload to LV
Overall, decreased SV and CO, decreased cardiac work

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12
Q

Impact of Positive Pressure Ventilation on dead space

A

Increased zone 1 respiration with high V/Q areas

Increases both alveolar and anatomic dead spaces
Lung volume is raised resulting in radial traciton on the airways increasing volume of anatomic dead space
Raised airway pressures divert blood flow away from ventialated regions causing high v/q ratio or even unperfused areas
Most common in uppermost regions of the lung.
Capillaries pressures fall below airway pressure and they collapse

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13
Q

Different Ventilator modes and settings

A

Assisted= mandatory patient triggered
Controlled= mandatory Time/volume triggered
Supported= spontaneous (patient triggered) flow terminated
PCV- you set inspiratory pressure. Volume will vary
VCV - you set TV peak flor and flow pattern. Pressure will vary
PSV - (Spontaneous Pressure Support Ventilation) al breaths supported (whatever TV the patient generates)
ASV - set EPAP, PS mirrors ventilation (higher at low flow periods)
SIMV (synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation- set RR with either Volume or PRessure target), patient can do what they want in between the set breaths
APRV - airway pressure release ventilation - Bilevel ventilation where you set PEEP and plateau. rescue therapy for ARDS, helps with recruitment to help with oxygenation, spontaneous breathing (increased WOB), risk of volutrauma, risk of DH

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14
Q

What are PIP, Pplat, driving pressures, delta P, airway resistance

A

PIP: (peak inspiratory Pressure) P to overcome resistance (airways, ETT) and lung elastic properties, target <35
Pplat: P to distend alveoli, reflects compliance, target <30 cmH2O
Driving pressure: Pplat - PEEP
Delta P: PIP-Pplat, reflects resistance: both elevated within 5 means reduced lung compliance or chestwall/diaphragm/pleural. Only Elevated PIP means increased airway resistance
Airway resistance: PIP-Pplat/Flow

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15
Q

Types of Respiratory Maneuvers

A

Inspiratory hold → Pplat
Expiratory hold → intrinsic PEEP
Only in volume control

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16
Q

DDx of reduced peak inspiratory pressure

A

Air leak
Hyperventilation

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17
Q

What do changes to the volume pressure curve represent on a ventilator?

A

Slope = static compliance
Width = dynamic compliance and airway resistance
Bird beaking = over distension = turn TV down

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18
Q

What are Static and dynamic compliance on a ventilator?

A

Static: chest wall and lung tissue compliance
Dynamic: chest wall, lung tissue compliance and airway resistance

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19
Q

what is the DDX for sudden increase in mechanical ventilation in critically ill patients

A

Increased dead space - collapsed lung, mucous plug, mainstem intubation/dislodged
Increased demand - sepsis, fever
Pain, anxiety
Decreased compliance

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20
Q

Benefits of PEEP

A

Improve oxygenation -improve atelectasis/VQ, moves peripheral edema into interstitium
Lessens required FIO2 and O2 toxicity
Improves lung compliance - think of equation Compliance = delta V/Delta P
Prevent atelectrauma
Decrease WOB
Decrease LV work/afterload

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21
Q

Mechanisms of hypotension with PEEP

A

Reduced preload to RV and LV
Increased RV afterload, RV failure
Reduced LV compliance

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22
Q

Consequences of autoPEEP

A

Barotrauma
Dynamic hyperinflation
Decreased lung compliance
Decreased tidal volumes and minute ventilation
Increased WOB
Cardiac - decreased preload, decreased CO, increased PVR
Neuro - increased ICP due to reduced central venous return

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23
Q

DDX of increased autoPEEP

A

Increased airway resistance e.g. bronchospasm, kinked tube, clogged tube
Increased tidal volume
Increased respiratory rate
Increased I:E time or ratio
Decreased expiratory time
Increased inspiratory time
Decreased inspiratory flow rate

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24
Q

Treatment of autoPEEP

A

Treat bronchospasm or reason for resistance
Decrease respiratory rate
Decrease tidal volume
Decrease I:E ratio
Increase expiratory time
Increase inspiratory flow rate
Increase or add PEEP **
Permissive hypercapnia ** (reduce demand)
Sedation and paralysis if dyssynchronous, treat anxiety/pain ** (reduce demand)

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25
Q

Relative Contraindications to PEEP

A

High ICP
Hypotensive
RV failure
Right to left shunt
Barotrauma
Bronchopleural fistula

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26
Q

Causes for difference between PaCO2 and PETCO2

A

PETCO usually lower
Due to anatomical dead space

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27
Q

Causes of increased PETCO2

A

ROSC (increase by 10-20)
Effective CPR
Hyperthyroidism
Hyperthermia
Fever, sepsis
Hypoventilation
Bronchial intubation

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28
Q

Causes of decreased PETCO2

A

Hypotension, shock
Cardiac arrest
Hypothyroidism
Hypothermia
Hyperventilation
Apnea
Extubation, sudden kink

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29
Q

Ventilatory parameters for obstructive lung disease

A

Mode:volume (but no data > pressure)
FiO2: SpO2 88-92
PEEP: minimal, 5
RR: 10-12%
Vt: <8 mL/kg PBW
I:E target: 1:5
Permissive hypercapnia (pH >7.2, pCO2 <90)

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30
Q

Ventilatory parameters for ARDS

A

Mode: volume
FiO2: 88-95%
PEEP: Modest
RR: 25-35
Vt: 4-6 mL/kg/PBW
I:E target: 1:2
Permissive hypercapnia (pH >7.2)
Pplat </30 (mortality benefit)
Driving pressure </15 (mortality benefit)

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31
Q

Physiological benefits of permissive hypercapnia

A

Reduced autoPEEP
Reduce barotrauma
Decrease WOB

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32
Q

Rationale for permissive hypercapnia in ventilation

A

Obstruction - prevent autoPEEP
Restriction - low tidal volumes

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33
Q

Possible complications of permissive hypercapnia

A

Increased ICP
Decrease seizure threshold
Arrhythmias, irritable myocardium
Increased PVR 2/2 acidosis
Decreased placental flow

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34
Q

In addition to ventilator settings, what else do you have to take into consider in Mechanical Ventilation asthma?

A

Not opioids for sedation 2/2 histamine
Large ETT to reduce resistance
Consider inhaled isoflurane
Consider heliox
Consider Hodder’s maneuver
Consider ECMO

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35
Q

Characteristics of Heliox

A

Low density
Density is important in turbulent flow (large airways)
Viscosity is important in laminar flow (smaller airways)

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36
Q

Importance of the Winters Equation

A

Tells you what CO2 should be if appropriately compensated
Use this to determine goal Ve

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37
Q

Berlin’s criteria for ARDS - NOTE NEW CRITERIA!

A

Within 7 days of a known insult or worsening symptoms
Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema, not due to intravasc volume overload
Bilateral pulmonary opacities not explained by nodules, atelectasis, effusion, etc. (CXR OR CT, or lung ultrasound by trained professional) Seen in 2 quadrants (bilat or unilat)
Severity grading on PEEP 5
PaO2/FiO2<300
SpO2/FiO2 <315

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38
Q

Causes of ARDS

A

Inhalation exposures
Aspiration
Fresh water, salt water aspiration, drowning
Fat embolism
Reperfusion injury
Infections, pneumonia, sepsis
Pancreatitis
Transfusion reaction

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39
Q

Pathology of ARDS

A
  1. Early exudative: 1 week, high permeability pulmonary edema, proteinaceous fluid fills alveoli, hyaline membrane formation, pathology shows DAD
  2. Fibroproliferative: 2 weeks, interstitial inflammation, disordered healing, fibrosis
  3. Fibrotic: fibrosis, obliteration of normal lung architecture
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40
Q

Image findings of ARDS

A

Dependent opacities, consolidation
Bilateral, symmetrical

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41
Q

Ways to improve oxygenation in ARDS

A

Increase PEEP, mortality benefit in mod-severe
Prone positioning, 12hrs/day, PF <150 mortality benefit (It should be administered within 48 hours, evaluated daily and stopped within 48 hrs if possible)
Euvolemia
Steroids in some
Neuromuscular blockade
Inhaled NO
ECMO

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42
Q

Physiological benefits of prone positioning in ARDS

A

Improve V/Q matching
Improve secretion mobilization + drainage
Decrease compressive effects of heart

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43
Q

Indications for ECMO

A

PaCO2 >60 for >6 hours
PF <80 for >6 hours
PF <50 for >3 hours
Mechanically ventilated <7 days, BMI <40, age 18-65

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44
Q

Contraindications to ECMO

A

Disseminated malignancy
Known severe brain injury
Severe chronic organ dysfunction
Severe pulmonary hypertension

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45
Q

Complications of Positive Pressure Ventilation

A

Hypotension
Barotrauma
VALI
VAP
Airway complications e.g. stenosis, tracheobronchomalacia, fistula formation
Critical illness polyneuropathy, myopathy

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46
Q

Risk factors for barotrauma

A

High Pplat*
High PIP*
High PEEP*
Low compliance* e.g. ILD, COPD, overload

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47
Q

Maneuvers to reduce risk of barotrauma

A

Reduce RR
Reduce Vt
Increase expiratory time
Permissive hypercapnia
Increase sedation
Reduce PEEP

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48
Q

Benefits of tracheostomy

A

Reduced sedation
Phonation
Better secretion management, better mouth care
Allows mobility
Prevents laryngeal injury
Can leave ICU

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49
Q

Acute complications of tracheostomy

A

Bleeding
Surgical site infection
Dislodgement
Tube is kinged or clogged
Laryngeal nerve damage
Pneumothorax

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50
Q

Chronic complications of tracheostomy

A

Dislodgement
Trach blockage
Tracheal stenosis
Tracheobronchomalacia
Tracheoesophageal fistula
Tracheoarterial fistula

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51
Q

What is VALI?

A

Due to volutrauma
Alveolar overdistension
Presents with edema, hemorrhage, loss of compliance

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52
Q

Indicators of readiness to wean

A

Underlying resp condition resolved or improving/on active treatment
GCS >8
PaO2 >60 on FiO2 requirements <40% on PEEP <8
PF ratio >150
PaCO2 normal
Adequate cough
Not requiring frequent suctioning e.g. <q2 hours
Hemodynamically stable - minimal or improved pressor requirements

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53
Q

Abnormal RSBI (Rapid Shallow Breathing Index)

A

RR/TV >105
Predictive of failed extubation

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54
Q

Predictors of successful weaning during SBT

A

RR/VT = RSBI <105
Maintaining adequate ventilation
Maintaining adequate oxygenation
No signs of severe fatigue

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55
Q

Definition of extubation failure

A

Reintubation within hours-days

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56
Q

Risk factors for extubation failure

A

Age >65
Underlying cardiorespiratory disease
RSBI >105
Abundant endotracheal secretions
Weak or absent cough
Positive fluid balance in last 24 hours
Respiratory failure was for cardiac origin, PNA, neurological condition

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57
Q

Factors that may limit weaning

A

Reduced drive from over sedation or neurological problem
Underlying disease not yet resolved
Respiratory muscle weakness, deconditioning
Development of atelectasis, mucous plugging - poor/weak cough
VAP/VALI development
Oversedation
Under Sedation - anxiety, pain
Neuropathy or myopathy from prolonged intubation
Malnutrition - respiratory muscle weakness
Overnutrition - increased CO2 production
Cardiomyopathy, cardiac ischemia
Anemia

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58
Q

Clinical signs of failure during SBT

A

Anxiety, agitation, diaphoresis
Hypertension or hypotension - not between 90-180
Tachycardia - HR >140, arrhythmia
Tachypnea - RR >35 x 5 mins
Increased work of breathing - accessory muscle use, thoracoabdominal paradox
Fall in O2 (<90%), increase in CO2 - hypoxemia and hypercapnia
Stridor

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59
Q

What causes Right shift in the hb-dissociation curve

A

Increased CO2 (Bohr effect)
Increased H
Increased temperature
Increased 2,3 DPG

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60
Q

What causes Left shift in the hb- dissociation curve

A

Decreased CO2 (Bohr effect)
Decreased H
Decreased temperature
Decreased 2,3 DPG
Increased CO

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61
Q

Determinant of PaO2

A

PAO2 - POI2, PaCO2
Architecture of the lungs

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62
Q

Major determinants of SaO2

A

PaO2
Temperature
H
CO2
2,3 DPG

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63
Q

DDX for saturation gap

A

Carboxyhemoglobinemia
Methemoglobinemia
Sulfhemoglobinemia

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64
Q

DDX for lower SpO2 for given PaO2

A

Nail polish
Pigments, methylene blue
Poor circulation - Raynaud’s, peripheral vascular disease, shock
Hemoglobinemia - e.g. methemoglobinemia, sulfhemoglobinemia, thalassemia, sickle cell anemia, spherocytes etc
Motion or artifact
Technical factors

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65
Q

Clinical manifestations of CO poisoning

A

Headaches, decreased LOC, personality changes, headaches, seizures
Arrhythmias, cardiac ischemia
Cherry red skin and lips

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66
Q

Treatment options for CO poisoning

A

Supplemental oxygen
Hyperbaric oxygen
Eucapnic hyperventilation

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67
Q

Indications for hyperbaric oxygen in CO poisoning

A

Severe end organ sx e.g. MI
CO-Hb >/25%
CO-Hb >/15% if pregnant
Severe metabolic acidosis pH <7.1

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68
Q

Blood gas findings in CO poisoning

A

PaO2 normal
SpO2 normal
SaO2 decreased
CaO2 decreased
CvO2 decreased

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69
Q

Blood gas findings in cyanide poisoning

A

PaO2 normal
SpO2 normal
SaO2 decreased
CaO2 normal
CvO2 increased

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70
Q

Treatment for cyanide poisoning

A

Supplemental oxygen
Hydroxocobalamin
Nitrites
Avoid dialysis

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71
Q

Safe amount of lidocaine to prevent toxicity

A

5 mg/kg without epi
7 mg/kg with epi

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72
Q

Treatment of lidocaine toxicity

A

BZD
Lipid emulsion

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73
Q

At what pressure is O2 delivered at in hyperbaric O2?

A

2.5-3 atm

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74
Q

Contraindications to HyperBaric Oxygen Therapy

A

Pneumothorax untreated - absolute
Obstructive lung disease - relative
Blebs or bullous disease - relative

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75
Q

Indications for HyperBaric Oxygen Therapy

A

CO poisoning
Venous or arterial air embolism
Decompression sickness

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76
Q

Medications that can cause methemoglobinemia

A

Lidocaine, benzocaine
Methylene blue
Metoclopramide
Dapsone
Nitrates
Primaquine

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77
Q

Indications for methylene blue for methemoglobinemia

A

Levels >30%
Very symptomatic

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78
Q

Indications for intubation in someone with thermal/fire airway injury

A

Neck, facial burns
Laryngeal injury - Stridor
Tracheobronchial injury - cough, wheezing, melanoptysis
Paryncheal injury
Systemic toxicity e.g. CO poisoning etc

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79
Q

Broad categories for International Classification of Sleep Disorders

A

Insomnia
Sleep disordered breathing - OSA, CSA, OHS, Nocturnal Desaturation
Hypersomnolence
Parasomnias
Sleep related movement disorders
Circadian rhythm sleep wake disorders
Other

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80
Q

Definition of compliance with Sleep Therapy

A

4 hrs per night
At least 70% of nights in last month

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81
Q

As per CMA guide, which patients with OSA should not be driving?

A

Moderate-severe OSA, not compliant
Compliant but involved in MVC where they were at fault - x 1 month until compliance reassessed
Drivers admit to experiencing excessive sleepiness during major wake periods or while driving

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82
Q

As per the Ontario MTO, who should not be driving?

A

AHI >/30 in treated or untreated

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83
Q

As per CMA guide, which patients with narcolepsy should not be driving?

A

Uncontrolled cataplexy (on or off treatment) in the past 12 months
Uncontrolled daytime sleep attacks or sleep paralysis in the past 12 months
Generally no long distance commercial driving

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84
Q

For a commercial driver with OSA, what conditions need to be met for them to drive?

A

AHI <20
On effective treatment
Does not experience excess sleepiness during major wake periods

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85
Q

Which drivers do we screen for OSA?

A

Everyone should be screened with questionnaires, BMI and studies as needed
Recertified annually

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86
Q

When can commercial drivers be recertified?

A

PAP - one week, good compliance, good AHI, no sleepiness
Oropharyngeal surgery or trach - one month, good AHI, no sleepiness
Bariatric surgery - six months, good AHI, no sleepiness

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87
Q

Distribution of sleep

A

N1 - 5%
N2 - 50%
N3 - 20%
REM - 25%

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88
Q

Sleep spindle

A

Usually in N2
Fast burst 0.5-2s of 12-15 Hz activity

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89
Q

K complex

A

Usually in N2
Go up first, then down

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90
Q

How much theta waves do you require in N1/N2 sleep?

A

At least 50% of the epoch

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91
Q

How much delta do you need in N3 sleep?

A

At least 20% of the time

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92
Q

Other names for N3 sleep

A

Slow wave sleep
Deep sleep

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93
Q

Features of REM sleep

A

Low amplitude, mixed frequency
REM atonia → low chin EMG
Rapid eye movements
May see sawtooth waves

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94
Q

Sleep disorders during REM sleep

A

OSA worsens, CSA improves
Hypovent and hypoxemia in NMD or chest wall disorders (bc loss of accessory muscles during atonia) **

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95
Q

What does a short REM latency suggest? What are the causes of REM rebound?

A
  1. Narcolepsy
  2. REM Rebound
    2a. Depression
    2b. Medication withdrawal e.g. SSRIs, BZD, alcohol
    2c. REM sleep deprivation
    2d. Patients undergoing CPAP titration
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96
Q

Causes of REM suppression

A

SSRIs
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
Sedative hypnotic drugs, barbiturates
Antiepileptics
Alcohol

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97
Q

Medications stimulate breathing vs suppress breathing

A

Stimulate: theophylline, acetazolamide, progesterone, thyroid hormone
Inhibit: BZD, barbiturates, gabapentinoids, alcohol

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98
Q

Effect of aging on sleep

A

Decrease in N3
Increase in N1 and N2
No change in REM
Increased WASO - wake after sleep onset
More arousal
Lower sleep efficiency
Body’s clock shifts earlier

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99
Q

Physiological changes during sleep

A

Decreased BP, HR, CO (increase in phasic REM)
Decreased RR, VT, VE; RR generally increase in REM
PaCO2 increase 3-5 mmHg
PaO2 decrease 5-8 mmHg; SpO2 decrease 1-2%
Increased upper airway resistance

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100
Q

Minimum requirements for an adequate sleep study

A

At least 2 hours of sleep
Other normal values (not required): 80% efficiency, <30 mins sleep onset, <90 mins REM onset

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101
Q

Components of a PSG

A

EEG
EOG
EMG
ECG
Airflow (2)
Respiratory efforts (2)
SpO2
CO2 measurement

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102
Q

Ways to measure airflow

A

Oronasal thermistor - apnea
Nasal pressure transducer - hypopnea, RERA

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103
Q

Ways to measure respiratory effort measured

A

RIP belt (respiratory inductance plethysmography)
Esophageal pressure monitoring
Diaphragmatic EMG

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104
Q

When should patients with sleep apnea be followed up on?

A

Within 4 weeks if high risk
Within 6 months for all others

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105
Q

Who is a level II-IV sleep study appropriate for? What are Contraindications?

A

Moderate-high pretest probability
Do not suspect other sleep disorders
Do not have other comorbid diseases
Not a titration study

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106
Q

Criteria for moderate-high pretest probability of OSA

A

Excessive Daytime Sleepiness on most days with 2 of the following:
Snoring
Witnessed apneic episodes
Witnessed choking during sleep
Witnessed gasping during sleep
Diagnosed HTN

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107
Q

Criteria for comorbid/complicated disease

A

Cardiorespiratory disease
History of stroke
Respiratory muscle weakness, NMD
Suspicion for hypoventilation

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108
Q

Levels of Home Sleep Apnea Testing

A

II: Full PSG but done at home
III: airflow, effort, ECG, pulse oximetry
IV: pulse oximetry

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109
Q

Requirements that need to be met to be able to do split night study

A

Moderate-severe OSA based on at least 2 hours of recordings
3 hours available for titration

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110
Q

Definition of apnea vs hypopnea

A

Apnea: decrease in flow >/90% from baseline x >/10 seconds
Hypopnea: decrease in flow >/30% from baseline x >/10 seconds and accompanied by desaturation of SaO2 by 3% or arousal

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111
Q

Definition of obstructive vs central HYPOPNEAs

A

Obstructive: snoring, thoracoabdominal paradox, increased insp flattening of nasal pressure compared to baseline
Central: None of the above

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112
Q

Definition of mixed apneas

A

Starts out as central, then obstructive

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113
Q

Definition of a RERA

A

Increase in resp effort or flattening of nasal pressure waveform
Event causes arousal or desaturation without meeting appropriate criteria x 10 s

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114
Q

Definition of hypoventilation

A

Increase in PaCO2 >55 mmHg x 10 mins
Increase in PaCO2 by >/10 mmHg to a value above 50 mmHg x 10 mins

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115
Q

AHI vs RDI

A

AHI = Apnea + hypopnea/total sleep time
RDI = Apnea + hypopnea + RERA/total sleep time

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116
Q

DDX for EDS

A

Insufficient sleep
Sleep disordered breathing - OSA, CSA, Narcolepsy, etc.
Neurologic disorders - Parkinson’s, dementia, stroke, MS
Hypothyroidism
Adrenal insufficiency
Anemia, iron deficiency
CKD, renal failure, hepatic encephalopathy
Depression, other psychiatric conditions
Medications, substances

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117
Q

What medical conditions should make you think about screening for OSA?

A

OHS
Difficult to control HTN
Recurrent atrial fibrillation post cardioversion or ablation
Pulmonary Hypertension

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118
Q

Neurological control of upper airway muscles

A

Cranial nerves 5,7,9,10,11,12

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119
Q

Risk Factors for OSA

A

Smoking
Elevated BMI
Family history
Increased age
Male, post menopausal
Increased mallampati score
Tonsil or adenoid hypertrophy
Increased neck circumference
Retrognathia
Micrognathia
Macroglossia
Nasal abnormalities
Low lying palate
Hypothyroidism
Acromegaly
Neuropathy or myopathy

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120
Q

Mechanism of hypoxemia in OSA

A

Underlying lung disease
Baseline supine SaO2
Low FRC (e.g. obesity)
Duration of apneic/hypopneic episodes
Frequency of apneic /hypopneic episodes
Respiratory efforts in between apneic/hypopneic episodes

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121
Q

Possible complications of OSA

A

Hypertension
Coronary artery disease
Arrhythmias
Stroke
Heart failure
PH if concomitant OHS
Diabetes
Erectile dysfunction
Depression
Cognitive deficits
MVCs

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122
Q

Screening questionnaires for OSA

A

Berlin questionnaire
STOP-Bang questionnaire

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123
Q

Diagnostic criteria for OSA

A

Symptoms/complications + AHI >/5
AHI >/15

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124
Q

Severity of OSA

A

Mild: >/5 - 14.9
Moderate: 15 - 29.9
Severe: >/30

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125
Q

Positional sleep apnea definition

A

Supine AHI is at least double non supine AHI

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126
Q

Indications for PAP treatment in OSA

A

Moderate to severe OSA/ AHI >/15
Mild but symptoms (e.g. EDS), reduced QOL, or hypertension
Critical occupation

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127
Q

Starting pressure and max pressure for PAP

A

Start at 4 cm H2O
Switch to BPAP 15 cm H2O
Absolute max 20 cm H2O

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128
Q

Min and max pressures for BPAP

A

Min difference of 4 cm H2O
Max difference of 10 cm H20
Min pressure 4 cm H2O, Max pressure of 30 cm H2O

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129
Q

How to progress titrating to next pressure during titration study

A

> /2 apneic events
/3 hypopneic events
/5 RERAs
/3 mins snoring
Any of this within a 5 min period
Want >/ 30 mins without breathing event

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130
Q

Criteria for optimal titration

A
  1. Optimal: RDI <5 for at least 15 mins, supine sleep observed, REM sleep not interrupted by spontaneous arousals
  2. Good: RDI </10 or by 50% of baseline RDI if baseline <15, supine sleep observed, REM sleep not interrupted by spontaneous arousals
  3. Adequate: RDI not </10 but reduced by 75% from baseline or one in which above met but supine REM did not occur at selected pressure
  4. Unaccepted: None of the above are met
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131
Q

Causes of persistent sleepiness in OSA despite treatment

A

Non adherence/compliance
Additional medical condition
Additional sleep disorder
Treatment emergent central sleep apnea
Inadequate pressures/not fully controlled
Sleep deprivation/insufficient sleep

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132
Q

Once the other causes are ruled out, how can you treat patients with OSA who still have EDS?

A

Modafinil
Solriamfetol

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133
Q

Indications for modafinil in OSA

A

Ongoing EDS despite appropriate treatment
Concomitant narcolepsy
Concomitant circadian rhythm disorder
Certain occupations - shift workers (Temporary)

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134
Q

Methods to increase adherence to PAP therapy

A

Education
Humidity
Nasal mask vs. full face mask
Treatment of nasal congestion
Polypectomy
Oral appliance
APAP

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135
Q

Benefits of treatment (PAP, OA, MMA)

A

Improved AHI (all stages)
Improved symptoms: Definitely moderate-severe, unclear mild
Decreased BP: moderate-severe
PAP also improves responsiveness of Afib to tx, ?improve outcome after stroke

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136
Q

Contraindications to APAP

A

Chronic lung disease e.g. COPD
Previous UPPP (Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty)
Heart failure
Central sleep apnea
OHS/hypoventilation syndrome
Medications causing hypoventilation e.g. chronic opioid use
Neuromuscular disease, chest wall disorder

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137
Q

Treatments for OSA other than PAP

A

Positional therapy
Oral appliances
Surgery
Hypoglossal nerve stimulation
Weight loss

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138
Q

Indications for oral appliance

A

Primary snoring disorder without OSA
OSA but intolerant of or unwilling to try PAP (vs. no treatment)
To reduce PAP pressures
Not responsive to CPAP

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139
Q

Complications associated with OA

A

Dental malocclusion
TMJ pain
Gum pain
Drooling or dry mouth

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140
Q

Surgical options in OSA

A

UPPP (Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty)
Mandibular advancement
Tonsillectomy, adenoidectomy
Tracheostomy

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141
Q

Reasons to consider tracheostomy for sleep disordered breathing

A

Intolerant of PAP/high pressures
Cannot achieve control with other treatment
Other abnormalities prevent adequate mask fitting
Other reasons for tracheostomy e.g. craniofacial weakness
Patient preference

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142
Q

Main things you should assess on overnight oximetry

A

Mean nocturnal saturation (92)
Nadir SpO2
Time spent </88% (5 mins)
% of study spent <90% (20%)

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143
Q

Cutoffs for the Oxygen Desaturation Index

A

<10
10-30
>30

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144
Q

What is considered an oxygen desaturation for an ODI?

A

Reduction in SpO2 >/4% for >/10 seconds

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145
Q

Components of insomnia

A

Difficulty sleeping or maintaining sleep
Adequate opportunities for sleep
Affect functioning

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146
Q

PSG findings of insomnia

A

Increased WASO
Increased sleep latency >/30 minutes
Reduced sleep efficiency
Reduced sleep time <6-6.5 hours

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147
Q

Medical causes of insomnia

A

Medications e.g. stimulants, coffee
Psychiatric e.g. depression, anxiety
Neurologic e.g. parkinsons, dementia
Chronic pain, diabetes, HTN, cancer

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148
Q

Classification of central sleep apnea

A
  1. Primary central sleep apnea
  2. Primary central sleep apnea of infancy or prematurity
  3. CSA with Cheyne stokes
  4. CSA due to medical disorder without Cheyne Stokes
    - 4a. Central insult e.g. tumour, stroke, encephalitis, polio
    - 4b. Respiratory muscle weakness e.g. NMD, chest wall disease
    - 4c. Renal failure
    - 4d. Atrial fibrillation
  5. High altitude periodic breathing
  6. Treatment emergent central sleep apnea
  7. Medication or substance related
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149
Q

Medications that can cause CSA

A

Opioids
Benzodiazepines
Gabapentinoids
Antidepressants

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150
Q

PSG findings in general CSA

A

Cessation or reduction in ventilatory effort x >/10 seconds
Most common in N1/N2
No effort via RIP belt or diaphragmatic EMG
>/5 central events per hour and >50% of total events
Snoring and desats are less prominent than OSA

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151
Q

PSG definition of Cheyne Stokes Respiration

A
  • > /5 central apneas/hypopneas per hour associated with crescendo,decrescendo breathing in between
  • Number is >50% of total apneas/hypopneas
  • > /3 consecutive apnea/hypopneas
  • Cycle length 40-90 seconds
  • Recorded over min 2 hours
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152
Q

Diagnostic criteria of Cheyne Stokes Respiration (CSR)

A

Symptoms/predisposing condition (HF, neurologic dz, AF)
PSG criteria
Not better explained by other disorder

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153
Q

Cheyne Stokes Respiration vs. Central Sleep Apnea

A

Cycle length longer >40 seconds
Period of hyperpnea is longer
O2 saturation nadir is more delayed (prolonged circulation time)
Arousals during hyperpnea whereas at end of apnea with CSA

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154
Q

Causes of Cheyne Stokes Respiration

A

Heart failure
Renal failure
Central disease e.g. stroke, tumors
Medications e.g. sedatives

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155
Q

Pathophysiology of Cheyne Stokes Respiration

A
  1. Apnea
  2. Increased circulatory time
  3. Increased chemoreceptor responsiveness to CO2
  4. Increased loop gain - increase in response size
  5. Apnea
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156
Q

Pathophysiology of other CSAs

A

TESCA: obstruction relieved, CO2 falls, apnea, high loop gain
Altitude: increased vent due to O2, CO2 falls, apnea, high loop gain
Opioids: hypoventilation

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157
Q

Impact of CSR on HF

A

Increased mortality
Occurs in 30% of patients with HF

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158
Q

Treatment options for CSR

A

GDMT of HF, transplantation
Nocturnal oxygen
CPAP therapy - (not the other OSA tx) - BPAP used with caution bc can have same effect as ASV, so avoid
Phrenic nerve stimulation
?Acetazolamide, theophylline [limited evidence]

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159
Q

Benefits of CPAP in CSR

A

Improve AHI
Improve arrhythmias
May improve LV function

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160
Q

SERVE-HF trial

A

adaptive servoventilation (ASV) increased all cause mortality in HFrEF <45%
Contraindicated

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161
Q

Management of general CSA

A

Idiopathic → BPAP-ST, ASV, CPAP
CSA 2/2 hypoventilation → BPAP-ST, ASV > CPAP
Altitude → descend, oxygen, acetazolamide
Treatment emergent → expectant, ASV > BPAP-ST, oxygen, acetazolamide

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162
Q

Biot’s breathing

A

Hyperpnea mix with apnea
Associated with meningitis

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163
Q

Changes that occur to the sleep architecture with altitude

A

Increased WASO (Wakefullness after sleep onset)
Increased N1, N2
Decreased N3
Kind of like aging

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164
Q

Mechanism of action of acetazolamide

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Leads to increased bicarbonate excretion
Causes metabolic acidosis, stimulates breathing

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165
Q

Classification criteria for sleep related hypoventilation

A

Idiopathic central alveolar hypoventilation syndrome
Congenital central alveolar hypoventilation syndrome
Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
Sleep related hypoventilation due to disorder, medication, substance

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166
Q

Cause of congenital central hypoventilation syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant
PHOX2B gene mutation → loss of RTN

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167
Q

Role of obesity in OHS

A

Fat produces more CO2
Leptin suppresses respiratory drive
Altered respiratory mechanics

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168
Q

Indications for screening for OHS

A

BMI >30 with OSA (known or suspected)
BMI >30 with:
- Unexplained dyspnea
- Unexplained awake hypoxemia
- Pulmonary hypertension, signs of it
- Polycythemia, sx of it (e.g. facial plethoraX)
- Elevated bicarbonate

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169
Q

How do you screen for OHS?

A

Bicarbonate >27
Straight to PaCO2 if high pretest probability

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170
Q

Diagnostic criteria for OHS

A

BMI >30
Awake PaCO2 >45
Hypoventilation not explained by another disorder e.g. lung disease
(PSG is required to assess for OSA, not absolutely needed for diagnosis but almost always done)

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171
Q

Treatment of OHS

A

AHI >30 → CPAP first
AHI <30 → BIPAP-ST
No OSA → BiPAP-ST
Weight loss (25-50%), not sole treatment
If admitted with resp failure → BIPAP-ST> APAP until sleep study

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172
Q

Treatments that are associated with HARM in the management of OHS

A

Oxygen
Respiratory stimulants

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173
Q

Classification criteria for hypersomnolence

A

Primary
- Idiopathic hypersomnia
- Kleine Levin syndrome
- Narcolepsy
Secondary
- Genetic disorder
- CNS disorder e.g. stroke
- Parkinsons
- Post traumatic
- Metabolic encephalopathy

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174
Q

DDX of Sleep Onset REM Periods

A

Narcolepsy
Idiopathic hypersomnolence
Due to PD, post traumatic, genetics, central tumour, metabolic
REM rebound:
- Depression
- Medication withdrawal e.g. SSRIs, BZD, alcohol
- REM sleep deprivation
- Patients undergoing CPAP titration

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175
Q

Requirement prior to MSLT

A

PSG the night before (NOT split night)
>/ 6 hours of sleep on PSG
Withhold REM suppressing medications x 2 weeks

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176
Q

Causes of narcolepsy

A

Idiopathic
Autoimmune, post infectious
Neurosarcoid
CNS - strokes, tumors

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177
Q

Features of narcolepsy

A

Sleep attacks during the day and EDS
Hypognogic
Sleep paralysis
+/- cataplexy

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178
Q

PSG/MSLT features of narcolepsy

A

Mean sleep onset latency </8 minutes
>/2 SOREMPs </15 mins
Loss of REM atonia
Increased N1 sleep
Reduced sleep efficiency, spontaneous awakenings

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179
Q

Drug categories used in treatment of narcolepsy

A

Selective DA reuptake inhibitor
- Modafinil
Selective NE and DA reuptake inhibitor
- Methylphenidate
- Solriamfetol
Other
- Sodium oxybate: GHB
- Venlafaxine for cataplexy

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180
Q

Conditions that are associated with REM sleep behavior disorder

A

Parkinsons
MSA, other forms of dementia
Stroke, tumour
Narcolepsy
SSRIs

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181
Q

Treatment for REM sleep behavior disorder

A

Changes to make sleeping area safe
Melatonin
Clonazepam

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182
Q

Sleep disorders can occur secondary to Parkinsons Disease

A

Insomnia
Hypersomnolence
REM sleep behavior disorder
Restless leg syndrome
Excessive daytime sleepiness

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183
Q

Examples of opioid related disorders

A

Central sleep apnea
Hypoventilation
Obstructive sleep apnea
Insomnia

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184
Q

Causes of RLS

A

Iron deficiency
Pregnancy
Uremia
Parkinson disease, spinal cord disease, prolonged immobility
SSRIs + other meds
Family history

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185
Q

Scoring a PLM (periodic leg movement)

A

4 consecutive leg movements, 5-90 s apart
The movement is 0.5-10 s, 8mV in amplitude above resting EMG

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186
Q

Diagnosis of PLMD (periodic leg movement disorder)

A

Periodic leg movement index (PLMI) >/15 per hour
Not explained by another cause e.g. other sleep disorder

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187
Q

Diagnostic criteria for RLS

A

Uncomfortable sensation in legs/urge to move
Worse when lying down to rest
Worse at night
Made better/relieved by movement
Can cause concern/affect functioning

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188
Q

Treatment of RLS

A

Iron replacement (ferritin <75 → treat)
Gabapentinoid - pregabalin, gabapentin
DA agonist - pramipexole, ropinirole
DA analogue - carbidopa-levodopa
Opioids

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189
Q

Examples of circadian rhythm disorders

A

Advanced sleep phase syndrome
Delayed sleep phase syndrome
Irregular sleep-wake rhythm

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190
Q

Criteria for sleep related hypoxemia

A

SpO2 </88% x 5 mins
No hypoventilation

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191
Q

What innervates the respiratory muscles?

A

Diaphragm - C3/4/5
Intercostals - thoracic nerves
Abdominal - lumbar nerves
Upper airways - cranial nerves

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192
Q

Levels of neuromuscular disease

A

Cerebral cortex - stroke, cancer
Brain stem/basal ganglia - stroke, cancer
Spinal cord - trauma, MS
Anterior horn cell - polio, post polio, ALS
Motor nerves - ALS
NMJ - MG, LEMs
Muscles - muscular dystrophy

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193
Q

DDX for elevated Residual Volume

A

ALS
Mid-low c-spine injury

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194
Q

DDX for low ERV

A

Obesity
T spine injury

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195
Q

Measures of respiratory muscle strength

A

Sitting and supine VC
MIP, MEP
SNP
Sniff esophageal pressure
Phrenic nerve EMG
Sniff transdiaphragmatic pressure

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196
Q

Clinical manifestations of ALS

A

Bulbar symptoms
UMN symptoms: spasticity, hyperreflexia, extensor plantar
LMN: atrophy, fasciculations

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197
Q

Causes of nocturnal hypoxemia in ALS

A

Concomitant OSA (?CSA, mixed>OSA)
Concomitant hypoventilation - resp muscle weakness
Central hypoventilation (loss of cortical drive to breath)
Underlying lung (e.g. VQ mismatch due to microatelectasis), heart, PVD disease
Upward shift in ventilatory setpoint for PaCO2 by 2-3 mmHg

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198
Q

In hypoventilation due to muscle weakness, what is the progression of symptoms?

A

REM → NREM → daytime
Loss of accessory muscles in REM

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199
Q

What Monitoring every 2-6 months in ALS

A

Clinical symptoms
FVC sitting
Supine FVC, MIPS, MEPS, SNPs
Cough hx, PCF
Arterial blood gas/TcCO2 if hypercapnia suspected, or bulbar sx preclude PFT
Nocturnal oximetry/PSG if SDB suspected

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200
Q

Indications to start NIV in ALS

A

Orthopnea
FVC <50% predicted
Sitting or supine FVC <80% predicted with sx and other indicator of resp muscle weakness
MIPS or SNPS <-40 cm
Daytime PaCO2 >45 mmHg
SDB criteria (see figure)

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201
Q

Best predictors of death at 6 months in ALS

A

FVC <50% predicted
SNP <-40
MIP <-40

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202
Q

Benefits of NIV in ALS

A

HrQOL
Some physiological parameters e.g. slowing VC decline, daytime PaCO2
Mortality

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203
Q

What does not yet have a clear goal in ALS treatment?

A

Respiratory muscle training
Diaphragmatic pacing

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204
Q

Benefits of tracheostomy in ALS

A

HrQOL
Mortality

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205
Q

Medications should be avoided in myasthenia

A

Fluoroquinolones
Aminoglycosides
Macrolides
Beta blockers
Procainamide
Checkpoint inhibitors
Iodinated contrast

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206
Q

Treatment of MG

A

Maintenance - pyridostigmine
Flare - steroids, PLEX, IVIG

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207
Q

Lambert Eaton Syndrome vs. MG?

A

More proximal muscle weakness
More ANS abnormalities
Less bulbar muscle involvement

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208
Q

Respiratory risks/manifestations associated with GBS

A

Weak cough
Bulbar dysfunction - Aspiration pneumonitis, aspiration pneumonia
Respiratory muscle weakness - hypoventilation, atelectasis
Sleep disordered breathing
Dysautonomia and bronchospasm

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209
Q

Predictors of respiratory failure in GBS requiring mechanical ventilation

A

FVC <60% predicted
Onset to admission <7 days
Inability to stand, life arms up, life head off pillow
Presence of facial weakness
Inability to cough

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210
Q

Indications for intubation in GBS

A

20-30-40 rule (each as separate point) :
VC<20
MIP < -30
MEP < 40

Severe bulbar weakness, cannot protect airway
Respiratory rate sustained >30
Hypoxemia/SpO2 <92%
Hypercarbia >50mmHg
Hemodynamic instability

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211
Q

Treatment of GBS

A

IVIG, PLEX

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212
Q

What are the types of muscular dystrophy?

A

BMD (Becker)
DMD (Duchenne)- worse

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213
Q

Predictors of nocturnal hypoventilation in muscular dystrophy?

A

VC <40% in DMD
VC <60% in other muscular dystrophies
Therefore, screening PaCO2 in those with VC <40%

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214
Q

What are causes of unilateral vs bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis?

A

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215
Q

Most common cause of unilateral hemidiaphragm

A

Trauma
Idiopathic

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216
Q

Clinical manifestations of diaphragmatic paralysis

A

Exertional dyspnea
Orthopnea
Bendopnea
Sleep disordered breathing symptoms

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217
Q

Physical examination findings in diaphragmatic paralysis

A

Paradoxical motion in unilateral
Paradoxical abdominal wall retraction

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218
Q

Diagnostic tests to assess for paralysis

A

Imaging
Sniff test - ultrasound, fluoroscopy
Sitting and supine test
MIP, SNP
EMG of diaphragm, transdiaphragmatic pressure

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219
Q

Values of MEP/MIP that are concerning for diaphragmatic paralysis

A

MEP/MIP >1.5 for unilateral
MEP/MIP >3 for bilateral

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220
Q

Complications of diaphragmatic paralysis

A

Unilateral: occasional hypoventilation, atelectasis
Bilateral frequent hyperventilation, atelectasis, PNA, resp failure

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221
Q

Treatment of diaphragmatic weakness

A

Unilateral: plication
Bilateral: NIV, pacing

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222
Q

Indications for NIV for NMD in general

A
  • FVC < 80% associated with symptoms such as tachypnea and use of accessory muscles, tachypnea, excessive fatigue, excessive daytime sleepiness
  • SNIP < 40 mmHg
  • MIP < 60 mmHg
  • Daytime hypercapnia PCO2 > 45 mmHg
  • Nocturnal saturation < 88% for 5 consecutive minutes
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223
Q

Causes of kyphoscoliosis

A

Idiopathic
Congenital - spinal/vertebral malformations at birth
Cartilage disorders - Marfan syndrome, EHD
Bony disorders - e.g. osteopenia, osteoporosis
Neuromuscular disorders - e.g. muscular dystrophy, cerebral palsy, Charcot Marie Tooth
Post thoracoplasty

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224
Q

Risk factors for respiratory failure in kyphoscoliosis

A

Cobb’s angle >110 degrees
VC <45 degrees in surgically untreated (we start monitoring at VC <50%)
Concomitant NMD
Concomitant lung disease

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225
Q

Screening for NIV needs in patients with kyphoscoliosis

A

Once FVC <50%, we look for hypercapnic resp failure

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226
Q

Treatment of respiratory failure in kyphoscoliosis

A

Nocturnal NIV +/- O2
Nocturnal O2 if just hypoxemia

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227
Q

Benefits of airway clearance

A

Secretion clearance
Reduce airway resistance
Improve respiratory system compliance
Prevent atelectasis
Prevent pneumonia
Prevent respiratory failure, prevent need for trach or intubation
Decrease work of breathing

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228
Q

Markers of a weak cough

A

PCF <270 L/minute
MEP <60 cm H2O
Bulbar dysfunction
Expiratory cough flow tracing - absence of transient increase in expiratory flow (cough spikes)

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229
Q

Secretion management strategies in DMD

A

Atropine
Scopolamine
Botox injection into salivary glands (submandibular and parotid)
Salivary gland RT

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230
Q

Indications to start a cough support device in NMD

A

PCF <270 L/minute

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231
Q

Methods to enhance cough in NMD

A

Lung volume recruitment - glossopharyngeal breathing, bag valve mask
Manually assisted cough
Mechanical insufflation and exsufflation device

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232
Q

Contraindications to lung recruitment in NMD

A

Unconscious or unable to communicate
Increased ICP, severe TBI
SIgnificant hypotension
Pneumothorax, risk for barotrauma e.g. bullous disease
Hemoptysis
?Cannot protect their airway e.g. severe bulbar weakness

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233
Q

Contraindications to NIV

A

Loss of consciousness, unable to protect airway
Requiring intubation
Hemodynamic instability
Facial trauma or deformity
Hemoptysis
Upper GI bleeding, perforation or recent surgery

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234
Q

Causes of hypercapnia in patient with NMD on BPAP?

A

Non compliance or low duration
Pressures are not optimal
Disease progression
Underlying lung disease
Compensation for metabolic alkalosis

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235
Q

Other than BiPAP, other ways to optimize respiratory status in NMD

A

Cough assist
Secretion mobilization and volume
Daytime mouthpiece ventilation
Smoking cessation
Vaccination

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236
Q

DDX for a lymphocyte predominant BAL pattern

A

Lymphoproliferative disorders
Connective tissue diseases
Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia
Radiation pneumonitis
Sarcoidosis
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
NSIP
Drug induced pneumonitis

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237
Q

DDX for an eosinophilic predominant BAL pattern

A

Infections - fungal, PJP, helminthic
ABPA
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Eosinophilic pneumonia
Asthma, bronchitis
EGPA
Drug induced pneumonitis
Bone marrow transplant

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238
Q

DDX for a neutrophil predominant BAL pattern

A

Infection
Bronchitis
Aspiration pneumonia
UIP/IPF
Asbestosis
ARDS, DAD
Connective tissue diseases

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239
Q

What BAL value of lymphocytes is suggestive of granulomatous inflammation?

A

> 25%
50% is especially suggestive of HP or cellular NSIP

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240
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of drug induced disease

A

Eosinophilic pneumonia
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Organizing pneumonia
Occupational asthma
Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
ARDS
Drug induced sarcoid reaction, vasculitis and lupus
Bronchiolitis - obliterative bronchiolitis
Fibrosing mediastinitis
Pleural effusions
Pulmonary hypertension
Alveolar hypoventilation

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241
Q

RFs for development of amiodarone induced lung toxicity

A

Older age
>/2 months of therapy
>/400 mg oral daily
Total cumulative dose
High FiO2 administration
Underlying lung disease

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242
Q

RFs for development of bleomycin induced lung toxicity

A

Older age
Cigarette smoking
Higher doses (>400 units)
Concomitant radiation
Concurrent cisplatin or cyclophosphamide
High FiO2 administration
Underlying lung disease

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243
Q

RFs for development of nitrofurantoin lung toxicity

A

Older age
Female
Renal impairment

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244
Q

Medications that cause mediastinal lymphadenopathy

A

Phenytoin
Methotrexate

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245
Q

Benefits of O2 therapy in ILD

A

Resting hypoxemia: dyspnea, QOL, ?PH
Ambulatory hypoxemia: Exercise tolerance

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246
Q

DDx for ILD with preserved lung volume

A

CPFE*
Chronic sarcoidosis*
Chronic HP*
RB-ILD*
LAM
PLCH
Lymphangitic carcinomatosis
Heart failure

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247
Q

Important studies in the treatment of ILD

A

INPULSIS 1 and 2: nintedanib in ILD
ASCEND: Pirfenidone in ILD
SENSIS: Nintedanib in SSc-ILD
INBUILD: Non IPF fibrosing ILD
PANTHER: Steroids had increased mortality in IPF

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248
Q

Numerical cutoffs for surgical lung biopsy

A

FVC <55%
DLCO <35%

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249
Q

Possible adverse events post surgical lung biopsy

A

Prolonged air leak
Pneumothorax, hemothorax, pleural effusion
Infection
Delayed wound healing
ILD exacerbation
Requirement for intubation

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250
Q

Benefits of PR in ILD

A

Improved dyspnea
Improved QOL

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251
Q

Management of refractory dyspnea in ILD

A

Breathing retraining
Relaxation techniques
Fans
Body positioning
Low dose opioids

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252
Q

RFs for IPF

A

Genetics - TERC/TERT/MUC5B
Smoking
Environmental pollution
?Microaspiration

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253
Q

Definitions of familial pulmonary fibrosis

A

Fibrotic ILD in at least 2 related family members

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254
Q

Conditions are associated with UIP pattern

A

IPF
Familial IPF
CTD-ILD (SARD- ILD)
Drugs
Asbestosis
Chronic hypersensitivity pneumonitis

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255
Q

Radiographic pattern of UIP + associated level of confidence

A

Confident - 90%
Probable - 70 to 90
Indeterminate - 50 to 70
Alternative - <50%

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256
Q

Mediastinal findings that would suggest an alternative diagnosis to UIP

A

Esophageal dilatation
Pleural plaques

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257
Q

Type of biopsy is recommended for IPF

A

Surgical lung biopsy
Cryobiopsy

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258
Q

Histopathological findings in IPF

A

Subpleural and/or paraseptal predominance
Patchy involvement
Dense fibrosis with architectural distortion +/- honeycombing
Fibroblastic foci
Absence of features suggesting alternative diagnosis e.g. granulomas

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259
Q

Poor IPF prognostic factors on initial diagnosis

A

Older age
Male
FVC <50%
DLCO <35%
Greater extent of fibrosis on CT
Hypoxemia at rest or with exertion
Low 6MWT, especially <250 meters
Lower BMI
Certain comorbidities e.g. PH

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260
Q

Poor IPF prognostic factors on follow up

A

Absolute reduction in FVC by 10%
Absolute reduction in DLCO by 15%
Worsening fibrosis on HRCT
Worsening level of dyspnea

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261
Q

Poor UIP prognostic factors

A

IPF as opposed to secondary dx
Male
Older age
Heavy smoking
Poor baseline FVC
Poor baseline DLCO
Decline in FVC by 10%, DLCO by 15% over 6 months
CPFE
PH

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262
Q

“Appropriate clinical setting” for IPF?

A

Male
Smoker
>60 years old

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263
Q

Comorbidities that need to be managed in IPF

A

GERD
Pulmonary hypertension
Obstructive sleep apnea
Lung cancer

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264
Q

Therapies that improve survival in IPF

A

Antifibrotics: nintedanib and pirfenidone
Lung transplantation

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265
Q

Benefits of antifibrotics

A

Improve QOL
Reduce the decline of FVC
Reduce rate of exacerbation and hospitalization
Reduce the mortality

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266
Q

Requirements for antifibrotic initiation/who would benefit

A

Age >40
FVC >/50
DLCO >/30

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267
Q

Overall prognosis for IPF

A

Death within 4-5 years of diagnosis

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268
Q

Possible triggers for an IPF flare

A

Bad disease at baseline - low FVC, DLCO, 6MWD
Infection
Pulmonary embolism
Aspiration
Lung biopsy, bronchoscopy, other procedures
Immunosuppressive therapy

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269
Q

Prognosis of an IPF flare

A

50-90% in hospital mortality
Median survival 3-4 months

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270
Q

Diagnostic criteria for IPF flare

A

Acute respiratory deterioration
<1 month in duration
Bilateral GGO with or without consolidation on background of fibrosis
Not explained fully by another cause e.g. volume overload

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271
Q

Criteria for progressive pulmonary fibrosis

A

Need two of the three criteria
Need them to be occurring in the past year
1. Progression of symptoms
2. Decline in PFTs
- FVC >5% within one year
- DLCO >10% within one year
3. Worsening radiographic progression

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272
Q

DDX of PPFE (pleuroparynchymal fibroelastosis)

A

Idiopathic
CTD e.g. scleroderma
Chronic HP
Occupational exposures
Chemotherapy
Post HSCT, bone marrow, lung

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273
Q

Imaging findings in PPFE

A

Pleural thickening
Associated subpleural fibrosis
Concentrated in the upper lobes

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274
Q

Histopathological findings in PPFE

A

Upper zone pleural fibrosis
Subjacent intra alveolar fibrosis and alveolar fibroelastosis

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275
Q

Radiographic findings of CPFE

A

Emphysema in upper lobes
Fibrosis (usually UIP pattern) in lower lobes

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276
Q

Notable complications of CPFE

A

Lung cancer
Pulmonary hypertension

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277
Q

Diagnostic criteria for IPAF

A

Presence of interstitial pneumonia (imaging or pathology)
Does not meet CTD criteria
Exclusion of other etiologies
At least 2 of: clinical criteria, serological criteria, morphological criteria

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278
Q

Secondary causes of NSIP

A

Idiopathic
Connective tissue diseases
Drugs/medications
Exposures - hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Infections, including HIV

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279
Q

Radiographic features of NSIP

A

Basilar, peripheral OR diffuse
Cellular is GGO dominant
Fibrotic is reticulation, traction, bronchovascular bundle thickening +/- honeycombs
Subpleural sparing

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280
Q

Causes of drug induced sarcoidosis

A

TNF alpha inhibitors
Immune checkpoint inhibitors
HAART
Interferons

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281
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of sarcoidosis

A

Interstitial lung disease
Progressive massive fibrosis
Alveolar sarcoid
Tracheal stenosis, subglottic stenosis
Lower airway obstruction
Lymphadenopathy
Pulmonary hypertension

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282
Q

Mechanisms of PH in sarcoidosis

A

Interstitial lung disease
Cardiac disease e.g. cardiomyopathy
PVOD like lesions
Granulomatous inflammation and involvement of vessels → intrinsic sarcoid vasculopathy
Fibrosing mediastinitis
External compression of PA by lymphadenopathy
Portal hypertension

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283
Q

Non pulmonary manifestations of sarcoidosis

A

Neuro - hydrocephalus, aseptic meningitis, facial nerve palsy, small fiber neuropathy, optic neuritis, encephalopathy, psychosis
Ocular sarcoidosis - anterior uveitis
Cardiac sarcoid - cardiomyopathy, heart block, arrhythmias
Renal sarcoid - nephrolithiasis
Hepatic sarcoid - transaminitis, cholestasis
Hypercalcemia, hypercalciuria
Rashes
Other: spleen, bone marrow

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284
Q

Clinical features that make diagnosis of sarcoidosis highly probable

A

Uveitis
Optic neuritis
Lofgren’s syndrome
Lupus pernio
Erythema nodosum
Hypercalcemia or hypercalciuria
Bilateral hilar adenopathy
Perilymphatic nodules
Gadolinium enhancement
Parotid uptake
Osteolysis, cysts/punched out lesion

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285
Q

DDX for erythema nodosum

A

Medications e.g. OPC, TNF alpha inhibitors
Infections e.g. hepatitis B, streptococcus, fungal
Inflammatory e.g. sarcoidosis, IBD
Malignancy
Pregnancy

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286
Q

How does small fiber neuropathy present?

A

Paresthesias
Numbness
Pain
Autonomic dysfunction - palpitations, orthostasis, sexual dysfunction

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287
Q

How is Erdheim Chester syndrome differentiated from sarcoidosis?

A

BRAF V600 somatic mutation
CD68 marker on biopsy

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288
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of IgG4 disease

A

Lymphadenopathy
Nodules or masses
Interstitial lung disease
Fibrosing mediastinitis
Subglottic stenosis, tracheal stenosis
Pleural thickening
Pleural effusions

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289
Q

Diagnosis of IgG4 disease

A

Serum and BAL IgG4 can be suggestive
Biopsy definitive

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290
Q

Manifestations of cardiac sarcoidosis

A

Conduction e.g. AV block, BBB, tachyarrythmias, sudden death
Cardiomyopathy
Coronary artery disease from vasculitis

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291
Q

How do you investigate cardiac sarcoidosis?

A

Cardiac MRI (ATS suggests this first line)
Cardiac PET
Transthoracic echocardiogram

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292
Q

Lab findings in sarcoidosis

A

Anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia
Hypergammaglobulinemia
Hypercalcemia, hypercalciuria
Elevated rheumatoid factor

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293
Q

DDX for elevated serum ACE

A

Sarcoidosis
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Silicosis
Berylliosis
Asbestosis
Tuberculosis
Coccidioidomycosis
Hodkin’s lymphoma
Gaucher’s disease
Hyperthyroidism
PBC

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294
Q

Imaging findings in sarcoidosis

A

Perilymphatic distribution of nodules
Miliary nodularity
Lymph node enlargement, can have eggshell calcification
Galaxy sign
Garland sign
Progressive massive fibrosis
Signs of fibrosis - reticulation, traction, volume loss
Alveolar sarcoidosis
Lambda sign
Panda sign (parotid uptake)

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295
Q

Patterns of calcification often seen in sarcoidosis LN

A

Eggshell
Icing sugar

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296
Q

Cutoffs for CD4-CD8 count for sarcoid

A

<1 → highly unlikely
>4 → highly likely

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297
Q

Staging criteria for sarcoidosis ( and spontaneous remission %)

A

I: LN → 90%
II: LN and parenchymal changes → 70%
III: parenchymal changes →20%
IV: fibrosis → 0%

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298
Q

Diagnosis of sarcoidosis

A

Compatible clinical and radiographic hx
Non caseating granuloma
No other cause of non caseating granuloma

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299
Q

Pathological finding in sarcoidosis

A

Non caseating granuloma
Discrete, well organized granulomas composed of giant cells, histiocytes and surrounded by lymphoblasts
Granulomas distributed along lymphatics and bronchovascular bundles
Sparse surrounding lymphocytic infiltrate

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300
Q

Difference between HP and sarcoidosis pathology

A

Non caseating granulomas
Poorly formed, small, loosely arranged
Distribution around bronchioles
Inflammatory infiltrates found at interstitial sites distant from granuloma

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301
Q

Who can forgo lymph node sampling in suspecteted sarcoid?

A

Heerfordt’s syndrome
Lofgren’s syndrome
Lupus pernio

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302
Q

DDX for non caseating granulomas

A

Sarcoidosis
Sarcoid like reactions to malignancies
Lymphoma
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Berylliosis
IgG4 disease
PLCH
Erdheim Chester disease
GI diseases e.g. PBC, IBD

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303
Q

DDX for usually necrotizing granuloma

A

Tuberculosis, fungal infections, syphilis
Vasculitis
Rheumatoid nodules
GLILD
Bronchocentric granulomatosis

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304
Q

Sensitivity and specificity of biopsies in sarcoidosis

A

Endobronchial - 70% sensitive
EBUS - 80% sensitive; highest yield
Transbronchial

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305
Q

RFs for difficult to treat sarcoidosis

A

African american
Age >40
Progressive pulmonary involvement
Neuro, cardiac, eye involvement

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306
Q

Good prognostic indicators of sarcoid

A

Erythema nodosum
Lofgren’s syndrome
Stage I disease
Spontaneous improvement or resolution

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307
Q

Benefits of treatment in sarcoid

A

Improve sx/accelerate remission
Improve imaging
Increases risk of recurrence

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308
Q

Things need to be screened at baseline in sarcoid

A

CBC
Crea
ALP
Calcium, urine calcium, albumin
ECG
Eye examination

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309
Q

Things need to be followed up on in sarcoid BW

A

CBC
Crea
ALP
Calcium

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310
Q

Indications for treatment of pulmonary sarcoidosis

A

Reduced FVC, reduced DLCO
Moderate to severe pulmonary fibrosis
Precapillary pulmonary hypertension
Deterioration in symptoms, lung function or imaging on follow up - as per BTS, DLCO <65% or drop by >/15%, FVC >70%, or drop by >/10%

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311
Q

Indications for treatment of extra pulmonary sarcoidosis

A

Ocular
Neuro
Renal
Hypercalcemia
Cardiac

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312
Q

Treatment options for sarcoidosis

A

Glucocorticoids
Methotrexate
TNF-alpha inhibitors
Other: MMF, AZA, lef, JAK inhibitor, rituximab

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313
Q

Immune Suppressive Therapies that have RCT level of evidence in sarcoidosis

A

Steroids
MTX
Infliximab

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314
Q

How much steroids do you give them in Sarcoid treatment?

A

Steroid 20-40 x 4-6 weeks (0.25-0.5mg/kg) evidence 20 as good as 40.
Taper 6-18 months

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315
Q

Indications to add on second Immune Suppressive Therapy in sarcoid treatment

A

Progression of disease despite steroids
Steroid intolerant
Unable to tolerate steroids below 10-15 mg oral daily
Strong patient aversion to steroids
Presence of major comorbidities made worse by steroids e.g. DM, osteoporosis

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316
Q

Agents treat hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis

A

Steroids
Ketoconazole
Possibly TNF alpha inhibitors

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317
Q

Management of fatigue in sarcoidosis

A

Exercise training
Inspiratory muscle training
Methylphenidate, modafinil

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318
Q

Treatment of the skin manifestations of sarcoidosis

A

Topical steroids
Oral steroids, MTX (ok evidence)
Infliximab* best evidence

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319
Q

Treatment of Small Fiber Neuropathy in sarcoid

A

Symptomatic - gabapentin
TNF alpha or IVIG

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320
Q

Treatment of neurosarcoidosis

A

Steroids
MTX
Infliximab

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321
Q

Treatment of cardiac sarcoidosis

A

Steroids
Other IST, but not RCT

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322
Q

Poor prognostic variables in cardiac sarcoidosis that would help management decisions

A

Age >50
Ventricular tachycardia
NYHA III-IV
LVEF <40%
Echo evidence of abnormal global longitudinal strain
Interventricular septal thinning
Elevated BNP or trop
Cardiac inflammation by PET
Late gadolinium enhancement by MRI

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323
Q

Symptoms that would trigger cardiac work up in Sarcoid

A

Palpitations
Chest pain
Syncope, near syncope
Tachycardia, bradycardia
New ECG findings

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324
Q

Vision changes that would trigger a vision work up in Sarcoid

A

Floaters
Blurry vision
Visual field loss

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325
Q

Who would be “suspected” to have PH in Sarcoid?

A

Fibrotic lung disease
Exertional chest pain
Syncope
Prominent P2, S4
Reduced 6MWD
Desaturation with exercise
Increased PA diameter on CT
Elevated BNP

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326
Q

DDX of dyspnea disproportionate to lung function impairment

A

Cardiac sarcoidosis
Pulmonary hypertension

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327
Q

Benefits of steroids in pulmonary sarcoidosis

A

Improve symptoms (accelerate remission but increase risk of recurrence)
Improve or preserve QOL
Improve or preserve FVC
Improve radiographic disease burden

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328
Q

Clinical features are highly suggestive of HP

A

Female, non smoker
Relevant exposure history
Hx getting worse with exposure (4-8 hrs), better away.
Squawks on examination

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329
Q

Poor prognostic markers/increased mortality

A

Older age
Male
Smoker
Unidentified exposure
Ongoing exposure
Low FVC, low DLCO
Evidence of fibrosis, extent of fibrosis
UIP pattern on imaging, histology
Fibrotic NSIP pattern
Lower BAL lymphocytosis (<20%)

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330
Q

Difference of HP from silo filler’s disease and organic dust toxic syndrome

A

HP is granulomatous disease
ODTS and Silo Filler’s disease cause obliterative bronchiolitis

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331
Q

Inorganic causes of HP

A

Isocyanates - spray paints, polyurethane foam, insulation
HFA-134a - coolants
Drug induced - MTX, bleo, nitro

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332
Q

Organic causes of HP

A

Infectious - Mycobacterium avium, thermophilic actinomyces, aspergillus, bacillus subtilis
Animal proteins - bird serum proteins, droppings, feathers
Plants - wood dust, flour dust, seaweed

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333
Q

Usual lab findings in HP

A

Lymphocytosis (in BAL)
Neutrophilia, lymphopenia
Usually no eosinophilia

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334
Q

Usual radiographic findings in non fibrotic HP

A

parynchemal infiltration (GGOs, mosaic attenuation)
small airway disease (ill defined centrilobular nodules, air trapping)
Distribution (diffuse with possible basal sparing)

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335
Q

What are the usual radiographic findings in fibrotic HP

A
  • irregular linear opacities/coarse reticulations with lung distortion (may have some mild traction bronchiectasis and honeycombing)
  • distribution (random or mid lung zone predominante with sparing in the lower lobes)
  • ill definied centrilobular nodules/GGOs
  • 3 density pattern often in lobular distribution
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336
Q

Features of pathology for non-fibrotic and fibrotic HP

A
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337
Q

Preferred mode of biopsy in HP

A

Transbronchial in HP
Cryobiopsy in fibrotic HP
Surgical in both when the others fail

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338
Q

When is BAL for assessment of lymphocytosis recommended in HP

A

Recommended in non fibrotic HP
Suggested in non fibrotic HP
Depends on ATS vs. Chest

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339
Q

Treatment of HP

A

Observation- Antigen removal
Prednisone 0.5 - 1 mg/kg/day x 4-6 weeks then taper over 3 months
Steroid sparing agent
Antifibrotics

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340
Q

Steroid sparing agents that are used in HP

A

MMF
Azathioprine
Antifibrotics

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341
Q

Normal composition of pleural fluid

A

75% macrophages
23% lymphocytes
1% mesothelial cells
Rare PMNs and eosinophils
pH usually 7.6

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342
Q

Pressure of the pleura at FRC and at TLC

A
  • 5 cm
    -30 cm
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343
Q

Causes of transudative and exudative effusions

A
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344
Q

What are the 2 and 3 test rules for pleural fluid

A

Pleural LDH >0.45 ULN
Pleural Cholesterol >45
+/- Pleural protein >29

Note light’s (LDH>0.6 ULN, PleurProtein>0.5 SerumProtein, PleurLDH>0.6 SerumLDH)

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345
Q

Ddx for eosinophilic pleural effusion.

A

Blood or air in the pleural space
Medications
Fungal infections, parasitic infections e.g. paragonimiasis
ABPA
Malignancies
EGPA
BAPE
PE

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346
Q

Ddx for lymphocytic pleural effusion.

A

Post CABG, PCIS
Pseudochylothorax, chylothorax
Malignancy (including mesothelioma), lymphoma
Tuberculosis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sarcoidosis
Uremic pleuritis
Cardiac failure

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347
Q

What is the difference between lymphocytic and very lymphocytic?

A

> 50% vs >80%
Especially TB, lymphoma, RA

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348
Q

Ddx for neutrophilic pleural effusion

A

Empyema
Esophageal rupture
Acute or chronic pancreatitis
Pulmonary embolism
SLE can start out neutrophilic
TB can start out neutrophilic

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349
Q

Causes of low pH/glucose in pleural fluid

A

Empyema
Paragonimiasis
RA/SLE effusion
Malignancy related effusion
Esophageal rupture
Hemothorax

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350
Q

Causes of elevated pleural protein

A

Tuberculosis
MM, WM

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351
Q

How can you tell apart an exudative from pseudoexudative?

A

P:S albumin <0.6
S-P albumin >12 g/L
S-P protein >31 g/L

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352
Q

Medication causes of pleural effusion

A

Methotrexate
Nitrofurantoin
Amiodarone
Phenytoin
Ergot alkaloids e.g. bromocriptine
Dasatinib
Beta blockers

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353
Q

DDX for pleural thickening

A

Benign and malignant masses
Pleural infections
CTD causes
Pleural plaques
Post hemothorax
Post pleurodesis

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354
Q

DDX for pleural calcification

A

Pleural plaques, previous asbestos exposure
Mesothelioma (~20%)
Malignancy e.g. extraskeletal osteosarcoma of the pleura
Previous radiation
Previous infection e.g. TB, empyema
Previous pleurodesis
Previous hemothorax

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355
Q

DDX for positive pleural PET?

A

Malignancy
Infection
Autoimmune
Previous talc pleurodesis

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356
Q

Etiology of fibrothorax

A

Previous infection, empyema
CTD - e.g. RA or SLE related effusion
BAPE
Previous hemothorax
Previous pleurodesis
Drug reactions

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357
Q

Features of trapped lung

A

Transudate or borderline exudate fluid
Drainage results in pneumothorax ex vacuo
Initial (-) intrapleural pressure
Pressure falls rapidly bc extremely high elastance
No improvement in dyspnea with drainage

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358
Q

Management of Hepatic Hydrothorax

A

Salt and fluid restricted diet
Diuresis e.g. furosemide, spironolactone
TIPS
Transplantation
?Thoracentesis

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359
Q

Causes of pleural effusions post CABG

A

Early post CABG effusion
Late post CABG effusion
Post cardiac injury syndrome
Hemothorax
Chylothorax
Pneumothorax/hydropneumothorax
Parapneumonic effusion
Infectious mediastinitis
HF related effusion

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360
Q

How do you differentiate between early and late nonspecific pleural effusions?

A

Both are usually left sided
Both exudative
Early usually bloody, eosinophilic (or neuts)
Late usually lymphocytic
pH and glucose normal

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361
Q

How does PCIS present? (Post Cardiac Injury Syndrome)

A

Fever, pleuritis, pleural effusion
Exudative, lymphocyte predominance
Anti myocardial antibodies
pH and glucose normal

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362
Q

Pleural fluid characteristics of RA

A

Exudative
Glucose <1.6
Pleural to serum glucose <0.5
pH <7.3
LDH >700
Protein >30
Lymphocyte predominant
Cholesterol >5.18 mmol/L
RF elevated >1:320
C3/C4 reduced
Cytology shows multinucleated giant cells (tadpole sign)

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363
Q

How is SLE related fluid different from RA related fluid?

A

More symptomatic - almost always has pleuritis
Association with lupus flare
More likely to be bilateral
Requires tx with NSAIDs or prednisone

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364
Q

Causes of chylothorax

A

Idiopathic
Trauma
Surgery, especially esophageal
Lymphoma, metastatic adenocarcinoma
Tuberculosis
LAM
Yellow nail syndrome
Chylous ascites
Lymphatic malformations

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365
Q

Pleural fluid features of chylothorax

A

Milky white
Exudative
Lymphocyte predominant
TG >124 mmol/L or evidence of chylomicrons (lipoprotein electrophoresis)
pH, glucose, LDH normal

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366
Q

Pleural fluid features of pseudochylothorax

A

Milky white
Exudative
Lymphocyte predominant
Cholesterol >5.18 mmol/L or presence of cholesterol crystals

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367
Q

Causes of pseudochylothorax

A

Tuberculosis
Helminth infection e.g. paragonimiasis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Hemothorax

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368
Q

Treatment of chylothorax

A

Dietary changes (low fat, high protein)
Fat soluble vitamins
Chest tube (unless v small and asx)
May need somatostatin/octreotide
Sirolimus in LAM
Intervention/surgical

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369
Q

Triad in yellow nail syndrome

A

Yellow nails
Lymphedema
Pulmonary symptoms - sinusitis, bronchiectasis, recurrent PNA, effusions

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370
Q

Microbiology of pleural effusions

A

Staph aureus
Strep pneumo
GNB (pseudomonas, acinetobacter, klebsiella, enterobacteria)
Anaerobic bacteria (baceroides, fusobacterium, etc.)

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371
Q

Signs of pleural infection on CT scan

A

Lentiform shape
Split pleura sign (most reliable to differentiate from abscess)
Does compress surrounding lung
Obtuse angle with the pleura
Contrast enhancement
Hypertrophy of extrapleural fat

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372
Q

If you do not have pleural pH available, what else can you use as guide?

A

Pleural glucose <3.3

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373
Q

Things that affect the clinical outcome (need for sx, mortality) in pleural infections

A

RAPID score components
CT/US septations
Pleural contrast enhancement
Size >400 cc
Pleural fluid microbubbles
Increased attenuation f extrapleural fat

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374
Q

Things do not affect clinical outcomes in pleural infections

A

Size of tube
Causative organism

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375
Q

Components of the RAPID score for pleural fluid evaluation

A

Renal function
Age
Purulent - yes or no
Infection source
Diet - albumin

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376
Q

What does the RAPID score correspond with?

A

Mortality at 3 and 12 months

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377
Q

Indications for chest tube insertion

A

Empyema - pus, positive gram stain, positive culture
Very loculated
Very septated
Massive effusion (>50% of hemithorax)
pH <7.2
Intermediate pH but LDH >900

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378
Q

Complications of pleural infections

A

Bronchopleural fistula
Pleural calcifications
Pleural thickening
Empyema necessitans (pus extending into the chest wall, common with TB)
Fibrothorax

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379
Q

Antibiotic for treatment of parapneumonic effusion

A

Beta lactam + beta lactamase inhibitor
Ceftriaxone/FQ + metronidazole
Carbapenems
Clindamycin
Carbapenem + vanco if HAP
Duration 2-6 weeks

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380
Q

If needed, when is surgery ideally performed RE: pleural effusion?

A

Within day 3
Should not be favored over chest tube initially
VATS is preferred over medical pleuroscopy and thoracotomy

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381
Q

Surgical options

A

Drainage
Debridement
Decortication

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382
Q

Benefits of intrapleural enzyme therapy

A

Reduces volume on imaging
Reduces LOS
Reduces requirement for thoracic surgery

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383
Q

Indications for giving a reduced dose

A

Very hemorrhagic fluid at baseline
Disease with hemorrhage risk e.g. RCC with lung mets
Anticoagulation that cannot be stopped
Note: Anticoagulation increases risk to 10% (overall risk 4%) but half dose did not change risk

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384
Q

RFs for enzyme related bleeding

A

Concurrent administration of anticoagulation
Elevated RAPID score
Plt count <100,000

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385
Q

Sites of pneumomediastinum

A

Alveolar sacs (most common)
Tracheobronchial tree
Esophageal
Bowel rupture

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386
Q

Physical examination findings of pneumomediastinum

A

Hamman’s crunch (crunching with each heart beat or mediastinal crunch)
Subcutaneous emphysema
High pitched voice

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387
Q

Image findings of esophageal rupture

A

Pneumomediastinum - air around the mediastinum
Widened pneumomediastinum
Pneumothorax
Pleural effusion
Subcutaneous emphysema
Air under the diaphragm

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388
Q

Causes of primary pneumothorax

A

Asthenic body habitus
Subpleural blebs
Smoking - cigarettes, marijuana, snorting cocaine
Diving

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389
Q

Causes of secondary pneumothorax

A

Bullous lung disease
LAM
PLCH
COPD
Asthma
Bronchiectasis
Thoracic endometriosis
Ehler Danlos, Marfans

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390
Q

RF for tension pneumothorax development

A

Traumatic pneumothorax
Post CPR pneumothorax
On NIV or mechanical ventilation
Blocked or kinked chest tube
Hyperbaric oxygen treatment
Underlying lung disease

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391
Q

Mechanisms of hypotension in tension pneumothorax

A

IVC compression → reduced RV preload
RV compression → reduced LV preload
Increased LV afterload
Increased RV afterload

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392
Q

Imaging findings in a tension pneumothorax

A

Visible lung edge
Shifting of mediastinum, deviated trachea
Splaying of the ribs

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393
Q

Adequate size for intervention for a pneumothorax

A

> /2 cm laterally or apically on CXR
If using CT, any size that can safely be accessed with imaging support

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394
Q

Borders of the triangle of safety

A

Lateral edge of pectoralis muscle
Lateral edge of latissimus dorsi
Fifth intercostal space/nipple line/breast line
Base of axilla

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395
Q

High risk features in the treatment algorithm of pneumothorax

A

Underlying lung disease aka Secondary pneumothorax
Age >/50, smoking history
Bilateral pneumothorax
Hemopneumothorax
Tension pneumothorax/hemodynamic compromise
Significant hypoxemia

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396
Q

Indications of applying suction for a pneumothorax

A

The pneumothorax increases in size despite chest tube insertion
Fails to improve after 24-48 hours
There is persistent air leak

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397
Q

Percentage of pneumothorax that resolves per day

A

1.25 - 2.2% per day
Increased by 4-6X via oxygen

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398
Q

Indications for a surgical consultation in pneumothorax

A

Recurrent pneumothorax, ipsilateral or contralateral
First pneumo BUT:
- SSP and significant physiological compromise
- Tension pneumothorax/hemodynamic compromise
- Spontaneous hemothorax
- Bilateral pneumothorax
- Persistent air leak 5-7 days, or lung fails to re expand
- Pregnant
- High risk occupation

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399
Q

What surgical technique is preferred for pneumothorax

A

VATS > thoracotomy
Can do any: bullectomy, pleurectomy, mechanical pleurodesis, chemical pleurodesis

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400
Q

When would you consider non surgical but definitive management, e.g. talc slurry?

A

Unwilling to do surgery
Unable to do surgery
This is because surgical options more effective

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401
Q

Recurrence rate for pneumothorax

A

PSP → 33%
SPS → 13-39%
After first recurrence → 60%, after second recurrence → 80%

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402
Q

Causes of persistent air leak

A

Conditions: Pneumothorax, Barotrauma, Infections, Malignancies
Procedures: wedge biopsies, lobectomy, LVRS, trauma

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403
Q

Treatment options for persistent air leak

A

Treat underlying infection
Add suction
Second chest tube or bigger chest tube
Blood patch
Chemical pleurodesis
Surgical options

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404
Q

Recommendations re: activities post pneumothorax

A

No PFTs x 2-4 weeks
No flying until resolved at least x 1 week
No diving ever

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405
Q

Management of bronchopleural fistula volume of leak in a vented patient

A

Reduce Pplat
Reduce autoPEEP → increase expiratory time, reduce Vt, permissive hypercapnia

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406
Q

Causes of malignant pleural masses

A

Mesothelioma
Metastases
Lymphoma
Malignant fibrous tumour
Askin tumour
Sarcoma
Extraskeletal osteosarcoma

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407
Q

What type of malignancy is primary effusion lymphoma?

A

Usually diffuse large b cell lymphoma
Usually no associated lymphadenopathy

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408
Q

DDX for malignant effusions in patients with HIV

A

Lymphoma
Primary effusion lymphoma
Kaposi sarcoma
Other cancers

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409
Q

Most common causes of pleural metastases

A

Lung (adeno)
Breast
Lymphoma
GI/GU

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410
Q

Where in the pleural do malignancies usually start?

A

Mets - visceral pleura
Meso - parietal pleura

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411
Q

Non malignant causes of pleural masses

A

Solitary fibrous tumour of the pleura
Lipoma
Mesothelial cyst
Pleural endometriosis
Pleural plaques, thickening (not really masses)

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412
Q

What are the associated paraneoplastic syndromes with solitary tumour of the pleura?

A

Hypoglycemia, Doege-Potter syndrome (elevated IGF)
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

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413
Q

Concerning features of pleural malignancy on imaging

A

Thickness > 1 cm
Circumferential thickening
Involvement of the mediastinal pleura
Diaphragmatic thickening > 7
Nodular thickening

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414
Q

Sensitivity of pleural fluid for malignancy

A

Overall, 60%, increase by 15% with the second tap
Adenocarcinoma 80%
Breast 70%
Small 50%
Mesothelioma 30%
Squamous cell 20%

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415
Q

Definition of non expandable lung in MPE

A

> /25% of the lung is not opposed to the chest wall
Is based on CXR

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416
Q

Treatment for MPE

A

Aspiration has shorter LOS but more need for intervention
IPC vs chest tube with talc slurry or poudrage

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417
Q

Management of MPE in mesothelioma

A

Talc poudrage preferred
Other options IPC, slurry, PP

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418
Q

Benefit of MPE management

A

Improved dyspnea
Improved QOL

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419
Q

Agents for pleurodesis

A

Talc
Doxycycline
Bleomycin

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420
Q

Rate of spontaneous pleurodesis once an IPC is inserted

A

25%

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421
Q

Clinical factors suggest will gain improvement with IPC

A

Improvement after therapeutic thoracentesis
Rapid reaccumulation
Prognosis is >1 month
Supports to have home care

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422
Q

Possible side effects from pleurodesis

A

Chest pain
Fever
ARDS

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423
Q

Treatment of infected/loculated MPE with IPC inserted

A

Abx
Intrapleural enzymes
Intrapleural normal saline
Extra chest tube
Surgical - VATS, decortication

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424
Q

How long after asbestos exposure does mesothelioma occur?

A

~40 years after exposure

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425
Q

3 main subtypes of mesothelioma

A

Epithelioid
Biphasic
Sarcomatoid

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426
Q

Causes of mesothelioma

A

Asbestos (+ dose response)
Erionite fibers
Thoracic radiation
SV40 infection, other viral infections
Chronic pleural disease

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427
Q

Imaging features are concerning for mesothelioma

A

Pleural thickening with concerning features (see previous)
Presence of asbestos exposure
Local invasion - chest wall, mediastinum, diaphragm, ribs
Usually unilateral changes, usually right side predominance
Spreads along pleura and fissures
Starts at parietal pleura

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428
Q

Diagnosis of mesothelioma

A

Image guided biopsy
Medical pleuroscopy
Surgical pleuroscopy/VATS

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429
Q

Management of mesothelioma

A
  • Double immunotherapy - ipilimumab + nivolumab (previously was chemo, but studies show immunotherapy better)
  • Debulking surgery if candidate
  • Both improve survival
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430
Q

Poor prognostic markers in mesothelioma

A

Histology
Stage
Age
Poor performance status

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431
Q

Malignant causes of lymphangitic carcinomatosis

A

Cervical
Colon
Stomach
Breast
Prostate, pancreas
Thyroid
Lung

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432
Q

Diagnosis of lymphangitic carcinomatosis

A

Biopsy - TBBx or surgical

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433
Q

Histological findings of lymphangitic carcinomatosis

A

Obstruction and distension of lymphatics by tumour cells

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434
Q

Treatment of lymphangitic carcinomatosis

A

Treat underlying cancer
Steroids, but no clear data
Opioids for symptom control

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435
Q

How many segments are there in each lobe of the lung?

A

RUL: 3
RML: 2
RLL: 5
LUL: 5
LLL: 5

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436
Q

Equations for PPO lobectomy and pneumonectomy

A

Lobectomy PPO FEV1 = FEV1 x [1 - (resected segments/19)]
Pneumonectomy = PPO FEV1 = FEV1 x [1 - fraction of perfusion to resected lung]

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437
Q

Examples of important post operative complication predictors

A

VO2 max
FEV1
DLCO

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438
Q

In post operative planning, what are the cutoffs for SWT and stair climbing? Low technology exercise test.

A

SWT <400 m
Stair climb <22m

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439
Q

In post operative planning, what are the cutoffs for VO2 max?

A

<10 mL/kg/minute (<35%)→ high
10-20 → moderate
>20 (>75% predicted) → low

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440
Q

Patient factors that increase post op complications from non-pulmonary surgery

A

Age
Smoking
ASA class
OSA
COPD (especially if FEV1 <60%)
Pulmonary hypertension
Low albumin
Obesity is not a risk factor

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441
Q

Surgical factors that increase post op complications from non-pulmonary surgery

A

Aortic > intrathoracic > upper abdominal > abdominal
Duration of surgery
Emergency surgery
General anesthesia (epidural better)
Paralytics

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442
Q

How can post operative complications be prevented?

A

Optimize underlying lung disease prior to surgery
Smoking cessation (>8 weeks previous surgery)
Avoid GA if possible; regional blocks if possible
Avoid long acting neuromuscular blockade
Shorter surgery (<3 hours)
Laparoscopic
CPAP if OSA
Lung expansion techniques
Pain control

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443
Q

Physiological changes that occur after a pneumonectomy

A

FEV1, FVC, lung volumes, DLCO decrease
Decrease compliance
Increased resistance
Dead space can increase or decrease
RV EF reduces, LV function does not change
No change in blood gasses

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444
Q

What normally happens to the post pneumonectomy space?

A

Fills with air, then with fluid
Complete opacification takes 4 months

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445
Q

Post pneumonectomy complications

A

Post pneumonectomy syndrome
Post pneumonectomy empyema
Bronchopleural fistula
Esophagopleural fistula
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumothorax
Hemorrhage
Arrhythmias, MI

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446
Q

When does post pneumonectomy syndrome occur?

A

After 6 months following surgery
Almost exclusively after right sided pneumonectomy
(it is excessive mediastinal shift resulting in compression and stretching of the tracheobronchial tree and the esophagus)

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447
Q

When does post pneumonectomy pulmonary edema occur?

A

Within 72 hours
Non cardiogenic edema/ARDS
More common during right vs left

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448
Q

RFs for post pneumonectomy pulmonary edema

A

Right sided resection
Large perioperative fluid load
Single lung ventilation
High inspired O2 concentrations

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449
Q

Inclusion criteria for NSLT?

A

Age 55-74
Current smoker or quit within the last 15 years
Has at least 30 pack year smoking history
Experienced centers

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450
Q

Exclusion criteria for NSLT?

A

Lung cancer
Hemoptysis
Lost >/15 lb in the last 1 year
Chest CT in the prior 18 months

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451
Q

Key differences between the NLST and NELSON trials

A

Different proportion of males/females
Inclusion criteria
Nodule management protocol - diameter vs volume
Control comparison - CXR vs nothing
Follow up - different # and intervals

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Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
452
Q

What are the IHC stains for the different cancers?

A

Adenocarcinoma: TTF1
Squamous cell: CK5/6. P63
Small cell: TTF1 but also neuroendocrine markers (chromogranin, CD56, synaptophysin)

453
Q

General features of different lung cancers

A

Small cell - usually central, small primary, usually arises in airways, early mets
Squamous cell - usually central, bulky lesion, may cavitate
Adenocarcinoma - usually peripheral

454
Q

RFs for lung cancer

A

Smoking
Exposures - nickel, radon, asbestos, silica, beryllium, pollution
Underlying conditions - IPF, scleroderma-ILD, COPD, HIV
Radiation exposure

455
Q

Health Canada recommendations in regards to radon

A

If >200, have to hire professional
If 200-600, have 2 years to fix
If >600, have to fix within 1 year

456
Q

Clinical manifestations of superior sulcus tumour

A

SVC syndrome (more common if R)
Horner’s syndrome (T1)
Brachial plexus injury (C8, T1, T2)
Recurrent laryngeal nerve involvement (more common if L)

457
Q

Neurological findings in superior sulcus tumour

A

Miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis
Laryngeal nerve dysfunction
Ulnar nerve distribution abnormalities/brachial plexus involvement
Cerebral edema

458
Q

Physical exam findings in SVC syndrome

A

Confusion 2/2 cerebral edema
Facial plethora, Proptosis
Facial and neck edema
Elevated JVP
Collateralization of superficial vessels
Cyanosis, hypoxemia

459
Q

Causes of SVC syndrome

A

Malignancy - lung ca, lymphoma
Thrombosis
Indwelling intravascular device
Post radiation fibrosis
Fibrosing mediastinitis
External compression from sarcoidosis, thyroid goiter

460
Q

Management of SVC syndrome

A

Emergency → stent; radiation if not surgical candidate
Steroids if already have answer, steroid responsive
Anticoagulation if thrombosis
Chemotherapy if applicable

461
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with lung cancer

A

Encephalitis
LEMS
Cushing’s syndrome
Hyponatremia
Hypercalcemia
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
Rashes - dermatomyositis, acanthosis nigricans, erythema multiforme, pruritus, urticaria

462
Q

Imaging findings of hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

A

Bone scan - Symmetrical, increased linear uptake along diaphyseal and metaphyseal surfaces of long bones
XR - smooth periosteal reaction

463
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with thymoma

A

Myasthenia gravis
Red cell aplasia
Cushing’s syndrome
Addison’s disease

464
Q

Mechanisms of hypercalcemia in malignancy

A

Bone metastases
PTHrP
Granulomas increasing 1,25 vitamin D
Ectopic production of PTH e.g. parathyroid carcinoma

465
Q

Where can lung cancer metastasize to?

A

Brain
Pleura
Adrenals
Liver
Bone
Bone marrow

466
Q

Lung cancers that usually cause hemoptysis

A

Squamous cell carcinoma
Carcinoid tumour
Kaposi sarcoma

467
Q

Lymph node station categories

A

Superior mediastinal nodes
Aortic nodes
Inferior mediastinal nodes
Hilar nodes, lobar and subsegmental nodes

468
Q

Suspicious features of lymph nodes?

A

Canada Lymph node score:
Clear margins
Loss of central hilar structure
Central necrosis
Short axis diameter >/1 cm

469
Q

What stations can be accessed by different methods

A

See table

470
Q

Molecular markers for adenocarcinoma

A

EGFR (15% of canadians with adeno)
ALK
ROS1
PDL-1
BRAF

471
Q

Molecular markers for squamous

A

PDL-1

472
Q

Who requires brain imaging?

A

Clinical signs or symptoms concerning for brain metastases
Clinical stage III or IV non small cell lung cancer

473
Q

When would you consider staging the mediastinum

A
  • Discrete mediastinal node enlargement, no distant mets
  • Node SUV >/2.5
  • Peripheral tumour BUT:I nner ⅔ of lung ; >/3 cm = greater than T1; Associated with enlarged mediastinal LN >1 cm
  • Central tumour: Radiographically enlarged or PET avid nodes
474
Q

When would you NOT need to do mediastinal staging?

A

Peripheral T1N0 disease not meeting criteria above
Bulky tumour invading mediastinal structure - need tissue, but does not need to be from nodes
Metastatic disease - biopsy whatever gives you highest stage

475
Q

Sensitivity and specificity of CT, PET, EBUS, mediastinoscopy for mets

A

CT: sp 80/sn 55
PET: sp 85/sn 80
EBUS: sp 100/sn 90 (ONLY 55% for LYMPHOMA but sp 100%)
Mediastinoscopy: sp/100/sn 80

476
Q

Treatment for SCLC

A
477
Q

Indications for cranial radiation in SCLC

A
  1. Prophylaxis
    - Limited stage, good response to chemo
    - Extensive stage
  2. Evidence of brain mets
478
Q

Benefits of prophylactic cranial rad in SCLC

A

Limited disease: decrease brain mets, improve survival
Extensive disease: decrease brain mets, no change in survival

479
Q

Indications for cranial radiation in NSCLC

A

Brain mets with no targeted mutations
Otherwise, we use targeted therapy and if symptomatic/risk herniation, surgical

480
Q

Treatment for NSCLC

A
481
Q

Possible side effects of immunotherapy

A

Cutaneous/rash
Uveitis
Pneumonitis
Hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism
Hepatotoxicity
Colitis, diarrhea
Pancreatitis

482
Q

When does checkpoint inhibitor toxicity usually occur?

A

Median 3 months, can be up to 19 months

483
Q

When should you discontinue checkpoint inhibitor permanently after pneumonitis?

A

G3 or higher

484
Q

Checkpoint inhibitor lung related toxicity

A

Immune related pneumonitis
Radiation recall pneumonitis

485
Q

Side effects of tyrosine kinase inhibitors

A

Cutaneous, rash
Ocular toxicity
Pulmonary - pneumonitis
Colitis, diarrhea
Hepatic toxicity

486
Q

Side effects that should lead to permanent discontinuation of tyrosine kinase inhibitors

A

Confirmed ILD as a result
Ulcerative keratitis
GI perforation
SJS, severe skin disease

487
Q

Treatments for bony met pain

A

Opioids, NSAIDs
Bisphosphonates, denosumab - osteoclast inhibitors
Radiation
Steroids
Regional anesthesia

488
Q

Pathological types of adenocarcinoma spectrum of disease

A
  1. Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia
  2. Adenocarcinoma in situ
  3. Minimally invasive adenocarcinoma
  4. Invasive adenocarcinoma
    - Lepidic
    - Acinar
    - Micropapillary
    - Papillary
    - Solid predominant
  5. Variants of invasive
    - Invasive mucinous
    - Colloid
    - Fetal
489
Q

Radiographic abnormalities for adenocarcinoma spectrum

A

Solid nodule
GGO nodule, subsolid nodule
Mass
Multiple pulmonary nodules
Patchy consolidation, lobar consolidation
Crazy paving

490
Q

Differences between typical and atypical NETS

A

DIPNECH = preinvasive - <5 mm
Typical = > 5 mm, <2 mitoses/10 HPF, no necrosis
Atypical: 2-10 mitosis or necrosis
SCLC: >11/10 mitoses HPF

491
Q

Clinical manifestations of carcinoid tumors

A

Dyspnea, wheeze
Hemoptysis
Carcinoid syndrome - flushing ,telangiectasias, diarrhea
Cushing syndrome
Acromegaly syndrome

492
Q

Investigation options in carcinoid tumors

A

Serum chromogranin A
5-HIAA
Somatostatin receptor based imaging e.g. OctreoScan, Gallium
PET - low grade/typical only weakly positive

493
Q

Bronchoscopy features of carcinoid tumour

A

Mainly proximal airways
Well vascularized

494
Q

RFs for malignant nodules

A

Number - increased 1-4, decreases >/5
Size
Doubling time 20-400 days
Enhancement
Appearance - subsolid, spiculated, lobular
Calcification pattern
Location - upper lobe
Evidence of emphysema
Smoking history

495
Q

Usually benign patterns of calcification

A

Diffuse
Central
Lamellar
Popcorn

496
Q

Causes of a negative PET scan

A

Less metabolically active tumors
Solid component <8 mm
Uncontrolled hyperglycemia

497
Q

Who do the Fleischner Society Guidelines apply to?

A

> /35 years old
Not immunocompromised
No history of cancer
Not for cancer diagnosis (applies to incidentally found nodules)
No symptoms attributable to lesion

498
Q

Low vs high risk by the Fleischner Guidelines

A

Low: minimal or absent smoking hx or other RF
High: hx of smoking or other known RF (e.g. fhx first degree, asbestos/radon/uranium exposure)

499
Q

How long do pulmonary nodules need to be followed?

A

Solid nodules - 2 years
Subsolid nodules >/5 years

500
Q

DDX for benign pulmonary nodules

A

Infectious nodules
Inflammatory, vasculitic
Vascular
Hamartoma
Hemangioma
Fibroma
Lipoma
Leiomyoma
Amyloidoma

501
Q

Radiographic features of a hamartoma

A

Popcorn calcification
Heterogeneous attenuation
Rounded or lobular borders

502
Q

Difference between teratoma and hamartoma

A

Teratoma occur in anterior mediastinum
Teratoma also include teeth and bone
Teratomas may become malignant

503
Q

Sources of asbestos exposure

A

Pipefitter
Plumbers
Motor vehicle mechanic
Construction worker
Shipyard worker

504
Q

Different types of asbestos fibers

A

Short (more toxic)
Long - e.g. serpentine, amphibole (more toxic)
Chrysalite is a type of serpentine fibre

505
Q

RFs for developing asbestosis

A

Exposure at a young age
Duration and extent of exposure
Amphibole > chrysotile
Concomitant smoking

506
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of asbestos

A

Rounded atelectasis
Asbestosis
Pleural plaques
Pleural thickening
Benign asbestos related pleural effusion
Mesothelioma

507
Q

Imaging findings of asbestosis

A

Lower lobe distribution
Reticular changes

508
Q

Pathological findings of asbestosis - How is it different from UIP?

A

2 or more asbestos bodies per square centimeter of a 5-mu thick lung section in combination with interstitial fibrosis are indicative of asbestosis
Asbestos has presence of asbestos bodies
Has mild fibrosis of the visceral pleura
Fibroblastic foci are infrequent

509
Q

How do you diagnose asbestosis?

A
510
Q

What is the treatment of asbestosis?

A
511
Q

Where do pleural plaques usually occur?

A
512
Q

What is the CT definition of pleural thickening?

A
513
Q

Fluid features of BAPE

A

Exudative
Eosinophilic usually
Can be bloody
Usually spontaneously resolves, can recur

514
Q

Occupations with beryllium exposure

A

Electronics
Nuclear industry, nuclear weapons
Aerospace industry
Fluorescent light bulbs
Beryllium mining
Ceramics

515
Q

Routes of sensitization for beryllium

A

Inhalation
Skin

516
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of berylliosis

A

Acute pneumonitis
Chronic beryllium disease

517
Q

Non pulmonary manifestations of berylliosis

A

Conjunctivitis (no uveitis, or retinal involvement unlike sarcoid)
Periorbital edema
Nasopharyngitis
Tracheobronchitis

518
Q

Imaging findings of berylliosis

A

Acute pneumonitis: ARDS, non-cardiogenic pulm edema
Chronic beryllium disease: sarcoid but LN less likely

519
Q

Biopsy findings of CBD (chronic berylliosis disease)

A

Granulomas
Distribution paraseptal, interlobular septa, peribronchovascular

520
Q

Diagnostic criteria of CBD (chronic berylliosis disease)

A

Positive BeLT (blood or BAL) (Beryllium lymphocyte proliferation test)
Non caseating granuloma and/or mononuclear cells on biopsy
Clinical dx if no bx: BAL lymphocytosis or imaging

521
Q

Definition of positive BeLT (Beryllium lymphocyte proliferation test)

A

1 BAL BeLT (Beryllium lymphocyte proliferation test)
2 blood BeLT
Positive skin patch sensitization test
A abnormal BeLT + 1 borderline

522
Q

Difference between beryllium sensitization and Chronic Berylliosis disease)

A

Sensitization: sensitization, no sx, normal biopsy
Subclinical: sensitization, + biopsy, no sx/rads
CBD: sensitization, + biopsy, +sx/rads

523
Q

Treatment of CBD

A

Observe
Steroids if symptoms or PFT change

524
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of silicosis

A

Acute silicoproteinosis
Accelerated proteinosis
Chronic, simple silicosis
Complicated silicosis, progressive massive fibrosis

525
Q

Complications of silicosis

A

Tuberculosis, NTM
Lung cancer
CTD/Erasmus syndrome
PAP
Fibrosing mediastinitis

526
Q

Radiographic manifestations of silicosis

A

Crazy paving
Perilymphatic nodules
Mediastinal and hilar LN, eggshell calcification
Progressive massive fibrosis
Hyperinflation, COPD
Cavitary lung disease

527
Q

Diagnosis of silicosis

A

Exposure history
Imaging findings
BAL if silicoproteinosis
Biopsy avoided due to PNTX risk

528
Q

Treatment of silicosis

A

Acute → steroids
Chronic → supportive

529
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of CWP

A

Simple chronic CWP
Complicated CWP, progressive massive fibrosis
Caplan syndrome (rheumatoid pneumoconiosis)

530
Q

Imaging findings of CWP

A

Crazy paving
Perilymphatic nodules
Mediastinal and hilar LN, eggshell calcification
Progressive massive fibrosis
Hyperinflation, COPD
Cavitary lung disease

(eggshell less common )

531
Q

Examples of hard metal lung disease

A

Cobalt related lung disease
Siderosis
Metal fume fever

532
Q

Lung diseases that are associated with cobalt exposure

A

Occupational asthma
Interstitial lung disease - giant cell interstitial pneumonia
Obliterative bronchiolitis

533
Q

Inorganic and organic inhalational causes of pneumoconiosis

A

Inorganic: coal, silica, beryllium, asbestos
Organic: cotton, tobacco, sugarcane, basically anything can cause HP

534
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of byssinosis

A

Airway obstruction

535
Q

Causative agent of Silo Filler’s disease

A

Silo gas = combination of nitrogen dioxide and carbon dioxide
Nitrogen dioxide + water in lungs → nitric acid

536
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of silo filler’s disease

A

ARDS
Obliterative bronchiolitis

537
Q

Exposures associated with lung cancer development.

A

Uranium mining
Beryllium
Asbestos
Silica

538
Q

Causes of PMF?

A

Sarcoidosis
Berylliosis
Silicosis
CWP
Talcosis

539
Q

CTD causes of UIP

A

RA
SSc
SLE
DM/PM

540
Q

Extraparenchymal findings on CT that suggest CTD-ILD

A

Esophageal dilatation
Pleural or pericardial effusion
Lymphadenopathy
C1-2 subluxation

541
Q

RFs for development of RA-ILD

A

Male
Older
Smoking
RF positive
Anti-CCP positive
Disease activity
MUC5B

542
Q

RFs for RA pulmonary nodules

A

Subcutaneous nodules
Longstanding RA

543
Q

RFs for RA pleural effusion

A

Male
Older age
Rheumatoid nodules

544
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of RA

A

RA-ILD - UIP, NSIP, LIP, OA, CPFE
Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
RA pulmonary nodules
Caplan syndrome
Pulmonary hypertension
Pleural effusion
Pneumothorax
Follicular or obliterative bronchiolitis
Bronchiectasis
Cricoarytenoid arthritis
Vasculitis of vocal cords
RA nodules on vocal cords

545
Q

Imaging features of RA related lung disease

A

Nodules
Cavities
Pleural effusions
Pneumothorax
Bronchiectasis
UIP pattern or others
Findings of PH e.g. edema, enlarged heart, etc.

546
Q

BAL cell count and differential in RA-ILD

A

Lymphocytic in NSIP
Neutrophilic in UIP

547
Q

Treatment of RA related lung disease

A

RA-ILD: steroids, MMF, cyclophosphamide, antifibrotics
Bronchiectasis: same as others
Bronchiolitis: treat RA, consider azithromycin

548
Q

What are pulmonary manifestations of scleroderma?

A

ILD - NSIP, UIP, OP, PPFE
Pulmonary hypertension, PVOD
Airway disease - follicular/obliterative bronchiolitis, bronchiectasis
Aspiration pneumonitis or pneumonia
Lung cancer
Chest wall restriction

549
Q

Features associated with early development of SSc-ILD

A

African american
Extensive disease
Scl-70 positive
CK elevated
Cardiac involvement
Hypothyroidism

550
Q

eatures associated with SSc-ILD progression

A

Extent - >20% of lung involved
FVC <70% predicted
Within 4 years of diagnosis
Anti scl-70
Diffuse cutaneous disease

551
Q

Treatment of SSc-ILD

A

Mycophenolate
Cyclophosphamide
Tocilizumab
Rituximab
Nintedanib
Nintedanib + mycophenolate

552
Q

Benefits and evidence of SSc-ILD management options

A

Improve FVC, DLCO → Mycophenolate and cyclo
Reduce decline in FVC → ritux, toci, nintedanib
Nothing has mortality benefit

553
Q

How often should patients with SSc-ILd be followed?

A

6 months x 5 years
Annually after 5 years (if they were stable

554
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of myositis

A

ILD - NSIP, UIP, OP, DAD
Respiratory muscle weakness
Aspiration pneumonia
Pneumothorax
Pulmonary hypertension

555
Q

Antisynthetase syndrome

A
  1. 2 of:
    - Fever
    - Raynaud
    - Mechanics hands/hiker’s feet
    - Polymyositis
    - Non-erosive arthritis
    - ILD
  2. Positive autoantibody (Anti-Jo-1)
556
Q

Treatment options for myositis-ILD

A

Cyclo if very sick
MMF, azathioprine

557
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of lupus

A

Interstitial lung disease - NSIP, UIP, LIP
Acute pneumonitis (similar to AIP)
Organizing pneumonia
DAH
Pleural effusion * most common
Shrinking lung syndrome
VTE
Pulmonary hypertension - PVOD, PAH, Group 2,3,4
Subglottic stenosis, tracheal stenosis
Bronchiolitis obliterans
Opportunistic infections

558
Q

Skin manifestations of lupus

A

Acute cutaneous lupus erythema
Panniculitis
Discoid lesion
Childpain lupus erythematosus (pernio)

559
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of Sjogren’s syndrome

A

Interstitial lung disease - e.g. NSIP, LIP, UIP
Organizing pneumonia
Bronchiolitis - follicular, obliterative
Bronchiectasis
Xerotrachea
Aspiration pneumonitis and pneumonia
Pulmonary hypertension
Nodular hyperplasia
Pulmonary nodular amyloidosis
Pulmonary lymphoma (transformation)

560
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of amyloidosis

A

Nodular pulmonary amyloidosis
Diffuse amyloidosis
Tracheobronchial amyloidosis
Amyloidosis of the pleura

561
Q

Skin manifestations that may be seen in vasculitis

A

Palpable purpura
Leukocytoclastic vasculitis

562
Q

Differential diagnosis for ANCA elevation

A

Vasculitis
CTD
Malignancies
Infections - hepatitis B/C/HIV
Drug induced
IBD

563
Q

% of ANCA elevation in different conditions

A

GPA - 90%
MPA - 70%
EGPA - 50%
Anti-GBM - 10%

564
Q

Classic triad of DAH

A

Hemoptysis
Anemia
Alveolar opacities

565
Q

DDX of DAH

A

1.Vasculitis
- GPA
- EGPA
- MPA
- Drug induced vasculitis
2. Connective tissue diseases
- SLE
- Anti-GBM
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Scleroderma
- Others
3. Drugs
- TNF-alpha inhibitors
- Hydralazine
- Anticoagulation
- GPIIb/IIIa platelet inhibitors
- Amiodarone
- Crack cocaine
4. Others
- IPH
- Left sided pressure increase e.g. mitral stenosis

566
Q

BAL findings of DAH

A

Hemosiderin laden macrophages >/20%
Progressively bloody sequential lavage

567
Q

ANCA + vasculitis that cause DAH

A

GPA
MPA
EGPA (very rarely)
Drug induced ANCA vasculitis
Isolated pulmonary capillaritis
Anti-GBM/ANCA positive vasculitis

568
Q

DDX for pulmonary renal disease

A

Anti-GBM
GPA, MPA, EGPA
ANCA negative vasculitis e.g. cryo, IgA disease
SLE

569
Q

RFs for GBM development

A

Smoking
Cocaine use
Hydrocarbon fume exposure
Hair dye exposure
Metallic dust
Genetics

570
Q

Sensitivity and specificity of anti-GBM

A

Sensitivity 95-100%
Specificity 90-100%

571
Q

Causes of false positive anti-GBM

A

Hepatitis C
HIV

572
Q

Poor prognostic factors in anti-GBM

A

Advanced age
Anti-GBM titre
Renal function - crea & need for dialysis at presentation, oligoanuric, % crescents (only pathological parameter)

573
Q

Treatment of anti-GBM

A

Steroids, cyclophosphamide
PLEX
No maintenance

574
Q

Role of anti-GBM in disease monitoring

A

Monitor regularly
Should disappear with treatment
May signal recurrence

575
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of GPA

A

Wedge shaped opacities due to infarction
Nodules
Cavities
Interstitial lung disease - NSIP, UIP
Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
Subglottic or tracheal stenosis
Tracheobronchomalacia

576
Q

Extrapulmonary manifestations of GPA

A

Cutaneous - palpable purpura, leukocytoclastic vasculitis
ENT - hearing loss, sinusitis, nasal septal perforation, saddle nose, nasal ulcers
Renal - GN, renal failure
Systemic symptoms

577
Q

Diagnostic criteria of GPA

A
578
Q

What is the treatment for GPA?

A
579
Q

What is considered a severe vs non severe GPA?

A

Severe = organ threatening disease
E.g. RPGN, DAH, mononeuritis multiplex, optic neuritis

580
Q

What are indications to use cyclophosphamide over rituximab in induction treatment?

A

RPGN with crea >354
DAH

581
Q

What are indications in which PLEX Is needed in GPA/MPA?

A

RPGN crea >500, need for dialysis
DAH salvage therapy

582
Q

Indications in which PLEX is indicated for DAH

A

Anti-GBM disease
Anti-GBM/ANCA double positivity
DAH salvage therapy, critically unwell
TTP related DAH
Catastrophic APLS DAH

583
Q

PEXIVAS trial re: PLEX in ANCA vasculitis

A

No mortality benefit
No impact on ESRD
Increased risk of infection

584
Q

General differences between MPA and GPA

A

p-ANCA
Mainly renal, less ENT, less pulmonary
Absence of granuloma formation

585
Q

What vasculitis is associated with PA aneurysms?

A

Behcet’s disease
Hugh Stovin syndrome
Pulmonary hypertension
Congenital heart disease
Syphilis
Tuberculosis

586
Q

DDX of pulmonary angiitis and granulomatosis

A

Bronchocentric granulomatosis
Lymphomatoid granulomatosis
Necrotizing sarcoid granulomatosis
GPA, EGPA

587
Q

Non-pulmonary clinical manifestations of EGPA

A

Asthma
Peripheral nerve
Skin disease
ENT, cardiac, GI, renal

588
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for EGPA

A
589
Q

What is the management of EGPA

A
590
Q

Five factor score

A

Age >65
Cardiac insufficiency
Renal insufficiency
GI involvement
Absence of ENT symptoms

591
Q

Monitoring in management of EGPA and GPA

A

EGPA - ESR and eos count
GPA - not ANCA

592
Q

Non-infectious complications of illicit drug use

A

Eosinophilic pneumonia
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Organizing pneumonitis
Obliterative bronchiolitis
Pneumothorax
Pneumomediastinum
Drug induced ANCA vasculitis, DAH
Pulmonary hypertension
Alveolar hypoventilation
Aspiration
Foreign body granulomatosis
Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema
E-VALI

593
Q

Complications associated with vaping

A

Lipoid pneumonia*
Eosinophilic pneumonia
Organizing pneumonia
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
AIP, ARDS

594
Q

Causative agent of vaping induced injury

A

Vitamin E acetate in e-liquids

595
Q

Diagnostic criteria for EVALI

A

E cigarette use in 90 days before symptoms
Pulmonary infiltrates
Negative viral panel, negative cultures, negative other workup

596
Q

IST that are not teratogenic

A

Azathioprine
Hydroxychloroquine
Cyclosporine, tacrolimus

597
Q

Patterns of drug induced lung disease

A
  1. Most common:
    Pulmonary edema (usually w/o effusion)
    Pulmonary hemorrhage
    DAD
    OP, NSIP, UIP
    EoPNA
  2. Less common:
    HP
    Sarcoid like rxn
    LIP, DIP
    Constrictive bronchiolitis -predominantly penicillamine
    PHTN, vasculitis
598
Q

Risk factors for MTX induced lung toxicity

A

Age >60
Underlying pleuroparenchymal lung disease
Low albumin
Reduced kidney function
Third spacing e.g. pleural effusion
Higher weekly doses
Previous use of DMARDS
Diabetes

599
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of MTX toxicity

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis*
NSIP
AIP with non cardiogenic edema*
Eosinophilic pneumonia
Organizing pneumonia*
Diffuse alveolar damage
Pleural effusion*
Lymphadenopathy
Infections e.g. PJP

600
Q

Extrapulmonary manifestations of MTX toxicity

A

Transaminitis
Stomatitis, nausea/vomiting
Macrocytosis, myelosuppression

601
Q

Diagnostic criteria for MTX toxicity

A

1.Major criteria
HP by histopathology without evidence of infection
Imaging findings
Negative blood culture and sputum culture
2. Minor criteria
Dyspnea <8 weeks
Non productive cough
SpO2 </90% on RA
WBC </15,000
DLCO </70
3. Define = Major criteria 3+ ½ AND ⅗ minor
4. Probable = Major 2 and 3 AND minor ⅖

602
Q

Differentiate between RA-ILD and MTX toxicity

A

Clinical presentation - toxicity more subacute/acute
Blood work - Eos in toxicity
Imaging - NSIP/HP in toxicity, UIP in RA-ILD
BAL - both can have lymphocytes
Biopsy - NSIP/HP/others in toxicity, UIP in RA-ILD

603
Q

Causes of drug induced lupus

A

Procainamide
Isoniazid
TNF-alpha inhibitors
Hydralazine

604
Q

Normal pulmonary pressures

A

sPAP: 15-30
dPAP: 4-12
mPAP: 8-20

605
Q

Hemodynamic diagnosis for pre capillary PH

A

mPAP > 20
PVR > 2
PCWP </15

606
Q

Indications to screen for pulmonary hypertension

A

Scleroderma - annual with DLCO (as per CTS, although ERS says DETECT algorithm)
Portal hypertension, prior to transplantation

607
Q

Causes of PHTN

A
608
Q

What are hereditary causes of PH

A

BMPR2
EIF2AK4
ALK-1
SMAD9

609
Q

Infectious causes of pulmonary hypertension

A

Schistosomiasis
HIV
Hepatitis B/C → cirrhosis

610
Q

Drugs are associated with the development of PH

A

Toxic rapeseed oil
Amphetamines
Dasatinib
Fenfluramine
St John’s Wort
Cocaine
Cyclophosphamide (alkylating agents)

611
Q

Features make PH-LHD likely

A

Age >70
Atrial fibrillation
Diabetes, DLP, HTN, Obesity (>2 factors)
LBBB or LVH on ECG
LA dilation, LVH, or grade >2 mitral flow on echo

612
Q

Valvular diseases are most implicated in PH

A

Mitral stenosis**
Aortic stenosis*
Mitral regurgitation

613
Q

Causes of PA obstruction

A

CTEPH
Foreign body emboli
Schistosomiasis/parasitic infection
Vasculitis
PA sarcoma, uterine sarcoma, germ cell tumors, RCC
Congenital stenosis, other causes of stenosis
Obstruction by lymph nodes

614
Q

Causes of group 5 PHTN

A

Polycythemia vera
Essential thrombocytosis
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
CML
Sickle cell anemia
Thalassemia
Hereditary spherocytosis
Fibrosing mediastinitis
Sarcoidosis
PLCH
Neurofibromatosis
Gaucher’s disease
CKD with or without dialysis
Pulmonary tumour thrombotic microangiopathy

615
Q

Pathogenesis of PAH

A

Altered tone → vasoconstriction
Smooth muscle medial hypertrophy
Neointimal formation/hyperplasia and fibrosis
Microthrombi/n situ thrombosis causing plexiform lesions

616
Q

Mechanisms for sarcoidosis related PH

A

Interstitial lung disease
Cardiomyopathy
Granulomatous inflammation and involvement of vessels → intrinsic sarcoid vasculopathy
PVOD lesions
Lymph node compression of PA
CTEPH
Portal hypotension
Fibrosing mediastinitis

617
Q

Mediators of portopulmonary hypertension

A

Estrogen
Endothelin 1
Deficiency of prostacyclin

618
Q

Physical examination findings of PH

A

Loud P2
RV heave
Tricuspid or pulmonary regurgitation murmurs
Elevated JVP, peripheral edema, ascites

619
Q

Features associated with poor prognosis in PAH

A

NYHA IV **
Syncope
Rapid symptom progression
pro-BNP >1100 ng/L or BNP > 800 ng/L **
6MWD <165 m **
RA size >26 cm^2
Pericardial effusion
VO2 max <11 mL/kg/minute
VE/VCO2 >45
CI <2, SvO2 <60%

620
Q

Poor RHC prognostic factors

A

CI <2
RAP >14
SvO2 <60%
Vasoreactivity

621
Q

Echocardiographic features of PH

A

TRV >2.8 m/s
RVSP 35 - 40 mmHg
RV hypertrophy, RV and RA dilation
Flattening of the interventricular septum (can also get bowing)
Pericardial effusion
Tricuspid regurgitation
TAPSE <18 mm
IVC >21 mm, <50% collapse with sniff testing

622
Q

Additional echo signs as per the ERS guidelines

A

Ventricle: RV/LV basal diameter >1, flattening of septum
PA: RV outflow doppler acceleration time <105 ms, PA diameter >/25 mm
IVC and RA: diameter >21 mm with <50% collapse with deep inspiration, RA >18 cm^2

623
Q

ECG findings of PH

A

RV strain pattern - most sensitive
Right axis deviation
RBBB
RV hypertrophy - R/S >1 in V1
RA enlargement - P pulmonale, P wave >0.25 mV in lead II

624
Q

CXR findings in PH

A

Vascular pruning
Enlarged pulmonary arteries
Enlarged heart - enlarged RV and RA

625
Q

CT findings in PH

A

Mosaic attenuation
Enlarged PA >3 cm
PA: aorta ratio > 1
RV increased thickness, interventricular septum changes

626
Q

Ways of measuring CO in PH

A

Direct Fick method
Indirect Fick method
Thermodilution method

627
Q

Indications for iron replacement in PH therapy

A

Ferritin <100
Ferritin 100-299 but tSAT <20%

628
Q

Indications for prophylactic anticoagulation in PH

A

Idiopathic
Hereditary
Drug and toxin induced
It is “suggested” and warfarin is the agent

629
Q

Agents used in vasodilator testing

A

Inhaled nitric oxide
IV epoprostenol
IV adenosine

630
Q

Positive vasodilator response in PH

A

> 10 mmHg reduction to </40 mmHg with increased or unchanged CO

631
Q

MOA of PH medications

A

Prostacyclin → activates cAMP → inhibits platelet activation, promotes vasodilation
Selexipag is prostacyclin receptor agonist
Nitric oxide: PDE5i reduce breakdown of cGMP, riociguat stimulates guanylate cyclase which increases production of cGMP. cGMP
Endothelin receptor antagonist → inhibition → vasodilation

632
Q

Side effects associated with PH medications

A

Prostacyclin - hypotension, flushing, headaches, jaw pain, rebound PH
PDEf5 - headaches, flushing, volume overload, priapism
Riociguat - headaches, headache, GERD
ERA - fluid retention, hepatotoxicity, anemia

633
Q

Contraindications to PH therapies

A

Teratogenic: ERAs, riociguat
Heart failure: prostacyclins

634
Q

Combination of which drugs have RCT level of evidence in PH

A

Tadalafil + ambrisentan
AMBITION trial

635
Q

Treatment of PH, what are considered cardiopulmonary comorbidities?

A

Conditions associated with left ventricular diastolic dysfunction.
1. Cardiac
Obesity
Hypertension
Diabetes
CAD
2. Pulmonary
Parenchymal disease (DLCO usually <45%)
Treatment of refractory PH

636
Q

Treatment of refractory PH

A

Transplantation
Right to left shunt creation

637
Q

Tests for PH need to be done at EVERY follow up

A

WHO FC
6MWD
BNP
ECG
ABG or pulse oximetry

638
Q

Clinical classification of PAH associated with CHD and their treatment

A

Small/coincidental defects (<1 c, VSD, <2 cm ASD) → defect closure is C/I
Prevalent systemic to pulmonary shunt → may be correctable or non correctable
Eisenmenger Syndrome → defect closure is C/I
PAH persisting post defect correction

639
Q

In lung disease, what factors actually favor group 1?

A

Moderate to severe PH rather than mild-moderate
FEV1 >60% in COPD
FVC >70% in IPF
Low diffusion capacity out of keeping
CT abnormalities only modest

640
Q

What differentiates non severe from severe group 3 PH?

A

PVR >5
This is also prognostic indicator

641
Q

Percentage of patients with acute PE develop CTEPH

A

3%

642
Q

Risk factors for CTEPH

A

Large burden of disease
Recurrent PEs
Insufficiency anticoagulation
Hypercoagulable states e.g. splenectomy, antiphospholipid syndrome, ET/PCV, malignancy

643
Q

Sensitivity and specificity of imaging in CTEPH

A

VQ scan >97% sensitive, 90% specific
CT PA 99% specific, 51% sensitive

644
Q

CT findings in CTEPH

A

Webs and Slits
Ring like stenosis
Total occlusions

645
Q

Treatment options for CTEPH

A

Blood thinners for all (lifelong)
Pulmonary artery endarterectomy
Balloon pulmonary angioplasty
Riociguat

646
Q

Possible post endarterectomy complications

A

Reperfusion injury

647
Q

Possible post Balloon Pump Angioplasty complications

A

Dissection
Perforation
Over dilation

648
Q

Imaging findings in PVOD

A

Smooth interlobular septal thickening
Centrilobular nodules
Mediastinal lymphadenopathy

649
Q

Etiologies that have been associated with PVOD

A

Hereditary - BMPR2, EIF2AK4
Medications e.g. cyclophosphamide, bleomycin
CTD e.g. scleroderma, SLE, sjogren’s, etc.
Infections e.g. influenza, HIV, EBV, CMV
HSCT

650
Q

Clinical features that differentiate PCH from PVOD

A

Hemoptysis
Hemorrhagic pleural effusions

651
Q

Histological features of PVOD

A

Obliteration/extensive and diffuse occlusions of pulmonary veins
Colander like lesions (recanalized thrombus)
No plexiform lesions

652
Q

Definition of platypnea and orthodeoxia

A

Platypnea = dyspnea in upright position that improves when supine
Orthodeoxia = SaO2 drops by >/5% and PaO2 drop by 4 mmHgwhen rising from supine to upright

653
Q

Causes of orthodeoxia

A

Hepatopulmonary syndrome
PAVMs
Intracardiac shunts e.g. PFO
Pulmonary parenchymal disorders
Other causes of VQ mismatch

654
Q

Mechanisms of hypoxemia in HPS

A

V/Q mismatch - Intrapulmonary vascular dilatations
Shunt - Pulmonary arteriovenous malformations
Diffusion limitation - due to increased diameter from dilatation

655
Q

Triad of HPS/What is the diagnostic criteria?

A

Liver disease
Intrapulmonary vascular dilatation
Abnormal oxygenation (abnormal A-a gradient or PaO2)

656
Q

Treatment options for HPS

A

Supplemental oxygen
Liver transplantation

657
Q

Causes of PAVMs

A

Idiopathic
HHT
Hepatopulmonary syndrome
Trauma, prior cardiac surgery
Malignant e.g. metastatic thyroid
Infections e.g. TB, schistosomiasis
CTD e.g. behcet’s, GPA, takayasu

658
Q

Manifestations of PAVMs

A

Brain abscess
Embolic stroke
Platypnea, orthodeoxia
Hemoptysis, hemothorax
Dyspnea, Hypoxemia, cyanosis
Pulmonary hypertension

659
Q

Additional manifestations of Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia (HHT)

A

PAVM 30%
Epistaxis - 90%
Telangiectasias - 80%
Cerebral AVMs - 10%
Hepatic AVMs → high output heart failure
GI bleeding, iron deficiency

660
Q

Manifestations of a liver AVM

A

Portal hypertension
Encephalopathy and other signs of liver dysfunction
High output heart failure

661
Q

Physical examination findings in HHT

A

Mucosal and skin telangiectasias
Pulsatile liver
Murmurs and bruits
Platypnea and orthodeoxia
Cyanosis and clubbing
Signs of heart failure e.g. peripheral edema

662
Q

Investigations to diagnose shunt or PAVMs

A

O2 saturation on room air
Contrast echo/bubble echo
100% oxygen
Radiolabeled perfusion scan

663
Q

Investigations to assess the PAVM

A

CT PA
Pulmonary angiography

664
Q

Treatment options for PAVMs

A

Observation, repeat CT q3-5 years
Embolization/embolotherapy
Surgical resection
Laser ablation

665
Q

Indications for PAVM treatment

A

Symptomatic, complications, regardless of size
Feeding vessel > 3 mm
Progressive enlargement

666
Q

Genetics of HHT

A

Autosomal dominant
ACVRL1, ENG, SMAD4

667
Q

Diagnostic criteria for HHT

A

Curacao Criteria
- Mutation OR (3 for definite, 2 for suspected)
- First degree relative with HHT
- Multiple mucocutaneous telangiectasias
- Visceral involvement of telangiectasias or AVMs
- History of recurrent and spontaneous epistaxis

668
Q

Screening for in patients with HHT

A

Iron deficiency anemia*
Pulmonary AVMs*
Cerebral AVMs*
GI AVMs
Hepatic AVMs

669
Q

Diagnostic criteria for amniotic fluid embolism

A

During labor/delivery or within 30 mins of placenta delivery
[Cardiopulmonary collapse or sBP <90] AND resp compromise (hypoxemia, dyspnea, cyanosis)
DIC
Absence of fever

670
Q

Diagnostic criteria for fat embolism

A

Petechiae
Neurological symptoms e.g. coma, seizure
Hypoxemia

671
Q

Causes of fat embolism

A

Fractures, orthopedic surgeries
Liposuction, lipoinjection
Panniculitis
Burns
Pancreatitis
Fatty liver disease
Sickle cell disease
Osteonecrosis

672
Q

Treatment of amniotic fluid embolism, fat embolism, Venous air or arterial air embolism

A

Amniotic fluid - supportive
Fat embolism - supportive, ?steroids controversial
Venous air embolism - left lateral decubitus, hyperbaric O2
Arterial air embolism - hyperbaric O2

673
Q

Indications for bilateral lung transplantation

A

CF/bronchiectasis/suppurative lung disease
Pulmonary hypertension

674
Q

Contraindications to single lung transplant in IPF

A

Colonization with resistant organisms, bronchiectasis
Pulmonary hypertension

675
Q

Overall survival post lung transplant

A

Overall mean 6.5 years
Double lung transplant mean 8 years
Single lung transplant mean 5 years

676
Q

Associated side effects with CNIs

A

Neuro - tremors, headaches, visual abnormalities, seizures
Cardiovascular - hypertension
Renal - AKI, hyperkalemia, hyperuricemia, gout
MSK - osteoporosis
Endo - hirsutism, hyperglycemia
Drug drug interactions

677
Q

Required prophylaxis post lung transplant

A

PP prophylaxis for all
CMV prophylaxis for those at risk
HSV for all
EBV for those at risk
Aspergillus for those at risk

678
Q

Complications post auto-BMT?

A

EARLY:
Infections
Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
Post engraftment respiratory distress syndrome
Radiation pneumonitis
Pulmonary edema
Aspiration pneumonitis or pneumonia

LATE:
Infections
Organizing pneumonia
Obliterative bronchiolitis
PPFE and other ILDs
PVOD lesions
Malignancy (recurrence or secondary)

679
Q

Complications post allo-BMT?

A

EARLY:
Infections
Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
Hyperacute and acute GVHD
Pulmonary edema
Aspiration pneumonitis or pneumonia

LATE:
Infections
Organizing pneumonia
Obliterative bronchiolitis
PVOD lesions
Malignancy (recurrence or secondary)

680
Q

Risk factors for PGD (primary graft dysfunction)

A

Age >20 <45 donor
African American donor
Female donor
Donor smoking history
Trauma to donor
Blood products
ECMO used as bridge
Recipient diagnosis of IPF, PAH

681
Q

Presentation of PGD (primary graft dysfunction)

A

Usually within 72 hours
Reperfusion injury
Bilateral patchy opacities, ARDS like
DAD on pathology

682
Q

Diagnosis of acute rejection

A

Cellular: TBBx
Antibody mediated: DSA, TBBx, CD4 staining

683
Q

Histological findings in acute rejection

A

Perivascular and interstitial mononuclear infiltrates → A score
Lymphocytic bronchiolitis → mononuclear cell infiltrates in submucosa of bronchioles → B score

684
Q

Treatment of PGD vs acute rejection

A

PGD: Supportive, ARDS ventilation
Acute: steroids for all, PLEX/IVIG in ab mediated

685
Q

Definition of CLAD

A

FEV1 decline by >/20% from baseline that lasts for at least 3 months (For definite), and change is not explained by something else (e.g. infection)
BOS: FEV1/FVC <0.7
RAS: TLC<90% baseline (or FVC <80% baseline), persistent fibrotic opacities

686
Q

Risk factors for CLAD

A

Previous PGD or acute reflection
Infection, especially CMV, colonization with PsA or aspergillus
GERD
Aspiration
Medication/IST non compliance or underdosed
Increased donor age
Male to female donor

687
Q

Imaging findings in BOS vs RAS (restrictive allograft)

A

BOS: mosaic attenuation, centrilobular nodules, gas trapping/hyperinflation, bronchiectasis with time
RAS: Pleuroparenchymal fibroelastosis, NSIP

688
Q

Histological findings in BOS vs. RAS(restrictive allograft)

A

BO: Lymphocytic inflammation of submucosa, intraluminal lesion formation, obliteration of airway
RAS: PPFE

689
Q

Treatment for BOS vs. RAS

A

Address risk factors e.g. GERD
Optimize immunosuppression (MMF > Aza, Acro > cyclo)
Consider azithromycin (those with neutrophilic BAL especially responsive)

690
Q

Complications post lung transplant

A

Early:
Acute or hyperacute rejection
Infectious complications e.g. bacterial, viral, fungal, empyema, surgical site, line infections
Bleeding e.g. hemoptysis, hemothorax
Dehiscence
Anastomotic leak, prolonged air leak
Phrenic nerve injury causing diaphragmatic dysfunction
Pulmonary embolism, DVT
Cardiac arrhythmias

Late:
Chronic rejection
Infectious complications e.g. viral, fungal, bacterial
Tracheal stenosis
Tracheobronchomalacia
Tracheoesophageal and tracheoarterialfistulization
Dehiscence
PTLD, non melanomatous skin cancer, other malignancies
Disease recurrence

691
Q

Timeline for infectious complications

A

First month: MRSA, VRE, pseudomonas, candida, HSV
Month 1-6: PJP, aspergillus, nocardia, CMV, EBV, endemic fungi, TB, NTM
>6 months: Community organisms

692
Q

Examples of post transplant malignancies

A

PTLD, lymphoma
Non melanomatous skin cancer
Primary lung cancer
Breast cancer

693
Q

Causes of PTLD (post transplant lymphoproliferative Disease)

A

EBV virus, serostatus (highest in R-/D+)
Degree of immunosuppression (T cell immunosuppression)

694
Q

Diseases with recurrence post transplantation

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma
Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis
Giant cell interstitial pneumonitis
A1AT deficiency (if smoking)
PVOD
PAP (hereditary cases)
LAM
PLCH
Sarcoidosis → most common
DIP
Diffuse panbronchiolitis

695
Q

Difference between CMV infection and CMV disease

A

CMV infection: evidence of active replication and shedding (e.g. antigenemia, PCR, culture) without attributable signs or symptoms
- CMV isolation in the blood by viral isolation, rapid culture, antigenemia, QNAT

CMV disease: infection with attribute signs or symptoms; can be viral syndrome or tissue invasive disease
- CMV isolation in the lung tissue by viral isolation, rapid culture, histopathology, immunohistochemistry
- Also CMV PCR in the blood needed

696
Q

Risk factors for CMV post lung transplant

A

R-/D+
R+/D+
R+/D-

697
Q

Risk factors for CMV post allogeneic BMT

A

R+/-D-
Degree of immunosuppression, use of high dose steroids
GVHD
Prior CMV viremia

698
Q

Treatment of CMV disease

A

Oral valganciclovir
IV ganciclovir
Foscarnet is second line treatment
Reduction in IST should be considered

699
Q

Congenital causes of non CF bronchiectasis

A

Cystic fibrosis
Primary ciliary dyskinesia
Young syndrome
William Campbell
Alpha 1 antitrypsin
Yellow nail syndrome
Mouniere Kuhn syndrome

700
Q

Cause of PCD

A

Autosomal recessive
Loss of or dysfunctional cilia

701
Q

Clinical manifestations of primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

Chronic sinopulmonary infection
Bronchiectasis
Male infertility
Situs inversus

702
Q

Kartaganer syndrome

A

Bronchiectasis
Chronic rhinosinusitis
Situs inversus

703
Q

Diagnosis of PCD

A

Low or absent nasal nitric oxide
Genetic testing for confirmation

704
Q

Cause of Young syndrome

A

Abnormally viscous mucous

705
Q

Clinical manifestations of young syndrome

A

Chronic sinopulmonary infections
Bronchiectasis
Male infertility

706
Q

Triad for yellow nail syndrome

A

Yellow nails
Respiratory symptoms
Lymphedema

707
Q

Most common causes of bronchiectasis

A

Post infectious
Idiopathic
Immunodeficiency
Connective tissue disorders

708
Q

2 most common causes of non CF bronchiectasis exacerbations

A

PsA
H. influenzae (SA in CF instead)

709
Q

Blood work would you send for everyone with bronchiectasis

A

CBC
IgE, Asp IgG, workup ABPA
IGAMs
Sputum cultures

710
Q

Imaging findings of bronchiectasis

A

Signet ring sign/broncho arterial ratio >1
Tram tracking, non tapering peripheral airways
Mucous plugging
Bronchial wall thickening
Gas trapping

711
Q

Airway clearance techniques

A

Active cycle of breathing technique
Autogenic drainage
Gravity positioning
OPEP
Nebulized saline

712
Q

Airway clearance techniques that are not recommended

A

Inhaled mannitol
Inhaled NAC
Inhaled dornase alpha
Carbocysteine

713
Q

Treatments in non-CF bronchiectasis to reduce exacerbations

A

Airway clearance
Pulmonary rehabilitation
Mucoactive therapy
Chronic abx - azithro for non PsA, inhaled for PsA

714
Q

Abx choices for prophylaxis in those who have recurrent exacerbations

A

Azithro if non PSA
Inhaled anti pseudomonas if PSA - tobra, collistin, gentamicin (or azithro if none of these are tolerateD)

715
Q

Definition of bronchiectasis exacerbation

A

Worsening symptoms
Over last 48 hours

716
Q

Role of bronchodilators in management of bronchiectasis

A

LABA in those with significant breathlessness

717
Q

Indications for resection in bronchiectasis

A

Localized disease not controlled with medical treatment
Post obstructive bronchiectasis due to tumors
Massive hemoptysis
Recurrent exacerbations
Overwhelming sputum production

718
Q

Median age of survival in CF

A

68 years after Trikafta (2022)

719
Q

Pathogenesis of CF

A

CFTR transmembrane protein mutation
Chromosome 7 gene (long arm)
Transepithelial chloride channel
Abnormally thick mucus, difficulty clearing, infections and colonization

720
Q

Bacteria that classically cause colonization in CF

A

Staphylococcus aureus **
Pseudomonas **
H. Influenza **
Burkholderia cepacia
Aspergillus fumigatus
NTM
Stenotrophomonas

721
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of cystic fibrosis

A

Bronchiectasis
Bacterial colonization
Recurrent pulmonary infection
Mucous plugging and collapse
Pneumothorax
Hemothorax
Gas trapping and obstruction

722
Q

Extrapulmonary manifestations of cystic fibrosis

A

Sinus - sinusitis, nasal polyps
Intestinal - Meconium ileus, DIOS, SIBO, chronic constipation
Pancreas - pancreatic insufficiency with steatorrhea and vitamin ADEK deficiency, chronic pancreatitis, diabetes
Liver - transaminitis, biliary cirrhosis, fatty liver disease, cirrhosis
Reproductive - male/female infertility; absence of vas differences, thickening of cervical mucus
MSK - osteopenia or osteoporosis
Depression

723
Q

Causes of abdominal pain in CF

A

Chronic constipation
DIOS (distal intesinal obstruciton syndrome)
SIBO (small intestine bacterial overgrowth)
Pancreatitis
Appendicitis
Intussusception
Colon cancer

724
Q

Colon cancer screening

A

Age 40 and q5 years or as dictated by polyp
Age 30 if previous transplant

725
Q

Diagnostic criteria for cystic fibrosis → See figure. Tests that can be used to diagnose CF

A

Clinical: NBS, family history, sx
Sweat chloride test
Genetic testing
Extended CFTR analysis
Functional assays

726
Q

Newborn CF screens

A

Serum immunoreactive trypsinogen assay
DNA assay

727
Q

DDx of positive sweat chloride test

A

Malnutrition
Anorexia, bulimia
Pancreatitis
Untreated adrenal insufficiency
Untreated hypothyroidism
Hypophysitis
Technical/test factors

728
Q

DDX of negative sweat chloride test

A

Dehydration
Physiologic low sweat rate
Hypoproteinemic states
Drugs e.g. mineralocorticoids
On CFTR modulators (e.g. baby of mother on CFTR modulator during pregnancy)
Technical/test factors
Malnutrition

729
Q

CF management

A

Smoking cessation, vaccinations
Airway clearance, bronchodilators
Inhaled hypertonic saline
Inhaled DNAse
Chronic azithromycin
+/- modulator therapy

730
Q

Airway clearance techniques for patients with CF

A

Active cycle of breathing
Autogenic drainage
Positional therapy
Oscillating PEP device - Aerobika, Acapella, flutter valve
Percussive vest

731
Q

Risk factors for acquiring MRSA

A

Younger
F508 delta
Higher admissions
PsA co infection

732
Q

Role of abx in CF

A

Eradication
Prevent exacerbations
Exacerbation

733
Q

Indications for eradication abx therapy in CF

A

PsA
+/- MRSA

734
Q

Abx that can be used to treat chronic PSA or PSA eradication

A

Aztreonam 500 mg oral MWF
Tobramycin 300 mg nebulized BID
Colistin 150 mg nebulized BID
Aztreonam 75 mg nebulized TD * weak evidence
28 days on and off

735
Q

Abx choices for CF exacerbation

A

MSSA: amoxi-clav, doxy, septra - cefazolin, nafcillin
MRSA: Septra, doxycycline - Vancomycin, linezolid
PsA: cipro - ceftaz, piptazo, mero, tobra, aztreonam
Steno: septra, doxy, levoflox - ceftaz, colistin

736
Q

Duration of treatment for CF exacerbation

A

At least 2 weeks but often longer

737
Q

Definition of massive hemoptysis in CF

A

Scant <5 cc
Mild to moderate 5-240 cc
Massive >240 cc

738
Q

Management of hemoptysis in CF

A

Scant: +/- abx, continue everything
Mild/moderate: stop HS, no consensus DNAse, airway clearance; START abx
Massive: stop HS, airway clearance, no consensus DNAse; START abx
Stop BiPAP if on it (unless mild)

739
Q

Add-on options for ongoing hemoptysis

A

Vitamin K, tranexamic acid
Bronchial artery embolization
Lung resection
Transplantation

740
Q

Management of pneumothorax in CF

A

No consensus re antibiotics
Follow guidelines re: chest tube
Hold percussive therapies (including PEP devices)
Hold BPAP
Do not withhold mucous clearance and aerosols

741
Q

Indications for pleurodesis

A

Not after first episode
After recurrence
Surgical pleurodesis is preferred

742
Q

Recommendations post PNTX inCF

A

No travel x 2 weeks after resolution
No heavy lifting 5 lb x 2 weeks after resolution
No spirometry x 2 weeks after resolution

743
Q

Different types of mutations in CF

A

Class I: Nonsense mutation, Decreased synthesis
Class II: processing mutation e.g. F508del
Class III: Gating mutation e.g. G55D,
Class IV: Conductance e.g. R117H
Class V: Decreased production
Class IV: Decreased stability

744
Q

Who is eligible for CFTR modulator therapy?

A

F508 del
Gating mutation e.g. G551D
R117H

745
Q

Benefits of CFTR modulator therapy

A

Improve symptoms
Improve quality of life
Improved lung function/FEV1 (10.4%)
Improved weight
Improve sweat chloride
Reduced exacerbation and admission
Improved mortality

746
Q

What is the most common NTM in CF?

A

MAC complex

747
Q

How often do you screen patients with CF for NTM?

A

Annually in spontaneously expectorating
Do not need to go hunting for sputum if not spontaneously expectorating and no sx
Do not use oropharyngeal swabs

748
Q

Treatment of hemoptysis during bronchoscopy

A

Cold saline
Topical epinephrine 1:10,000
Bronchial blocker
Wedge with bronchoscopy
Lateral decubitus
Intubate

749
Q

Benefits of BCG vaccine

A

Prevent CNS tuberculosis.
Prevents disseminated TB.
Protection is mainly during childhood (up to age 15)

750
Q

Organisms are in the mycobacterium TB complex

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium bovis
Mycobacterium carnetti
Mycobacterium africanum
Mycobacterium microti

751
Q

Risk factors for developing primary infections? (18-24 months post is still considered primary disease)

A

Age <5
Immunocompromised e.g. HIV

752
Q

Risk factors for CNS TB

A

Age <5
HIV

753
Q

Risk factors for tuberculosis

A

Contacts e.g. household contacts
Birth in TB endemic area
Immunosuppression
Substance abuse
Socioeconomic status
Malnutrition
Certain systemic diseases e.g. COPD, DM, silicosis, renal disease, malignancy

754
Q

How long after exposure does it take to develop positive TBST or IGRA?

A

3-8 weeks

755
Q

Risk factors that increase the probability of TB transmission

A

Cavitary disease
Upper lung zone disease
Laryngeal disease
AFB smear positive disease
Level of exposure - proximity, time spent with them, environment
Coughing, sneezing

756
Q

Modes of transmission of TB

A

Airborne
Droplet
Percutaneous
Ingestion

757
Q

Isolation in TB

A

Smear negative → 2 weeks
Smear positive → 2 weeks if 3 consecutive smear negative AFB
Smear positive → 4 weeks if persistently positive sputums
For rifampin resistance, 4 weeks +/- 3 negative smears

758
Q

Indications for hospitalization inTB

A

Complicated TB, comorbid conditions
Has acute complication of TB e.g. hemoptysis
Drug desensitization
Is non compliant with medication
Cannot isolate safety at home

759
Q

What conditions must be met for someone isolating at home?

A

No shared ventilation with other units (non household members)
Everyone in household has already been exposed and if TBST negative, should accept risk of ongoing exposure
<5 or immunocompromised patients are already on treatment for latent or active TB

760
Q

Differences in treating TB in HIV

A

Longer duration IF NOT ON ART
Rifampicin rather than rifampin
Consideration of timing of ART therapy +/- steroids

761
Q

Imaging findings of primary TB

A

Lower lobe distribution
Parenchymal consolidation - Opacities, GGO, tree in bud nodules
May have cavities
Miliary TB
Hilar, mediastinal LN →RML collapse
More likely to have pleural effusion

762
Q

Imaging findings of secondary TB

A

Upper lobe distribution (apical, posterior > sup segment > anterior)
Consolidation, tree in bud
Cavitation
5% have upper lobe fibrocalcific changes

763
Q

Latent TB testing is not required in these situations

A

Low pretest probability
Diagnosis of active TB in those >12 years old
Trending response to treatment
Mass testing programs for e.g. immigrants (not including HCW/occupations)

764
Q

Indications for latent TB testing?

A

CXR showing apical fibronodular changes typical of healed TB
Recent exposure to active TB
Certain occupations e.g. HCW, prisoner workers, shelter workers
HIV (any stage)
IVDU or use of illicit drugs
Post HSCT or organ transplant (and pre transplant workup)
On immunosuppressive therapies (includes chemo)
Lymphoma, leukemia, head and neck cancers
Chronic kidney disease requiring dialysis
Silicosis

765
Q

What immune response does the TBST depend on?

A

Type IV delayed type hypersensitivity

766
Q

TBST preferred over IGRA when:

A

Contact tracing
Serial testing HCP and others

767
Q

Serial testing is required in TB when:

A

Contact investigation
Serial testing of HCW, other populations e.g. inmates, prison workers

768
Q

IGRA is preferred when:

A

Unclear if patient will return
Children >10 received vaccine after age 1, unclear when, >/2 vaccines
Children >2 but <10 previously received vaccine
Adequate training, personnel, facility for TBST not available
TBST is contraindicated
Previous known NTM infection

769
Q

Contraindications to TBST

A

Previous allergic reaction, blistering reaction

770
Q

Causes of false positive TBST

A

Technical limitations
Prior vaccination
Sensitization to NTM (not an issue with IGRA)
Rupture of venule at time of injection

771
Q

Causes of false negative TBST

A

Technical limitations
HIV
Active TB or fungal infection
Live virus vaccine in the last 4 weeks
Recent infection
Steroids >/15 mg x >2-4 weeks
Natural waning of immunity

772
Q

Causes of false negative IGRA

A

Immunosuppression e.g. HIV, active TB
Technical variability

773
Q

Sensitivity of TBST vs IGRA for latent TB

A

TBST: 77%
IGRA: 60-95%

774
Q

Indications for both IGRA/TBST

A

Either can be done to increase sensitivity after negative test
IGRA can be done after positive TBST to increase specificity

775
Q

Cutoffs for positive TBST - See table

A

<5
>/5
>/10

776
Q

Available tests to assess for TB

A

AFB smear (Zeil Nielson, Auramine Rhodamine) - sensitivity 20-80%
PCR - sensitivity 70-95%
Culture
Histopathology

777
Q

Diagnosis of active TB

A

Appropriate clinical and imaging findings
Positive TB culture, positive TB PCR +/- AFB

778
Q

Samples that can be collected for diagnosis of TB

A

Sputum
Induced sputum
BAL
Tissue
Urine (guideline recommends against lipoarabinomannan but can still do culture)
Blood
Gastric aspirate
Stool

779
Q

Pathological findings in tuberculosis

A

Caseating granulomatous inflammation
May see organisms, may stain positive for AFB

780
Q

DDX for positive AFB stains

A

Tuberculosis
NTM, most likely MAC
Nocardia
Rhodococcus
Actinomyces

781
Q

What percentage of patients with latent TB will develop active TB in their lifetime?

A

5-10%
50% of that risk is in the first 2 years

782
Q

Drug regimens for the treatment of latent TB

A

3HP = isoniazid and rifapentine weekly x 3 months
Rifampin daily x 4 months
Isoniazid daily x 6 months
Isoniazid daily x 9 months
Isoniazid and rifampin daily x 3 months

783
Q

Pretreatment testing before latent TB treatment

A

Assess for active TB - CXR → sputum AFB if CXR is abnormal
LFTs
Creatinine
CBC
HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C

784
Q

Indications to treat pregnant patients with latent TB

A

Recent close contact with active TB
On immunosuppression
Has HIV

785
Q

Treatment of pregnant patients with latent TB

A

Rifampin x 4 months

786
Q

Treatment of non-resistant active TB - What are their benefits?

A

Isoniazid 5 mg/kg daily → prevent resistance - bactericidal
Rifampin 10 mg/kg daily → prevent resistance, relapse - bactericidal
Ethambutol 15 mg/kg daily → prevents resistance
Pyrizinamide 20 mg/kg daily - bactericidal
FQ (moxi/levo) when person has A/E requiring cessation of a first line drug

787
Q

Alternative treatment regimens for active TB

A

R/I/E x 2 months then extend out to 7 months
Can also do the drugs in continuation phase (whether R/I or R/I/E 3 times per week)

788
Q

Potential side effects of TB treatment

A

Isoniazid - peripheral neuropathy, hepatic toxicity, drug induced SLE
Rifampin - drug-drug interaction, body fluid discolouration, hepatic toxicity, rash
Ethambutol - optic neuropathy, red-green color blindness
Pyrazinamide - hepatotoxicity

789
Q

Examples of drug-drug interactions with rifampin

A

DOACs, warfarin
Oral contraceptives
Antifungals
Tacro, cyclo
Methadone
Phenytoin

790
Q

When should you be concerned about liver toxicity with TB drugs?

A

Billi >3, serum, ALT > 3 ULN with sx, ALT >5 ULN with no sx
Can continue ethambutol; consider adding FQ
Discontinue, restart slowly with careful monitoring
Obviously assess for other causes of transaminitis

791
Q

Indications to extend active TB treatment to 9 months

A

BASELINE Cavitary ON CXR + smear/culture positive at 2 months
Diabetes and cavitary disease
HIV not on ART therapy
Solid organ transplant recipients
On TNF alpha inhibitors
Did not use pyrazinamide in intensive phase
TB meningitis
TB bone disease if elevated inflammatory markers at end of 6 months

792
Q

When do you start ART therapy in a patient with active TB and HIV?

A

TB meningitis - after 2 weeks
No TB meningitis - within 2 weeks
Pred 40 x 2 weeks if CD4 <100, unless active hepatitis B, kaposi, rifampin resistance

793
Q

Monitoring patients with active TB on treatment

A

CBC, crea, LFTs monthly
HIV, hepatitis B/C at start of treatment
CXR at baseline, then q2 months
Sputum smear, culture q2 weeks until smear negative; then 2 and 1 month before end
PFT within 6 months of finishing treatment

794
Q

Recurrence vs relapse vs reinfection

A

Recurrence: can be due to either
Relapse: same strain
Reinfection: different strain

795
Q

Risk factors for recurrence

A

Cavitary disease, smear positive disease
Extensive or disseminated disease
Drug resistant disease
Immunosuppressed
Intermittent therapy (not daily), treatment interruptions
Was not adherent
Should monitor these patients for 12-24 months with sx/imaging/microbiological testing

796
Q

Treatment of active TB in pregnancy

A

RIE (omit P) x 9 months

797
Q

Indications to give pyrazinamide in pregnancy

A

Smear positive
Extensive disease
Disseminated
Intolerance to any first line drugs

798
Q

Drugs that are contraindicated in pregnancy (TB)

A

+/-PZA
All injectables
Fluoroquinolones

799
Q

Common locations for extrapulmonary tuberculosis

A

Pleural*
Abdominal*
Lymphadenopathy*
CNS - tuberculoma, CNS meningitis
Bone - vertebral disease, arthritis
Cutaneous
Genitourinary
Ocular

800
Q

Definition and diagnosis of disseminated TB

A

Disease in >?2 non contiguous organs OR isolation in blood, bone marrow, or liver on bx
Milliary TB is subset of disseminated TB

801
Q

Differential diagnosis for miliary pattern on CT

A

Disseminated tuberculosis
Other infections: histoplasmosis, mycoplasma, varicella
Sarcoidosis, pneumoconiosis, amyloidosis
Miliary metastases e.g. thyroid cancer, breast cancer, RCC, melanoma

802
Q

Tests that can help assess for TB Pleuritis

A

Fluid analysis
Fluid adenosine deaminase
Fluid interferon gamma
Fluid AFB and culture
Histopathology

803
Q

Fluid characteristics in TB pleuritis

A

Low - normal glucose
pH >7.3
LDH >500
Neutrophil predominant early on, the lymphocyte predominance
<5% mesothelial cells
Pseudochylothorax, chylothorax

804
Q

Treatment of pleural TB

A

RIPE x 6 months
Chest tube if empyema, may need decortication
No steroids

805
Q

Extrapulmonary TB cases that require extended therapy

A

CNS x 9-12 months, requires higher doses of rifampin >15 mg/kg
Joint x 9-12 months if markers of severity at 6 months (CRP, ESR)

806
Q

Imaging findings in CNS TB

A

Basal leptomeningeal enhancement
Hydrocephalus
Infarcts

807
Q

Benefits of steroids in the treatment of TB meningitis

A

Mitigate increased ICP, reduce hydrocephalus and infarction, reduce short term mortality
Does not affect disabling neurological consequences or long term survival

808
Q

Steroid regimen in the treatment of TB meningitis

A

120 mg x 1 week
90 mg x 1 week
60 mg x 1 week
30 mg x 1 week
15 mg x 1 wek
5 mg x 1 week

809
Q

Treatment of TB pericarditis

A

RIPE x 6 months
Steroids in HIV negative
NOT HIV positive (ART or no ART)

810
Q

Indications for steroids in the treatment of TB

A

Treating TB in HIV with CD4 <100 to prevent IRIS
All patients with meningitis
HIV negative patients with pericarditis

811
Q

Definitions of TB resistance

A

Monoresistant: Resistant to any of the first line therapies.
Poly drug resistance: Resistant to 2 of the first line therapies (not rifampin)
MDR: Resistant to INH + Rifampin with/without resistant to other first line agents.
Pre-XDR: MDR TB with additional resistance to any FQ.
XDR: Pre-XDR + resistance to bedaquiline/linezolid

812
Q

Most common NTM species to cause infection

A

MAC
M. Kansassi
M. abscessus

813
Q

Modes of transmission for NTM

A

Soli aerosols
Water aerosols
Soft tissue
Aspiration

814
Q

Risk factors for development of NTM

A

Older age
Female
Lower BMI
Thoracic cage abnormalities, mitral valve prolapse
Immunocomp (e.g. HIV, IST, malignancy) but can happen in immunocompetent too
Underlying structural lung disease e.g. bronchiectasis, CF, ILD, COPD/asthma
Oral steroids >15 mg/day
Inhaled fluticasone >800 mcg/day
Anti TNF alpha

815
Q

Risk factors for progression of NTM

A

Older age
Male
Lowe BMI
Immunosuppression - primary immunodeficiency, HIV infection, IST, anti TNF, steroids?
Labs: elevated ESR/CRP, hypoalbuminemia
Fibrocavitary disease
Extent of disease
Bacterial load and species and smear positivity

816
Q

2 pulmonary phenotypes that are produced by NTM

A

Fibrocavitary
Nodular bronchiectatic
Other: HP, solitary pulmonary nodule, disseminated

817
Q

Non pulmonary manifestations of NTM

A

Superficial lymphadenitis (especially cervical)
Skin and soft tissue infection
Disseminated disease

818
Q

Radiographic findings of NTM

A

Fibrocavitary - thick walled cavities, upper lobe predominance
Nodules, tree in bud nodularity
Bronchiectasis
GGO, centrilobular nodules, gas trapping in HP

819
Q

What other features are seen in Lady Windermere syndrome?

A

Scoliosis
Pectus excavatum
Mitral valve prolapse

820
Q

Diagnostic criteria for NTM → See table.

A
821
Q

What is special about the sputum cultures that are obtained in NTM diagnosis vs TB?

A

TB - 3 sputums, 1 hour apart is fine
NTM - 2 sputums, same species/subspecies should be isolated over interval of >/1 week

822
Q

If monitoring patients, how and how frequently do you monitor them?

A

Sputum culture q2-3 months
Repeat imaging after 6 months

823
Q

What is the treatment for NTM? See table.

A
824
Q

What is the definition of refractory disease in NTM?

A

Culture positive after 6 months

825
Q

What makes treatment of abscessus unique?

A

Can have chromosomal mutations
Mutation and inducible resistance

826
Q

Treatment categories for MAC

A

Fibronodular disease
Extensive disease/cavitary disease
Macrolide resistant disease
Refractory disease

827
Q

Treatment categories for Kansasii treatment

A

Fibronodular disease
Extensive disease/cavitary disease
Rifampin resistance

828
Q

Treatment categories for Xenopi treatment

A

Fibronodular
Extensive/cavitary disease

829
Q

Indications for surgical management

A

Severe complication e.g. hemoptysis
Not responding to medical therapy, refractory disease

830
Q

Duration of treatment for MAC, Kansasii and Xenopi

A

MAC x 12 months post first negative culture/culture conversion
Kansasii x 12 months fixed
Xenopi x 12 months post culture conversion
Abscessus - expert opinion

831
Q

Which fungi require T cell mediated defense vs phagocytosis?

A

T cell mediated immune defense: PJP, endemic fungi, NTM/TB, crypto
Phagocytosis: candida, aspergillus, mucormycosis

832
Q

Disease manifestations of aspergillus

A

ABPA
Aspergillus nodule
Aspergilloma - unusual to be caused by other fungus
Chronic cavitating pulmonary aspergillosis
Chronic fibrosing pulmonary aspergillosis
Semi invasive pulmonary aspergillosis
Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis
Tracheobronchitis

833
Q

Available aspergillus microbiological testing

A

Aspergillus IgG - most sensitive
Serum/BAL - PCR
Serum/BAL - galactomannan
Sputum/BAL/tissue/blood/other - culture

834
Q

RFs for chronic cavitation aspergillosis

A

Pre-existing structural lung disease.
COPD
Tuberculosis
Cystic fibrosis
Others

835
Q

Risk factors for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis

A

Prolonged neutropenia <500 for >10 days
Transplantation - lung, HSCT
Hematological malignancy
Steroids >3 weeks
Chemotherapy
HIV/AIDs
Chronic granulomatous disease

836
Q

How do you generally diagnose chronic pulmonary aspergillosis?

A

At least 3 months in duration
Consistent clinical and imaging features
Evidence of Asp IgG vs positive sputum/BAL/biopsy culture

837
Q

Imaging findings for invasive aspergillosis

A

Nodules
Reverse halo sign
Atoll sign
Air crescent sign
Wedge shaped infarcts

838
Q

Treatment for a pulmonary aspergilloma

A

Single - can observe or surgery/embolization if symptomatic
Multiple - antifungals (itraconazole)
Can give antifungals pre/post surgery if high risk spillage

839
Q

Treatment of chronic cavitary pulmonary aspergillosis

A

Observe
Itraconazole, vori, posi x 6 months

840
Q

Treatment for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis

A

Voriconazole x >/6 weeks

841
Q

Imaging findings for ABPA

A

Finger in glove, mucous plugging
Mucous plugging can cause collapse
Bronchial wall thickening
Central bronchiectasis
Fleeting pulmonary alveolar opacities, usually upper lobes
Pulmonary fibrosis in chronic disease

842
Q

diagnostic criteria for ABPA - new criteria

A
843
Q

Treatment for ABPA

A

Prednisone
Itraconazole x 16 weeks/voi/posi
Anti-IL5 agent (not confirmed by RCT yet)

844
Q

Treatment of ABPA exacerbation

A

MIld → ICS
More than mild → increase oral steroids

845
Q

Risk factors for disseminated disease of endemic Fungi?

A

Medications e.g. TNF-alpha inhibitors, steroids, IST
HIV/AIDs
Immune disorders e.g. CVID
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Extremes of age

846
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of histoplasmosis

A

Acute localized pulmonary histoplasmosis
Diffuse pulmonary histoplasmosis
Chronic pulmonary histoplasmosis
Disseminated histoplasmosis

847
Q

Radiographic manifestations of histoplasmosis

A

Acute localized pulmonary histoplasmosis
- Local infiltrates/pneumonitis (usually lower)

Diffuse pulmonary histoplasmosis
- Reticulonodular
- Miliary

Chronic pulmonary histoplasmosis
- Apical fibrocavitary

Disseminated histoplasmosis
- Miliary

848
Q

Manifestations of chronic pulmonary histoplasmosis

A

Apical infiltrations, fibrosis
Cavitation
Fibrosing mediastinitis
Mediastinal granuloma
Can send secondary infection of cavitation
Broncholithiasis

849
Q

Diagnosis of different manifestations of histoplasmosis

A

Use antigen (urine*, blood, BAL) + antibody for acute disease (local or diffuse) or disseminated disease
Use culture (BAL, TBBx) for chronic disease - sputum sensitivity is low
Mediastinal disease: ab usually positive; antigen -, culture

850
Q

Histopathology of histoplasmosis

A

Small yeast with narrow based budding

851
Q

Treatment of mediastinal manifestations of histoplasmosis

A

Broncholithiasis → observe, bronchoscopic preferred, surgical
Mediastinal granuloma → observe, surgical removal if needed
Fibrosing mediastinitis → stent if needed, no antifungals or steroids (unless sarcoid or vasculitis causing it, then can be trialed)

852
Q

Manifestations of pulmonary coccidioidomycosis

A

Local primary
Diffuse pulmonary coccidioidomycosis
Chronic fibrocavitary disease
Disseminated

853
Q

Diagnostic criteria for coccidioidomycosis

A

Combination of tests
Antigen (urine, serum, BAL)
Antibody (EIA preferred)
Direct visualization (sputum, BAL, bx material), path - can see spherules
Culture

854
Q

Manifestations of pulmonary blastomycosis

A

Acute focal pulmonary blasto
Acute diffuse pulmonary blasto
Chronic pulmonary blasto
Disseminated

855
Q

Extra pulmonary manifestations of blasto

A

Brain
Bone - OM
Cutaneous - crusting, verrucous lesion
GU tract

856
Q

Diagnostic criteria for blasto

A

Combination of tests
Antigen
Antibody
Direct visualization, path
Culture - gold standard

857
Q

Imaging findings of PJP

A

Reticular changes, perihilar distribution
Crazy paving
Pneumatoceles

858
Q

General blood work to assess for PJP

A

LDH - sensitive
Beta D glucan - sensitive

859
Q

Causes of positive beta d glucan

A

Pseudomonas infection
IVIG
IHD using cellulose membrane

860
Q

When is beta d glucan usually negative?

A

Mucormycosis
Cryptococcus
Blastomycosis

861
Q

Diagnosis of PJP

A

Stained respiratory specimens - sputum, BAL - very sensitive in HIV
PCR - blood, sputum, BAL - especially useful in HIV -

862
Q

Treatment of PJP

A

Septra x 21 days, 15-20 mg/kg IV of TMP component
Alternatives: IV pentamidine, primaquine + clinda, atovaquone, dapsone + septra

863
Q

Indications of treating with steroids

A

PaO2 <70 mmHg
A-a gradient >/35 mmHg
U2D: SpO2 <92%

864
Q

Indications of PJP prophylaxis in HIV

A

CD4 <200 (continue until >200 for >3 months)
CD4 <14%

865
Q

Options for PJP prophylaxis

A

Septra SS, DS
Pentamidine
Dapsone
Atovaquone

866
Q

Risk factors for invasive candidal infection

A

Neutropenia
Immunosuppression
Broad spectrum abx use
Necrotizing pancreatitis
TPN
CVC
Intra abdominal surgical procedures

867
Q

Risk factors for mucormycosis

A

Diabetes, especially DKA
Iron overload, deferoxamine tx
Hematological malignancies, HSCT, SOT
Glucocorticoid treatment
COVID-19 pneumonia

868
Q

Imaging findings of mucormycosis

A

Like IPA
More pleural effusion

869
Q

Diagnosis of mucormycosis

A

Culture (usually negative)
Histopathology*

870
Q

Treatment of mucormycosis

A

Amphotericin B
Surgical debridement

871
Q

Risk factors for the development of nocardia

A

HIV CD4<100
SOT, especially lung
- High steroids independent RF
- High CNI levels independent RF
- CMV in last 6 months independent RF
Long term steroids, other IST
Lymphoma
PAP
COPD, bronchiectasis

872
Q

Extra pulmonary manifestations of nocardia

A

Brain - abscess, meningitis
Skin - abscess
Bone
Muscle

873
Q

Imaging findings of nocardi

A

Nodule
LN rare

874
Q

Teatment of nocardia

A

Septra
Imipenem
Cephalosporins 3rd generation
Amikacin

875
Q

Treatment duration for nocardia

A

6-12 months normally
12 months at least if immunosuppressed

876
Q

Causes of unilateral hyperlucent lung

A

Poland syndrome
Mastectomy
Pneumothorax
Pulmonary embolism - Westermark
Vascular pruning
Swyer james mcleod syndrome
Congenital lobar emphysema
CPAM
Giant bullous disease
Pneumatocele
Pneumonectomy

877
Q

Imaging features of bronchial atresia

A

LUL predominantly
Mucous filled atretic bronchial stump
Hyperlucent lung due to hyperinflation of distal lung (Pores of Kohn)

878
Q

Imaging features of CLE (Congenital lobar Emphysema)

A

Unilateral hyperlucent lung
Larger affected lung
Decreased vascularity
Contralateral mediastinal shift

879
Q

Complications of CLE

A

Recurrent pneumonia
Cyanosis
Failure to thrive

880
Q

Imaging features of CPAM

A

Type 1 and 4 - single lesions - associated with malignancy
Type 2 - numerous cysts, appears bubbly
Type 3 - large, solid homogeneous mass

881
Q

Indications for treatment of CPAM

A

Symptomatic

Asymptomatic but:
- >20% hemithorax
- Concern for malignancy
- Frequent complications

882
Q

Imaging features of ILS (intralobar sequestration) and ELS (extralobar sequestration)

A

Predominantly LLL
Dense mass, sometimes with cystic areas
Feeding vessel

883
Q

Differences between intralobar and extralobar sequestration

A

Epidemiology
Blood supply
Location
Pleural supply
Connection with tracheobronchial tree
Clinical presentation

884
Q

Surgical indications for pulmonary sequestration

A

Symptomatic
Complications
>/20% of the hemithorax
Characteristics concerning for malignancy/pleuropulmonary blastoma

885
Q

Imaging abnormalities in Scimitar syndrome

A

Anomalous pulmonary venous return - (tubular structure)*
Right lung hypoplasia*
Pulmonary artery hypoplasia*
Ipsilateral mediastinal shift
Dextroposition
Pulmonary sequestration

886
Q

Causes of tracheobronchomalacia

A

Previous prolonged intubation
Previous tracheostomy
Previous surgery e.g. lung transplantation
Marfan’s syndrome, Ehlers danlos syndrome, scoliosis, pectus excavatum
Relapsing polychondritis, other autoimmune conditions
Chronic inflammation e.g. CF, bronchiectasis
Recurrent infections e.g. bronchitis
Multinodular goiter, malignant or benign lesions of neck and mediastinum
COPD, asthma, obesity

887
Q

Diagnostic criteria for tracheobronchomalacia

A

Non contrast dynamic CT and bronchoscopy (gold)
<70% normal, 70-80 mild, 80-90 moderate, >90% severe

888
Q

Treatment for tracheobronchomalacia

A

Treat underlying cause
PAP therapy
Airway clearance techniques
Stent trial → tracheobronchoplasty

889
Q

Diagnostic criteria for tracheobronchomegaly

A

Trachea >3 cm
RMS > 2.4 cm
LMS >2.3 cm

890
Q

Causes of tracheal and subglottic stenosis

A

Congenital and idiopathic
Previous intubation
Previous tracheostomy
Previous surgery e.g. lung transplantation
Inflammatory e.g. relapsing polychondritis, vasculitis, sarcoidosis, IgG4 disease, Ra, SLE, amyloidosis
Infectious e.g. tuberculosis, fungal, bacterial
Malignancy
Radiation

891
Q

Management of tracheal stenosis

A

Treat underlying cause
Balloon dilatation
Laser cautery
Stenting
Surgical

892
Q

Causes of tracheal thickening

A

Post intubation, post trauma, post surgery
Malignancy e.g. SCAMM
Infectious - e.g. TB
Inflammatory - e.g. RP, GPA, amyloidosis, sarcoidosis
Other - e.g. TBM, TBP OCP

893
Q

Causes of thickening spare the posterior membrane

A

TBM
TBPOCP
Relapsing polychondritis

894
Q

Benign causes of tracheal masses

A

Chondroma
Leiomyoma
Lipoma
Amyloidoma
Squamous cell papilloma
Hamartoma
Hemangioma
Tracheobronchomalacia osteochondroplastica

895
Q

Malignant causes of tracheal masses

A

Squamous cell carcinoma
Chondrosarcoma
Carcinoid tumour
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Metastatic disease

896
Q

Differential diagnosis for mediastinal masses

A

Anterior
- Teratoma
- Thymoma and other thymic tumors
- Thyroid - goiter, malignancy
- Terrible lymphoma

Middle - 3A’s
- Adenopathy - lymphoma, sarcoid, silicosis, castleman’s, meds, infxn
- Aneurysms - aortic aneurysm, fistulas
- Anomalies - bronchogenic cyst
- Other - lipomatosis, lymphangiomas, hernias

Posterior
- Neural tumors e.g. Schwannoma, neuroblastoma
- Esophageal process e.g. mass, diverticula
- Descending aortic aneurysm
- Extramedullary hematopoiesis
- Bochdalek hernia

897
Q

Blood work in the assessment of teratoma

A

Beta HCG
AFP
LDH

898
Q

Examples of thymic tumors

A

Thymoma
Thymic carcinoma
Thymic lymphoma
Thymic neuroendocrine (carcinoid tumour)
Thymolipoma

899
Q

Differentiate a seminoma GCT vs nonseminoma GCT

A

Beta HCG is high, AFP normal in seminoma
Both high in non seminoma

900
Q

Complications associated with fibrosing mediastinitis

A

Atelectasis & Recurrent infections, dyspnea, cough
SVC syndrome
Pulmonary hypertension
Dysphagia
Phrenic nerve paralysis

901
Q

Causes of congenital hernias

A

Morgagni hernia
Bochdalek hernia

902
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of relapsing polychondritis

A

Tracheobronchomalacia
Tracheal stenosis
Subglottic stenosis
Tracheal thickening
These can cause OSA, post obstructive PNA

903
Q

Contraindications & complications for:

A

Thoracentesis
Chest tube insertion
Bronchoscopy
Transbronchial biopsies
Surgical lung biopsies

904
Q

Management of anticoagulation

A

Warfarin x 5 days, INR <1.5
DOAC 24-48 hours
LMWH x 24 hours, 6 hours if DVTp
Plavix , prasugrel x 5-7? days
Ticagrelor x 7 days
Dipyridamol x 24 hours
Platelet count >50K

905
Q

In what conditions is bridging required?

A
906
Q

Complications of suction

A

Increased RPO
Increased pneumothorax
Increased hemothorax
Increased pain

907
Q

Causes of hypoxemia post thoracentesis

A

RPO
Pneumothorax
Hemothorax
V/Q mismatch immediately post

908
Q

Risk factors for RPO following thoracentesis

A

Age <40
Large volume removed >1.5L (debatable)
Pressure <-20 cm H2O
Duration of collapse >72 hours
Size of pneumothorax
Diabetes

909
Q

Indications for large bore chest tube insertion

A

Pneumothorax not responding to chest tube
Pneumothorax on mechanical ventilation
Trauma patient
Hemothorax
Required for talc pleurodesis

910
Q

Microorganisms may not be pathogenic on BAL

A

NTM
Aspergillus
Candida
Cryptococcus
CMV, HSV

911
Q

Microorganisms are always pathogenic on BAL

A

Legionella
Endemic fungi
Tuberculosis
PJP
Influenza, RSV

912
Q

Diagnoses can be made with TBBx

A

Sarcoidosis
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Pneumoconiosis
Lymphangitic carcinomatosis
Tuberculosis
CMV pneumonitis
Lung transplant rejection

913
Q

Maximum dose of lidocaine that should be used during bronchoscopy

A

5 mL/kg without epinephrine
7 mg/kg with epinephrine

914
Q

Respiratory changes that occur during pregnancy

A

No change: VC, RR, lung compliance, resistance
Increase: MV, tidal volume, VO2 max, PaO2
Decrease: TLC, FRC, ERV, RV, total respiratory compliance, PaCO2

915
Q

Cardiovascular changes that occur during pregnancy

A

SVR decreases, PVR decreases - BP decreases
SV increases, HR increases, CO increases
Increased blood volume

916
Q

Acceptable upper limit in pregnancy for radiation

A

<50 milligrays or <50 mSv
<5 rad

917
Q

DDX for dyspnea in pregnancy

A

Physiological dyspnea in pregnancy
Peripartum cardiomyopathy
Tocolytic pulmonary edema
Asthma
Pulmonary embolism
Amniotic fluid embolism
Venous air embolism
PAVM growth
Obstructive sleep apnea

918
Q

PE/DVT treatment in pregnancy

A

LMWH
Warfarin and DOAC contraindicated
At least 3 months + 6 weeks postpartum

919
Q

Antibiotics that are contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Fluoroquinolones
Aminoglycosides
Septra, sulfa drugs
Tetracyclines

920
Q

Changes that occur at high altitude

A

Hyperventilation
Increased HR and CO
Hypoxic vasoconstriction
Renal compensation, bicarbonate secretion
Polycythemia
Muscle changes - increase vascularity, increase myoglobin concentration, decrease in muscle fiber size
2,3 DPG shifts the oxygen curve
RV hypertrophy
Blunted response to acute hypoxemia

921
Q

Associated complications with high altitude

A

Acute mountain sickness
High altitude pulmonary edema
High altitude cerebral edema
Periodic breathing of altitude

922
Q

Methods of assessing hypoxia at altitude

A

Normobaric hypoxic challenge
Hypobaric hypoxic challenge
Predictive equations
Walk test and SpO2

923
Q

Indications for a HAST test (highly accelerated stress test)

A

The obstructive algorithm, if at risk for hypercapnia
The restrictive algorithm, if either PaO2 <70 OR TLC <50%
CF <50% predicted
Severe asthma
NMD or chest wall weakness FVC <1L
Baseline hypercapnia or risk of hypercapnia

924
Q

When is flying not recommended based on the HAST test?

A

pH falls <7.35
pCO2 increases by 7.5

925
Q

Contraindication to flying?

A

Untreated pneumothorax or not out of time frame
Untreated respiratory failure
Active infection with risk to others w.g. COVID, TB
Bronchogenic cysts
Type 2 respiratory failure
Baseline O2 >4L (old, not really anymore?)

926
Q

DDX of symptoms during descent

A

Barotrauma of descent
Nitrogen narcosis
Immersion pulmonary edema

927
Q

DDX of symptoms during ascent

A

Barotrauma of ascent
Decompression sickness
Arterial air embolism

928
Q

Mechanism of barotrauma on descent vs ascent

A

Descent - lung squeeze below RV, pulmonary edema and hemorrhage
Ascent - overinflation and possible rupture (have to exhale) → PNTX, pneumomediastinum, subcutaneous emphysema, air embolism

929
Q

Complications of barotrauma

A

Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema
PNTX
Pneumomediastinum
Arterial gas embolism
Ear trauma
Sinus barotrauma
Dental barotrauma

930
Q

Timeline of symptoms of decompression sickness

A

Upon surfacing
Can be delayed up to 24 hours

931
Q

Risk factors for decompression sickness

A

Ascension to fast
Time of dive
Depth of dive (rare <10 m )
Air travel and altitude within 12 hours
Right to left shunt

932
Q

DDx of complications while surfacing

A

Decompression sickness
Barotrauma of ascent - expanding pneumothorax or pneumomediastinum
Shallow water blackout

933
Q

Diagnostic criteria of EIB

A

Reduction in FEV1 by >/10%
Can use cycle ergometer or treadmill

934
Q

Indications for EIB

A

Diagnosis of EIB
Assessment of management
Assessing fitness for scuba diving

935
Q

Contraindications for EIB

A

FEV1 <75% predicted
Stroke or MI in the last 3 months
Uncontrolled hypertension
Aortic aneurysm
Recent eye surgery or ICP elevation risk

936
Q

Procedure for EIB

A

2-4 mins ramp up → rapid needed, otherwise dampens response
4-6 mins at exercise target
60% MVV (preferred), 80-90% maximum HR

937
Q

Causes of a false negative EIB

A

Exercise in last 4 hours
Took asthma medications
Took antihistamines in last 48 hours
Warm up too long, didn’t reach in 4 mins
Exercised for too long
Didn’t reach max exercise

938
Q

Management of EIB

A

As needed SABA
Start ICS or LTRA

939
Q

Samter’s triad

A

Chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyposis
Asthma
NSAID/ASA intolerance

940
Q

Pathogenesis of AERD

A

NSAIDs that preferentially block COX-1 enzyme
Arachidonic acid metabolized through lipoxygenase pathway
Increased leukotrienes, cause bronchoconstriction

941
Q

Management of AERD

A

Maintenance ICS
Add on LTRA
Nasal polyp surgery, intranasal steroids
ASA desensitization
Dupilumab

942
Q

Indications for ASA desensitization in AERD

A

NSAID for another disease
Recurrent nasal polyps recurring after surgery

943
Q

Risk factors for development of asthma

A

Personal history of atopy
Family history of asthma
Low birth weight, premature , IUGR
Maternal smoking
Pollution exposure - vehicle emissions, industrial waste
Allergen exposure - dust mites, mold, cockroaches, pet dander, mice
LTRIs

944
Q

Roles of the different TH2 mediators

A

IL-5: maturation of eosinophils
IL-4: IgE production by cells
IL-13: mucous production, hyperresponsiveness, eos recruitment
IgE: mast cell degranulation
TSLP: downstream signaling

945
Q

Symptoms that support a diagnosis of asthma

A

Variable symptoms and intensity
Worse at night, upon awakening or after viral infections
Often triggered by exercise, allergens, cold air or laughing

946
Q

Severity of methacholine response

A

Mild BDR: 25 mcg - 100 mcg
Moderate BDR: 6 mcg - 25 mcg
Severe BDR: <6 mcg

947
Q

Comorbidities that should be assessed for at every visit

A

Elevated BMI
OSA
GERD
Rhinosinusitis, post nasal drip
Anxiety, depression

948
Q

Asthma control criteria CTS

A

Daytime symptoms </2/week
Night time symptoms <1 week and mild
Use of rescue SABA </2/week
Exacerbations are infrequent and mild
Physical activity level maintained/normal
No absences from work or school due to asthma
No missed work or hospitalizations
PEF and FEV1 >/90% personal best
PEF variability <10-15%
Sputum eosinophils <2-3%

949
Q

Severity of asthma exacerbations

A

Mild: just change in bronchodilators
Severe: Systemic steroids, ED or hospitalization required
Near fatal: required ICU, mechanical ventilation, respiratory acidosis

950
Q

Risk factors for severe asthma exacerbation

A

Current smoker (studies on tobacco, but others considered)
SABA use >2 canisters/year
Hx of severe exacerbation
Poorly controlled
FEV1 <70%
Older age
Female
Elevated BMi
Depression, anxiety
Others as per GINA: comorbidities (GERD, OSA etc), elevated blood eos

951
Q

Risk factors for near fatal asthma exacerbation

A

History of near fatal asthma
History of severe asthma
Hx recurrent ED or hospitalizations in the last year
Non adherence
Missed appointments
Depression, anxiety
Substance use
Elevated BMI

952
Q

Management options and their benefits in Asthma

A

Action plan - exacerbations
Inhaled steroids - symptoms/QOL, lung function, exacerbation, mortality
LABA - symptoms, lung function, exacerbation, need for reliever
LAMA - lung function, exacerbation (but increased if monotherapy)
LTRA - symptoms, lung function, exacerbation, need for reliever
Azithromycin - symptoms, exacerbations
Biologics
Bronchial thermoplasty - exacerbations (increased in first 3 months), not sx or fxn
Oral steroids

953
Q

Dose and appropriate phenotype for azithromycin therapy in Asthma

A

500 mg oral 3/week
Inflammatory phenotype does not predict response

954
Q

Indications/requirements for bronchial thermoplasty

A

Poor control despite max medical therapy
FEV1 > /60%
Non smoker >/1 year
No hx life threatening exacerbation
<3 hospitalization in last 12 months

955
Q

Complications of bronchial thermoplasty

A

Increase exacerbation x 3 months
Atelectasis
Pneumonia

956
Q

Benefits of aerochambers

A

Reduce oropharyngeal deposition and side effects
Improve pulmonary deposition and benefits
Make actuation coordination easier

957
Q

Rating severity of asthma

A

Severe = high dose steroids + second controller OR oral steroids for >/50% of the year to keep asthma controlled or uncontrolled despite this

958
Q

Definition of uncontrolled asthma - One of:

A

Poor control - control criteria, or ACQ >/1.5
Frequent exacerbations (>/2 per year) requiring OCS (>/3 days)
Serious exacerbations (>/1 per year) requiring hospitalizations, ICU, MV in the last year
Airflow limitation <80% personal best

959
Q

Etiology of uncontrolled asthma

A

Non adherence
Inhalation technique
Exposures
Comorbidities e.g. GERD, OSA, PND, etc.
Alternative diagnosis
Severe asthma

960
Q

Investigation of severe asthma

A

Rhinosinusitis - tx, CT sinus, ENT referral
GERD - 24 hour PH monitoring
OSA - PSG
Psychiatric - referral
EGPA - ANCA
ABPA - IgE, RAST, eos
VCD - ENT
Bronchiectasis - CT chest, CF testing, IGAM, sputum culture

961
Q

Biomarkers in TH2 inflammation and their cut offs

A

FENO >/25 ppb
Sputum eosinophils >2%
Serum eosinophils >/150
Asthma allergen driven clinically

962
Q

Role of FENO?

A

Etiology of respiratory symptoms -?inflammatory
Predict response to steroids or inhaled steroids
Monitor response
Guide management - step up, step down
Evaluate adherence

963
Q

What is considered a significant increase or decrease in FENO?

A

Baseline over 50 ppb: >20% increase, >20% decrease
Baseline less than 50 ppb: >10 ppb increase, >10 ppb decrease

964
Q

Causes of increased FENO

A

Atopic asthma
Atopy, allergic rhinitis, eczema
Eosinophilic bronchitis
COPD with mixed inflammatory phenotype
Viral infections
Acute/chronic rejection of lung including BO

965
Q

Causes of decreased FENO

A

Smokers
LTRA
Rhinosinusitis
Non eosinophilic asthma
RADS
VCD
COPD
Bronchiectasis, CF

966
Q

Benefits of biologic therapy in Asthma?

A

Improve symptoms
Improve FEV1
Reduce exacerbations
Reduce OCS - mainly mepo, benra, dupi; resi in post analysis, ?oma

967
Q

Notable side effects of biologic therapy in Asthma?

A

Injection site pain and reaction, nasopharyngitis, headaches
Omalizumab - anaphylaxis
Dupilumab - hypereosinophilia (do not give if baseline >1.5)
Tezepelumab - anaphylaxis

968
Q

Treatment options for type 2 asthma

A

LAMA
Azithromycin
Anti-TSLP
Bronchial thermoplasty

969
Q

Treatment of asthma exacerbation

A

All → SABA, steroids

Additional to consider:
SAMA
IV magnesium
High dose ICS
BPAP
HFNC if cannot tolerate BPAP
IV epinephrine - if anaphylaxis or angioedema component
Ketamine - acts as anxiolytic
Heliox if component of upper airway obstruction

970
Q

Diagnostic criteria for RADS

A

Consistent history (acute exposure preceding symptoms, no sx before)
Airflow obstruction on PFT, non specific bronchial hyperresponsiveness
Symptoms arise within 24 hours
Symptoms last at least 3 months
Exclusion of other causes

971
Q

Causative agents for irritant induced asthma

A

Chlorine
Oxides of nitrogen
Acetic acid
Sulfur dioxide
Isocyanates

972
Q

RFs for developing sensitizer induced OA

A

RFs for developing sensitizer induced OA
Atopy
Higher level of exposure
More frequent exposure
Cigarette smoking

973
Q

Causes of sensitizer induced OA

A

LMW: isocyanates (polyurethane worker, insulation installer, spray painter), dyes and bleaches (hairdressers), wood dust (carpenter), metal salt (metal plating)
HMW: flour dust (baker), animal protein antigens e.g. murine urine (veterinarian, farmer) & shellfish (fish processing), natural rubber latex protein (HCW)

974
Q

Extrapulmonary symptoms of sensitizer induced OA

A

Rhinitis
Urticaria, rash

975
Q

Investigations to confirm the diagnosis of occupational asthma

A

PEF - best validated method - variability >/20%*
NSBHR - less sensitive and specific - > 3.2 fold*
Specific inhalation challenge test - FEV1 drop by >/15%*
Sputum eosinophils - increase by >1-2%
Spirometry - less sensitive and specific

976
Q

Once occupational asthma is confirmed, how do we find out the causative agent?

A

IgE
Specific inhalation challenge test

977
Q

Stages of change for smoking cessation

A

Pre contemplative
Contemplative
Preparation
Action
Maintenance

978
Q

5A’s of smoking cessation

A

Assess
Advise
Ask
Assist
Arrange

979
Q

Side effects of smoking cessation

A

Change in mood
Weight gain
Increased sputum production

980
Q

Benefits of smoking cessation

A

Rate of FEV1 decline normalizes
Normal MI risk by 1 year
½ cancer risk by 10 years
½ risk of dying in next 15 years

981
Q

Impact of smoking on fetus

A

IUGR
Premature birth
Low birth weight
SIDS
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

982
Q

Success rate of quitting with and without aid cessation

A

5% without
30% with

983
Q

Side effects of cessation aids

A

NRT: Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, insomnia, vivid dreams, local irritation, hypersensitivity
Varenicline: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, bizarre dreams, sleep walking, insomnia
Bupropion: decreased seizure threshold, suicidal or homicidal ideation, psychosis, mania or hypomania

984
Q

Contraindications of the cessation aids

A

NRT: recent ACS or stroke (<2 weeks), uncontrolled BP
Varenicline: kidney disease, hypersensitivity
Bupropion: <18 (suicidality), seizure disorder, AN/BN, on MAOI, on wellbutrin, hypersensitivity, discontinuation of BZD, alcohol (things that lower seizure threshold)

985
Q

RF for COPD development

A

Men
Cigarette smoking (in utero, passive, active), cannabis, vaping
Air pollution, biomass fuel burning
Occupational exposures e.g. coal, pesticides
HIV, childhood infections
Genetics e.g SERPINA
Early life lung insults, low birth weight

986
Q

Comorbidities that are associated with COPD

A

Lung cancer
Cardiovascular disease
Skeletal muscle dysfunction
Osteoporosis
Anxiety, depression

987
Q

JAMA physical examination findings with the highest LRs for COPD

A

Wheezing
Barrel chest
Decreased cardiac dullness

988
Q

Physiological causes of exercise limitation in COPD

A

Hypoxemia - V/Q mismatch
Hypercapnia - DH, reached MVV
Increased WOB - due to mechanics
Muscle deconditioning
Cardiac deconditioning, decreased preload for DH

989
Q

Measures of exercise tolerance?

A

6MWT
ISWT, ESWT
CPET

990
Q

Measures of health status

A

CRQ
CAT
SGRQ
CCQ

991
Q

Prognostic factors in COPD

A

BMI </21
Severity of obstruction/FEV1
Dyspnea level/mMRC
6MWD
Concomitant hypoxemia requiring O2
Concomitant hypercapnia requiring NIV
Concomitant pulmonary hypertension, CPFE
Male, older, smoker

992
Q

What can the BODE score be used to?

A

Referral and listing for transplant
Predictor of mortality

993
Q

Survival associated with BODE scores (4 year survival)

A

0-2: 80%
3-4: 70%
5-6: 60%
7-10: 20%

994
Q

Recommended vaccinations for patients with COPD

A

Influenza annually
Pneumococcal
COVID-19 as per public health
Pertussis if have not had in adulthood
Shingles >/50
RSV

995
Q

What do we use to determine treatment in COPD?

A

mMRC <2
CAT <10
FEV1>/80% predicted
Risk of future exacerbations

996
Q

How is the risk of AECOPD determined?

A

Low: </1 moderate exacerbation in the last year
High: >/2 moderate exacerbations in the last year, >/1 severe

997
Q

What is moderate vs severe exacerbation in COPD?

A

Mild: only change in short acting bronchodilators
Moderate: required steroids or abx
Severe: required ED visit or hospitalization

998
Q

Benefits of inhaler therapies

A

Improve dyspnea
Improve health status
Improve exercise tolerance
+/- Reduce risk of exacerbation
+/- improve mortality

999
Q

When is stepping down COPD bronchodilators NOT appropriate?

A

Moderate-high symptom burden
High risk of exacerbation
Eos >300

1000
Q

Indications that strongly favour ICS (as per GOLD)

A

> /2 moderate exacerbations for AECOPD
ED visit or hospitalization for AECOPD
History of concomitant asthma
Blood eosinophils >/300

1001
Q

ICS not strongly favoured (as per GOLD)

A

Eosinophils <100
Recurrent pneumonias
Hx of NTM disease

1002
Q

Indications for oral therapies in COPD

A

Symptomatic, high risk AECOPD group
Exacerbate despite triple therapy
+ chronic bronchitis phenotype for 2 of them

1003
Q

Benefits of oral therapies in COPD

A

Decrease exacerbation

1004
Q

Treatments that improve exercise tolerance in COPD

A

Smoking cessation
Appropriate bronchodilators
Pulmonary rehabilitation
Supplemental O2 in those who qualify
LVRS in appropriate patients
Bullectomy in certain patients
Endoscopic procedures
Lung transplantation

1005
Q

Treatments that reduce the risk of exacerbation in COPD

A

Appropriate bronchodilators - dual and triple
Oral therapies as indicated
Case management AND education
Pulmonary rehabilitation within 4 weeks of AECOPD
Smoking cessation
Influenza vaccination

1006
Q

Treatments that reduce mortality in COPD

A

Smoking cessation
Triple therapy
PR within 4 weeks of AECOPD
O2 in resting hypoxemia
NIV acutely, or chronic hypercapnia
LVRS in appropriate patients
?Transplant in some

1007
Q

Ways to manage dyspnea in COPD (CTS table)

A

Walking aids
Pursed lip breathing
Neuromuscular electrical muscle stimulation
Low dose opioids
Oxygen in resting hypoxemia

1008
Q

Possible intervention in the treatment of COPD

A

LVRS
Bullectomy
Endoscopic procedures
Lung transplant

1009
Q

Who would be eligible for LVRS?

A

Symptomatic from emphysema and not CB/asthma
Smoking cessation >4 months
Heterogeneous emphysema
Upper lobe predominant emphysema
TLC >/100%
RV >/150%
FEV </45%
6MWD >140 m

1010
Q

What are the contraindications to LVRS?

A

Comorbid disease with life expectancy <2 years
Severe CAD or other cardiac disorder
BMI >31
FEV1 </20% oro DLCO </20%
Homogeneous distribution of emphysema
Giant bullae >⅓ chest
Extensive pleural symphysis e.g. previous infection, pleurodesis
O2 >6L/min
PaCO2 >60 mmHg or PaO2 <45 on room air
PAP >/35 mmHg
Prednisone >20 mg oral daily

1011
Q

Benefits of LVRS

A

Dyspnea
HRQOL
Exercise tolerance
Lung function
Mortality in some → upper lobe emphysema, low baseline exercise tolerance

1012
Q

Indications for treatment of giant bullae

A

Symptomatic
Complications
>/30% of hemithorax

1013
Q

Risk factors for COPDE

A

Older age
Low FEV1 at baseline
Previous COPD exacerbations **
Eos >/300 **
Chronic mucous hypersecretion
Duration of COPD
Pulmonary HTN
GERD

1014
Q

Treatment of AECOPD

A

SABA, SAMA
Steroids 40 mg oral daily x 5 days - hasten recovery, reduce relapse, improve FEV1
Antibiotics if meet criteria - hasten recovery, reduce relapse
IV magnesium

1015
Q

Abx options for treatment AECOPD

A

Amoxi-clav
Fluoroquinolones
Macrolides
Tetracyclines e.g. doxycycline

1016
Q

Indications for NIV in AECOPD?

A

pH <7.35, PcO2 >/45
Worsening WOB
Persistent and refractory hypoxemia

1017
Q

Different allele variants in A1AT deficiency

A

Normal - M
Deficient - Z/S
Dysfunctional - F
Null

1018
Q

Genotypes that have the highest risk of A1AT (in order)

A

-/- (least common)
Z/Z
Z/S (if they smoke)
Z/M (if they smoke)

1019
Q

Indications to screen for A1AT

A

Age <65 OR
Pack year <20

1020
Q

Non pulmonary manifestations of A1AT

A

Transaminitis
Cirrhosis
HCC
Necrotizing panniculitis
GPA/ANCA vasculitis
Intracranial aneurysms
Fibromuscular dysplasia

1021
Q

Diagnosis of A1AT

A

Applicable genotype
A1AT level <11 mmol/L or 57 mg/dL (our units)

1022
Q

Indications for treatment of A1AT

A

AAT <11 umol/L or 57 mg/dL (our units)
FEV1 25-80%
On maximal pharmacological and non pharm therapy (including PR)
Have quit smoking - non-smokers or ex-smokers (nothing in guidelines, funding requires at least 6 months)

1023
Q

Benefits of augmentation therapy in A1AT

A

Improve lung density on CT
Improve FEV1
Improve mortality

1024
Q

Benefits of supplemental O2 therapy at rest in COPD

A

Mortality benefit in those that qualify
Improved dyspnea
Improved exercise tolerance
Improved physiological effect e.g. ?decreased PH

1025
Q

Benefits of supplemental therapy with ambulation in COPD

A

Improved HRQOL
Improved outdoor mobility
Not clear re: dyspnea, exercise capacity

1026
Q

3 types of patients with COPD that would benefit from O2

A

Resting hypoxemia
Resting hypoxemia and comorbidities listed
Patient planning for air travel if they meet criteria
?Ambulatory or exertional hypoxemia

1027
Q

Duration of PR programs

A

Minimum 8 weeks
Minimum 24 sessions, 16 should be supervised

1028
Q

Quality indicators of a PR program

A

Necessary HCP, and resources:
Cycle ergometer, treadmill, flat open space
Vital machines
Education material
Etc.

Baseline intake indicators:
Dyspnea
Health status
Exercise capacity
1 Repetition maximum

Aerobic exercise prescription
Strength training prescription
Exercise indicators
Monitoring indicators
Education and self management component
Post program

1029
Q

4 parameters that are needed for exercise prescription (aerobic)

A

Frequency - 3 sessions
Intensity - 60% VO2 max
Time - 20 mins each session
Type - aerobic - treadmill, free walking, stair climb, ergometer (NOT arm alone)

1030
Q

4 parameters that are needed for exercise prescription (strength)

A

Frequency - 2-3 times per week
Intensity - 60% of 1-RM
Time - 1-3 sets, 8-12 repetitions each
Type - weights, resistance bands

1031
Q

Minimum health outcomes that need to be measured before and after PR

A

Aerobic exercise endurance
Muscle function
Health status
Others case by case: psychological status, nutrition status, self efficacy, etc.

1032
Q

Indications for referral to PR

A

COPD - regardless of FEV1 or smoking status
ILD
PHTN

1033
Q

Proven benefits of PR

A

COPD - dyspnea, HRQOL, exercise capacity, social/physical fxn, reduce anxiety, depression, ??mortality
ILD - dyspnea, HRQOL, exercise capacity
PHTN - dyspnea, HRQOL, exercise capacity

1034
Q

Physiological benefits post PR for COPD

A

Improved VO2 max
Improved O2 pulse
Decrease in HR
Increased AT
Increased muscle mass
Decrease dynamic hyperinflation

1035
Q

Which post COVID patients are appropriate for PR referral?

A

New respiratory symptoms post COVID +
At least 1 of: new O2 requirements, persistent reticular/fibrotic changes on imaging, new and persistent restriction/obstruction/DLCO impairment on PFTs

1036
Q

Causes of eosinophilic lung diseases

A

Acute/chronic eosinophilic pneumonia
EGPA
HES
ABPA
Infections - parasites, fungal
Neoplastic - e.g. paraneoplastic
PLCH
Lung transplantation

1037
Q

Causes of AEP

A

Idiopathic
Smoking - new, increased uptake, different type
Inhalation drugs- cocaine, marijuana
Medications - daptomycin**, antidepressants
Occupational exposures
Infections - parasites, fungi

1038
Q

Imaging findings in eosinophilic pneumonia

A

Acute: diffuse, bilateral GGO, bronchovascular thickening, effusion, LN
Chronic: peripheral, bilateral GGO, upper lobe, migrating

1039
Q

Differences between AEP and CEP

A

Causes - allergic/atopic causes in chronic
Clinical manifestations - symptoms, timeline
Relapse - common chronic
Imaging
Peripheral eosinophils - seen in chronic
Both have elevated IgE
Both have BAL eos >25%
Both are treated with steroids

1040
Q

Diagnostic criteria for AEP

A

Acute onset, <30 days
Patchy infiltrates on CXR/CT
BAL eos >25%
Absence of other specific eosinophilic diseases
Diagnostic criteria for CEP is similar, except that timeline is 4-5 months and imaging is peripheral infiltrates

1041
Q

Diagnostic criteria of HES

A

HE + eosinophilic mediated damage + other causes excluded
HE: >1.5 on 2 occasions at least 1 month apart, >20% on BM, extensive eos infiltration on pathology

1042
Q

How is surfactant produced?

A

Type II pneumocytes secrete surfactant
Surfactant is mix of proteins + lipids (mainly phosphatidylcholine)

1043
Q

Causes of PAP

A

Idiopathic

Primary:
Hereditary
Autoimmune

Secondary (HI/TII):
Infections e.g. nocardia, PJP, tuberculosis
Inhalation exposures e.g. silicosis, chlorine, bakery powder
Transplantation e.g. SOT, HSCT
Hematological malignancies e.g. MM, WM
Immunodeficiencies e.g. CVID

1044
Q

BAL findings in PAP

A

Cloudy
Foamy macrophages
Send for PAS stain on cytology → PAS+ macrophages on background of PAS material

1045
Q

Other investigations in PAP

A

Anti GM CSF antibodies
GM CSF serum levels
GM CSF receptor function
BAL
TBBx - not required for biopsy

1046
Q

Pathological findings of PAP

A

Normal alveolar structure
Lipo Proteinaceous material fills terminal bronchioles and alveoli
This material stains positive on PAS stain
If done, electron microscopy shows lamellar bodies

1047
Q

Treatment options for PAP

A

Anti GMCS replacement
Whole lung lavage
Treat secondary cause
Lung transplantation
Rituximab, PLEX - case reports

1048
Q

Indications for whole lung lavage

A

Definitive histological diagnosis +
PaO2 <65, or A-a >/40 or severe dyspnea/hypoxia at rest or exercise

1049
Q

Imaging findings and distribution of different cystic lung diseases

A

LAM = diffuse, random, small cysts
BHD = lentiform, paramediastinal, peripheral, subpleural
PLCH = bizarre shaped, upper lobe predominant, spare costophrenic angles, nodules/cavities
LIP = diffuse, random, GGO in between
Amyloid/LCDD

1050
Q

Special pathological tests for different cystic lung diseases

A

LAM = HMB-45 positive smooth muscle cells
PLCH = S100 and CD1 a positive langerhans cells, intracellular Birbeck granules
Amyloid = apple green birefringence by congo red stain
LCDD = kappa light chains lacking the above

1051
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of PLCH

A

Cystic lung disease
Group 5 HTN
Eosinophilic lung disease

1052
Q

Extrapulmonary manifestations of PLCH

A

Rash - brown papules
Lytic bone lesions
Central diabetes insipidus

1053
Q

Treatment of PLCH

A

Smoking cessation
Steroids in some
Chemotherapy in some
Transplantation

1054
Q

Extrapulmonary manifestations of BHD

A

Fibrofolliculomas
Skin tags
Renal tumors

1055
Q

Extraparenchymal manifestations of LAM

A

Angiofibromas
Leiomyoma
Angiomyolipoma
Lymphadenopathy
Pleural effusions
Meningiomas

1056
Q

Pathological features of LAM

A

Lung cysts
Smooth muscle-like cell (LAM cells) infiltration of parenchyma and lymphatics
Stain positive for HMB45, s.m. actin
Have ER/PR receptors
Express VEGFC/D

1057
Q

Diagnostic criteria for LAM → table

A
1058
Q

Indications for treatment of LAM

A

FVC <70%

Case by case basis for those who:
Resting hypoxemia PaO2 <70
Exercise induced desaturation
RV >120%
DLCO <80%
Progression of disease (FVC loss >/90 cc per year
Heavy burden of cysts >30% of lungs
Chylous effusion
AML >4 cm

1059
Q

Benefits of mTOR inhibitor as per the MILES study in LAM

A

Improve symptoms
Improve QOL
Stabilize lung function
Reduce VEGFD

1060
Q

Management of complications of LAM

A

Pneumothorax:Pleurodesis after first episode, advised not to air travel x 1 month
Chylothorax: chest tubes, consider mTOR inhibitor
Angiomyolipoma: embolization, radiofrequency ablation, consider mTOR if >/4 cm

1061
Q

Screening investigations that are required in LAM

A

Abdominal CT for all
Brain MRI if symptoms, or increased risk (e.g progesterone)

1062
Q

Secondary causes of LIP

A

Idiopathic
Connective tissue diseases
Immunodeficiency e.g. CVID
Infections e.g. HIV, tuberculosis
PAP

1063
Q

PFT findings in different bronchiolar disorders

A

Proliferative - restrictive
Obliterative - obstructive
Follicular - mixed, restrictive, obstructive
Diffuse panbronchiolitis - mixed, restrictive, obstructive

1064
Q

Imaging findings of different bronchiolar disorders

A

Proliferative: patchy airspace, migratory, reverse halo, with distribution subpleural/peripheral, peribronchovascular
Obliterative: mosaic attenuation, centrilobular nodules, gas trapping bronchial wall thickening, bronchiectasis
Follicular: centrilobular nodules, tree in bud
Diffuse panbronchiolitis: centrilobular nodules, tree in bud, bronchiectasis

1065
Q

3 features of COP on CT

A

Distribution peripheral, subpleural, migrating, peribronchovascular, bilat
GGO or consolidative alveolar opacities
Atoll sign

1066
Q

Diagnosis of bronchiolitis

A

Surgical lung bx
Post transplant BOS can be clinical

1067
Q

Pathological findings of bronchiolitis

A

Proliferative - intrabronchial polypoid protrusions (mason bodies)
Obliterative - Lymphocytic inflammation of submucosa, in growth of fibromyxoid granulation tissue into airway, obliteration of airway - extrinsic compression of bronchioles by fibroinflammatory process
Follicular: hyperplastic lymphoid tissue along bronchial walls that obliterate lumen
Diffuse panbronchiolitis: lymphoplasmacytic inflammation of bronchioles; infiltration with lipid laden foamy macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells

1068
Q

Causes of proliferative bronchiolitis/organizing pneumonia

A

Idiopathic
Immune deficiency
Inhalational injury
Infections e.g. COVID
Malignancy, chemotherapy, radiation
CTD
Medications
Aspiration
Post transplantation

1069
Q

Causes of obliterative bronchiolitis

A

Post allograft transplantation (HSCT, lung)
Inhalational injury e.g. silo, sulfur, silica, diacetyl
Infection
CTD, especially RA

1070
Q

Causes of follicular bronchiolitis

A

Idiopathic
CTD, especially Sjogren’s; RA, SLE
Infection e.g. TB, HIV
Immunodeficiency
Chronic inflammatory e.g. bronchiectasis, CF, asthma

1071
Q

Causes of diffuse panbronchiolitis

A

CTD e.g. RA
Ulcerative colitis
Lymphoma

1072
Q

Treatment of the bronchiolar disorders

A

Proliferative: steroids
Obliterative: depends on cause
Follicular: steroids
Diffuse panbronchiolitis: erythromycin, bronchodilators

1073
Q

Treatment of COP if not responding to steroids

A

Azathioprine
MMF
Obviously treat underlying cause

1074
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of immunodeficiency

A

GLILD
LIP
Follicular bronchiolitis
Bronchiectasis
Organizing pneumonia
PAP
Recurrent pneumonias

1075
Q

Non pulmonary manifestations of immunodeficiency

A

Granulomas in other organs
Non hodgkin’s lymphoma
Pernicious anemia
Thyroiditis

1076
Q

Imaging findings of GLILD

A

Hilar and mediastinal LN
Bronchiectasis
GG and solid nodular opacities

1077
Q

Malignancies at highest risk for Radiation Induced Lung Disease

A

Lung cancer
Mediastinal lymphoma
Breast cancer

1078
Q

RFs for development of radiation pneumonitis

A

Dose of radiation (usually >40, very rare <20)
Volume of lung irradiated (V20 >/30%)
Form of radiation e.g. SBRT lower risk
Fraction of radiation
Previous chemotherapy
Underlying lung disease e.g. ILD**, COPD
Concomitant chemotherapy
Female > male
Smoker
Older age

1079
Q

Phases of development of radiation pneumonitis

A

Initial = increased capillary permeability
Latent = increased goblet cells
Acute exudative = radiation pneumonitis = 1-3 months = epithelial cell sloughing, microvascular thrombosis, alveolar exudate and hyaline membranes
Intermediate = 3-6 months = resolution of hyaline membranes
Fibrosis = >6 months = fibrosis

1080
Q

Time line of radiation induced lung disease

A

Radiation pneumonitis - within 1-3 months
Radiation fibrosis - 6-12 months
Radiation recall pneumonitis - really anytime

1081
Q

Symptoms of radiation pneumonitis

A

Fever, malaise, weight loss
Dyspnea
Dry cough
Pleuritic chest pain

1082
Q

Imaging findings in radiation pneumonitis

A

GGO
Consolidation
Straight line pattern, radiation port edges
Small pleural effusion

1083
Q

Pathological findings of radiation pneumonitis

A

Epithelial and endothelial cell sloughing
Fibrin rich alveolar exudate
Hyaline membrane formation
Microvascular thrombosis

1084
Q

Lung diseases are associated with smoking

A

DIP
RB ILD
PLCH

1085
Q

Lung diseases that have smoking as a risk factor

A

IPAF
RA ILD

1086
Q

Lung diseases are actually less common in smokers

A

Sarcoidosis
HP

1087
Q

Other than smoking, causes of DIP

A

Idiopathic
Occupational exposures e.g. metal worker
Drug reactions
Autoimmune conditions

1088
Q

Imaging differences RB-ILD vs DIP

A

RB-ILD: centrilobular GGO nodules, upper lobe predominant, preserved lung volumes
DIP: GGO, +/- cysts, reticular opacities, lower lobe predominance

1089
Q

BAL findings RBILD vs DIP

A

RB-ILD: pigmented macrophages, unlikely to have other cells
DIP: pigmented macrophages, may have increased lymphs/eos/neuts

1090
Q

PFT RBILD vs DIP

A

RB-ILD: can be obstructive, restrictive or mixed
DIP: usually restrictive

1091
Q

Exogenous causes of lipoid pneumonia

A

E cigarettes
Mineral based laxatives
Petroleum jelly lubricants (used in tracheostomy care)
Nasal decongestants
Fire eaters

1092
Q

Endogenous causes of lipoid pneumonia

A

Bronchial obstruction
PAP
Lipid storage and metabolism disorders
Chronic inflammatory disorders e.g. CTD

1093
Q

Imaging findings of lipoid pneumonia

A

GGO or consolidation
Crazy paving pattern

1094
Q

BAL features of lipoid pneumonia

A

Lipid laden macrophages
Are detected by oil red O staining

1095
Q

Red flags for cough

A

Age - > 55 years old
Smoker, ex smoker
Hemoptysis
Dysphonia, dysphagia
Recurrent pneumonia
Prominent dyspnea
Systemic symptoms
Vomiting

1096
Q

How does albuterol cause lactic acidosis?

A

Type A lactic acidosis - hypoxic or hypoperfusion
Type B lactic acidosis - malignancies, drugs and inborn errors of metabolism
Albuterol, by creating hyperadrenergic state enhances glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, leading to more glucose, pyruvate production. Lipolysis and increased FFA inhibit pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme, so it doesn’t enter krebs cycle and is reduced to lactate

1097
Q

What are important bacteria for those with reduced cell counts?

A

<200: PJP, endemic fungi, aspergillus, candida
<100: Toxoplasmosis
<50: MAC, CMV

1098
Q

Causes of pulmonary disease in HIV?

A

ILD - OP, NSIP, LIP
PAP
Emphysema
Bronchiectasis
Bronchiolitis - obliterative, follicular
Pulmonary hypertension
HIV Cardiomyopathy causing pulmonary edema
Drug reaction to HAART or other medications
Various infections
Various malignancies

1099
Q

Manifestations of kaposi sarcoma

A

Skin disease
Parenchymal disease
Endobronchial disease
Mediastinal lymphadenopathy

1100
Q

Imaging findings in Kaposi Sarcoma

A

Flame shaped, ill defined opacities
Interlobular septal thickening
Lymphadenopathy

1101
Q

Publicly reported illnesses

A

Legionella
Invasive pneumococcal disease
Influenza
H. influenza
HIV
Tuberculosis
SARS
COVID
Legally, I have to share COVID-19 news

1102
Q

Most common bacterial causes of CAP

A

Strep
Staph
H influenza
Mycoplasma
Atypicals
Aerobic gram negative → klebsiella, e. Coli, enterobacter, pseudomonas, serratia, proteus, acintobacter
Anaerobes

1103
Q

Most common causes of VAP

A

Strep
Staph - MSSA and MRSA **
Pseudomonas **
Gram negative bacilli

1104
Q

Bacterial causes of cavitary pneumonia

A

Klebsiella
Staphylococcus
Anaerobes
Nocardia
Actinomyces
Rhodococcus
TB/NTM
Endemic fungi

1105
Q

Organisms that cause interstitial infiltrates

A

Legionella
Mycoplasma
Chlamydia
Viruses

1106
Q

Imaging features of viral pneumonia

A

Interstitial infiltrates - can be reticular, reticulonodular
Miliary pattern
Airspace opacities or consolidation
Peribronchial thickening

1107
Q

When is 5 days of antibiotic treatment OK vs. 10 days?

A

Afebrile x 48 hours AND
</1 sign of instability: HR >100, BP <90, RR>24, SpO2 <90%, normal mental status

1108
Q

Complications of MSSA pneumonia

A

Abscess
Cavitation
Pleural effusion
Bacteremia
Resistance to MRSA

1109
Q

Risk factors for VAP

A

Paralysis
Head injury or unconscious
Aspiration
Chronic lung disease
Nasogastric tubes
Condensate in ventilator tubing
Supine position

1110
Q

Diagnostic criteria for VAP

A

Occur >/48 hours of intubation
Not present before intubation/wasn’t the reason for intubation
New or progressive infiltrates on imaging
Clinical evidence of infection e.g. fever, purulent sputum, leukocytosis, hypoxemia
Positive pathogen required by some definitions

1111
Q

Methods to diagnose causative agent in VAP

A

Invasive (BAL, brush, biopsy) > non invasive (endotracheal aspirate)
Quantitative (colony forming units) > semi quantitative (1+/2+ growth rates)

1112
Q

Measures to reduce VAP

A

Head of bed elevated 30-45 degrees
Mouth hygiene (tooth brushing but no chlorhexidine)
Enteral over parenteral nutrition
Only clean tubing when there is visible soiling
Limit sedation
Subglottic drainage
Ventilator liberation where possible
Maintain physical functioning

1113
Q

Complications of strep pneumonia

A

Empyema
Meningitis
Endocarditis
Pericarditis
Septic arthritis
Invasive streptococcal disease - CSF, blood, pleural, pericardial, synovial

1114
Q

RFs for IPD

A

Age
Chronic heart disease
Chronic lung disease e.g. asthma requiring medical care in last year
Chronic liver disease
Chronic kidney disease
Diabetes
Malnutrition
Immunodeficiency
Splenectomy, functional asplenia from sickle cell
HIV infection
HSC transplant
SOT transplant
Leukemia and lymphoma
Immunosuppressive therapy

1115
Q

Risk factors for drug resistant strep pneumo

A

> 65 or <2
Daycare or institutional setting (exposure to child)
Beta lactam use within 3-6 months
Medical comorbidities
Immunocompromised
EtOH

1116
Q

Indications to test for legionella

A

Severe CAP
Not responding to beta lactam
Epidemiological factors e.g. outbreak

1117
Q

Diagnostic test for legionella

A

Urine legionella antigen
PCR
Culture

1118
Q

Treatment regimen for legionella

A

Azithromycin 500 or levofloxacin 750
Duration: 7 days (mild), 10 days (severe), 14 days (immunocompromised)

1119
Q

Viral causes of pneumonia

A

COVID-19
Influenza A and B
RSV
Parainfluenza
Rhinovirus
Adenovirus

1120
Q

RFs for a more severe response to influenza

A

> /65 years old
Pregnant
Postpartum up to 2 weeks
Long term care, nursing homes
Chronic medical condition - respiratory, renal, liver, etc.
Immunosuppression

1121
Q

The common superinfections post influenza

A

Staph aureus
Streptococcus

1122
Q

Diagnostic options for influenza and COVID

A

Rapid antigen test
RT-PCR
Cultures

1123
Q

Benefits of oseltamivir

A

Reduce duration of symptoms
Reduce risk of death in inpatients
Within 48 hours has best outcomes

1124
Q

COVID-19 imaging findings

A

GGO
Consolidation
Crazy paving
Bronchovascular thickening
Pleural effusion, LN

1125
Q

Current COVID-19 therapies

A

Mild: budesonide, remdesivir, Paxlovid, fluvoxamine
Moderate: dexamethasone, remdesivir, tocilizumab, baricitinib
Severe: dexamethasone, tocilizumab, baricitinib

1126
Q

COVID-19 vaccines available

A

MRNA - pericarditis, myocarditis, Bell’s palsy, anaphylaxis
Vector - VTE, GBS, anaphylaxis

1127
Q

Treatment of echinococcal cyst

A

Antiparasitic therapy e.g. albendazole
Consider surgical resection
Consider percutaneous aspiration

1128
Q
A