RC Respirology Flashcards

1
Q

What is an abnormal pulsus paradoxus?

A

> /10 mmHg change of systolic BP between inspiration and expiration

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2
Q

DDX for abnormal pulsus

A

Tamponade
Asthma exacerbation
COPD exacerbation
Constrictive pericarditis
PE
Morbid obesity

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3
Q

Effects of hyperoxia on respiratory system

A

Hypercapnia, CO2 retention
Direct O2 toxicity from ROS - interstitial and alveolar edema due to leaky capillary endothelium, hyperoxic bronchitis
Absorption atelectasis
Instability of units with low V/Q ratios causing shunt
Retinopathy of prematurity (not respiratory)

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4
Q

Benefits of HFNC in patients with respiratory failure

A

Heated and humidified - reduces WOB, allows secretion clearance
Provides PEEP - decreases WOB, prevents atelectasis
Provides PEEP - prevents atelectrauma
High flows - washours out upper airway dead space, reliable FiO2 delivery due to minimal entrainment, decreases upper airway resistance

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5
Q

Who should have extubation to HFNC

A

Extubation of surgical patients
Extubation of non surgical patients at low/mod risk of extubation failure

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6
Q

Sources of physiological shunt

A

Bronchial arteries emptying into pulmonary veins
Thebesian veins emptying into left ventricle
Functional shunt: V/Q <1

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7
Q

Limitations/assumptions of the shunt equation

A

CcO2 = CAO2 = perfect diffusion between alveoli and capillaries
We assume PcO2 = PAO2 (from alveolar gas equation)
We assume that SaO2 = 1
Assumes all gas exchange occurs with ideal V/Q matching.

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8
Q

Differences between central and mixed venous gas

A

ScvO2 = central line, normal is 65-70% (>80% (high PaO2 or left to right shunt) vs <65% (impaired tissue oxygenation))
SvO2 = pulmonary artery, normal is 60-65%

basically ScvO2 should have higher O2 because it doesn’t get the low O2 blood from the IVC

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9
Q

DDX for high O2 Extraction Ratio

A

Sepsis, fever
Shock
Seizures
Hyperthyroidism
Hypoxemia
Anemia

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10
Q

DDX for low O2 Extraction Ratio

A

Hypothyroidism
Hypothermia
Sedation
Mitochondrial dysfunction in sepsis
Cyanide toxicity
Hyperbaric oxygen
Hyperoxia
Polycythemia

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11
Q

Impact of Positive Pressure Ventilation on the heart

A

Decreased preload to RV and LV
Increased afterload to RV, decreased afterload to LV
Overall, decreased SV and CO, decreased cardiac work

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12
Q

Impact of Positive Pressure Ventilation on dead space

A

Increased zone 1 respiration with high V/Q areas

Increases both alveolar and anatomic dead spaces
Lung volume is raised resulting in radial traciton on the airways increasing volume of anatomic dead space
Raised airway pressures divert blood flow away from ventialated regions causing high v/q ratio or even unperfused areas
Most common in uppermost regions of the lung.
Capillaries pressures fall below airway pressure and they collapse

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13
Q

Different Ventilator modes and settings

A

Assisted= mandatory patient triggered
Controlled= mandatory Time/volume triggered
Supported= spontaneous (patient triggered) flow terminated
PCV- you set inspiratory pressure. Volume will vary
VCV - you set TV peak flor and flow pattern. Pressure will vary
PSV - (Spontaneous Pressure Support Ventilation) al breaths supported (whatever TV the patient generates)
ASV - set EPAP, PS mirrors ventilation (higher at low flow periods)
SIMV (synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation- set RR with either Volume or PRessure target), patient can do what they want in between the set breaths
APRV - airway pressure release ventilation - Bilevel ventilation where you set PEEP and plateau. rescue therapy for ARDS, helps with recruitment to help with oxygenation, spontaneous breathing (increased WOB), risk of volutrauma, risk of DH

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14
Q

What are PIP, Pplat, driving pressures, delta P, airway resistance

A

PIP: (peak inspiratory Pressure) P to overcome resistance (airways, ETT) and lung elastic properties, target <35
Pplat: P to distend alveoli, reflects compliance, target <30 cmH2O
Driving pressure: Pplat - PEEP
Delta P: PIP-Pplat, reflects resistance: both elevated within 5 means reduced lung compliance or chestwall/diaphragm/pleural. Only Elevated PIP means increased airway resistance
Airway resistance: PIP-Pplat/Flow

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15
Q

Types of Respiratory Maneuvers on the ventilator

A

Inspiratory hold → Pplat
Expiratory hold → intrinsic PEEP
Only in volume control

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16
Q

DDx of reduced peak inspiratory pressure

A

Air leak
Hyperventilation

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17
Q

What do changes to the volume pressure curve represent on a ventilator?

A

Slope = static compliance
Width = dynamic compliance and airway resistance
Bird beaking = over distension = turn TV down

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18
Q

What are Static and dynamic compliance on a ventilator?

A

Static: chest wall and lung tissue compliance
Dynamic: chest wall, lung tissue compliance and airway resistance

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19
Q

what is the DDX for sudden increase in mechanical ventilation in critically ill patients

A

Increased dead space - collapsed lung, mucous plug, mainstem intubation/dislodged
Increased demand - sepsis, fever
Pain, anxiety
Decreased compliance

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20
Q

Benefits of PEEP

A

Improve oxygenation -improve atelectasis/VQ, moves peripheral edema into interstitium
Lessens required FIO2 and O2 toxicity
Improves lung compliance - think of equation Compliance = delta V/Delta P
Prevent atelectrauma
Decrease WOB
Decrease LV work/afterload

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21
Q

Mechanisms of hypotension with PEEP

A

Reduced preload to RV and LV
Increased RV afterload, RV failure
Reduced LV compliance

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22
Q

Consequences of autoPEEP

A

Barotrauma
Dynamic hyperinflation
Decreased lung compliance
Decreased tidal volumes and minute ventilation
Increased WOB
Cardiac - decreased preload, decreased CO, increased PVR
Neuro - increased ICP due to reduced central venous return

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23
Q

DDX of increased autoPEEP

A

Increased airway resistance e.g. bronchospasm, kinked tube, clogged tube
Increased tidal volume
Increased respiratory rate
Increased I:E time or ratio
Decreased expiratory time
Increased inspiratory time
Decreased inspiratory flow rate

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24
Q

Treatment of autoPEEP

A

Treat bronchospasm or reason for resistance
Decrease respiratory rate
Decrease tidal volume
Decrease I:E ratio
Increase expiratory time
Increase inspiratory flow rate
Increase or add PEEP **
Permissive hypercapnia ** (reduce demand)
Sedation and paralysis if dyssynchronous, treat anxiety/pain ** (reduce demand)

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25
Q

Relative Contraindications to PEEP

A

High ICP
Hypotensive
RV failure
Right to left shunt
Barotrauma
Bronchopleural fistula

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26
Q

Causes for difference between PaCO2 and PETCO2

A

PETCO usually lower
Due to anatomical dead space

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27
Q

Causes of increased PETCO2

A

ROSC (increase by 10-20)
Effective CPR
Hyperthyroidism
Hyperthermia
Fever, sepsis
Hypoventilation
Bronchial intubation

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28
Q

Causes of decreased PETCO2

A

Hypotension, shock
Cardiac arrest
Hypothyroidism
Hypothermia
Hyperventilation
Apnea
Extubation, sudden kink

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29
Q

Ventilatory parameters for obstructive lung disease

A

Mode:volume (but no data > pressure)
FiO2: SpO2 88-92
PEEP: minimal, 5
RR: 10-12%
Vt: <8 mL/kg PBW
I:E target: 1:5
Permissive hypercapnia (pH >7.2, pCO2 <90)

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30
Q

Ventilatory parameters for ARDS

A

Mode: volume
FiO2: 88-95%
PEEP: Modest
RR: 25-35
Vt: 4-6 mL/kg/PBW
I:E target: 1:2
Permissive hypercapnia (pH >7.2)
Pplat </30 (mortality benefit)
Driving pressure </15 (mortality benefit)

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31
Q

Physiological benefits of permissive hypercapnia

A

Reduced autoPEEP
Reduce barotrauma
Decrease WOB

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32
Q

Rationale for permissive hypercapnia in ventilation

A

Obstruction - prevent autoPEEP
Restriction - low tidal volumes

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33
Q

Possible complications of permissive hypercapnia

A

Increased ICP
Decrease seizure threshold
Arrhythmias, irritable myocardium
Increased PVR 2/2 acidosis
Decreased placental flow

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34
Q

In addition to ventilator settings, what else do you have to take into consider in Mechanical Ventilation asthma?

A

Not opioids for sedation 2/2 histamine
Large ETT to reduce resistance
Consider inhaled isoflurane
Consider heliox
Consider Hodder’s maneuver
Consider ECMO

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35
Q

Characteristics of Heliox

A

Low density
Density is important in turbulent flow (large airways)
Viscosity is important in laminar flow (smaller airways)

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36
Q

Importance of the Winters Equation

A

Tells you what CO2 should be if appropriately compensated
Use this to determine goal Ve

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37
Q

Berlin’s criteria for ARDS - NOTE NEW CRITERIA!

A

Within 7 days of a known insult or worsening symptoms
Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema, not due to intravasc volume overload
Bilateral pulmonary opacities not explained by nodules, atelectasis, effusion, etc. (CXR OR CT, or lung ultrasound by trained professional) Seen in 2 quadrants (bilat or unilat)
Severity grading on PEEP 5
PaO2/FiO2<300
SpO2/FiO2 <315

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38
Q

Causes of ARDS

A

Inhalation exposures
Aspiration
Fresh water, salt water aspiration, drowning
Fat embolism
Reperfusion injury
Infections, pneumonia, sepsis
Pancreatitis
Transfusion reaction

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39
Q

Pathology of ARDS

A
  1. Early exudative: 1 week, high permeability pulmonary edema, proteinaceous fluid fills alveoli, hyaline membrane formation, pathology shows DAD
  2. Fibroproliferative: 2 weeks, interstitial inflammation, disordered healing, fibrosis
  3. Fibrotic: fibrosis, obliteration of normal lung architecture
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40
Q

Image findings of ARDS

A

Dependent opacities, consolidation
Bilateral, symmetrical

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41
Q

Ways to improve oxygenation in ARDS

A

Increase PEEP, mortality benefit in mod-severe
Prone positioning, 12hrs/day, PF <150 mortality benefit (It should be administered within 48 hours, evaluated daily and stopped within 48 hrs if possible)
Euvolemia
Steroids in some
Neuromuscular blockade
Inhaled NO
ECMO

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42
Q

Physiological benefits of prone positioning in ARDS

A

Improve V/Q matching
Improve secretion mobilization + drainage
Decrease compressive effects of heart

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43
Q

Indications for ECMO

A

PaCO2 >60 for >6 hours
PF <80 for >6 hours
PF <50 for >3 hours
Mechanically ventilated <7 days, BMI <40, age 18-65

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44
Q

Contraindications to ECMO

A

Disseminated malignancy
Known severe brain injury
Severe chronic organ dysfunction
Severe pulmonary hypertension

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45
Q

Complications of Positive Pressure Ventilation

A

Hypotension
Barotrauma
VALI
VAP
Airway complications e.g. stenosis, tracheobronchomalacia, fistula formation
Critical illness polyneuropathy, myopathy

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46
Q

Risk factors for barotrauma

A

High Pplat*
High PIP*
High PEEP*
Low compliance* e.g. ILD, COPD, overload

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47
Q

Maneuvers to reduce risk of barotrauma

A

Reduce RR
Reduce Vt
Increase expiratory time
Permissive hypercapnia
Increase sedation
Reduce PEEP

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48
Q

Benefits of tracheostomy

A

Reduced sedation
Phonation
Better secretion management, better mouth care
Allows mobility
Prevents laryngeal injury
Can leave ICU

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49
Q

Acute complications of tracheostomy

A

Bleeding
Surgical site infection
Dislodgement
Tube is kinged or clogged
Laryngeal nerve damage
Pneumothorax

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50
Q

Chronic complications of tracheostomy

A

Dislodgement
Trach blockage
Tracheal stenosis
Tracheobronchomalacia
Tracheoesophageal fistula
Tracheoarterial fistula

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51
Q

What is VALI?

A

Due to volutrauma
Alveolar overdistension
Presents with edema, hemorrhage, loss of compliance

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52
Q

Indicators of readiness to wean

A

Underlying resp condition resolved or improving/on active treatment
GCS >8
PaO2 >60 on FiO2 requirements <40% on PEEP <8
PF ratio >150
PaCO2 normal
Adequate cough
Not requiring frequent suctioning e.g. <q2 hours
Hemodynamically stable - minimal or improved pressor requirements

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53
Q

Abnormal RSBI (Rapid Shallow Breathing Index)

A

RR/TV >105
Predictive of failed extubation

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54
Q

Predictors of successful weaning during SBT

A

RR/VT = RSBI <105
Maintaining adequate ventilation
Maintaining adequate oxygenation
No signs of severe fatigue

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55
Q

Definition of extubation failure

A

Reintubation within hours-days

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56
Q

Risk factors for extubation failure

A

Age >65
Underlying cardiorespiratory disease
RSBI >105
Abundant endotracheal secretions
Weak or absent cough
Positive fluid balance in last 24 hours
Respiratory failure was for cardiac origin, PNA, neurological condition

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57
Q

Factors that may limit weaning

A

Reduced drive from over sedation or neurological problem
Underlying disease not yet resolved
Respiratory muscle weakness, deconditioning
Development of atelectasis, mucous plugging - poor/weak cough
VAP/VALI development
Oversedation
Under Sedation - anxiety, pain
Neuropathy or myopathy from prolonged intubation
Malnutrition - respiratory muscle weakness
Overnutrition - increased CO2 production
Cardiomyopathy, cardiac ischemia
Anemia

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58
Q

Clinical signs of failure during SBT

A

Anxiety, agitation, diaphoresis
Hypertension or hypotension - not between 90-180
Tachycardia - HR >140, arrhythmia
Tachypnea - RR >35 x 5 mins
Increased work of breathing - accessory muscle use, thoracoabdominal paradox
Fall in O2 (<90%), increase in CO2 - hypoxemia and hypercapnia
Stridor

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59
Q

What causes Right shift in the hb-dissociation curve

A

Increased CO2 (Bohr effect)
Increased H
Increased temperature
Increased 2,3 DPG

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60
Q

What causes Left shift in the hb- dissociation curve

A

Decreased CO2 (Bohr effect)
Decreased H
Decreased temperature
Decreased 2,3 DPG
Increased CO

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61
Q

Determinant of PaO2

A

PAO2 - POI2, PaCO2
Architecture of the lungs

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62
Q

Major determinants of SaO2

A

PaO2
Temperature
H
CO2
2,3 DPG

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63
Q

DDX for saturation gap

A

Carboxyhemoglobinemia
Methemoglobinemia
Sulfhemoglobinemia

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64
Q

DDX for lower SpO2 for given PaO2

A

Nail polish
Pigments, methylene blue
Poor circulation - Raynaud’s, peripheral vascular disease, shock
Hemoglobinemia - e.g. methemoglobinemia, sulfhemoglobinemia, thalassemia, sickle cell anemia, spherocytes etc
Motion or artifact
Technical factors

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65
Q

Clinical manifestations of CO poisoning

A

Headaches, decreased LOC, personality changes, headaches, seizures
Arrhythmias, cardiac ischemia
Cherry red skin and lips

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66
Q

Treatment options for CO poisoning

A

Supplemental oxygen
Hyperbaric oxygen
Eucapnic hyperventilation

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67
Q

Indications for hyperbaric oxygen in CO poisoning

A

Severe end organ sx e.g. MI
CO-Hb >/25%
CO-Hb >/15% if pregnant
Severe metabolic acidosis pH <7.1

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68
Q

Blood gas findings in CO poisoning

A

PaO2 normal
SpO2 normal
SaO2 decreased
CaO2 decreased
CvO2 decreased

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69
Q

Blood gas findings in cyanide poisoning

A

PaO2 normal
SpO2 normal
SaO2 decreased (I think Normal)
CaO2 normal
CvO2 increased

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70
Q

Treatment for cyanide poisoning

A

Supplemental oxygen
Hydroxocobalamin
Nitrites
Avoid dialysis

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71
Q

Safe amount of lidocaine to prevent toxicity

A

5 mg/kg without epi
7 mg/kg with epi

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72
Q

Treatment of lidocaine toxicity

A

BZD
Lipid emulsion

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73
Q

At what pressure is O2 delivered at in hyperbaric O2?

A

2.5-3 atm

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74
Q

Contraindications to HyperBaric Oxygen Therapy

A

Pneumothorax untreated - absolute
Obstructive lung disease - relative
Blebs or bullous disease - relative

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75
Q

Indications for HyperBaric Oxygen Therapy

A

CO poisoning
Venous or arterial air embolism
Decompression sickness

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76
Q

Medications that can cause methemoglobinemia

A

Lidocaine, benzocaine
Methylene blue
Metoclopramide
Dapsone
Nitrates
Primaquine

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77
Q

Indications for methylene blue for methemoglobinemia

A

Levels >30%
Very symptomatic

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78
Q

Indications for intubation in someone with thermal/fire airway injury

A

Neck, facial burns
Laryngeal injury - Stridor
Tracheobronchial injury - cough, wheezing, melanoptysis
Paryncheal injury
Systemic toxicity e.g. CO poisoning etc

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79
Q

Broad categories for International Classification of Sleep Disorders

A

Insomnia
Sleep disordered breathing - OSA, CSA, OHS, Nocturnal Desaturation
Hypersomnolence
Parasomnias
Sleep related movement disorders
Circadian rhythm sleep wake disorders
Other

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80
Q

Definition of compliance with Sleep Therapy

A

4 hrs per night
At least 70% of nights in last month

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81
Q

As per CMA guide, which patients with OSA should not be driving?

A

Moderate-severe OSA, not compliant
Compliant but involved in MVC where they were at fault - x 1 month until compliance reassessed
Drivers admit to experiencing excessive sleepiness during major wake periods or while driving

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82
Q

As per the Ontario MTO, who should not be driving?

A

AHI >/30 in treated or untreated

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83
Q

As per CMA guide, which patients with narcolepsy should not be driving?

A

Uncontrolled cataplexy (on or off treatment) in the past 12 months
Uncontrolled daytime sleep attacks or sleep paralysis in the past 12 months
Generally no long distance commercial driving

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84
Q

For a commercial driver with OSA, what conditions need to be met for them to drive?

A

AHI <20
On effective treatment
Does not experience excess sleepiness during major wake periods

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85
Q

Which drivers do we screen for OSA?

A

Everyone should be screened with questionnaires, BMI and studies as needed
Recertified annually

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86
Q

When can commercial drivers be recertified?

A

PAP - one week, good compliance, good AHI, no sleepiness
Oropharyngeal surgery or trach - one month, good AHI, no sleepiness
Bariatric surgery - six months, good AHI, no sleepiness

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87
Q

Distribution of sleep

A

N1 - 5%
N2 - 50%
N3 - 20%
REM - 25%

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88
Q

Sleep spindle

A

Usually in N2
Fast burst 0.5-2s of 12-15 Hz activity

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89
Q

K complex

A

Usually in N2
Go up first, then down

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90
Q

How much theta waves do you require in N1/N2 sleep?

A

At least 50% of the epoch

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91
Q

How much delta do you need in N3 sleep?

A

At least 20% of the time

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92
Q

Other names for N3 sleep

A

Slow wave sleep
Deep sleep

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93
Q

Features of REM sleep

A

Low amplitude, mixed frequency
REM atonia → low chin EMG
Rapid eye movements
May see sawtooth waves

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94
Q

How do sleep disorders change during REM sleep

A

OSA worsens, CSA improves (reduced chemosensitivity so won’t be as sensitive to changes in Co2
Hypovent and hypoxemia in NMD or chest wall disorders (bc loss of accessory muscles during atonia) **

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95
Q

What does a short REM latency suggest? What are the causes of REM rebound?

A
  1. Narcolepsy
  2. REM Rebound
    2a. Depression
    2b. Medication withdrawal e.g. SSRIs, BZD, alcohol
    2c. REM sleep deprivation
    2d. Patients undergoing CPAP titration
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96
Q

Causes of REM suppression

A

SSRIs
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
Sedative hypnotic drugs, barbiturates
Antiepileptics
Alcohol

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97
Q

Medications stimulate breathing vs suppress breathing

A

Stimulate: theophylline, acetazolamide, progesterone, thyroid hormone
Inhibit: BZD, barbiturates, gabapentinoids, alcohol

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98
Q

Effect of aging on sleep

A

Decrease in N3
Increase in N1 and N2
No change in REM
Increased WASO - wake after sleep onset
More arousal
Lower sleep efficiency
Body’s clock shifts earlier

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99
Q

Physiological changes during sleep

A

Decreased BP, HR, CO (increase in phasic REM)
Decreased RR, VT, VE; RR generally increase in REM
PaCO2 increase 3-5 mmHg
PaO2 decrease 5-8 mmHg; SpO2 decrease 1-2%
Increased upper airway resistance

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100
Q

Minimum requirements for an adequate sleep study

A

At least 2 hours of sleep
Other normal values (not required): 80% efficiency, <30 mins sleep onset, <90 mins REM onset

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101
Q

Components of a PSG

A

EEG
EOG
EMG
ECG
Airflow (2)
Respiratory efforts (2)
SpO2
CO2 measurement

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102
Q

Ways to measure airflow

A

Oronasal thermistor - apnea
Nasal pressure transducer - hypopnea, RERA

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103
Q

Ways to measure respiratory effort measured

A

RIP belt (respiratory inductance plethysmography)
Esophageal pressure monitoring
Diaphragmatic EMG

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104
Q

When should patients with sleep apnea be followed up on?

A

Within 4 weeks if high risk
Within 6 months for all others

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105
Q

Who is a level II-IV sleep study appropriate for? What are Contraindications?

A

Moderate-high pretest probability
Do not suspect other sleep disorders
Do not have other comorbid diseases
Not a titration study

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106
Q

Criteria for moderate-high pretest probability of OSA

A

Excessive Daytime Sleepiness on most days with 2 of the following:
Snoring
Witnessed apneic episodes
Witnessed choking during sleep
Witnessed gasping during sleep
Diagnosed HTN

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107
Q

Criteria for comorbid/complicated disease (sleep disordered breathing)

A

Cardiorespiratory disease
History of stroke
Respiratory muscle weakness, NMD
Suspicion for hypoventilation

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108
Q

Levels of Home Sleep Apnea Testing

A

II: Full PSG but done at home
III: airflow, effort, ECG, pulse oximetry
IV: pulse oximetry

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109
Q

Requirements that need to be met to be able to do split night study

A

Moderate-severe OSA based on at least 2 hours of recordings
3 hours available for titration

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110
Q

Definition of apnea vs hypopnea

A

Apnea: decrease in flow >/90% from baseline x >/10 seconds
Hypopnea: decrease in flow >/30% from baseline x >/10 seconds and accompanied by desaturation of SaO2 by 3% or arousal

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111
Q

Definition of obstructive vs central HYPOPNEAs

A

Obstructive: snoring, thoracoabdominal paradox, increased insp flattening of nasal pressure compared to baseline
Central: None of the above

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112
Q

Definition of mixed apneas

A

Starts out as central, then obstructive

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113
Q

Definition of a RERA

A

Increase in resp effort or flattening of nasal pressure waveform
Event causes arousal or desaturation without meeting appropriate criteria x 10 s

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114
Q

Definition of hypoventilation on a PSG

A

Increase in PaCO2 >55 mmHg x 10 mins
Increase in PaCO2 by >/10 mmHg to a value above 50 mmHg x 10 mins

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115
Q

AHI vs RDI

A

AHI = Apnea + hypopnea/total sleep time
RDI = Apnea + hypopnea + RERA/total sleep time

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116
Q

DDX for EDS

A

Insufficient sleep
Sleep disordered breathing - OSA, CSA, hypoventilation, etc.
Central Sleep disorders-Narcolepsy, Kleine-Levin syndrome, Idiopathic hypersomnelence.
Circardian rhythm sleep disorders
Sleep related movement disorders
Parasomnias- RBD, sleep walking, sleep terrors, confusional arousals.
Neurologic disorders - Parkinson’s, dementia, stroke, MS
Medical: -Hypothyroidism , Adrenal insufficiency , Anemia, iron deficiency , CKD, renal failure, hepatic encephalopathy
Depression, other psychiatric conditions
Medications, substances

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117
Q

What medical conditions should make you think about screening for OSA?

A

OHS
Difficult to control HTN
Recurrent atrial fibrillation post cardioversion or ablation
Pulmonary Hypertension

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118
Q

Neurological control of upper airway muscles

A

Cranial nerves 5,7,9,10,11,12

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119
Q

Risk Factors for OSA

A

Smoking
Elevated BMI
Family history
Increased age
Male, post menopausal
Increased mallampati score
Tonsil or adenoid hypertrophy
Increased neck circumference
Retrognathia
Micrognathia
Macroglossia
Nasal abnormalities
Low lying palate
Hypothyroidism
Acromegaly
Neuropathy or myopathy

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120
Q

Mechanism of hypoxemia in OSA

A

Underlying lung disease
Baseline supine SaO2
Low FRC (e.g. obesity)
Duration of apneic/hypopneic episodes
Frequency of apneic /hypopneic episodes
Respiratory efforts in between apneic/hypopneic episodes

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121
Q

Possible complications of OSA

A

Hypertension
Coronary artery disease
Arrhythmias
Stroke
Heart failure
PH if concomitant OHS
Diabetes
Erectile dysfunction
Depression
Cognitive deficits
MVCs

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122
Q

Screening questionnaires for OSA

A

Berlin questionnaire
STOP-Bang questionnaire (high sensitive, poor specificity)

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123
Q

Diagnostic criteria for OSA

A

Symptoms/complications + AHI >/5
AHI >/15

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124
Q

Severity of OSA

A

Mild: >/5 - 14.9
Moderate: 15 - 29.9
Severe: >/30

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125
Q

Positional sleep apnea definition

A

Supine AHI is at least double non supine AHI

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126
Q

Indications for PAP treatment in OSA

A

Moderate to severe OSA/ AHI >/15
Mild but symptoms (e.g. EDS), reduced QOL, or hypertension
Critical occupation

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127
Q

Starting pressure and max pressure for PAP

A

Start at 4 cm H2O
Switch to BPAP 15 cm H2O
Absolute max 20 cm H2O

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128
Q

Min and max pressures for BPAP

A

Min difference of 4 cm H2O
Max difference of 10 cm H20
Min pressure 4 cm H2O, Max pressure of 30 cm H2O

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129
Q

How to progress titrating to next pressure during titration study

A

> /2 apneic events
/3 hypopneic events
/5 RERAs
/3 mins snoring
Any of this within a 5 min period
Want >/ 30 mins without breathing event

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130
Q

Criteria for optimal titration achieved

A
  1. Optimal: RDI <5 for at least 15 mins, supine sleep observed, REM sleep not interrupted by spontaneous arousals, O2 sat >90%
  2. Good: RDI </10 or by 50% of baseline RDI if baseline <15, supine sleep observed, REM sleep not interrupted by spontaneous arousals O2 sat >90%
  3. Adequate: RDI not </10 but reduced by 75% from baseline or one in which above met but supine REM did not occur at selected pressure, O2 sat >90%
  4. Unaccepted: None of the above are met
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131
Q

Causes of persistent sleepiness in OSA despite treatment

A

Non adherence/compliance
Additional medical condition
Additional sleep disorder
Treatment emergent central sleep apnea
Inadequate pressures/not fully controlled
Sleep deprivation/insufficient sleep

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132
Q

Once the other causes are ruled out, how can you treat patients with OSA who still have EDS?

A

Modafinil
Solriamfetol

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133
Q

Indications for modafinil in OSA

A

Ongoing EDS despite appropriate treatment
Concomitant narcolepsy
Concomitant circadian rhythm disorder
Certain occupations - shift workers (Temporary)

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134
Q

Methods to increase adherence to PAP therapy

A

Education
Humidity
Nasal mask vs. full face mask
Treatment of nasal congestion
Polypectomy
Oral appliance
APAP

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135
Q

Benefits of treatment (PAP, OA, MMA)

A

Improved AHI (all stages)
Improved symptoms: Definitely moderate-severe, unclear mild
Decreased BP: moderate-severe
PAP also improves responsiveness of Afib to tx, ?improve outcome after stroke

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136
Q

Contraindications to APAP

A

Chronic lung disease e.g. COPD
Previous UPPP (Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty)
Heart failure
Central sleep apnea
OHS/hypoventilation syndrome
Medications causing hypoventilation e.g. chronic opioid use
Neuromuscular disease, chest wall disorder

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137
Q

Treatments for OSA other than PAP

A

Positional therapy
Oral appliances
Surgery
Hypoglossal nerve stimulation
Weight loss

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138
Q

Indications for oral appliance

A

Primary snoring disorder without OSA
OSA but intolerant of or unwilling to try PAP (vs. no treatment)
To reduce PAP pressures
Not responsive to CPAP

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139
Q

Complications associated with OA

A

Dental malocclusion
TMJ pain
Gum pain
Drooling or dry mouth

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140
Q

Surgical options in OSA

A

UPPP (Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty)
Mandibular advancement
Tonsillectomy, adenoidectomy
Tracheostomy

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141
Q

Reasons to consider tracheostomy for sleep disordered breathing

A

Intolerant of PAP/high pressures
Cannot achieve control with other treatment
Other abnormalities prevent adequate mask fitting
Other reasons for tracheostomy e.g. craniofacial weakness
Patient preference

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142
Q

Main things you should assess on overnight oximetry

A

Mean nocturnal saturation (92)
Nadir SpO2
Time spent </88% (5 mins)
% of study spent <90% (20%)

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143
Q

Cutoffs for the Oxygen Desaturation Index

A

<10 = unlikely moderade-severe OSA
10-30 = possible moderate-severe OSA
>30= highly suggestive of moderate-severe OSA
but technically <5 is normal and >10 is abnormal

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144
Q

What are the abnormal hypoxemia times on an overnight oximetry

A

Spo2 <88% for >5min
Spo2 <90% for >10% of sleep time.

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145
Q

What is considered an oxygen desaturation for an ODI?

A

Reduction in SpO2 >/4% for >/10 seconds

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146
Q

Components of insomnia

A

Difficulty sleeping or maintaining sleep
Adequate opportunities for sleep
Affect functioning

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147
Q

PSG findings of insomnia

A

Increased WASO
Increased sleep latency >/30 minutes
Reduced sleep efficiency
Reduced sleep time <6-6.5 hours

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148
Q

Medical causes of insomnia

A

Medications e.g. stimulants, coffee
Psychiatric e.g. depression, anxiety
Neurologic e.g. parkinsons, dementia
Chronic pain, diabetes, HTN, cancer

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149
Q

Classification of central sleep apnea

A
  1. Primary central sleep apnea
  2. Primary central sleep apnea of infancy or prematurity
  3. CSA with Cheyne stokes
  4. CSA due to medical disorder without Cheyne Stokes
    - 4a. Central insult e.g. tumour, stroke, encephalitis, polio
    - 4b. Respiratory muscle weakness e.g. NMD, chest wall disease
    - 4c. Renal failure
    - 4d. Atrial fibrillation
  5. High altitude periodic breathing
  6. Treatment emergent central sleep apnea
  7. Medication or substance related
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150
Q

Medications that can cause CSA

A

Opioids
Benzodiazepines
Gabapentinoids
Antidepressants

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151
Q

PSG findings in general CSA

A

Cessation or reduction in ventilatory effort x >/10 seconds
Most common in N1/N2
No effort via RIP belt or diaphragmatic EMG
>/5 central events per hour and >50% of total events
Snoring and desats are less prominent than OSA

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152
Q

PSG definition of Cheyne Stokes Respiration

A
    • > /3 consecutive central apnea/hypopneas with crescendo and decrescendo changes in breathing amplitude with a cycle length of at least 40 seconds (typically 45 to 90)
    • > /5 central apneas/hypopneas per hour associated with crescendo,decrescendo breathing in between recorded over min 2 hours
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153
Q

Diagnostic criteria of Cheyne Stokes Respiration (CSR)

A

Symptoms/predisposing condition (HF, neurologic dz, AF)
PSG criteria
Not better explained by other disorder

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154
Q

Cheyne Stokes Respiration vs. Central Sleep Apnea

A

Cycle length longer >40 seconds
Period of hyperpnea is longer
O2 saturation nadir is more delayed (prolonged circulation time)
Arousals during hyperpnea whereas at end of apnea with CSA

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155
Q

Causes of Cheyne Stokes Respiration

A

Heart failure
Renal failure
Central disease e.g. stroke, tumors
Medications e.g. sedatives

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156
Q

Pathophysiology of Cheyne Stokes Respiration

A
  1. Apnea
  2. Increased circulatory time
  3. Increased chemoreceptor responsiveness to CO2
  4. Increased loop gain - increase in response size
  5. Apnea
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157
Q

Pathophysiology of other CSAs

A

TECSA: obstruction relieved, CO2 falls, apnea, high loop gain (treatment emergent central sleep apnea)
Altitude: increased vent due to O2, CO2 falls, apnea, high loop gain
Opioids: hypoventilation

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158
Q

Impact of CSR on HF

A

Increased mortality
Occurs in 30% of patients with HF

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159
Q

Treatment options for CSR

A

GDMT of HF, transplantation
Nocturnal oxygen
CPAP therapy - (not the other OSA tx) - BPAP used with caution bc can have same effect as ASV, so avoid
Phrenic nerve stimulation
?Acetazolamide, theophylline [limited evidence]

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160
Q

Benefits of CPAP in CSR

A

Improve AHI
Improve arrhythmias
May improve LV function

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161
Q

SERVE-HF trial

A

adaptive servoventilation (ASV) increased all cause mortality in HFrEF <45%
Contraindicated

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162
Q

Management of general CSA

A

Idiopathic → BPAP-ST, ASV, CPAP
CSA 2/2 hypoventilation → BPAP-ST, ASV > CPAP
Altitude → descend, oxygen, acetazolamide
Treatment emergent → expectant, ASV > BPAP-ST, oxygen, acetazolamide

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163
Q

Biot’s breathing

A

Hyperpnea mix with apnea
Associated with meningitis

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164
Q

Changes that occur to the sleep architecture with altitude

A

Increased WASO (Wakefullness after sleep onset)
Increased N1, N2
Decreased N3
Kind of like aging

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165
Q

Mechanism of action of acetazolamide

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Leads to increased bicarbonate excretion
Causes metabolic acidosis, stimulates breathing

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166
Q

Classification criteria for sleep related hypoventilation (types of hypoventilation)

A

Idiopathic central alveolar hypoventilation syndrome
Congenital central alveolar hypoventilation syndrome
Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
Sleep related hypoventilation due to disorder, medication, substance

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167
Q

Cause of congenital central hypoventilation syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant
PHOX2B gene mutation → loss of RTN

Also known as Ondines Curse

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168
Q

Role of obesity in OHS

A

Fat produces more CO2
Leptin suppresses respiratory drive
Altered respiratory mechanics(TLC N/reduced at BMI>40, FRC reduced, RV normal/increased, RV/TLC normal/increased, ERV low, ).

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169
Q

Indications for screening for OHS

A

BMI >30 with OSA (known or suspected)
BMI >30 with:
- Unexplained dyspnea
- Unexplained awake hypoxemia
- Pulmonary hypertension, signs of it
- Polycythemia, sx of it (e.g. facial plethoraX)
- Elevated bicarbonate

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170
Q

How do you screen for OHS?

A

Bicarbonate >27
Straight to PaCO2 if high pretest probability

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171
Q

Diagnostic criteria for OHS

A

BMI >30
Awake PaCO2 >45
Hypoventilation not explained by another disorder e.g. lung disease
(PSG is required to assess for OSA, not absolutely needed for diagnosis but almost always done)

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172
Q

Treatment of OHS

A

AHI >30 → CPAP first
AHI <30 → BIPAP-ST
No OSA → BiPAP-ST
Weight loss (25-50%), not sole treatment
If admitted with resp failure → BIPAP-ST> APAP until sleep study

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173
Q

Treatments that are associated with HARM in the management of OHS

A

Oxygen
Respiratory stimulants

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174
Q

Classification criteria for hypersomnolence

A

Primary
- Idiopathic hypersomnia
- Kleine Levin syndrome
- Narcolepsy
Secondary
- Genetic disorder
- CNS disorder e.g. stroke
- Parkinsons
- Post traumatic
- Metabolic encephalopathy

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175
Q

DDX of Sleep Onset REM Periods

A

Narcolepsy
Idiopathic hypersomnolence
Due to PD, post traumatic, genetics, central tumour, metabolic
REM rebound:
- Depression
- Medication withdrawal e.g. SSRIs, BZD, alcohol
- REM sleep deprivation
- Patients undergoing CPAP titration

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176
Q

Requirement prior to MSLT

A

PSG the night before (NOT split night)
>/ 6 hours of sleep on PSG
Withhold REM suppressing medications x 2 weeks

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177
Q

Causes of narcolepsy

A

Idiopathic
Autoimmune, post infectious
Neurosarcoid
CNS - strokes, tumors

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178
Q

Features of narcolepsy

A

Sleep attacks during the day and EDS
Hypognogic
Sleep paralysis
+/- cataplexy

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179
Q

PSG/MSLT features of narcolepsy

A

Mean sleep onset latency </8 minutes
>/2 SOREMPs </15 mins
Loss of REM atonia
Increased N1 sleep
Reduced sleep efficiency, spontaneous awakenings

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180
Q

Drug categories used in treatment of narcolepsy

A

Selective DA reuptake inhibitor
- Modafinil
Selective NE and DA reuptake inhibitor
- Methylphenidate
- Solriamfetol
DA reuptake inhibitor
- dextroamphetamine
H3 blocker
- pitolisant
Other
- Sodium oxybate: GHB
- Venlafaxine for cataplexy

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181
Q

Conditions that are associated with REM sleep behavior disorder

A

Parkinsons
MSA, other forms of dementia
Stroke, tumour
Narcolepsy
SSRIs

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182
Q

Treatment for REM sleep behavior disorder

A

Changes to make sleeping area safe
Melatonin
Clonazepam

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183
Q

Sleep disorders can occur secondary to Parkinsons Disease

A

Insomnia
Hypersomnolence
REM sleep behavior disorder
Restless leg syndrome
Excessive daytime sleepiness

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184
Q

Examples of opioid related disorders

A

Central sleep apnea
Hypoventilation
Obstructive sleep apnea
Insomnia

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185
Q

Causes of RLS

A

Iron deficiency
Pregnancy
Uremia
Parkinson disease, spinal cord disease, prolonged immobility
SSRIs + other meds
Family history
Thyroid dysfunction

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186
Q

Scoring a PLM (periodic leg movement)

A

4 consecutive flexion movements, 5-90 s apart is a series (counts as 1).
The movement is 0.5-10 s, 8mV in amplitude above resting EMG
Can’t be during a resp event.

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187
Q

Diagnosis of PLMD (periodic leg movement disorder)

A

Periodic leg movement index (PLMI) >/15 per hour
Not explained by another cause e.g. other sleep disorder

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188
Q

Diagnostic criteria for RLS

A

Urge to move limbs
Rest worsens symptoms
Getting up/moving relieves
Evenings/Night are worse
Dysfunction (causes concern)
(URGE-D)

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189
Q

Treatment of RLS

A

Iron replacement
-if serum ferritin <75ng/mL or TSAT <20%
IV or oral iron supplementation
-If serum ferritin 75-100 then only IV iron
-If ESRD then use IV iron Sucrose when ferritin <200 and TSAT <200
-IV ferric carboxymaltose (strong recommendation)
can use IV LMW iron dextran, IV ferumoxytol, ferrous sulfate, but conditional recommendations
Alpha-2-delta calcium channel ligands (Strong recommendation)
-gabapentin
-gabapentin encarbil (long acting gabapentin)
- pregabalin
Opioids
Peroneal nerves stimulation
Dipyridamole
Vitamin C if ESRD

DO NOT USE:
Gabapentinoid - pregabalin, gabapentin
DA agonist - pramipexole, ropinirole
DA analogue - carbidopa-levodopa

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190
Q

Examples of circadian rhythm disorders

A

Advanced sleep- wake phase Disorder (light therapy)
Delayed sleep phase wake phase Disorder (melatonin)
Irregular sleep-wake rhythm disorder (light therapy and no sleep aids for elderly. For younger patients=melatonin)
Non 24H Sleep wake rhythm disorder (Strategic melatonin in blind patients)

Caused by inbalance between process C and S

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191
Q

Criteria for sleep related hypoxemia

A

SpO2 </88% x 5 mins
No hypoventilation

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192
Q

What innervates the respiratory muscles?

A

Diaphragm - C3/4/5
Intercostals - thoracic nerves
Abdominal - lumbar nerves
Upper airways - cranial nerves

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193
Q

Levels of neuromuscular disease

A

Cerebral cortex - stroke, cancer
Brain stem/basal ganglia - stroke, cancer
Spinal cord - trauma, MS
Anterior horn cell - polio, post polio, ALS
Motor nerves - ALS
NMJ - MG, LEMs
Muscles - muscular dystrophy (duchenne and becker)

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194
Q

DDX for elevated Residual Volume

A

ALS
Mid-low c-spine injury
airways disease

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195
Q

DDX for low ERV

A

Obesity
T spine injury
pregnancy

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196
Q

Measures of respiratory muscle strength

A

Sitting and supine VC
MIP, MEP
SNP
Sniff esophageal pressure
Phrenic nerve EMG
Sniff transdiaphragmatic pressure

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197
Q

Clinical manifestations of ALS

A

Bulbar symptoms
UMN symptoms: spasticity, hyperreflexia, extensor plantar
LMN: atrophy, fasciculations

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198
Q

Causes of nocturnal hypoxemia in ALS

A

Concomitant OSA (?CSA, mixed>OSA)
Concomitant hypoventilation - resp muscle weakness
Central hypoventilation (loss of cortical drive to breath)
Underlying lung (e.g. VQ mismatch due to microatelectasis), heart, PVD disease
Upward shift in ventilatory setpoint for PaCO2 by 2-3 mmHg

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199
Q

In hypoventilation due to muscle weakness, what is the progression of symptoms?

A

REM → NREM → daytime
Loss of accessory muscles in REM

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200
Q

What Monitoring every 2-6 months in ALS

A

Clinical symptoms
FVC sitting
Supine FVC, MIPS, MEPS, SNPs
Cough hx, PCF
Arterial blood gas/TcCO2 if hypercapnia suspected, or bulbar sx preclude PFT
Nocturnal oximetry/PSG if SDB suspected

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201
Q

Indications to start NIV in ALS

A

Orthopnea
FVC <50% predicted (Upright reliable<65% Canadian Best Practice 2020)
Sitting or supine FVC <80% predicted with sx and other indicator of resp muscle weakness
MIPS or SNPS <-40 cm
Daytime PaCO2 >45 mmHg
Abnormal nocturnal oximetry or symptomatic Sleep disordered breathing:
- Sleep disordered breathing as defined by oxygen saturation < 90% for > 5% of the night or < 88% for 5 consecutive minutes or a 10 mmHg increase in TcCO2 during sleep AND any of the following symptoms: dyspnea, morning headache, daytime sleepiness, or non-refreshing sleep.(CTS 2019)
*Start with S/T mode over S mode (CTS 2019)

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202
Q

Best predictors of death at 6 months in ALS

A

FVC <50% predicted
SNP <-40
MIP <-40

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203
Q

Benefits of NIV in ALS

A

HrQOL
Some physiological parameters e.g. slowing VC decline, daytime PaCO2
Mortality

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204
Q

What does not yet have a clear goal in ALS treatment?

A

Respiratory muscle training
Diaphragmatic pacing

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205
Q

Benefits of tracheostomy in ALS

A

HrQOL
Mortality

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206
Q

Medications should be avoided in myasthenia

A

Fluoroquinolones
Aminoglycosides
Macrolides
Beta blockers
Procainamide
Checkpoint inhibitors
Iodinated contrast

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207
Q

Treatment of MG

A

Maintenance - pyridostigmine
Flare - steroids, PLEX, IVIG

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208
Q

Lambert Eaton Syndrome vs. MG?

A

More proximal muscle weakness
More ANS abnormalities
Less bulbar muscle involvement

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209
Q

Respiratory risks/manifestations associated with GBS

A

Weak cough
Bulbar dysfunction - Aspiration pneumonitis, aspiration pneumonia
Respiratory muscle weakness - hypoventilation, atelectasis
Sleep disordered breathing
Dysautonomia and bronchospasm

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210
Q

Predictors of respiratory failure in GBS requiring mechanical ventilation

A

FVC <60% predicted
Onset to admission <7 days
Inability to stand, life arms up, life head off pillow
Presence of facial weakness
Inability to cough

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211
Q

Indications for intubation in GBS

A

20-30-40 rule (each as separate point) :
VC<20
MIP < -30
MEP < 40

Severe bulbar weakness, cannot protect airway
Respiratory rate sustained >30
Hypoxemia/SpO2 <92%
Hypercarbia >50mmHg
Hemodynamic instability

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212
Q

Treatment of GBS

A

IVIG, PLEX

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213
Q

What are the types of muscular dystrophy?

A

BMD (Becker)
DMD (Duchenne)- worse

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214
Q

Predictors of nocturnal hypoventilation in muscular dystrophy?

A

VC <40% in DMD
VC <60% in other muscular dystrophies
Therefore, screening PaCO2 in those with VC <40%

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215
Q

What are causes of unilateral vs bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis?

A
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216
Q

Most common cause of unilateral hemidiaphragm

A

Trauma
Idiopathic

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217
Q

Clinical manifestations of diaphragmatic paralysis

A

Exertional dyspnea
Orthopnea
Bendopnea
Sleep disordered breathing symptoms

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218
Q

Physical examination findings in diaphragmatic paralysis

A

Paradoxical motion in unilateral
Paradoxical abdominal wall retraction

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219
Q

Diagnostic tests to assess for paralysis

A

Imaging
Sniff test - ultrasound, fluoroscopy
Sitting and supine test
MIP, SNP
EMG of diaphragm, transdiaphragmatic pressure

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220
Q

Values of MEP/MIP that are concerning for diaphragmatic paralysis

A

MEP/MIP >1.5 for unilateral
MEP/MIP >3 for bilateral

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221
Q

Complications of diaphragmatic paralysis

A

Unilateral: occasional hypoventilation, atelectasis
Bilateral frequent hyperventilation, atelectasis, PNA, resp failure

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222
Q

Treatment of diaphragmatic weakness

A

Unilateral: plication
Bilateral: NIV, pacing

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223
Q

Indications for NIV for NMD in general

A
  • FVC < 80% associated with symptoms such as tachypnea and use of accessory muscles, tachypnea, excessive fatigue, excessive daytime sleepiness
  • SNIP < 40 mmHg
  • MIP < 60 mmHg (?<40 ALS)
  • Daytime hypercapnia PCO2 > 45 mmHg
  • Nocturnal saturation < 88% for 5 consecutive minutes
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224
Q

Causes of kyphoscoliosis

A

Idiopathic
Congenital - spinal/vertebral malformations at birth
Cartilage disorders - Marfan syndrome, EHD
Bony disorders - e.g. osteopenia, osteoporosis
Neuromuscular disorders - e.g. muscular dystrophy, cerebral palsy, Charcot Marie Tooth
Post thoracoplasty

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225
Q

Risk factors for respiratory failure in kyphoscoliosis

A

Cobb’s angle >110 degrees
VC <45 degrees in surgically untreated (we start monitoring at VC <50%)
Concomitant NMD
Concomitant lung disease

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226
Q

Screening for NIV needs in patients with kyphoscoliosis

A

Once FVC <50%, we look for hypercapnic resp failure

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227
Q

Treatment of respiratory failure in kyphoscoliosis

A

Nocturnal NIV +/- O2
Nocturnal O2 if just hypoxemia

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228
Q

Benefits of airway clearance

A

Secretion clearance
Reduce airway resistance
Improve respiratory system compliance
Prevent atelectasis
Prevent pneumonia
Prevent respiratory failure, prevent need for trach or intubation
Decrease work of breathing

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229
Q

Markers of a weak cough

A

PCF <270 L/minute
MEP <60 cm H2O
Bulbar dysfunction
Expiratory cough flow tracing - absence of transient increase in expiratory flow (cough spikes)

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230
Q

Secretion management strategies in DMD

A

Atropine
Scopolamine
Botox injection into salivary glands (submandibular and parotid)
Salivary gland RT

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231
Q

Indications to start a cough support device in NMD

A

PCF <270 L/minute

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232
Q

Methods to enhance cough in NMD

A

Lung volume recruitment - glossopharyngeal breathing, bag valve mask
Manually assisted cough
Mechanical insufflation and exsufflation device

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233
Q

Contraindications to lung recruitment in NMD

A

Unconscious or unable to communicate
Increased ICP, severe TBI
SIgnificant hypotension
Pneumothorax, risk for barotrauma e.g. bullous disease
Hemoptysis
?Cannot protect their airway e.g. severe bulbar weakness

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234
Q

Contraindications to NIV

A

Loss of consciousness, unable to protect airway
Requiring intubation
Hemodynamic instability
Facial trauma or deformity
Hemoptysis
Upper GI bleeding, perforation or recent surgery

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235
Q

Causes of hypercapnia in patient with NMD on BPAP?

A

Non compliance or low duration
Pressures are not optimal
Disease progression
Underlying lung disease
Compensation for metabolic alkalosis

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236
Q

Other than BiPAP, other ways to optimize respiratory status in NMD

A

Cough assist
Secretion mobilization and volume
Daytime mouthpiece ventilation
Smoking cessation
Vaccination

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237
Q

DDX for a lymphocyte predominant BAL pattern

A

Lymphoproliferative disorders
Connective tissue diseases
Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia
Radiation pneumonitis
Sarcoidosis
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
NSIP
Drug induced pneumonitis

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238
Q

DDX for an eosinophilic predominant BAL pattern

A

Infections - fungal, PJP, helminthic
ABPA
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Eosinophilic pneumonia
Asthma, bronchitis
EGPA
Drug induced pneumonitis
Bone marrow transplant

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239
Q

DDX for a neutrophil predominant BAL pattern

A

Infection
Bronchitis
Aspiration pneumonia
UIP/IPF
Asbestosis
ARDS, DAD
Connective tissue diseases

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240
Q

What BAL value of lymphocytes is suggestive of granulomatous inflammation?

A

> 25%
50% is especially suggestive of HP or cellular NSIP

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241
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of drug induced disease

A

Eosinophilic pneumonia
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Organizing pneumonia
Occupational asthma
Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
ARDS
Drug induced sarcoid reaction, vasculitis and lupus
Bronchiolitis - obliterative bronchiolitis
Fibrosing mediastinitis
Pleural effusions
Pulmonary hypertension
Alveolar hypoventilation

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242
Q

RFs for development of amiodarone induced lung toxicity

A

Older age
>/2 months of therapy
>/400 mg oral daily
Total cumulative dose
High FiO2 administration
Underlying lung disease

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243
Q

RFs for development of bleomycin induced lung toxicity

A

Older age
Cigarette smoking
Higher doses (>400 units)
Concomitant radiation
Concurrent cisplatin or cyclophosphamide
High FiO2 administration
Underlying lung disease

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244
Q

RFs for development of nitrofurantoin lung toxicity

A

Older age
Female
Renal impairment

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245
Q

Medications that cause mediastinal lymphadenopathy

A

Phenytoin
Methotrexate

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246
Q

Benefits of O2 therapy in ILD

A

Resting hypoxemia: dyspnea, QOL, ?PH
Ambulatory hypoxemia: Exercise tolerance

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247
Q

DDx for ILD with preserved lung volume

A

CPFE*
Chronic sarcoidosis*
Chronic HP*
RB-ILD*
LAM
PLCH
Lymphangitic carcinomatosis
Heart failure

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248
Q

General Approach to DDx of radiographic patterns in ILD

A
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249
Q

Definition of honeycombing

A

Clustered cystic airspaces, 3-10 mm in diameter with walls 1-3mm thick usually subpleural

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250
Q

Reticular Pattern Definition

A

Small linear opacities with intra and interlobular thickening

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251
Q

Ground Glass Definition

A

Hazy increased lung opacity with preservation of bronchial and vascular markings

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252
Q

Consolidation Definition

A

Increased attenuation that obscures the margins of vessels and airways

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253
Q

Cyst Definition

A

Well defined focal lucency with variable wall thickness bust usually thin (less than 2mm)

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254
Q

Micronodule Definition

A

small round focal opacity <3mm in size

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255
Q

Mosaic Attenuation Definition

A

Patchwork of regions of differing attenuation

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256
Q

Outline the components of a secondary pulmonary lobule.

A
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257
Q

Important studies in the treatment of ILD

A

INPULSIS 1 and 2: nintedanib in ILD (Primary outcome: annual change in FVC
* INPULSIS-1: 125.3 ml/year
* INPULSIS-2: 93.7 ml/year
Myocardial infarcts:
* higher incidence in Nintedanib group 1.5% vs 0.5%
* MACE 0.6% nintedanib vs 1.8% placebo

Kolb et al. Thorax 2017 (nintedanib)
* IPF and preserved lung volume FVC >90%
Same rate of lung function decline
Same benefit
Start early!
Less risk of exacerbations

ASCEND: Pirfenidone in ILD Primary outcome:
* >/= 10% decline in FVC or all cause mortality
* 16.5% vs 31.8% (RRR 47.9%; P<0.001; NNT 7) (Mortality benenifit not proven but subsequent metanalysis do support that there is a mortality benefit)
SENSIS: Nintedanib in SSc-ILD
INBUILD: Non IPF fibrosing ILD
PANTHER: Steroids had increased mortality in IPF

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258
Q

Numerical cutoffs for surgical lung biopsy

A

FVC <55%
DLCO <35%

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259
Q

Possible adverse events post surgical lung biopsy

A

Prolonged air leak
Pneumothorax, hemothorax, pleural effusion
Infection
Delayed wound healing
ILD exacerbation
Requirement for intubation

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260
Q

Benefits of PR in ILD

A

Improved dyspnea
Improved QOL

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261
Q

Management of refractory dyspnea in ILD

A

Breathing retraining
Relaxation techniques
Fans
Body positioning
Low dose opioids

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262
Q

RFs for IPF

A

Genetics - TERC/TERT/MUC5B
Smoking
Environmental pollution
?Microaspiration

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263
Q

Definitions of familial pulmonary fibrosis

A

Fibrotic ILD in at least 2 related family members

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264
Q

Conditions are associated with UIP pattern

A

IPF
Familial IPF
CTD-ILD (SARD- ILD)
Drugs
Asbestosis
Chronic hypersensitivity pneumonitis

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265
Q

Radiographic pattern of UIP + associated level of confidence

A

Confident - 90%
Probable - 70 to 90
Indeterminate - 50 to 70
Alternative - <50%

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266
Q

Mediastinal findings that would suggest an alternative diagnosis to UIP

A

Esophageal dilatation
Pleural plaques

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267
Q

Type of biopsy is recommended for IPF

A

Surgical lung biopsy
Cryobiopsy

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268
Q

Histopathological findings in IPF

A

Subpleural and/or paraseptal predominance
Patchy involvement
Dense fibrosis with architectural distortion +/- honeycombing
Fibroblastic foci
Absence of features suggesting alternative diagnosis e.g. granulomas

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269
Q

Poor IPF prognostic factors on initial diagnosis

A

Older age
Male
FVC <50%
DLCO <35%
Greater extent of fibrosis on CT
Hypoxemia at rest or with exertion
Low 6MWT, especially <250 meters
Lower BMI
Certain comorbidities e.g. PH

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270
Q

Poor IPF prognostic factors on follow up

A

Absolute reduction in FVC by 10%
Absolute reduction in DLCO by 15%
Worsening fibrosis on HRCT
Worsening level of dyspnea

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271
Q

Poor UIP prognostic factors

A

IPF as opposed to secondary dx
Male
Older age
Heavy smoking
Poor baseline FVC
Poor baseline DLCO
Decline in FVC by 10%, DLCO by 15% over 6 months
CPFE
PH

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272
Q

“Appropriate clinical setting” for IPF?

A

Male
Smoker
>60 years old

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273
Q

Comorbidities that need to be managed in IPF

A

GERD
Pulmonary hypertension
Obstructive sleep apnea
Lung cancer

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274
Q

Therapies that improve survival in IPF

A

Antifibrotics: nintedanib and pirfenidone
Lung transplantation

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275
Q

Benefits of antifibrotics

A

Improve QOL
Reduce the decline of FVC
Reduce rate of exacerbation and hospitalization
Reduce the mortality

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276
Q

Requirements for antifibrotic initiation/who would benefit

A

Age >40
FVC >/50
DLCO >/30

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277
Q

Overall prognosis for IPF

A

Death within 4-5 years of diagnosis

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278
Q

Possible triggers for an IPF flare

A

Bad disease at baseline - low FVC, DLCO, 6MWD
Infection
Pulmonary embolism
Aspiration
Lung biopsy, bronchoscopy, other procedures
Immunosuppressive therapy

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279
Q

Prognosis of an IPF flare

A

50-90% in hospital mortality
Median survival 3-4 months

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280
Q

Diagnostic criteria for IPF flare

A

Acute respiratory deterioration
<1 month in duration
Bilateral GGO with or without consolidation on background of fibrosis
Not explained fully by another cause e.g. volume overload

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281
Q

Criteria for progressive pulmonary fibrosis

A

Need two of the three criteria
Need them to be occurring in the past year
1. Progression of symptoms
2. Decline in PFTs
- FVC >5% within one year
- DLCO >10% within one year
3. Worsening radiographic progression

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282
Q

DDX of PPFE (pleuroparynchymal fibroelastosis)

A

Idiopathic
CTD e.g. scleroderma
Chronic HP
Occupational exposures
Chemotherapy
Post HSCT, bone marrow, lung

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283
Q

Imaging findings in PPFE

A

Pleural thickening
Associated subpleural fibrosis
Concentrated in the upper lobes

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284
Q

Histopathological findings in PPFE

A

Upper zone pleural fibrosis
Subjacent intra alveolar fibrosis and alveolar fibroelastosis

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285
Q

Radiographic findings of CPFE

A

Emphysema in upper lobes
Fibrosis (usually UIP pattern) in lower lobes

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286
Q

Notable complications of CPFE

A

Lung cancer
Pulmonary hypertension

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287
Q

Diagnostic criteria for IPAF

A

Presence of interstitial pneumonia (imaging or pathology)
Does not meet CTD criteria
Exclusion of other etiologies
At least 2 of: clinical criteria, serological criteria, morphological criteria

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288
Q

Secondary causes of NSIP

A

Idiopathic
Connective tissue diseases
Drugs/medications
Exposures - hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Infections, including HIV

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289
Q

Radiographic features of NSIP

A

Basilar, peripheral OR diffuse
Cellular is GGO dominant
Fibrotic is reticulation, traction, bronchovascular bundle thickening +/- honeycombs
Subpleural sparing

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290
Q

General Pathology findings for UIP, NSIP, OP, fHP, and PPFE

A

UIP→ fibroblastic foci, honeycombing
NSIP→ homogenous fibrosis, no Honey Combing, few fibroblastic foci
OP→ MASSON bodies (buds of intraalveolar granulation tissue)
Fibrosing HP→ poorly formed granulomas, peribronchiolar, SHAUMANN bodies
PPFE→ fibroelastosis, spindle cells.

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291
Q

Causes of drug induced sarcoidosis

A

TNF alpha inhibitors
Immune checkpoint inhibitors
HAART
Interferons

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292
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of sarcoidosis

A

Interstitial lung disease
Progressive massive fibrosis
Alveolar sarcoid
Tracheal stenosis, subglottic stenosis
Lower airway obstruction
Lymphadenopathy
Pulmonary hypertension

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293
Q

Mechanisms of PH in sarcoidosis

A

Interstitial lung disease
Cardiac disease e.g. cardiomyopathy
PVOD like lesions
Granulomatous inflammation and involvement of vessels → intrinsic sarcoid vasculopathy
Fibrosing mediastinitis
External compression of PA by lymphadenopathy
Portal hypertension

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294
Q

Non pulmonary manifestations of sarcoidosis

A

Neuro - hydrocephalus, aseptic meningitis, facial nerve palsy, small fiber neuropathy, optic neuritis, encephalopathy, psychosis
Ocular sarcoidosis - anterior uveitis
Cardiac sarcoid - cardiomyopathy, heart block, arrhythmias
Renal sarcoid - nephrolithiasis
Hepatic sarcoid - transaminitis, cholestasis
Hypercalcemia, hypercalciuria
Rashes
Other: spleen, bone marrow

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295
Q

Clinical features that make diagnosis of sarcoidosis highly probable

A

Uveitis
Optic neuritis
Lofgren’s syndrome
Lupus pernio
Erythema nodosum
Hypercalcemia or hypercalciuria
Bilateral hilar adenopathy
Perilymphatic nodules
Gadolinium enhancement
Parotid uptake
Osteolysis, cysts/punched out lesion

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296
Q

DDX for erythema nodosum

A

Medications e.g. OPC, TNF alpha inhibitors
Infections e.g. hepatitis B, streptococcus, fungal
Inflammatory e.g. sarcoidosis, IBD
Malignancy
Pregnancy

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297
Q

How does small fiber neuropathy present?

A

Paresthesias
Numbness
Pain
Autonomic dysfunction - palpitations, orthostasis, sexual dysfunction

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298
Q

How is Erdheim Chester syndrome differentiated from sarcoidosis?

A

BRAF V600 somatic mutation
CD68 marker on biopsy
Also is from proliferation of foamy histiocytes rather than granulomas

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299
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of IgG4 disease

A

Lymphadenopathy
Nodules or masses
Interstitial lung disease
Fibrosing mediastinitis
Subglottic stenosis, tracheal stenosis
Pleural thickening
Pleural effusions

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300
Q

Diagnosis of IgG4 disease

A

Serum and BAL IgG4 can be suggestive
Biopsy definitive

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301
Q

Manifestations of cardiac sarcoidosis

A

Conduction e.g. AV block, BBB, tachyarrythmias, sudden death
Cardiomyopathy
Coronary artery disease from vasculitis

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302
Q

How do you investigate cardiac sarcoidosis?

A

Cardiac MRI (ATS suggests this first line)
Cardiac PET
Transthoracic echocardiogram

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303
Q

Lab findings in sarcoidosis

A

Anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia
Hypergammaglobulinemia
Hypercalcemia, hypercalciuria
Elevated rheumatoid factor

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304
Q

DDX for elevated serum ACE

A

Sarcoidosis
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Silicosis
Berylliosis
Asbestosis
Tuberculosis
Coccidioidomycosis
Hodkin’s lymphoma
Gaucher’s disease (lysosomal storage disorder caused bya deficiency in the enzyme glucocerebrosidase leading to the accumulation of glucocerebroside in tissues)
Hyperthyroidism
PBC

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305
Q

Imaging findings in sarcoidosis

A

Perilymphatic distribution of nodules
Miliary nodularity
Lymph node enlargement, can have eggshell calcification
Galaxy sign (small nodules surrounding larger conglomerate masses)
Garland sign (bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and right paratreacheal lymphadenopathy)
Progressive massive fibrosis
Signs of fibrosis - reticulation, traction, volume loss
Alveolar sarcoidosis
Lambda sign (bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and right paratreacheal lymphadenopathy but lights up on a gallium 67 scan)
Panda sign (parotid uptake)

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306
Q

Patterns of calcification often seen in sarcoidosis LN

A

Eggshell
Icing sugar

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307
Q

Cutoffs for CD4-CD8 count for sarcoid

A

<1 → highly unlikely
>4 → highly likely

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308
Q

Staging criteria for sarcoidosis ( and spontaneous remission %)

A

I: LN → 90%
II: LN and parenchymal changes → 70%
III: parenchymal changes →20%
IV: fibrosis → 0%

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309
Q

Diagnosis of sarcoidosis

A

If lofgrens or heerfordt no biopsy.
If asymptomatic but radiographic findings can do EITHER biopsy OR close follow up.
If not confirmed then biopsy (EBUS recommended)

Screen with CBC,Cr, ALP (not ALT), Ca, (if Vit D needed do 25 adn 1-25), ECG (not holter or TTE), eye exam

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310
Q

Pathological finding in sarcoidosis

A

Non caseating granuloma
Discrete, well organized granulomas composed of giant cells, histiocytes and surrounded by lymphoblasts
Granulomas distributed along lymphatics and bronchovascular bundles
Sparse surrounding lymphocytic infiltrate

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311
Q

Difference between HP and sarcoidosis pathology

A

Non caseating granulomas in both
Poorly formed, small, loosely arranged in HP
Distribution around bronchioles in HP vs. perilymphatic in Sarcoid
Inflammatory infiltrates found at interstitial sites distant from granuloma.
Marked lymphocytosis on BAL in HP and >4CD4/CD8 ratio in sarcoid

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312
Q

Who can forgo lymph node sampling in suspecteted sarcoid?

A

Heerfordt’s syndrome
Lofgren’s syndrome
Lupus pernio (blue red to violet smooth shiny nodules and plaques on the head and neck, predominantly on the nose, ears, lips, and cheeks)

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313
Q

DDX for non caseating granulomas

A

Sarcoidosis
Sarcoid like reactions to malignancies
Lymphoma
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Berylliosis
IgG4 disease
PLCH
Erdheim Chester disease
GI diseases e.g. PBC, IBD

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314
Q

DDX for usually necrotizing granuloma

A

Tuberculosis, fungal infections, syphilis
Vasculitis
Rheumatoid nodules
GLILD
Bronchocentric granulomatosis

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315
Q

Sensitivity and specificity of biopsies in sarcoidosis

A

Endobronchial - 70% sensitive
EBUS - 80% sensitive; highest yield
Transbronchial- 30-50%

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316
Q

RFs for difficult to treat sarcoidosis

A

African american
Age >40
Progressive pulmonary involvement
Neuro, cardiac, eye involvement

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317
Q

Good prognostic indicators of sarcoid

A

Erythema nodosum
Lofgren’s syndrome
Stage I disease
Spontaneous improvement or resolution

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318
Q

Benefits of treatment in sarcoid

A

Improve sx/accelerate remission
Improve imaging
Increases risk of recurrence

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319
Q

Things need to be screened at baseline in sarcoid

A

CBC
Crea
ALP
Calcium
ECG
Eye examination

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320
Q

Things need to be followed up on in sarcoid BW

A

CBC
Crea
ALP
Calcium

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321
Q

Indications for treatment of pulmonary sarcoidosis

A

Reduced FVC, reduced DLCO
Moderate to severe pulmonary fibrosis
Precapillary pulmonary hypertension
Deterioration in symptoms, lung function or imaging on follow up - as per BTS, DLCO <65% or drop by >/15%, FVC >70%, or drop by >/10%

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322
Q

Indications for treatment of extra pulmonary sarcoidosis

A

Ocular
Neuro
Renal
Hypercalcemia
Cardiac

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323
Q

Treatment options for sarcoidosis

A

Glucocorticoids
Methotrexate
TNF-alpha inhibitors
Other: MMF, AZA, lef, JAK inhibitor, rituximab

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324
Q

Immune Suppressive Therapies that have RCT level of evidence in sarcoidosis

A

Steroids
MTX
Infliximab
to improve/preserve FVC and QoL

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325
Q

How much steroids do you give them in Sarcoid treatment?

A

Steroid 20-40 x 4-6 weeks (0.25-0.5mg/kg) evidence 20 as good as 40.
Taper 6-18 months

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326
Q

Indications to add on second Immune Suppressive Therapy in sarcoid treatment

A

Progression of disease despite steroids
Steroid intolerant
Unable to tolerate steroids below 10-15 mg oral daily
Strong patient aversion to steroids
Presence of major comorbidities made worse by steroids e.g. DM, osteoporosis

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327
Q

Agents treat hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis

A

Steroids
Ketoconazole
Possibly TNF alpha inhibitors

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328
Q

Management of fatigue in sarcoidosis

A

Exercise training
Inspiratory muscle training
Methylphenidate, modafinil

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329
Q

Treatment of the skin manifestations of sarcoidosis

A

Topical steroids
Oral steroids, MTX (ok evidence)
Infliximab* best evidence

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330
Q

Treatment of Small Fiber Neuropathy in sarcoid

A

Symptomatic - gabapentin
TNF alpha or IVIG

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331
Q

Treatment of neurosarcoidosis

A

Steroids
MTX
Infliximab

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332
Q

Treatment of cardiac sarcoidosis

A

Steroids
Other IST, but not RCT

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333
Q

Poor prognostic variables in cardiac sarcoidosis that would help management decisions

A

Age >50
Ventricular tachycardia
NYHA III-IV
LVEF <40%
Echo evidence of abnormal global longitudinal strain
Interventricular septal thinning
Elevated BNP or trop
Cardiac inflammation by PET
Late gadolinium enhancement by MRI

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334
Q

Symptoms that would trigger cardiac work up in Sarcoid

A

Palpitations
Chest pain
Syncope, near syncope
Tachycardia, bradycardia
New ECG findings

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335
Q

Vision changes that would trigger a vision work up in Sarcoid

A

Floaters
Blurry vision
Visual field loss

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336
Q

Who would be “suspected” to have PH in Sarcoid?

A

Fibrotic lung disease
Exertional chest pain
Syncope
Prominent P2, S4
Reduced 6MWD
Desaturation with exercise
Increased PA diameter on CT
Elevated BNP

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337
Q

DDX of dyspnea disproportionate to lung function impairment

A

Cardiac sarcoidosis
Pulmonary hypertension

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338
Q

Benefits of steroids in pulmonary sarcoidosis

A

Improve symptoms (accelerate remission but increase risk of recurrence)
Improve or preserve QOL
Improve or preserve FVC
Improve radiographic disease burden

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339
Q

Clinical features are highly suggestive of HP

A

Female, non smoker
Relevant exposure history
Hx getting worse with exposure (4-8 hrs), better away.
Squawks on examination

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340
Q

Poor prognostic markers/increased mortality in HP

A

Older age
Male
Smoker
Unidentified exposure
Ongoing exposure
Low FVC, low DLCO
Evidence of fibrosis, extent of fibrosis
UIP pattern on imaging, histology
Fibrotic NSIP pattern
Lower BAL lymphocytosis (<20%)

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341
Q

Difference of HP from silo filler’s disease and organic dust toxic syndrome

A

HP is granulomatous disease
ODTS and Silo Filler’s disease cause obliterative bronchiolitis

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342
Q

Inorganic causes of HP

A

Isocyanates - spray paints, polyurethane foam, insulation
HFA-134a - coolants
Drug induced - MTX, bleo, nitro

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343
Q

Organic causes of HP

A

Infectious - Mycobacterium avium, thermophilic actinomyces, aspergillus, bacillus subtilis
Animal proteins - bird serum proteins, droppings, feathers
Plants - wood dust, flour dust, seaweed

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344
Q

Usual lab findings in HP

A

Lymphocytosis (in BAL)
Neutrophilia, lymphopenia
Usually no eosinophilia

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345
Q

Usual radiographic findings in non fibrotic HP

A

parynchemal infiltration (GGOs, mosaic attenuation)
small airway disease (ill defined centrilobular nodules, air trapping)
Distribution (diffuse with possible basal sparing)

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346
Q

What are the usual radiographic findings in fibrotic HP

A
  • irregular linear opacities/coarse reticulations with lung distortion (may have some mild traction bronchiectasis and honeycombing)
  • distribution (random or mid lung zone predominante with sparing in the lower lobes)
  • ill definied centrilobular nodules/GGOs
  • 3 density pattern often in lobular distribution
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347
Q

Features of pathology for non-fibrotic

A
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348
Q

Features of pathology for fibrotic HP

A
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349
Q

Preferred mode of biopsy in HP

A

Transbronchial in HP
Cryobiopsy in fibrotic HP
Surgical in both when the others fail

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350
Q

When is BAL for assessment of lymphocytosis recommended in HP

A

Recommended in non fibrotic HP
Suggested in non fibrotic HP
Depends on ATS vs. Chest

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351
Q

Treatment of HP

A

Observation- Antigen removal
Prednisone 0.5 - 1 mg/kg/day x 4-6 weeks then taper over 3 months
Steroid sparing agent
Antifibrotics

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352
Q

Steroid sparing agents that are used in HP

A

MMF
Azathioprine
Antifibrotics

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353
Q

Normal composition of pleural fluid

A

75% macrophages
23% lymphocytes
1% mesothelial cells
Rare PMNs and eosinophils
pH usually 7.6

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354
Q

Pressure of the pleura at FRC and at TLC

A

-5 cm and -30 cm

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355
Q

Causes of transudative and exudative effusions

A
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356
Q

What are the 2 and 3 test rules for pleural fluid

A

Pleural LDH >0.45 ULN
Pleural Cholesterol >45
+/- Pleural protein >29

Note light’s (LDH>0.6 ULN, PleurProtein>0.5 SerumProtein, PleurLDH>0.6 SerumLDH)

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357
Q

Ddx for eosinophilic pleural effusion.

A

Blood or air in the pleural space
Medications
Fungal infections, parasitic infections e.g. paragonimiasis
ABPA
Malignancies
EGPA
BAPE
PE

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358
Q

Ddx for lymphocytic pleural effusion.

A

Post CABG, PCIS
Pseudochylothorax, chylothorax
Malignancy (including mesothelioma), lymphoma
Tuberculosis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sarcoidosis
Uremic pleuritis
Cardiac failure

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359
Q

What is the difference between lymphocytic and very lymphocytic?

A

> 50% vs >80%
Especially TB, lymphoma, RA

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360
Q

Ddx for neutrophilic pleural effusion

A

Empyema
Esophageal rupture
Acute or chronic pancreatitis
Pulmonary embolism
SLE can start out neutrophilic
TB can start out neutrophilic

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361
Q

Causes of low pH/glucose in pleural fluid

A

Empyema
Paragonimiasis
RA/SLE effusion
Malignancy related effusion
Esophageal rupture
Hemothorax

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362
Q

Causes of elevated pleural protein

A

Tuberculosis
MM, WM

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363
Q

How can you tell apart an exudative from pseudoexudative?

A

P:S albumin <0.6
S-P albumin >12 g/L
S-P protein >31 g/L

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364
Q

Medication causes of pleural effusion

A

Methotrexate
Nitrofurantoin
Amiodarone
Phenytoin
Ergot alkaloids e.g. bromocriptine
Dasatinib
Beta blockers

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365
Q

DDX for pleural thickening

A

Benign and malignant masses
Pleural infections
CTD causes
Pleural plaques
Post hemothorax
Post pleurodesis

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366
Q

DDX for pleural calcification

A

Pleural plaques, previous asbestos exposure
Mesothelioma (~20%)
Malignancy e.g. extraskeletal osteosarcoma of the pleura
Previous radiation
Previous infection e.g. TB, empyema
Previous pleurodesis
Previous hemothorax

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367
Q

DDX for positive pleural PET?

A

Malignancy
Infection
Autoimmune
Previous talc pleurodesis

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368
Q

Etiology of fibrothorax

A

Previous infection, empyema
CTD - e.g. RA or SLE related effusion
BAPE
Previous hemothorax
Previous pleurodesis
Drug reactions

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369
Q

Features of trapped lung

A

Transudate or borderline exudate fluid
Drainage results in pneumothorax ex vacuo
Initial (-) intrapleural pressure
Pressure falls rapidly bc extremely high elastance
No improvement in dyspnea with drainage

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370
Q

Management of Hepatic Hydrothorax

A

Salt and fluid restricted diet
Diuresis e.g. furosemide, spironolactone
TIPS
Transplantation
?Thoracentesis

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371
Q

Causes of pleural effusions post CABG

A

Early post CABG effusion
Late post CABG effusion
Post cardiac injury syndrome
Hemothorax
Chylothorax
Pneumothorax/hydropneumothorax
Parapneumonic effusion
Infectious mediastinitis
HF related effusion

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372
Q

How do you differentiate between early and late nonspecific pleural effusions?

A

Both are usually left sided
Both exudative
Early usually bloody, eosinophilic (or neuts)
Late usually lymphocytic
pH and glucose normal

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373
Q

How does PCIS present? (Post Cardiac Injury Syndrome)

A

Fever, pleuritis, pleural effusion
Exudative, lymphocyte predominance
Anti myocardial antibodies
pH and glucose normal

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374
Q

Pleural fluid characteristics of RA

A

Exudative
Glucose <1.6
Pleural to serum glucose <0.5
pH <7.3
LDH >700
Protein >30
Lymphocyte predominant
Cholesterol >5.18 mmol/L
RF elevated >1:320
C3/C4 reduced
Cytology shows multinucleated giant cells (tadpole sign)

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375
Q

How is SLE related fluid different from RA related fluid?

A

More symptomatic - almost always has pleuritis
Association with lupus flare
More likely to be bilateral
Requires tx with NSAIDs or prednisone

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376
Q

Causes of chylothorax

A

Idiopathic
Trauma
Surgery, especially esophageal
Lymphoma, metastatic adenocarcinoma
Tuberculosis
LAM
Yellow nail syndrome
Chylous ascites
Lymphatic malformations

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377
Q

Pleural fluid features of chylothorax

A

Milky white
Exudative
Lymphocyte predominant
TG >1.24 mmol/L or evidence of chylomicrons (lipoprotein electrophoresis)
pH, glucose, LDH normal

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378
Q

Pleural fluid features of pseudochylothorax

A

Milky white
Exudative
Lymphocyte predominant
Cholesterol >5.18 mmol/L or presence of cholesterol crystals

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379
Q

Causes of pseudochylothorax

A

Tuberculosis
Helminth infection e.g. paragonimiasis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Hemothorax

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380
Q

Treatment of chylothorax

A

Dietary changes (low fat, high protein)
Fat soluble vitamins
Chest tube (unless v small and asx)
May need somatostatin/octreotide
Sirolimus in LAM
Intervention/surgical

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381
Q

Triad in yellow nail syndrome

A

Yellow nails
Lymphedema
Pulmonary symptoms - sinusitis, bronchiectasis, recurrent PNA, effusions

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382
Q

Microbiology of pleural effusions

A

Staph aureus
Strep pneumo
GNB (pseudomonas, acinetobacter, klebsiella, enterobacteria)
Anaerobic bacteria (baceroides, fusobacterium, etc.)

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383
Q

Signs of pleural infection on CT scan

A

Lentiform shape
Split pleura sign (most reliable to differentiate from abscess)
Does compress surrounding lung
Obtuse angle with the pleura
Contrast enhancement
Hypertrophy of extrapleural fat

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384
Q

If you do not have pleural pH available, what else can you use as guide?

A

Pleural glucose <3.3

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385
Q

Things that affect the clinical outcome (need for sx, mortality) in pleural infections

A

RAPID score components
CT/US septations
Pleural contrast enhancement
Size >400 cc
Pleural fluid microbubbles
Increased attenuation f extrapleural fat

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386
Q

Things do not affect clinical outcomes in pleural infections

A

Size of tube
Causative organism

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387
Q

Components of the RAPID score for pleural fluid evaluation

A

Renal function (BUN)
Age (50-70 or >70)
Purulent - yes or no (point if not purulent)
Infection source CAP/HAP
Diet - Serum albumin

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388
Q

What does the RAPID score correspond with?

A

Mortality at 3 and 12 months

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389
Q

Indications for chest tube insertion

A

Empyema - pus, positive gram stain, positive culture
Very loculated
Very septated
Massive effusion (>50% of hemithorax)
pH <7.2
Intermediate pH but LDH >900

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390
Q

Complications of pleural infections

A

Bronchopleural fistula
Pleural calcifications
Pleural thickening
Empyema necessitans (pus extending into the chest wall, common with TB)
Fibrothorax

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391
Q

Antibiotic for treatment of parapneumonic effusion

A

Beta lactam + beta lactamase inhibitor
Ceftriaxone/FQ + metronidazole
Carbapenems
Clindamycin
Carbapenem + vanco if HAP
Duration 2-6 weeks

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392
Q

If needed, when is surgery ideally performed RE: pleural effusion?

A

Within day 3
Should not be favored over chest tube initially
VATS is preferred over medical pleuroscopy and thoracotomy

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393
Q

Surgical options

A

Drainage
Debridement (removal of lose debris/dead tissue)
Decortication (peel of a thick fibrous layer of pleura)

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394
Q

Benefits of intrapleural enzyme therapy

A

Reduces volume on imaging
Reduces LOS
Reduces requirement for thoracic surgery

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395
Q

Indications for giving a reduced dose of intrapleural lytics

A

Very hemorrhagic fluid at baseline
Disease with hemorrhage risk e.g. RCC with lung mets
Anticoagulation that cannot be stopped
Note: Anticoagulation increases risk to 10% (overall risk 4%) but half dose did not change risk

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396
Q

RFs for enzyme related bleeding

A

Concurrent administration of anticoagulation
Elevated RAPID score
Plt count <100,000

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397
Q

Sites of pneumomediastinum

A

Alveolar sacs (most common)
Tracheobronchial tree
Esophageal
Bowel rupture

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398
Q

Physical examination findings of pneumomediastinum

A

Hamman’s crunch (crunching with each heart beat or mediastinal crunch)
Subcutaneous emphysema
High pitched voice

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399
Q

Image findings of esophageal rupture

A

Pneumomediastinum - air around the mediastinum
Widened pneumomediastinum
Pneumothorax
Pleural effusion
Subcutaneous emphysema
Air under the diaphragm

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400
Q

What are the causes of spontaneous pneumothorax (categories)

A

Catamenial
Primary
Secondary

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401
Q

Causes of primary pneumothorax

A

Asthenic body habitus
Subpleural blebs
Smoking - cigarettes, marijuana, snorting cocaine
Diving

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402
Q

Causes of secondary pneumothorax

A

Bullous lung disease
LAM
PLCH
COPD
Asthma
Bronchiectasis
Thoracic endometriosis
Ehler Danlos, Marfans

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403
Q

RF for tension pneumothorax development

A

Traumatic pneumothorax
Post CPR pneumothorax
On NIV or mechanical ventilation
Blocked or kinked chest tube
Hyperbaric oxygen treatment
Underlying lung disease

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404
Q

Mechanisms of hypotension in tension pneumothorax

A

IVC compression → reduced RV preload
RV compression → reduced LV preload
Increased LV afterload
Increased RV afterload

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405
Q

Imaging findings in a tension pneumothorax

A

Visible lung edge
Shifting of mediastinum, deviated trachea
Splaying of the ribs

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406
Q

Adequate size for intervention for a pneumothorax

A

> /2 cm laterally or apically on CXR
If using CT, any size that can safely be accessed with imaging support
Note PSP can often monitor regardless of size

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407
Q

Borders of the triangle of safety

A

Lateral edge of pectoralis muscle
Lateral edge of latissimus dorsi
Fifth intercostal space/nipple line/breast line (base of breast tissue)
Base of axilla

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408
Q

High risk features in the treatment algorithm of pneumothorax

A

Underlying lung disease aka Secondary pneumothorax
Age >/50, smoking history
Bilateral pneumothorax
Hemopneumothorax
Tension pneumothorax/hemodynamic compromise
Significant hypoxemia

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409
Q

Indications of applying suction for a pneumothorax

A

The pneumothorax increases in size despite chest tube insertion
Fails to improve after 24-48 hours
There is persistent air leak

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410
Q

Percentage of pneumothorax that resolves per day

A

1.25 - 2.2% per day
Increased by 4-6X via oxygen

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411
Q

Indications for a surgical consultation in pneumothorax

A

Recurrent pneumothorax, ipsilateral or contralateral
First pneumo BUT:
- SSP and significant physiological compromise
- Tension pneumothorax/hemodynamic compromise
- Spontaneous hemothorax
- Bilateral pneumothorax
- Persistent air leak 5-7 days, or lung fails to re expand
- Pregnant
- High risk occupation

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412
Q

What surgical technique is preferred for pneumothorax

A

VATS > thoracotomy
Can do any: bullectomy, pleurectomy, mechanical pleurodesis, chemical pleurodesis

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413
Q

When would you consider non surgical but definitive management, e.g. talc slurry?

A

Unwilling to do surgery
Unable to do surgery
This is because surgical options more effective

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414
Q

Recurrence rate for pneumothorax

A

PSP → 33%
SPS → 13-39%
After first recurrence → 60%, after second recurrence → 80%

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415
Q

Causes of persistent air leak

A

Conditions: Pneumothorax, Barotrauma, Infections, Malignancies
Procedures: wedge biopsies, lobectomy, LVRS, trauma

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416
Q

Treatment options for persistent air leak

A

Treat underlying infection
Add suction
Second chest tube or bigger chest tube
Blood patch
Chemical pleurodesis
Surgical options

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417
Q

Recommendations re: activities post pneumothorax

A

No PFTs x 2-4 weeks
No flying until resolved at least x 1 week, but can be longer especially if underlying lung disease (Canadian Association of Thoracic Surgeons recommend 1-3 weeks)

No diving ever

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418
Q

Management of bronchopleural fistula volume of leak in a vented patient

A

Reduce Pplat
Reduce autoPEEP → increase expiratory time, reduce Vt, permissive hypercapnia

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419
Q

Causes of malignant pleural masses

A

Mesothelioma
Metastases
Lymphoma
Malignant fibrous tumour
Askin tumour (same as ewing sarcoma, chest wall tumour and is malignant)
Sarcoma
Extraskeletal osteosarcoma

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420
Q

What type of malignancy is primary effusion lymphoma?

A

Usually diffuse large b cell lymphoma
Usually no associated lymphadenopathy

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421
Q

DDX for malignant effusions in patients with HIV

A

Lymphoma
Primary effusion lymphoma
Kaposi sarcoma
Other cancers

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422
Q

Most common causes of pleural metastases

A

Lung (adeno)
Breast
Lymphoma
GI/GU

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423
Q

Where in the pleural do malignancies usually start?

A

Mets - visceral pleura
Meso - parietal pleura

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424
Q

Non malignant causes of pleural masses

A

Solitary fibrous tumour of the pleura
Lipoma
Mesothelial cyst
Pleural endometriosis
Pleural plaques, thickening (not really masses)

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425
Q

What are the associated paraneoplastic syndromes with solitary tumour of the pleura?

A

Hypoglycemia, Doege-Potter syndrome (elevated IGF)
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

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426
Q

Concerning features of pleural malignancy on imaging

A

Thickness > 1 cm
Circumferential thickening
Involvement of the mediastinal pleura
Diaphragmatic thickening > 7
Nodular thickening

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427
Q

Sensitivity of pleural fluid for malignancy

A

Overall, 60%, increase by 15% with the second tap (MAM paper says 20%)
Adenocarcinoma 80%
Breast 70%
Small 50%
Mesothelioma 30%
Squamous cell 20%

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428
Q

Definition of non expandable lung in MPE

A

> /25% of the lung is not opposed to the chest wall
Is based on CXR

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429
Q

Treatment for MPE

A

Aspiration has shorter LOS but more need for intervention
IPC vs chest tube with talc slurry or poudrage

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430
Q

Management of MPE in mesothelioma

A

Talc poudrage preferred
Other options IPC, slurry, PP

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431
Q

Benefit of MPE management

A

Improved dyspnea
Improved QOL

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432
Q

Agents for pleurodesis

A

Talc
Doxycycline
Bleomycin

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433
Q

Rate of spontaneous pleurodesis once an IPC is inserted

A

25%

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434
Q

Clinical factors suggest will gain improvement with IPC

A

Improvement after therapeutic thoracentesis
Rapid reaccumulation
Prognosis is >1 month
Supports to have home care

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435
Q

Possible side effects from pleurodesis

A

Chest pain
Fever
ARDS

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436
Q

Treatment of infected/loculated MPE with IPC inserted

A

Abx
Intrapleural enzymes
Intrapleural normal saline
Extra chest tube
Surgical - VATS, decortication

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437
Q

How long after asbestos exposure does mesothelioma occur?

A

~40 years after exposure

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438
Q

3 main subtypes of mesothelioma

A

Epithelioid
Biphasic
Sarcomatoid (worst prognosis)

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439
Q

Causes of mesothelioma

A

Asbestos (?dose response)
Erionite fibers
Thoracic radiation
SV40 infection, other viral infections
Chronic pleural disease

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440
Q

Imaging features are concerning for mesothelioma

A

Pleural thickening with concerning features (see previous)
Presence of asbestos exposure
Local invasion - chest wall, mediastinum, diaphragm, ribs
Usually unilateral changes, usually right side predominance
Spreads along pleura and fissures
Starts at parietal pleura

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441
Q

Diagnosis of mesothelioma

A

Image guided biopsy
Medical pleuroscopy
Surgical pleuroscopy/VATS

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442
Q

Management of mesothelioma

A

Double immunotherapy - ipilimumab + nivolumab (previously was chemo, but studies show immunotherapy better)
Debulking surgery if candidate (epithelioid and ECOG 0-1)
Both improve survival
SMART TRIAL NEGATIVE (For radiating ports after BUT trend to significance so maybe underpowered)
remuniration and palliative care

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443
Q

Poor prognostic markers in mesothelioma

A

Histology (Sarcomatoid worst)
Stage
Age
Poor performance status

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444
Q

Malignant causes of lymphangitic carcinomatosis

A

Cervical
Colon
Stomach
Breast
Prostate, pancreas
Thyroid
Lung
Mneumonic: certain cancers spread by plugin the lymphatics

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445
Q

Diagnosis of lymphangitic carcinomatosis

A

Biopsy - TBBx or surgical

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446
Q

Histological findings of lymphangitic carcinomatosis

A

Obstruction and distension of lymphatics by tumour cells

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447
Q

Treatment of lymphangitic carcinomatosis

A

Treat underlying cancer
Steroids, but no clear data
Opioids for symptom control

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448
Q

How many segments are there in each lobe of the lung?

A

RUL: 3
RML: 2
RLL: 5
LUL: 5
LLL: 5 or 4

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449
Q

Equations for PPO lobectomy and pneumonectomy

A

Lobectomy PPO FEV1 = FEV1 x [1 - (resected segments/19)]
Pneumonectomy = PPO FEV1 = FEV1 x [1 - fraction of perfusion to resected lung]
Using absolute value
Both greater than 60→ Low risk
30-60% stair climb or shuttle walk
Any < 30% then CPET

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450
Q

Examples of important post operative complication predictors

A

VO2 max
FEV1
DLCO
In place of CPET can use stair climb or shuttle walk.

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451
Q

In post operative planning, what are the cutoffs for SWT and stair climbing? Low technology exercise test.

A

SWT <400 m
Stair climb <22m

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452
Q

In post operative planning, what are the cutoffs for VO2 max?

A

<10 mL/kg/minute (<35%)→ high
10-20 → moderate (35-75%)
>20 (>75% predicted) → low

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453
Q

Patient factors that increase post op complications from non-pulmonary surgery

A

Age
Smoking
ASA class
OSA
COPD (especially if FEV1 <60%)
Pulmonary hypertension
Low albumin
Obesity is not a risk factor

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454
Q

Surgical factors that increase post op complications from non-pulmonary surgery

A

Aortic > intrathoracic > upper abdominal > abdominal
Duration of surgery
Emergency surgery
General anesthesia (epidural better)
Paralytics

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455
Q

How can post operative complications be prevented?

A

Optimize underlying lung disease prior to surgery
Smoking cessation (>8 weeks previous surgery)
Avoid GA if possible; regional blocks if possible
Avoid long acting neuromuscular blockade
Shorter surgery (<3 hours)
Laparoscopic
CPAP if OSA
Lung expansion techniques
Pain control

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456
Q

Physiological changes that occur after a pneumonectomy

A

FEV1, FVC, lung volumes, DLCO decrease
Decrease compliance
Increased resistance
Dead space can increase or decrease
RV EF reduces, LV function does not change
No change in blood gasses

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457
Q

What normally happens to the post pneumonectomy space?

A

Fills with air, then with fluid
Complete opacification takes 4 months

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458
Q

Post pneumonectomy complications

A

Post pneumonectomy syndrome
Post pneumonectomy empyema
Bronchopleural fistula
Esophagopleural fistula
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumothorax
Hemorrhage
Arrhythmias, MI

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459
Q

When does post pneumonectomy syndrome occur and what is it?

A

After 6 months following surgery
Almost exclusively after right sided pneumonectomy
(it is excessive mediastinal shift/rotation resulting in compression and stretching of the tracheobronchial tree and the esophagus)

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460
Q

When does post pneumonectomy pulmonary edema occur?

A

Within 72 hours
Non cardiogenic edema/ARDS
More common during right vs left

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461
Q

RFs for post pneumonectomy pulmonary edema

A

Right sided resection
Large perioperative fluid load
Single lung ventilation
High inspired O2 concentrations

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462
Q

Inclusion criteria for NSLT?

A

Age 55-74
Current smoker or quit within the last 15 years
Has at least 30 pack year smoking history
Experienced centers

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463
Q

Exclusion criteria for NSLT?

A

Lung cancer
Hemoptysis
Lost >/15 lb in the last 1 year
Chest CT in the prior 18 months

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464
Q

Key differences between the NLST and NELSON trials

A

Different proportion of males/females
Inclusion criteria
Nodule management protocol - diameter vs volume
Control comparison - CXR vs nothing
Follow up - different # and intervals

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465
Q

What are the IHC stains for the different cancers?

A

Adenocarcinoma: TTF1 (if negative but adeno much worse prognosis)
Squamous cell: CK5/6. P63
Small cell: TTF1 but also neuroendocrine markers (chromogranin, CD56, synaptophysin)

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466
Q

General features of different lung cancers

A

Small cell - usually central, small primary, usually arises in airways, early mets
Squamous cell - usually central, bulky lesion, may cavitate
Adenocarcinoma - usually peripheral

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467
Q

RFs for lung cancer

A

Smoking
Exposures - nickel, radon, asbestos, silica, beryllium, pollution
Underlying conditions - IPF, scleroderma-ILD, COPD, HIV
Radiation exposure

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468
Q

Health Canada recommendations in regards to radon

A

If >200, have to hire professional
If 200-600, have 2 years to fix
If >600, have to fix within 1 year

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469
Q

Clinical manifestations of superior sulcus tumour

A

SVC syndrome (more common if R)
Horner’s syndrome (T1)
Brachial plexus injury (C8, T1, T2)
Recurrent laryngeal nerve involvement (more common if L)
Also called a pancoast tumour

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470
Q

Neurological findings in superior sulcus tumour

A

Miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis
Laryngeal nerve dysfunction
Ulnar nerve distribution abnormalities/brachial plexus involvement
Cerebral edema

Also called a pancoast tumour

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471
Q

Physical exam findings in SVC syndrome

A

Confusion 2/2 cerebral edema
Facial plethora, Proptosis
Facial and neck edema
Elevated JVP
Collateralization of superficial vessels
Cyanosis, hypoxemia

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472
Q

Causes of SVC syndrome

A

Malignancy - lung ca, lymphoma
Thrombosis
Indwelling intravascular device
Post radiation fibrosis
Fibrosing mediastinitis
External compression from sarcoidosis, thyroid goiter

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473
Q

Management of SVC syndrome

A

Emergency → stent; radiation if not surgical candidate
Steroids if already have answer, steroid responsive
Anticoagulation if thrombosis
Chemotherapy if applicable

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474
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with lung cancer

A

Encephalitis
LEMS
Cushing’s syndrome
Hyponatremia
Hypercalcemia
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (Triad: digital clubbing, periostitis (new bone growth on the bones), and arthropathy)
Rashes - dermatomyositis, acanthosis nigricans, erythema multiforme, pruritus, urticaria

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475
Q

Imaging and clinical findings of hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

A

Bone scan - Symmetrical, increased linear uptake along diaphyseal and metaphyseal surfaces of long bones
XR - smooth periosteal reaction
Triad: digital clubbing, periostitis (new bone growth on the bones), and arthropathy

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476
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with thymoma

A

Myasthenia gravis
Red cell aplasia
Cushing’s syndrome
Addison’s disease

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477
Q

Mechanisms of hypercalcemia in malignancy

A

Bone metastases
PTHrP
Granulomas increasing 1,25 vitamin D
Ectopic production of PTH e.g. parathyroid carcinoma

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478
Q

Where can lung cancer metastasize to?

A

Brain
Pleura
Adrenals
Liver
Bone
Bone marrow

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479
Q

Lung cancers that usually cause hemoptysis

A

Squamous cell carcinoma
Carcinoid tumour
Kaposi sarcoma

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480
Q

Lymph node stations and their borders

A

Superior mediastinal nodes
1: Highest mediastinal
2R inferior border innominate/brachiocephalic vein). 2L Inferior border aorta on left
3: prevascular adn retrotracheal
4R Upper Border innominate/brachiocephalic. Inferior azygos vein. 4L upper border Aortic arch and inferior Pulmonary artery

Aortic nodes
5: subaortic
6 para aortic

Inferior mediastinal nodes
7 subcarinal
8 paraesophageal nodes
9 pulmonary ligament nodes

Hilar nodes, lobar and subsegmental nodes
10 hilar nodes : 10R azygus 10L Pulmonary Artery
11 Interlobular: 11s between upper lobe bronchus and bronchus intermedius. 11i between the middle and lower lobe bronchi
12 lobar: adjacent to lobar bornchi
13 segmental nodes: adjacent to segmental bronchi
14 sub segmental: adjacent to subsegmental bronchi.

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481
Q

Suspicious features of lymph nodes?

A

Canada Lymph node score:
Clear margins
Loss of central hilar structure
Central necrosis
Short axis diameter >/1 cm
Also known as Canada Lymph Node Score

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482
Q

What stations can be accessed by different methods

A
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483
Q

Molecular markers for adenocarcinoma

A

EGFR (15% of canadians with adeno)
ALK
ROS1
PDL-1
BRAF

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484
Q

Molecular markers for squamous

A

PDL-1

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485
Q

Who requires brain imaging?(In Lung Ca)

A

Clinical signs or symptoms concerning for brain metastases
Clinical stage II, III or IV non small cell lung cancer
Maybe IB but definitely not IA

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486
Q

When would you consider staging the mediastinum

A
  • Discrete mediastinal node enlargement, no distant mets
  • Node SUV >/2.5
  • Peripheral tumour BUT:I nner ⅔ of lung (more central); >/3 cm = greater than T1; Associated with enlarged mediastinal LN >1 cm
  • Central tumour: Radiographically enlarged or PET avid nodes
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487
Q

When would you NOT need to do mediastinal staging?

A

Peripheral T1N0 disease not meeting criteria above
Bulky tumour invading mediastinal structure - need tissue, but does not need to be from nodes
Metastatic disease - biopsy whatever gives you highest stage

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488
Q

Sensitivity and specificity of CT, PET, EBUS, mediastinoscopy for mets

A

CT: sp 80/sn 55
PET: sp 85/sn 80
EBUS: sp 100/sn 90 (ONLY 55% for LYMPHOMA but sp 100%)
Mediastinoscopy: sp/100/sn 80

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489
Q

Treatment for SCLC

A

Limited
- Chemo + radiation followed by adjuvant immunotherapy
- If good response and normal brain MRI can do prophylactic cranial radiation
- If VERY Limited consider surgery

Extensive
- Chemo + immunotherapy
- Immunotherapy adds 2-3 months of survival
- Cranial Radiation

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490
Q

Indications for cranial radiation in SCLC

A
  1. Prophylaxis
    - Limited stage, good response to chemo
    - Extensive stage
  2. Evidence of brain mets
491
Q

Benefits of prophylactic cranial rad in SCLC

A

Limited disease: decrease brain mets, improve survival
Extensive disease: decrease brain mets, no change in survival ? (Lancet review 2024 says PCI is associated with survival benefit but when factor in MRI to exclude brain mets then this benefit disappeared suggesting more therapeutic benefit rather than prophylactic)

492
Q

Indications for cranial radiation in NSCLC

A

Brain mets with no targeted mutations
Otherwise, we use targeted therapy and if symptomatic/risk herniation, surgical

493
Q

Treatment for NSCLC

494
Q

Possible side effects of immunotherapy

A

Cutaneous/rash
Uveitis
*Pneumonitis
Hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism
*Hepatotoxicity
*Colitis, diarrhea
Pancreatitis
*all

EGFR -Rash/acne
ALK -Cardiac (Bradycardia, HTN)

495
Q

When does checkpoint inhibitor toxicity usually occur?

A

Median 3 months, can be up to 19 months

496
Q

When should you discontinue checkpoint inhibitor permanently after pneumonitis?

A

G3 or higher

497
Q

Checkpoint inhibitor lung related toxicity

A

Immune related pneumonitis
Radiation recall pneumonitis

498
Q

Grading of Immune therapy toxicity and treatment.

A

Grade 1: Asymptomatic with radiographic changes
Grade 1: Continue therapy with close observation, escalate to treatment for symptoms or radiographic worsening
Grade 2: Symptomatic but no limitation of usual activity
Grade 2: Hold therapy, consider bronchoscopy, institute oral prednisone 1 mg/kg/day if no improvement
Grade 3: Symptomatic, with oxygen requirement or limitation of activity
Grade 3-4: Discontinue therapy, bronchoscopy, institute oral prednisone 1-2 mg/kg/day or IV corticosteroids at equivalent dose
Grade 4: Severe or life-threatening

499
Q

Side effects of tyrosine kinase inhibitors (ex. dasatinib)

A

Cutaneous, rash
Ocular toxicity
Pulmonary - pneumonitis
Colitis, diarrhea
Hepatic toxicity

500
Q

Side effects that should lead to permanent discontinuation of tyrosine kinase inhibitors

A

Confirmed ILD as a result
Ulcerative keratitis
GI perforation
SJS, severe skin disease

501
Q

Treatments for bony met pain

A

Opioids, NSAIDs
Bisphosphonates, denosumab - osteoclast inhibitors
Radiation
Steroids
Regional anesthesia

502
Q

Pathological types of adenocarcinoma spectrum of disease

A
  1. Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia
  2. Adenocarcinoma in situ (<3cm and formerly BAC)
  3. Minimally invasive adenocarcinoma (<3cm lepidic predominant with <5mm invasion)
  4. Invasive adenocarcinoma (>5mm)
    - Lepidic
    - Acinar
    - Micropapillary
    - Papillary
    - Solid predominant
  5. Variants of invasive
    - Invasive mucinous
    - Colloid
    - Fetal
503
Q

Radiographic abnormalities for adenocarcinoma spectrum

A

Solid nodule
GGO nodule, subsolid nodule
Mass
Multiple pulmonary nodules
Patchy consolidation, lobar consolidation
Crazy paving

504
Q

Differences between typical and atypical NETS

A

DIPNECH = preinvasive - <5 mm
Typical = > 5 mm, <2 mitoses/10 HPF, no necrosis
Atypical: 2-10 mitosis or necrosis
SCLC: >11/10 mitoses HPF

505
Q

Clinical manifestations of carcinoid tumors

A

Dyspnea, wheeze
Hemoptysis
Carcinoid syndrome - flushing ,telangiectasias, diarrhea
Cushing syndrome
Acromegaly syndrome

506
Q

Investigation options in carcinoid tumors

A

Serum chromogranin A
5-HIAA
Somatostatin receptor based imaging e.g. OctreoScan, Gallium
PET - low grade/typical only weakly positive

507
Q

Bronchoscopy features of carcinoid tumour

A

Mainly proximal airways
Well vascularized

508
Q

RFs for malignant nodules

A

Number - increased 1-4, decreases >/5
Size
Doubling time 20-400 days
Enhancement
Appearance - subsolid, spiculated, lobular, Carona Radiata (LR 14)
Calcification pattern
Location - upper lobe
Evidence of emphysema
Smoking history

509
Q

Usually benign patterns of calcification

A

Diffuse
Central
Lamellar
Popcorn

510
Q

Causes of a negative PET scan

A

Less metabolically active tumors
Solid component <8 mm
Uncontrolled hyperglycemia

511
Q

Who do the Fleischner Society Guidelines apply to?

A

> /35 years old
Not immunocompromised
No history of cancer
Not for cancer diagnosis (applies to incidentally found nodules)
No symptoms attributable to lesion

512
Q

Low vs high risk by the Fleischner Guidelines

A

Low: minimal or absent smoking hx or other RF
High: hx of smoking or other known RF (e.g. fhx first degree, asbestos/radon/uranium exposure)

513
Q

How long do pulmonary nodules need to be followed?

A

Solid nodules - 2 years
Subsolid nodules >/5 years

514
Q

DDX for benign pulmonary nodules

A

Infectious nodules
Inflammatory, vasculitic
Vascular (AVM)
Hamartoma
Hemangioma
Fibroma
Lipoma
Leiomyoma
Amyloidoma

515
Q

Radiographic features of a hamartoma

A

Popcorn calcification
Heterogeneous attenuation
Rounded or lobular borders

516
Q

Difference between teratoma and hamartoma

A

Teratoma occur in anterior mediastinum
Teratoma also include teeth and bone
Teratomas may become malignant

517
Q

Draw out the TNM 8th edition and 9th edition.

518
Q

Draw out the Fleishner Society Nodule Chart.

519
Q

Sources of asbestos exposure

A

Pipefitter
Plumbers
Motor vehicle mechanic
Construction worker
Shipyard worker

520
Q

Different types of asbestos fibers

A

Serpentine (long) and amphibole (short) are the two general types
1. Serpentine
* Chrysotile (most common)
2. Amphibole
* Actinolite
* Anthophylllite
* Amosite
* Tremolite
* Crocidolite (Most dangerous/highest risk of mesothelioma)

521
Q

RFs for developing asbestosis

A

Exposure at a young age
Duration and extent of exposure
Amphibole > chrysotile
Concomitant smoking

522
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of asbestos

A

Rounded atelectasis
Asbestosis
Pleural plaques
Pleural thickening
Benign asbestos related pleural effusion
Mesothelioma

523
Q

Imaging findings of asbestosis

A

Lower lobe distribution
Reticular changes
Rounded atelectasis
Pleural plaques
Honeycombing and interlobular septal thickening
Lower lobe distribution
Reticular changes

524
Q

Pathological findings of asbestosis - How is it different from UIP?

A

2 or more asbestos bodies per square centimeter of a 5-mu thick lung section in combination with interstitial fibrosis are indicative of asbestosis
Asbestos has presence of asbestos bodies
Has mild fibrosis of the visceral pleura
Fibroblastic foci are infrequent

525
Q

How do you diagnose asbestosis?

A

ATS 2004 need 3/3
2. 1. Evidence of structural change as demonstrated by one or more
* Imaging
* Histology
1. Evidence of exposure/cause
* occupational/environmental history with latency
* Markers of exposure (pleural plaques)
* Asbestos bodies
1. Exclusion of other diagnosis

526
Q

What is the treatment of asbestosis?

A

Supportive care:
* Steroids pred 0.5-1mg/kg for 1-3 months then taper for 1-3 months and steroid sparing agents can be used but unclear benefit.
* Smoking cessation and co-existing airways disease treatment
* Immunizations
* Oxygen
* decortication
* Lung transplant

527
Q

Where do pleural plaques usually occur?

A

Bases (posterolateral) and mediastinal pleura
Can also involve the diaphragm
Spares apices and costophrenic angles
May be calcified but most are not

528
Q

What is the CT definition of pleural thickening?

A

In general >3 mm thick

529
Q

Fluid features of BAPE

A

Exudative
Eosinophilic usually
Can be bloody
Usually spontaneously resolves, can recur

530
Q

Occupations with beryllium exposure

A

Electronics
Nuclear industry, nuclear weapons
Aerospace industry
Fluorescent light bulbs
Beryllium mining
Ceramics

531
Q

Routes of sensitization for beryllium

A

Inhalation
Skin

532
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of berylliosis

A

Acute pneumonitis
Chronic beryllium disease

533
Q

Non pulmonary manifestations of berylliosis

A

Conjunctivitis (no uveitis, or retinal involvement unlike sarcoid)
Periorbital edema
Nasopharyngitis
Tracheobronchitis

534
Q

Imaging findings of berylliosis

A

Acute pneumonitis: ARDS, non-cardiogenic pulm edema
Chronic beryllium disease: sarcoid but LN less likely

535
Q

Biopsy findings of CBD (chronic berylliosis disease)

A

Typically on TBBx
Granulomas
Distribution paraseptal, interlobular septa, peribronchovascular

536
Q

Diagnostic criteria of CBD (chronic berylliosis disease)

A

Positive BeLPT (blood or BAL) (Beryllium lymphocyte proliferation test)
Non caseating granuloma and/or mononuclear cells on biopsy
Clinical dx if no bx: BAL lymphocytosis or imaging

537
Q

Definition of positive BeLT (Beryllium lymphocyte proliferation test)

A

1 BAL BeLPT
2 blood BeLPT
Positive skin patch sensitization test (DON’T do because can lead to sensitization in beryllium naive individuals)
+2 Simulation Indices =abnormal BeLPT , + 1 Simulation Indices =borderline

538
Q

Difference between beryllium sensitization and Chronic Berylliosis disease)

A

Sensitization: sensitization, no sx, normal biopsy
Subclinical: sensitization, + biopsy, no sx/rads
CBD: sensitization, + biopsy, +sx/rads

539
Q

Treatment of CBD

A

Observe
Steroids if symptoms or PFT change with consideration for steroid sparing agents if not tolerated

540
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of silicosis

A

Acute silicoproteinosis
Accelerated proteinosis
Chronic, simple silicosis
Complicated silicosis, progressive massive fibrosis

541
Q

Complications of silicosis

A

Tuberculosis, NTM
Lung cancer
CTD/Erasmus syndrome (Systemic Sclerosis)
PAP
Fibrosing mediastinitis

542
Q

Radiographic manifestations of silicosis

A

Crazy paving
Perilymphatic nodules and upper lobe
Mediastinal and hilar LN, eggshell calcification
Progressive massive fibrosis
Hyperinflation, COPD
Cavitary lung disease
Ground glass nodules/opacities

543
Q

Diagnosis of silicosis

A

Exposure history
Imaging findings
BAL if silicoproteinosis
Biopsy avoided due to PNTX risk

544
Q

Treatment of silicosis

A

Acute → steroids
Chronic → supportive

545
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of CWP

A

Simple chronic CWP
Complicated CWP, progressive massive fibrosis
Caplan syndrome (rheumatoid pneumoconiosis)
Not associated with lung cancer unlike others

546
Q

Imaging findings of CWP

A

Crazy paving
Perilymphatic nodules
Mediastinal and hilar LN, eggshell calcification
Progressive massive fibrosis
Hyperinflation, COPD
Cavitary lung disease
(eggshell less common )

Similar as above, but eggshell less common
Typically diffuse perilymphatic small nodules
30% have hilar/mediastinal lymph node enlargement but calcification less likely

547
Q

Examples of hard metal lung disease

A

Cobalt related lung disease
Siderosis (iron dust)
Metal fume fever (zinc fumes)

548
Q

Lung diseases that are associated with cobalt exposure

A

Occupational asthma
Interstitial lung disease - giant cell interstitial pneumonia
Obliterative bronchiolitis

549
Q

Inorganic and organic inhalational causes of pneumoconiosis

A

Inorganic: coal, silica, beryllium, asbestos
Organic: cotton, tobacco, sugarcane, basically anything can cause HP

550
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of byssinosis

A

Airway obstruction
Uniquely worse on the first day of work and then improves
Typically with raw cotton exposure

551
Q

Causative agent of Silo Filler’s disease

A

Silo gas = combination of nitrogen dioxide and carbon dioxide
Nitrogen dioxide + water in lungs → nitric acid

552
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of silo filler’s disease

A

ARDS
Obliterative bronchiolitis

553
Q

Exposures associated with lung cancer development.

A

Uranium mining
Beryllium
Asbestos
Silica

554
Q

Causes of PMF?

A

Sarcoidosis
Berylliosis
Silicosis
CWP
Talcosis

555
Q

CTD causes of UIP

A

RA
SSc
SLE
DM/PM

556
Q

Extraparenchymal findings on CT that suggest CTD-ILD

A

Esophageal dilatation
Pleural or pericardial effusion
Lymphadenopathy
C1-2 subluxation

557
Q

RFs for development of RA-ILD

A

Male
Older
Smoking
RF positive
Anti-CCP positive
Disease activity
MUC5B

558
Q

RFs for RA pulmonary nodules

A

Subcutaneous nodules
Longstanding RA

559
Q

RFs for RA pleural effusion

A

Male
Older age
Rheumatoid nodules

560
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of RA

A

RA-ILD - UIP, NSIP, LIP, OA, CPFE
Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
RA pulmonary nodules
Caplan syndrome
Pulmonary hypertension
Pleural effusion
Pneumothorax
Follicular or obliterative bronchiolitis
Bronchiectasis
Cricoarytenoid arthritis
Vasculitis of vocal cords
RA nodules on vocal cords

561
Q

Imaging features of RA related lung disease

A

Nodules
Cavities
Pleural effusions
Pneumothorax
Bronchiectasis
UIP pattern or others
Findings of PH e.g. edema, enlarged heart, etc.

562
Q

BAL cell count and differential in RA-ILD

A

Lymphocytic in NSIP
Neutrophilic in UIP

563
Q

Treatment of RA related lung disease

A

RA-ILD: steroids, MMF, cyclophosphamide, antifibrotics
Bronchiectasis: same as others
Bronchiolitis: treat RA, consider azithromycin

564
Q

What are pulmonary manifestations of scleroderma?

A

ILD - NSIP, UIP, OP, PPFE
Pulmonary hypertension, PVOD
Airway disease - follicular/obliterative bronchiolitis, bronchiectasis
Aspiration pneumonitis or pneumonia
Lung cancer
Chest wall restriction

565
Q

Features associated with early development of SSc-ILD

A

African american
Extensive disease
Scl-70 positive
CK elevated
Cardiac involvement
Hypothyroidism

566
Q

eatures associated with SSc-ILD progression

A

Extent - >20% of lung involved
FVC <70% predicted
Within 4 years of diagnosis
Anti scl-70
Diffuse cutaneous disease

567
Q

Treatment of SSc-ILD

A

Mycophenolate
Cyclophosphamide
Tocilizumab
Rituximab
Nintedanib
Nintedanib + mycophenolate

568
Q

Benefits and evidence of SSc-ILD management options

A

Improve FVC, DLCO → Mycophenolate and cyclo
Reduce decline in FVC → ritux, toci, nintedanib
Nothing has mortality benefit

569
Q

How often should patients with SSc-ILd be followed?

A

6 months x 5 years
Annually after 5 years (if they were stable

570
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of myositis

A

ILD - NSIP, UIP, OP, DAD
Respiratory muscle weakness
Aspiration pneumonia
Pneumothorax
Pulmonary hypertension

571
Q

Antisynthetase syndrome

A
  1. 2 of:
    - Fever
    - Raynaud
    - Mechanics hands/hiker’s feet
    - Polymyositis
    - Non-erosive arthritis
    - ILD
  2. Positive autoantibody (Anti-Jo-1)
572
Q

Treatment options for myositis-ILD

A

Cyclo if very sick
MMF, azathioprine

573
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of lupus

A

Interstitial lung disease - NSIP, UIP, LIP
Acute pneumonitis (similar to AIP)
Organizing pneumonia
DAH
Pleural effusion * most common
Shrinking lung syndrome
VTE
Pulmonary hypertension - PVOD, PAH, Group 2,3,4
Subglottic stenosis, tracheal stenosis
Bronchiolitis obliterans
Opportunistic infections

574
Q

Skin manifestations of lupus

A

Acute cutaneous lupus erythema
Panniculitis
Discoid lesion
Childpain lupus erythematosus (pernio)

575
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of Sjogren’s syndrome

A

Interstitial lung disease - e.g. NSIP, LIP, UIP
Organizing pneumonia
Bronchiolitis - follicular, obliterative
Bronchiectasis
Xerotrachea
Aspiration pneumonitis and pneumonia
Pulmonary hypertension
Nodular hyperplasia
Pulmonary nodular amyloidosis
Pulmonary lymphoma (transformation)

576
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of amyloidosis

A

Nodular pulmonary amyloidosis
Diffuse amyloidosis
Tracheobronchial amyloidosis
Amyloidosis of the pleura

577
Q

Clinical Features of patients with CTD-ILD (SARD-ILD)

578
Q

ACR 2023 Screening guidelines for SARD-ILD

579
Q

How to screen people with SARD of interest?

580
Q

What are the first line therapies by disease type according to ACR 2023?

581
Q

Management of Rapidly progressive ILD.

582
Q

Skin manifestations that may be seen in vasculitis

A

Palpable purpura
Leukocytoclastic vasculitis
Lacrimal gland inflammation
Skin ulcerations
?saddle nose deformity
?stawberry gums (gingivitis)

583
Q

Differential diagnosis for ANCA elevation

A

Vasculitis
CTD
Malignancies
Infections - hepatitis B/C/HIV
Drug induced (PTU, methimazole, hydralazine, allopurinol)
IBD

584
Q

% of ANCA elevation in different conditions

A

GPA - 90% c anca/ PR3
MPA - 70% p anca/mpo
EGPA - 50% p anca/mpo
Anti-GBM - 10%

585
Q

Classic triad of DAH

A

Hemoptysis
Anemia
Alveolar opacities

586
Q

DDX of DAH

A

1.Vasculitis
- GPA
- EGPA
- MPA
- Drug induced vasculitis
2. Connective tissue diseases
- SLE
- Anti-GBM
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Scleroderma
- Others
3. Drugs
- TNF-alpha inhibitors
- Hydralazine
- Anticoagulation
- GPIIb/IIIa platelet inhibitors
- Amiodarone
- Crack cocaine
4. Others
- IPH Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis
- Left sided pressure increase e.g. mitral stenosis
- HHT hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasias

587
Q

BAL findings of DAH

A

Hemosiderin laden macrophages >/20%
Progressively bloody sequential lavage

588
Q

ANCA + vasculitis that cause DAH

A

GPA
MPA
EGPA (very rarely)
Drug induced ANCA vasculitis
Isolated pulmonary capillaritis
Anti-GBM/ANCA positive vasculitis

589
Q

DDX for pulmonary renal disease

A

Anti-GBM
GPA, MPA, EGPA
ANCA negative vasculitis e.g. cryo, IgA disease
SLE

590
Q

RFs for GBM development

A

Smoking
Cocaine use
Hydrocarbon fume exposure
Hair dye exposure
Metallic dust
Genetics

591
Q

Sensitivity and specificity of anti-GBM

A

Sensitivity 95-100%
Specificity 90-100%

592
Q

Causes of false positive anti-GBM

A

Hepatitis C
HIV

593
Q

Poor prognostic factors in anti-GBM

A

Advanced age
Anti-GBM titre
Renal function - crea & need for dialysis at presentation, oligoanuric, % crescents (only pathological parameter)

594
Q

Treatment of anti-GBM

A

Steroids, cyclophosphamide
PLEX
No maintenance
Abx if pulmonary involvement

595
Q

Role of anti-GBM in disease monitoring

A

Monitor regularly (Weekly for 6 weeks and should be undetectable x2 occasions then q2weekly x2, then monthly x 6 months
Should disappear with treatment
May signal recurrence (re-treat)

596
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of GPA

A

Wedge shaped opacities due to infarction
Nodules
Cavities
Interstitial lung disease - NSIP, UIP
Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
Subglottic or tracheal stenosis
Tracheobronchomalacia

597
Q

Extrapulmonary manifestations of GPA

A

Cutaneous - palpable purpura, leukocytoclastic vasculitis
ENT - hearing loss, sinusitis, nasal septal perforation, saddle nose, nasal ulcers
Renal - GN, renal failure
Systemic symptoms

598
Q

Diagnostic criteria of GPA

599
Q

What is the treatment for GPA?

600
Q

What is considered a severe vs non severe GPA?

A

Severe = organ threatening disease
E.g. RPGN, DAH, mononeuritis multiplex, optic neuritis

601
Q

What are indications to use cyclophosphamide over rituximab in induction treatment?

A

RPGN with crea >354
if not available

602
Q

What are indications in which PLEX Is needed in GPA/MPA?

A

RPGN crea >500, need for dialysis (KDIGO)
DAH salvage therapy
Double positive (with Anti-GBM)

603
Q

Indications in which PLEX is indicated for DAH

A

Anti-GBM disease
Anti-GBM/ANCA double positivity
DAH salvage therapy, critically unwell
TTP related DAH
Catastrophic APLS DAH

604
Q

PEXIVAS trial re: PLEX in ANCA vasculitis

A

No mortality benefit
No impact on ESRD (trend towards improving ESRD progression in high risk patients)
Increased risk of infection

605
Q

General differences between MPA and GPA

A

p-ANCA (in MPA)
Mainly renal, less ENT, less pulmonary (in MPA)
Absence of granuloma formation (In MPA)

606
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for MPA

607
Q

What vasculitis is associated with PA aneurysms?

A

Behcet’s disease (vasculitis with mouth ulcers, swollen joints and eye inflammation)
Hugh Stovin syndrome (large vessel similar to Behcet’s) M 20-40 with dvt and bronchial aneurysms.
Pulmonary hypertension
Congenital heart disease
Syphilis
Tuberculosis
Behcet’s disease
Hugh Stovin syndrome
Congenital heart disease
Syphilis
Tuberculosis

608
Q

DDX of pulmonary angiitis and granulomatosis

A

Bronchocentric granulomatosis
Lymphomatoid granulomatosis
Necrotizing sarcoid granulomatosis
GPA, EGPA

609
Q

Non-pulmonary clinical manifestations of EGPA

A

Asthma /obstructive airways disease
Peripheral nerve (mononeuritis multiplex)
Skin disease (purpura, sub cutaneous nodules, urticaria, leukocytoclastic vasculitis)
ENT (Nasal polyps), cardiac: effusions, dilated CM, GI, renal

610
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for EGPA

611
Q

What is the management of EGPA

612
Q

Five factor score

A

Age >65
Cardiac insufficiency
Renal insufficiency
GI involvement
Absence of ENT symptoms
For prognosis and higher score associated with higher mortality

613
Q

Monitoring in management of EGPA and GPA

A

EGPA - ESR and eos count TTE (Don’t stop leukotriene receptor antagonists)
GPA - not ANCA

614
Q

What is the KDIGO 2024 treatment algorithm for Anca Associated Vasculitis

615
Q

Non-infectious complications of illicit drug use

A

Eosinophilic pneumonia
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Organizing pneumonitis
Obliterative bronchiolitis
Pneumothorax
Pneumomediastinum
Drug induced ANCA vasculitis, DAH
Pulmonary hypertension
Alveolar hypoventilation
Aspiration
Foreign body granulomatosis
Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema
E-VALI

616
Q

Complications associated with vaping

A

Lipoid pneumonia*
Eosinophilic pneumonia
Organizing pneumonia
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
AIP, ARDS
VALI

617
Q

Causative agent of vaping induced injury

A

Vitamin E acetate in e-liquids

618
Q

Diagnostic criteria for EVALI

A

E cigarette use in 90 days before symptoms
Pulmonary infiltrates
Negative viral panel, negative cultures, negative other workup

619
Q

IST that are not teratogenic

A

Azathioprine (purine synthesis inhibitor)
Hydroxychloroquine (antimalarial)
Cyclosporine, tacrolimus (Calcineurin inhibitors)

620
Q

Patterns of drug induced lung disease

A
  1. Most common:
    Pulmonary edema (usually w/o effusion)
    Pulmonary hemorrhage
    DAD
    OP, NSIP, UIP
    EoPNA
  2. Less common:
    HP
    Sarcoid like rxn
    LIP, DIP
    Constrictive bronchiolitis -predominantly penicillamine
    PHTN, vasculitis
621
Q

Risk factors for MTX induced lung toxicity

A

Age >60
Underlying pleuroparenchymal lung disease
Low albumin
Reduced kidney function
Third spacing e.g. pleural effusion
Higher weekly doses
Previous use of DMARDS
Diabetes

622
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of MTX toxicity

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis*
NSIP
AIP with non cardiogenic edema*
Eosinophilic pneumonia
Organizing pneumonia*
Diffuse alveolar damage
Pleural effusion*
Lymphadenopathy
Infections e.g. PJP

623
Q

Extrapulmonary manifestations of MTX toxicity

A

Transaminitis
Stomatitis, nausea/vomiting
Mouth sores
Macrocytosis, myelosuppression (Increased risk of lymphoproliferative disorders)
nephrotoxicity

624
Q

Diagnostic criteria for MTX toxicity

A

1.Major criteria
HP by histopathology without evidence of infection
Imaging findings (diffuse pulmonary ground glass or consolidative opacities)
Negative blood culture and sputum culture
2. Minor criteria
Dyspnea <8 weeks
Non productive cough
SpO2 </90% on RA
WBC </15,000
DLCO </70
3. Define = Major criteria 3+ ½ AND ⅗ minor
4. Probable = Major 2 and 3 AND minor ⅖

625
Q

Differentiate between RA-ILD and MTX toxicity

A

Clinical presentation - toxicity more subacute/acute
Blood work - Eos in toxicity
Imaging - NSIP/HP in toxicity, UIP in RA-ILD
BAL - both can have lymphocytes
Biopsy - NSIP/HP/others in toxicity, UIP in RA-ILD

626
Q

Causes of drug induced lupus

A

Procainamide
Isoniazid
TNF-alpha inhibitors
Hydralazine

627
Q

Normal pulmonary pressures

A

sPAP: 15-30
dPAP: 4-12
mPAP: 8-20

628
Q

Hemodynamic diagnosis for pre capillary PH

A

mPAP > 20
PVR > 2
PCWP </15

629
Q

Indications to screen for pulmonary hypertension

A

Scleroderma - annual with DLCO and TTE (ERS DETECT algorithm, CTS position statement on PH)
Portal hypertension, prior to transplantation

630
Q

Causes of Group 1 PH

631
Q

Causes of group 2 PH

632
Q

Causes of Group 3 PH

633
Q

Mechanisms of PH in COPD

634
Q

Causes of Group 4 PH

635
Q

What are hereditary causes of PH

A

BMPR2 (Most Common)
EIF2AK4
ALK-1
SMAD9

636
Q

Infectious causes of pulmonary hypertension

A

Schistosomiasis
HIV
Hepatitis B/C → cirrhosis

637
Q

Drugs are associated with the development of PH

A

Toxic rapeseed oil
Amphetamines
Dasatinib
Fenfluramine
St John’s Wort
Cocaine
Cyclophosphamide (alkylating agents)

638
Q

Features make PH-LHD likely

A

Age >70
Atrial fibrillation
Diabetes, DLP, HTN, Obesity (>2 factors)
LBBB or LVH on ECG
LA dilation, LVH, or grade >2 mitral flow on echo

639
Q

Valvular diseases are most implicated in PH

A

Mitral stenosis**
Aortic stenosis*
Mitral regurgitation

640
Q

Causes of PA obstruction

A

CTEPH
Foreign body emboli
Schistosomiasis/parasitic infection
Vasculitis
PA sarcoma, uterine sarcoma, germ cell tumors, RCC
Congenital stenosis, other causes of stenosis
Obstruction by lymph nodes

641
Q

Causes of group 5 PHTN

A

Polycythemia vera
Essential thrombocytosis
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
CML
Sickle cell anemia
Thalassemia
Hereditary spherocytosis
Fibrosing mediastinitis
Sarcoidosis
PLCH
Neurofibromatosis
Gaucher’s disease
CKD with or without dialysis
Pulmonary tumour thrombotic microangiopathy

642
Q

Pathogenesis of PAH

A

Altered tone → vasoconstriction
Smooth muscle medial hypertrophy
Neointimal formation/hyperplasia and fibrosis
Microthrombi/n situ thrombosis causing plexiform lesions

643
Q

Mechanisms for sarcoidosis related PH

A

Interstitial lung disease
Cardiomyopathy
Granulomatous inflammation and involvement of vessels → intrinsic sarcoid vasculopathy
PVOD lesions
Lymph node compression of PA
CTEPH
Portal hypotension
Fibrosing mediastinitis

644
Q

Mediators of portopulmonary hypertension

A

Estrogen
Endothelin 1
Deficiency of prostacyclin

645
Q

Physical examination findings of PH

A

Loud P2
RV heave
Tricuspid or pulmonary regurgitation murmurs
Elevated JVP, peripheral edema, ascites

646
Q

Features associated with poor prognosis in PAH

A

NYHA IV **
Syncope
Rapid symptom progression
pro-BNP >1100 ng/L or BNP > 800 ng/L **
6MWD <165 m **
RA size >26 cm^2
Pericardial effusion
VO2 max <11 mL/kg/minute
VE/VCO2 >45
CI <2, SvO2 <60%

647
Q

Poor RHC prognostic factors

A

CI <2
RAP >14
SvO2 <60%
Vasoreactivity

648
Q

Echocardiographic features of PH

A

TRV >2.8 m/s
RVSP 35 - 40 mmHg
RV hypertrophy, RV and RA dilation
Flattening of the interventricular septum (can also get bowing)
Pericardial effusion
Tricuspid regurgitation
TAPSE <18 mm
IVC >21 mm, <50% collapse with sniff testing

649
Q

Additional echo signs as per the ERS guidelines

A

Ventricle: RV/LV basal diameter >1, flattening of septum
PA: RV outflow doppler acceleration time <105 ms, PA diameter >/25 mm
IVC and RA: diameter >21 mm with <50% collapse with deep inspiration, RA >18 cm^2

650
Q

ECG findings of PH

A

RV strain pattern - most sensitive
Right axis deviation
RBBB
RV hypertrophy - R/S >1 in V1
RA enlargement - P pulmonale, P wave >0.25 mV in lead II

651
Q

CXR findings in PH

A

Vascular pruning
Enlarged pulmonary arteries
Enlarged heart - enlarged RV and RA

652
Q

CT findings in PH

A

Mosaic attenuation
Enlarged PA >3 cm
PA: aorta ratio > 1
RV increased thickness, interventricular septum changes

653
Q

Ways of measuring CO in PH

A

Direct Fick method
Indirect Fick method
Thermodilution method

654
Q

Indications for iron replacement in PH therapy

A

Ferritin <100
Ferritin 100-299 but tSAT <20%

655
Q

Indications for prophylactic anticoagulation in PH

A

Idiopathic
Hereditary
Drug and toxin induced (related to anorexigens)
It is “suggested” and warfarin is the agent
NOTE: This is 2015 recommendation. 2022 says not generally recommended but consider individually

656
Q

Agents used in vasodilator testing

A

Inhaled nitric oxide
IV epoprostenol
IV adenosine

657
Q

Positive vasodilator response in PH

A

> 10 mmHg reduction to </40 mmHg with increased or unchanged CO

658
Q

MOA of PH medications

A

Prostacyclin → activates cAMP → inhibits platelet activation, promotes vasodilation
Selexipag is prostacyclin receptor agonist
Nitric oxide: PDE5i reduce breakdown of cGMP, riociguat stimulates guanylate cyclase which increases production of cGMP. cGMP
Endothelin receptor antagonist → inhibition → vasodilation

659
Q

Side effects associated with PH medications

A

Prostacyclin - hypotension, flushing, headaches, jaw pain, rebound PH
PDEf5 - headaches, flushing, volume overload, priapism
Riociguat - headaches, headache, GERD
ERA - fluid retention, hepatotoxicity, anemia

660
Q

Contraindications to PH therapies

A

Teratogenic: ERAs, riociguat
Heart failure: prostacyclins

661
Q

Combination of which drugs have RCT level of evidence in PH

A

Tadalafil + ambrisentan
AMBITION trial

662
Q

Treatment of PH, what are considered cardiopulmonary comorbidities?

A

Conditions associated with left ventricular diastolic dysfunction.
1. Cardiac
Obesity
Hypertension
Diabetes
CAD
2. Pulmonary
Parenchymal disease (DLCO usually <45%)
Treatment of refractory PH

663
Q

Treatment of refractory PH

A

Transplantation
Right to left shunt creation

664
Q

Tests for PH need to be done at EVERY follow up

A

WHO FC
6MWD
BNP
ECG
ABG or pulse oximetry

665
Q

Clinical classification of PAH associated with CHD and their treatment

A

Small/coincidental defects (<1 c, VSD, <2 cm ASD) → defect closure is C/I
Prevalent systemic to pulmonary shunt → may be correctable or non correctable
Eisenmenger Syndrome → defect closure is C/I
PAH persisting post defect correction

666
Q

In lung disease, what factors actually favor group 1?

A

Moderate to severe PH rather than mild-moderate
FEV1 >60% in COPD
FVC >70% in IPF
Low diffusion capacity out of keeping
CT abnormalities only modest

667
Q

What differentiates non severe from severe group 3 PH?

A

PVR >5
This is also prognostic indicator

668
Q

Percentage of patients with acute PE develop CTEPH

669
Q

Risk factors for CTEPH

A

Large burden of disease
Recurrent PEs
Insufficiency anticoagulation
Hypercoagulable states e.g. splenectomy, antiphospholipid syndrome, ET/PCV, malignancy

670
Q

Sensitivity and specificity of imaging in CTEPH

A

VQ scan >97% sensitive, 90% specific
CT PA 99% specific, 51% sensitive

671
Q

CT findings in CTEPH

A

Webs and Slits
Ring like stenosis
Total occlusions

672
Q

Conditions that mimic CTEPH on Imaging

A

Pulmonary artery sarcoma
Fibrosing mediastinitis
Sarcoidosis
Large vessel vasculitis including takayasu
Peripheral pulmonary artery stenosis
Congenital pulmonary artery abnormalities
In situ pulmonary artery thrombosis
Pulmonary Veno Oclusive Disease
Moyamoya disease

673
Q

Treatment options for CTEPH

A

Blood thinners for all (lifelong)
Pulmonary artery endarterectomy
Balloon pulmonary angioplasty
Riociguat

674
Q

Possible post endarterectomy complications

A

Reperfusion injury

675
Q

Possible post Balloon Pump Angioplasty complications

A

Dissection
Perforation
Over dilation

676
Q

Imaging findings in PVOD

A

Smooth interlobular septal thickening
Centrilobular nodules
Mediastinal lymphadenopathy

677
Q

Etiologies that have been associated with PVOD

A

Hereditary - BMPR2, EIF2AK4
Medications e.g. cyclophosphamide, bleomycin
CTD e.g. scleroderma, SLE, sjogren’s, etc.
Infections e.g. influenza, HIV, EBV, CMV
HSCT

678
Q

Clinical features that differentiate PCH from PVOD

A

Hemoptysis
Hemorrhagic pleural effusions

679
Q

Histological features of PVOD

A

Obliteration/extensive and diffuse occlusions of pulmonary veins
Colander like lesions (recanalized thrombus)
No plexiform lesions

680
Q

Reasons for immediate refferal to PH Centre

A
  1. Warning signs :
    * 1. rapid progression of symptoms
    * 1. severely reduced exercise capacity
    * 1. pre-syncope or syncope on mild exertion
    * 1. signs of right heart failure.
  2. PAH suspected
  3. CTEPH suspected
681
Q

Diagnostic Algorithm for PH

682
Q

Components of the 3 strata model

683
Q

Components of the 4 strata Model

684
Q

Treatment algorithm for PAH

685
Q

Definition of platypnea and orthodeoxia

A

Platypnea = dyspnea in upright position that improves when supine
Orthodeoxia = SaO2 drops by >/5% and PaO2 drop by 4 mmHgwhen rising from supine to upright

686
Q

Causes of orthodeoxia

A

Hepatopulmonary syndrome
PAVMs
Intracardiac shunts e.g. PFO
Pulmonary parenchymal disorders
Other causes of VQ mismatch

687
Q

Mechanisms of hypoxemia in HPS

A

V/Q mismatch - Intrapulmonary vascular dilatations
Shunt - Pulmonary arteriovenous malformations
Diffusion limitation - due to increased diameter from dilatation

688
Q

Triad of HPS/What is the diagnostic criteria?

A

Liver disease
Intrapulmonary vascular dilatation
Abnormal oxygenation (abnormal A-a gradient or PaO2)

689
Q

Treatment options for HPS

A

Supplemental oxygen
Liver transplantation

690
Q

Causes of PAVMs

A

Idiopathic
HHT (>80% of AVM’s are from this)
Hepatopulmonary syndrome
Trauma, prior cardiac surgery
Malignant e.g. metastatic thyroid
Infections e.g. TB, schistosomiasis
CTD e.g. behcet’s, GPA, takayasu

691
Q

Manifestations of PAVMs

A

Brain abscess
Embolic stroke
Platypnea, orthodeoxia
Hemoptysis, hemothorax
Dyspnea (orthodeoxia), Hypoxemia, cyanosis
Pulmonary hypertension

692
Q

Additional manifestations of Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia (HHT)

A

PAVM 30%
Epistaxis - 90%
Telangiectasias - 80%
Cerebral AVMs - 10%
Hepatic AVMs → high output heart failure
GI bleeding, iron deficiency

693
Q

Manifestations of a liver AVM

A

Portal hypertension
Encephalopathy and other signs of liver dysfunction
High output heart failure

694
Q

Physical examination findings in HHT

A

Mucosal and skin telangiectasias
Pulsatile liver
Murmurs and bruits
Platypnea and orthodeoxia
Cyanosis and clubbing
Signs of heart failure e.g. peripheral edema

695
Q

Investigations to diagnose shunt or PAVMs

A

O2 saturation on room air
Contrast echo/bubble echo
100% oxygen
Radiolabeled perfusion scan

696
Q

Investigations to assess the PAVM

A

CT PA
Pulmonary angiography

697
Q

Treatment options for PAVMs

A

Observation, repeat CT q3-5 years
Embolization/embolotherapy
Surgical resection
Laser ablation

698
Q

Indications for PAVM treatment

A

Symptomatic, complications, regardless of size
Feeding vessel > 3 mm
Progressive enlargement

699
Q

Genetics of HHT

A

Autosomal dominant
ACVRL1, ENG, SMAD4

700
Q

Diagnostic criteria for HHT

A

Curacao Criteria
- Mutation OR (3 for definite, 2 for suspected)
- First degree relative with HHT
- Multiple mucocutaneous telangiectasias
- Visceral involvement of telangiectasias or AVMs
- History of recurrent and spontaneous epistaxis

701
Q

Screening for in patients with HHT

A

Iron deficiency anemia*
Pulmonary AVMs*
Cerebral AVMs*
GI AVMs
Hepatic AVMs

702
Q

Diagnostic criteria for amniotic fluid embolism

A

During labor/delivery or within 30 mins of placenta delivery
[Cardiopulmonary collapse or sBP <90] AND resp compromise (hypoxemia, dyspnea, cyanosis)
DIC
Absence of fever

703
Q

Diagnostic criteria for fat embolism

A

Petechiae
Neurological symptoms e.g. coma, seizure
Hypoxemia

704
Q

Causes of fat embolism

A

Fractures, orthopedic surgeries
Liposuction, lipoinjection
Panniculitis
Burns
Pancreatitis
Fatty liver disease
Sickle cell disease
Osteonecrosis

705
Q

Treatment of amniotic fluid embolism, fat embolism, Venous air or arterial air embolism

A

Amniotic fluid - supportive
Fat embolism - supportive, ?steroids controversial
Venous air embolism - left lateral decubitus (durant Mavouver), hyperbaric O2
Arterial air embolism - hyperbaric O2

706
Q

Indications for bilateral lung transplantation

A

CF/bronchiectasis/suppurative lung disease
Pulmonary hypertension

707
Q

Contraindications to single lung transplant in IPF

A

Colonization with resistant organisms, bronchiectasis
Pulmonary hypertension

708
Q

Overall survival post lung transplant

A

Overall mean 6.5 years
Double lung transplant mean 8 years
Single lung transplant mean 5 years

709
Q

Associated side effects with CNIs

A

Neuro - tremors, headaches, visual abnormalities, seizures
Cardiovascular - hypertension
Renal - AKI, hyperkalemia, hyperuricemia, gout
MSK - osteoporosis
Endo - hirsutism, hyperglycemia
Drug drug interactions
1. 1. CYP3A4 enzyme inhibitors
* 1. increases calcineurin inhibitor levels
* 1. Macrolides (except azithromycin), Azoles, Calcium channel blockers, Grapefruit juice
1. CYP3A4 enzyme inducers
* 1. Decreases calcineurin inhibitor levels
* 1. Rifampin, Carbamazepine, pheobarbital, pheytoin
* 1. St. John’s wort

710
Q

Classes of Immunosuppresion in transplant

711
Q

General SE for Lung Transplant immunosuppressive medications

712
Q

Required prophylaxis post lung transplant

A

PjP prophylaxis for all
CMV prophylaxis for those at risk
HSV for all
EBV for those at risk
Aspergillus for those at risk

713
Q

General Lung Transplant Criteria

A

Chronic end stage lung disease who meet both criteria
* >50% risk of death from lung disease within 2 years if lung transplant not performed
* >80% likelihood of 5-year post transplant survival froma general medical perspective

714
Q

Absolute Contraindications to Transplant

715
Q

When to refer a COPD patient for lung transplant?

716
Q

When to refer for ILD Lung transplant?

717
Q

When to refer CF to Lung Transplant?

718
Q

When to refer PAH for transplant?

719
Q

Complications post auto-BMT?

A

EARLY:
Infections
Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
Post engraftment respiratory distress syndrome
Radiation pneumonitis
Pulmonary edema
Aspiration pneumonitis or pneumonia

LATE:
Infections
Organizing pneumonia
Obliterative bronchiolitis
PPFE and other ILDs
PVOD lesions
Malignancy (recurrence or secondary)

720
Q

Complications post allo-BMT?

A

EARLY:
Infections
Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
Hyperacute and acute GVHD
Pulmonary edema
Aspiration pneumonitis or pneumonia

LATE:
Infections
Organizing pneumonia
Obliterative bronchiolitis
PVOD lesions
Malignancy (recurrence or secondary)

721
Q

Risk factors for PGD (primary graft dysfunction)

A

Age >20 <45 donor
African American donor
Female donor
Donor smoking history
Trauma to donor
Blood products
ECMO used as bridge
Recipient diagnosis of IPF, PAH

722
Q

Presentation of PGD (primary graft dysfunction)

A

Usually within 72 hours
Reperfusion injury (the mechanism)
Bilateral patchy opacities, ARDS like
DAD on pathology

723
Q

How is PGD graded (ISHLT)?

A

Only GRade 3 has been shown to be associated with poor outcomes

724
Q

Airway Complications of Transplant

A
  • Early (<8 weeks) : infection and dehiscence
  • Late (>8 weeks): stenosis and bronchomalacia
  • Need bronchoscopy to diagnose.
725
Q

Difference between Acute Rejection types

A
  • Acute cellular rejection: T cell mediated highly associated with CLAD and decreased immunosuppression
  • Acute Antibody Mediated Rejection: B cell binding. DSA and AMR associated with CLAD
726
Q

Diagnosis of acute rejection

A

Cellular: TBBx (Perivascular monoculear infiltrates)
Antibody mediated: DSA, TBBx, CD4 staining

727
Q

Histological findings in acute rejection

A

Perivascular and interstitial mononuclear infiltrates → A score
Lymphocytic bronchiolitis → mononuclear cell infiltrates in submucosa of bronchioles → B score

728
Q

Treatment of PGD vs acute rejection

A

PGD: Supportive, ARDS ventilation
Acute:
* steroids for all, switching maintenence therapy, anti thymocyte (ATG), Basiliximab
* ab mediated no standard of care but PLEX/IVIG often tried with anti thymocyte (ATG)

729
Q

Definition of CLAD

A

FEV1 decline by >/20% from baseline that lasts for at least 3 months (For definite), and change is not explained by something else (e.g. infection)
BOS: FEV1/FVC <0.7
RAS: TLC<90% baseline (or FVC <80% baseline), persistent fibrotic opacities

730
Q

Risk factors for CLAD

A

Previous PGD or acute reflection
Infection, especially CMV, colonization with PsA or aspergillus
GERD
Aspiration
Medication/IST non compliance or underdosed
Increased donor age
Male to female donor

731
Q

Imaging findings in BOS vs RAS (restrictive allograft)

A

BOS: mosaic attenuation, centrilobular nodules, gas trapping/hyperinflation, bronchiectasis with time, usually not significant opacities
RAS: Pleuroparenchymal fibroelastosis, NSIP

732
Q

Histological findings in BOS vs. RAS(restrictive allograft)

A

BO: Lymphocytic inflammation of submucosa, intraluminal lesion formation, obliteration of airway
RAS: PPFE

733
Q

Treatment for BOS vs. RAS

A

Address risk factors e.g. GERD
Optimize immunosuppression (MMF > Aza, Acro > cyclo)
Consider azithromycin (those with neutrophilic BAL especially responsive)

734
Q

Complications post lung transplant

A

Early:
Acute or hyperacute rejection
Infectious complications e.g. bacterial, viral, fungal, empyema, surgical site, line infections
Bleeding e.g. hemoptysis, hemothorax
Dehiscence
Anastomotic leak, prolonged air leak
Phrenic nerve injury causing diaphragmatic dysfunction
Pulmonary embolism, DVT
Cardiac arrhythmias

Late:
Chronic rejection
Infectious complications e.g. viral, fungal, bacterial
Tracheal stenosis
Tracheobronchomalacia
Tracheoesophageal and tracheoarterialfistulization
Dehiscence
PTLD, non melanomatous skin cancer, other malignancies
Disease recurrence

735
Q

Timeline for infectious complications

A

First month: MRSA, VRE, pseudomonas, candida, HSV
Month 1-6: PJP, aspergillus, nocardia, CMV, EBV, endemic fungi, TB, NTM
>6 months: Community organisms

736
Q

Examples of post transplant malignancies

A

PTLD, lymphoma (B cell predominant)
Non melanomatous skin cancer
Primary lung cancer
Breast cancer

737
Q

Causes of PTLD (post transplant lymphoproliferative Disease)

A

EBV virus, serostatus (highest in R-/D+)
Degree of immunosuppression (T cell immunosuppression)

738
Q

Treatment of PTLD

A

Decrease immunosuppression
Rituximab
Chemotherapy (CHOP)
Surgery/Rads PRN

739
Q

Diseases with recurrence post transplantation

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma
Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis
Giant cell interstitial pneumonitis
A1AT deficiency (if smoking)
PVOD
PAP (hereditary cases)
LAM
PLCH
Sarcoidosis → most common
DIP
Diffuse panbronchiolitis

740
Q

Difference between CMV infection and CMV disease

A

CMV infection: evidence of active replication and shedding (e.g. antigenemia, PCR, culture) without attributable signs or symptoms
- CMV isolation in the blood by viral isolation, rapid culture, antigenemia, QNAT

CMV disease: infection with attribute signs or symptoms; can be viral syndrome or tissue invasive disease
- CMV isolation in the lung tissue by viral isolation, rapid culture, histopathology, immunohistochemistry
- Also CMV PCR in the blood needed

741
Q

Risk factors for CMV post lung transplant

A

D+/R- (highest risk)
D+/R+
D-/R+

742
Q

Risk factors for CMV post allogeneic BMT

A

R+/-D-
Degree of immunosuppression, use of high dose steroids
GVHD
Prior CMV viremia

743
Q

Treatment of CMV disease

A

Oral valganciclovir
IV ganciclovir
Foscarnet is second line treatment
Reduction in IST should be considered

744
Q

Congenital causes of non CF bronchiectasis

A
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Primary ciliary dyskinesia
  • Young syndrome ( Men with sinusitis, infertility due to vas deferens obstruction and bronchiectasis)
  • Williams- Campbell (bronchomalacia with decreases/absent cartilage around subsegmental bronchi. You get cystic bronchiectasis)
  • Alpha 1 antitrypsin
  • Yellow nail syndrome
  • Mouniere Kuhn syndrome (tracheobronchomegaly and lung sequestration
  • Kartaaganer syndrome ( situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, and bronchiectasis)
745
Q

Cause of PCD

A

Autosomal recessive
Loss of or dysfunctional cilia

746
Q

Clinical manifestations of primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

Chronic sinopulmonary infection
Bronchiectasis
Male infertility
Situs inversus

747
Q

Kartaganer syndrome

A

Bronchiectasis
Chronic rhinosinusitis
Situs inversus

748
Q

Diagnosis of PCD

A

Low or absent nasal nitric oxide
Genetic testing for confirmation
Can do sinus biopsy but can be falsely negative

749
Q

Cause of Young syndrome

A
  • Abnormally viscous mucous
  • Triad of bronchiectasis, chronic rhinosinusitis and infertility due to vas deferens obstruction
  • Can appear to be similar to CF and primary ciliary dyskinesia (PCD) patients, but they have had normal sweat chloride tests and normal cilia
750
Q

Clinical manifestations of young syndrome

A

Chronic sinopulmonary infections
Bronchiectasis
Male infertility

751
Q

Triad for yellow nail syndrome

A

Yellow nails
Respiratory symptoms
Lymphedema

752
Q

Most common causes of bronchiectasis

A

Post infectious
Idiopathic
Immunodeficiency
Connective tissue disorders

753
Q

2 most common causes of non CF bronchiectasis exacerbations

A

PsA
H. influenzae (SA in CF instead)

754
Q

Blood work would you send for everyone with bronchiectasis

A

CBC
IgE, Asp IgG, workup ABPA
IGAMs
Sputum cultures

755
Q

Imaging findings of bronchiectasis

A

Signet ring sign/broncho arterial ratio >1
Tram tracking, non tapering peripheral airways
Mucous plugging
Bronchial wall thickening
Gas trapping

756
Q

Airway clearance techniques

A
  • Active cycle of breathing technique
  • Autogenic drainage
  • Gravity positioning
  • OPEP
  • Nebulized saline
  • Remember NMD:
    Lung volume recruitment (LVR) (aka “breath stacking”)
    Glossopharyngeal breathing
    Manual resuscitator
    Mechanical inspiration
    Mechanical cough assistance
    Manually assisted cough (MAC)
    Mechanical insufflator-exsufflator (MIE)
757
Q

Airway clearance techniques that are not recommended

A

Inhaled mannitol
Inhaled NAC
Inhaled dornase alpha
Carbocysteine

758
Q

Treatments in non-CF bronchiectasis to reduce exacerbations

A

Airway clearance
Pulmonary rehabilitation
Mucoactive therapy
Chronic abx - azithro for non PsA, inhaled for PsA

759
Q

Abx choices for prophylaxis in those who have recurrent exacerbations

A

Azithro if non PSA
Inhaled anti pseudomonas if PSA - tobra, collistin, gentamicin (or azithro if none of these are tolerateD)

760
Q

When should you offer long term antibiotics to patients with non cf bronchiectasis (how many exacerbations)?

A

ERS 2017 says >3 per year should be offered chronic Abx.
Inhaled for those with PSA+/- macrolide

761
Q

Definition of bronchiectasis exacerbation

A

Worsening symptoms
Over last 48 hours

762
Q

Role of bronchodilators in management of bronchiectasis

A

LABA in those with significant breathlessness

763
Q

Indications for resection in bronchiectasis

A

Localized disease not controlled with medical treatment
Post obstructive bronchiectasis due to tumors
Massive hemoptysis
Recurrent exacerbations
Overwhelming sputum production

764
Q

Outline possible treatment alogorithm for newly discovered PSA on a sputum in NON-CF bronchiectasis

765
Q

Median age of survival in CF

A

68 years after Trikafta (2022)

766
Q

Pathogenesis of CF

A

CFTR transmembrane protein mutation
Chromosome 7 gene (long arm)
Transepithelial chloride channel
Abnormally thick mucus, difficulty clearing, infections and colonization

767
Q

Classes of mutations in CF

A
  • Class 1 – absent or defective protein synthesis
  • Class 2 – abnormal processing or transport of the protein to the cell membrane
  • Class 3 – abnormal regulation of CFTR function, inhibiting chloride channel activation
  • Class 4 – normal amount of CFTR but reduced function (defective conduction)
  • Class 5 – reduced synthesis of fully active CFTR
  • Class 6 – decreased stability of fully processed and functional CFTR
768
Q

Bacteria that classically cause colonization in CF

A

Staphylococcus aureus **
Pseudomonas **
H. Influenza **
Burkholderia cepacia
Aspergillus fumigatus
NTM
Stenotrophomonas

769
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of cystic fibrosis

A

Bronchiectasis
Bacterial colonization
Recurrent pulmonary infection
Mucous plugging and collapse
Pneumothorax
Hemothorax
Gas trapping and obstruction

770
Q

Extrapulmonary manifestations of cystic fibrosis

A

Sinus - sinusitis, nasal polyps
Intestinal - Meconium ileus, DIOS, SIBO, chronic constipation
Pancreas - pancreatic insufficiency with steatorrhea and vitamin ADEK deficiency, chronic pancreatitis, diabetes
Liver - transaminitis, biliary cirrhosis, fatty liver disease, cirrhosis
Reproductive - male/female infertility; absence of vas differences, thickening of cervical mucus
MSK - osteopenia or osteoporosis
Depression

771
Q

Causes of abdominal pain in CF

A

Chronic constipation
DIOS (distal intesinal obstruciton syndrome)
SIBO (small intestine bacterial overgrowth)
Pancreatitis
Appendicitis
Intussusception
Colon cancer

772
Q

Colon cancer screening in CF

A

Age 40 and q5 years or as dictated by polyp
Age 30 if previous transplant

773
Q

Diagnostic criteria for cystic fibrosis → See figure. Tests that can be used to diagnose CF

A

Clinical: NBS, family history, sx
Sweat chloride test
Genetic testing
Extended CFTR analysis
Functional assays

774
Q

Newborn CF screens

A
  • Serum immunoreactive trypsinogen assay (elevated is positive)
  • DNA assay
775
Q

DDx of positive sweat chloride test

A

Malnutrition
Anorexia, bulimia
Pancreatitis
Untreated adrenal insufficiency
Untreated hypothyroidism
Hypophysitis
Technical/test factors

776
Q

DDX of negative sweat chloride test

A

Dehydration
Physiologic low sweat rate
Hypoproteinemic states
Drugs e.g. mineralocorticoids
On CFTR modulators (e.g. baby of mother on CFTR modulator during pregnancy)
Technical/test factors
Malnutrition

777
Q

How to interpret a sweat chloride test in CF

778
Q

What is the difference between CFTR-related disorder and CFTR-Related Metabolic Syndrome.

A
  • CRMS: children with a positive newborn screen AND one of
    ** Sweat chloride <30 and 2 CFTR mutations of which 1 has unclear phenotypic consequences
    ** An intermediate sweat chlorid (30-59) and 1 or 0 CF causing mutations
  • Note: most will not devlop clinical CF and this has been combined with CF Screen positive Inconclusive Diagnosis (CFSPID)
  • CFTR-Related Disorder: Do not meet diagnostic criteria for CF or CRMS but are affected by CF related Conditions.
779
Q

CF management

A

Smoking cessation, vaccinations
Airway clearance, bronchodilators
Inhaled hypertonic saline
Inhaled DNAse
Chronic azithromycin
+/- modulator therapy

780
Q

Airway clearance techniques for patients with CF

A

Active cycle of breathing
Autogenic drainage
Positional therapy
Oscillating PEP device - Aerobika, Acapella, flutter valve
Percussive vest

781
Q

Risk factors for acquiring MRSA

A

Younger
F508 delta
Higher admissions
PsA co infection

782
Q

Role of abx in CF

A

Eradication
Prevent exacerbations
Exacerbation

783
Q

Indications for eradication abx therapy in CF

A

PsA
+/- MRSA

784
Q

Abx that can be used to treat chronic PSA or PSA eradication

A

Aztreonam 500 mg oral MWF
Tobramycin 300 mg nebulized BID
Colistin 150 mg nebulized BID
Aztreonam 75 mg nebulized TD * weak evidence
28 days on and off

785
Q

Indication for eradication abx and how to do it with PSA in CF.

786
Q

Abx choices for CF exacerbation

A

MSSA: amoxi-clav, doxy, septra - cefazolin, nafcillin
MRSA: Septra, doxycycline - Vancomycin, linezolid
PsA: cipro - ceftaz, piptazo, mero, tobra, aztreonam
Steno: septra, doxy, levoflox - ceftaz, colistin

787
Q

Duration of treatment for CF exacerbation

A

At least 2 weeks but often longer

788
Q

Definition of massive hemoptysis in CF

A

Scant <5 cc
Mild to moderate 5-240 cc
Massive >240 cc

789
Q

Management of hemoptysis in CF

A

Scant: +/- abx, continue everything
Mild/moderate: stop HS, no consensus DNAse, airway clearance; START abx
Massive: stop HS, airway clearance, no consensus DNAse; START abx
Stop BiPAP if on it (unless mild)

790
Q

Add-on options for ongoing hemoptysis

A

Vitamin K, tranexamic acid
Bronchial artery embolization
Lung resection
Transplantation

791
Q

Management of pneumothorax in CF

A

No consensus re antibiotics
Follow guidelines re: chest tube
Hold percussive therapies (including PEP devices)
Hold BPAP
Do not withhold mucous clearance and aerosols

792
Q

Indications for pleurodesis

A

Not after first episode
After recurrence
Surgical pleurodesis is preferred

793
Q

Recommendations post PNTX inCF

A

No travel x 2 weeks after resolution
No heavy lifting 5 lb x 2 weeks after resolution
No spirometry x 2 weeks after resolution

794
Q

Different types of mutations in CF

A

Class I: Nonsense mutation, Decreased synthesis
Class II: processing mutation e.g. F508del
Class III: Gating mutation e.g. G55D,
Class IV: Conductance e.g. R117H
Class V: Decreased production
Class IV: Decreased stability

795
Q

Who is eligible for CFTR modulator therapy?

A

F508 del
Gating mutation e.g. G551D
R117H

796
Q

Benefits of CFTR modulator therapy

A

Improve symptoms
Improve quality of life
Improved lung function/FEV1 (10.4%)
Improved weight
Improve sweat chloride
Reduced exacerbation and admission
Improved mortality

797
Q

What is the most common NTM in CF?

A

MAC complex

798
Q

How often do you screen patients with CF for NTM?

A

Annually in spontaneously expectorating
Do not need to go hunting for sputum if not spontaneously expectorating and no sx
Do not use oropharyngeal swabs

799
Q

Treatment of hemoptysis during bronchoscopy

A

Cold saline
Topical epinephrine 1:10,000
Bronchial blocker
Wedge with bronchoscopy
Lateral decubitus
Intubate

800
Q

Benefits of BCG vaccine

A

Prevent CNS tuberculosis.
Prevents disseminated TB.
Protection is mainly during childhood (up to age 15)

801
Q

Organisms are in the mycobacterium TB complex

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium bovis
Mycobacterium carnetti
Mycobacterium africanum
Mycobacterium microti

802
Q

Risk factors for developing primary infections? (18-24 months post is still considered primary disease)

A

Age <5
Immunocompromised e.g. HIV

803
Q

Risk factors for CNS TB

804
Q

Risk factors for tuberculosis

A

Contacts e.g. household contacts
Birth in TB endemic area
Immunosuppression
Substance abuse
Socioeconomic status
Malnutrition
Certain systemic diseases e.g. COPD, DM, silicosis, renal disease, malignancy

805
Q

How long after exposure does it take to develop positive TBST or IGRA?

806
Q

Risk factors that increase the probability of TB transmission

A

Cavitary disease
Upper lung zone disease
Laryngeal disease
AFB smear positive disease
Level of exposure - proximity, time spent with them, environment
Coughing, sneezing

807
Q

Modes of transmission of TB

A

Airborne
Droplet
Percutaneous
Ingestion

808
Q

Isolation in TB

A

Smear negative → 2 weeks
Smear positive → 2 weeks if 3 consecutive smear negative AFB
Smear positive → 4 weeks if persistently positive sputums
For rifampin resistance, 4 weeks +/- 3 negative smears

809
Q

Indications for hospitalization inTB

A

Complicated TB, comorbid conditions
Has acute complication of TB e.g. hemoptysis
Drug desensitization
Is non compliant with medication
Cannot isolate safety at home

810
Q

What conditions must be met for someone isolating at home?

A

No shared ventilation with other units (non household members)
Everyone in household has already been exposed and if TBST negative, should accept risk of ongoing exposure
<5 or immunocompromised patients are already on treatment for latent or active TB

811
Q

Differences in treating TB in HIV

A

Longer duration IF NOT ON ART
Rifampicin rather than rifampin
Consideration of timing of ART therapy +/- steroids

812
Q

Imaging findings of primary TB

A

Lower lobe distribution
Parenchymal consolidation - Opacities, GGO, tree in bud nodules
May have cavities
Miliary TB
Hilar, mediastinal LN →RML collapse
More likely to have pleural effusion

813
Q

Imaging findings of secondary TB

A

Upper lobe distribution (apical, posterior > sup segment > anterior)
Consolidation, tree in bud
Cavitation
5% have upper lobe fibrocalcific changes

814
Q

Latent TB testing is not required in these situations

A

Low pretest probability
Diagnosis of active TB in those >12 years old
Trending response to treatment
Mass testing programs for e.g. immigrants (not including HCW/occupations)

815
Q

Indications for latent TB testing?

A

CXR showing apical fibronodular changes typical of healed TB
Recent exposure to active TB
Certain occupations e.g. HCW, prisoner workers, shelter workers
HIV (any stage)
IVDU or use of illicit drugs
Post HSCT or organ transplant (and pre transplant workup)
On immunosuppressive therapies (includes chemo)
Lymphoma, leukemia, head and neck cancers
Chronic kidney disease requiring dialysis
Silicosis

816
Q

What immune response does the TBST depend on?

A

Type IV delayed type hypersensitivity

817
Q

TBST preferred over IGRA when:

A

Contact tracing
Serial testing HCP and others

818
Q

Serial testing is required in TB when:

A

Contact investigation
Serial testing of HCW, other populations e.g. inmates, prison workers

819
Q

IGRA is preferred when:

A

Unclear if patient will return
Children >10 received vaccine after age 1, unclear when, >/2 vaccines
Children >2 but <10 previously received vaccine
Adequate training, personnel, facility for TBST not available
TBST is contraindicated
Previous known NTM infection

820
Q

Contraindications to TBST

A

Previous allergic reaction, blistering reaction

821
Q

Causes of false positive TBST

A

Technical limitations
Prior vaccination
Sensitization to NTM (not an issue with IGRA)
Rupture of venule at time of injection

822
Q

Causes of false negative TBST

A

Technical limitations
HIV
Active TB or fungal infection
Live virus vaccine in the last 4 weeks
Recent infection
Steroids >/15 mg x >2-4 weeks
Natural waning of immunity

823
Q

Causes of false negative IGRA

A

Immunosuppression e.g. HIV, active TB
Technical variability

824
Q

Sensitivity of TBST vs IGRA for latent TB

A

TBST: 77%
IGRA: 60-95%

825
Q

Indications for both IGRA/TBST

A

Either can be done to increase sensitivity after negative test
IGRA can be done after positive TBST to increase specificity

826
Q

Cutoffs for positive TBST - See table

827
Q

Available tests to assess for TB

A

AFB smear (Zeil Nielson, Auramine Rhodamine) - sensitivity 20-80%
PCR - sensitivity 70-95%
Culture
Histopathology

828
Q

Diagnosis of active TB

A

Appropriate clinical and imaging findings
Positive TB culture, positive TB PCR +/- AFB

829
Q

Samples that can be collected for diagnosis of TB

A

Sputum
Induced sputum
BAL
Tissue
Urine (guideline recommends against lipoarabinomannan but can still do culture)
Blood
Gastric aspirate
Stool

830
Q

Pathological findings in tuberculosis

A

Caseating granulomatous inflammation
May see organisms, may stain positive for AFB

831
Q

DDX for positive AFB stains

A

Tuberculosis
NTM, most likely MAC
Nocardia
Rhodococcus
Actinomyces

832
Q

What percentage of patients with latent TB will develop active TB in their lifetime?

A

5-10%
50% of that risk is in the first 2 years
Canadian specific can use TSTin3D (McGill online calculator) to estimate the cumulative risk of disease for active TB

833
Q

Drug regimens for the treatment of latent TB

A

3HP = isoniazid and rifapentine weekly x 3 months (First Line)
Rifampin daily x 4 months (First line)
Isoniazid daily x 9 months (Second Line)
Isoniazid daily x 6 months (Alternative)
Isoniazid and rifampin daily x 3 months (alternative)

834
Q

Pretreatment testing before latent TB treatment

A

Assess for active TB - CXR → sputum AFB if CXR is abnormal
LFTs
Creatinine
CBC
HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C

835
Q

Indications to treat pregnant patients with latent TB

A

Recent close contact with active TB
On immunosuppression
Has HIV

836
Q

Treatment of pregnant patients with latent TB

A

Rifampin x 4 months

837
Q

Treatment of non-resistant active TB - What are their benefits?

A

Isoniazid 5 mg/kg daily → prevent resistance - bactericidal
Rifampin 10 mg/kg daily → prevent resistance, relapse - bactericidal
Ethambutol 15 mg/kg daily → prevents resistance
Pyrizinamide 20 mg/kg daily - bactericidal
FQ (moxi/levo) when person has A/E requiring cessation of a first line drug

838
Q

Preferred Treatment and alternatives treatments for active TB (TB disease)

A
  • isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol daily for the first 2 months followed by isoniazid and rifampin for 4 more months
  • Suspected susceptibility:
    ** RIPE daily x 2 months then RIE daily for 4 months
  • Known susceptibilities:
    ** RIP daily x 2 months then RI daily x 4 months
  • Note: should add pyridoxine (Vit B6) 25-50mg/day for all those takine INH at risk for peripheral neuropathy
    ** people with diabetes, chronic kidney disease, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) malnutrition, seizure disorder or a history of substance misuse, as well as pregnant or breastfeeding women
839
Q

Alternative treatment regimens for active TB

A

R/I/E x 2 months then extend out to 7 months
Can also do the drugs in continuation phase (whether R/I or R/I/E 3 times per week)

840
Q

Treatment with drug-susceptible pulmonary TB and what are the risk factors for relapse

A

extensive disease OR baseline cavitary disease on x-ray and smear or culture positive sputum at two months)
extension of the continuation phase to seven months for a total of nine months of TB drug therapy (poor evidence).

841
Q

What do you do if a patient is missing tb treatment doses?

842
Q

Potential side effects of TB treatment

A

Isoniazid - peripheral neuropathy, hepatic toxicity, drug induced SLE
Rifampin - drug-drug interaction, body fluid discolouration, hepatic toxicity, rash
Ethambutol - optic neuropathy, red-green color blindness
Pyrazinamide - hepatotoxicity

843
Q

Examples of drug-drug interactions with rifampin

A

DOACs, warfarin
Oral contraceptives
Antifungals
Tacro, cyclo
Methadone
Phenytoin

844
Q

When should you be concerned about liver toxicity with TB drugs?

A

Billi >3, serum, ALT > 3 ULN with sx, ALT >5 ULN with no sx
Can continue ethambutol; consider adding FQ
Discontinue, restart slowly with careful monitoring
Obviously assess for other causes of transaminitis

845
Q

Indications to extend active TB treatment to 9 months

A

BASELINE Cavitary ON CXR + smear/culture positive at 2 months
Diabetes and cavitary disease
HIV not on ART therapy
Solid organ transplant recipients
On TNF alpha inhibitors
Did not use pyrazinamide in intensive phase
TB meningitis
TB bone disease if elevated inflammatory markers at end of 6 months

846
Q

When do you start ART therapy in a patient with active TB and HIV?

A

TB meningitis or CD4>50- delay until after 2 weeks of starting TB therapy
**Out of concern for Immune REconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS)
No TB meningitis and/or CD4 <50 - within 2 weeks of starting TB therapy
Pred 40 x 2 weeks if CD4 <100, unless active hepatitis B, kaposi, rifampin resistance

847
Q

What is IRIS and how does it manifest?

A

Immune REconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS)
Lymph node enlargement and pulmonary infiltrates.
Usually self limited but can warrant steroids.

848
Q

Monitoring patients with active TB on treatment

A

CBC, crea, LFTs monthly
HIV, hepatitis B/C at start of treatment
CXR at baseline, then q2 months
Sputum smear, culture q2 weeks until smear negative; then 2 and 1 month before end
PFT within 6 months of finishing treatment

849
Q

Recurrence vs relapse vs reinfection

A

Recurrence: can be due to either
Relapse: same strain
Reinfection: different strain

850
Q

Risk factors for recurrence of TB

A

Cavitary disease, smear positive disease
Extensive or disseminated disease
Drug resistant disease
Immunosuppressed
Intermittent therapy (not daily), treatment interruptions
Was not adherent
Should monitor these patients for 12-24 months with sx/imaging/microbiological testing

851
Q

Treatment of active TB in pregnancy

A

RIE (omit P) x 9 months

852
Q

Indications to give pyrazinamide in pregnancy

A

Smear positive
Extensive disease
Disseminated
Intolerance to any first line drugs

853
Q

Drugs that are contraindicated in pregnancy (TB)

A

+/-PZA
All injectables
Fluoroquinolones

854
Q

Common locations for extrapulmonary tuberculosis

A

Pleural*
Abdominal*
Lymphadenopathy*
CNS - tuberculoma, CNS meningitis
Bone - vertebral disease, arthritis
Cutaneous
Genitourinary
Ocular

855
Q

Definition and diagnosis of disseminated TB

A

Disease in >?2 non contiguous organs OR isolation in blood, bone marrow, or liver on bx
Milliary TB is subset of disseminated TB

856
Q

Differential diagnosis for miliary pattern on CT

A

Disseminated tuberculosis
Other infections: histoplasmosis, mycoplasma, varicella
Sarcoidosis, pneumoconiosis, amyloidosis
Miliary metastases e.g. thyroid cancer, breast cancer, RCC, melanoma

857
Q

Tests that can help assess for TB Pleuritis

A

Fluid analysis
Fluid adenosine deaminase
Fluid interferon gamma
Fluid AFB and culture
Histopathology

858
Q

Fluid characteristics in TB pleuritis

A

Low - normal glucose
pH >7.3
LDH >500
Neutrophil predominant early on, the lymphocyte predominance
<5% mesothelial cells
Pseudochylothorax, chylothorax

859
Q

Treatment of pleural TB

A

RIPE x 6 months
Chest tube if empyema, may need decortication
No steroids
No therapuetic thoracenteisis/chest tube for pleural TB associated effusions.

860
Q

Extrapulmonary TB cases that require extended therapy

A

CNS x 9-12 months, requires higher doses of rifampin >15 mg/kg
Joint x 9-12 months if markers of severity at 6 months (CRP, ESR)

861
Q

Imaging findings in CNS TB

A

Basal leptomeningeal enhancement
Hydrocephalus
Infarcts

862
Q

Benefits of steroids in the treatment of TB meningitis

A

Mitigate increased ICP, reduce hydrocephalus and infarction, reduce short term mortality
Does not affect disabling neurological consequences or long term survival

863
Q

Steroid regimen in the treatment of TB meningitis

A

120 mg x 1 week
90 mg x 1 week
60 mg x 1 week
30 mg x 1 week
15 mg x 1 wek
5 mg x 1 week

864
Q

Treatment of TB pericarditis

A

RIPE x 6 months
Steroids in HIV negative
NOT HIV positive (ART or no ART)

865
Q

Indications for steroids in the treatment of TB

A

Treating TB in HIV with CD4 <100 to prevent IRIS (Only if on HAART)
All patients with meningitis
HIV negative patients with pericarditis (No recommendation for or against if HIV+ on therapy with HAART and have TB pericarditis)

866
Q

Definitions of TB resistance

A

Monoresistant: Resistant to any of the first line therapies.
Poly drug resistance: Resistant to 2 of the first line therapies (not rifampin)
MDR: Resistant to INH + Rifampin with/without resistant to other first line agents.
Pre-XDR: MDR TB with additional resistance to any FQ.
XDR: Pre-XDR + resistance to bedaquiline/linezolid

867
Q

Treatment of MDR-TB

A

initial regimen should include levofloxacin or moxifloxacin AND bedaquiline AND linezolid AND clofazimine AND cycloserine.
5 to 7 months after culture conversion occurs, the total number of drugs in the regimen can be reduced to 4 for a total duration of 18-20 months.

868
Q

Treatment of pre-XDR or XDR

A

Same as MDR. Ensure 5 drugs in the regimen initially. Cannot use resistant drugs.
In order of preference add on: ethambutol, pyrazinamide, delamanid, amikacin, imipenem-cilastatin or meropenem (plus clavulanic acid), ethionamide and p-aminosalicylic acid.

869
Q

Is surgery indicated in MDR-TB

A

Partial lung resection in carefully selected patients can be used as an adjuvant.
Optimally after culture conversion is achieved.

870
Q

Which Countries have the highest incidence of TB and MDR (According to WHO)

A

TB: Philippines, Pakistan, Somalia, India
MDR: Somalia, China

871
Q

Most common NTM species to cause infection

A

MAC
M. Kansassi
M. abscessus

872
Q

Modes of transmission for NTM

A

Soli aerosols(All but M. Kansasii)
Water aerosols
Soft tissue
Aspiration

873
Q

Risk factors for development of NTM

A

Older age
Female
Lower BMI
Thoracic cage abnormalities, mitral valve prolapse
Immunocomp (e.g. HIV, IST, malignancy) but can happen in immunocompetent too
Underlying structural lung disease e.g. bronchiectasis, CF, ILD, COPD/asthma
Oral steroids >15 mg/day
Inhaled fluticasone >800 mcg/day
Anti TNF alpha

874
Q

Risk factors for progression of NTM

A

Older age
Male
Lowe BMI
Immunosuppression - primary immunodeficiency, HIV infection, IST, anti TNF, steroids?
Labs: elevated ESR/CRP, hypoalbuminemia
Fibrocavitary disease
Extent of disease
Bacterial load and species and smear positivity

875
Q

2 pulmonary phenotypes that are produced by NTM

A

Fibrocavitary
Nodular bronchiectatic
Other: HP, solitary pulmonary nodule, disseminated

876
Q

Non pulmonary manifestations of NTM

A

Superficial lymphadenitis (especially cervical)
Skin and soft tissue infection
Disseminated disease

877
Q

Radiographic findings of NTM

A

Fibrocavitary - thick walled cavities, upper lobe predominance
Nodules, tree in bud nodularity
Bronchiectasis
GGO, centrilobular nodules, gas trapping in HP

878
Q

What other features are seen in Lady Windermere syndrome?

A

Scoliosis
Pectus excavatum
Mitral valve prolapse

879
Q

Diagnostic criteria for NTM → See table.

A

Symptoms
Imaging consistent with pulmonary disease
Exclusion of other diagnoses
2 sputum or 1 BAL
If M. abscessus should be speciated ot the subspecies level and checked for macrolide resistance.
OR if disseminated x1 blood culture/culture from site of infection

880
Q

What is special about the sputum cultures that are obtained in NTM diagnosis vs TB?

A

TB - 3 sputums, 1 hour apart is fine
NTM - 2 sputums, same species/subspecies should be isolated over interval of >/1 week

881
Q

If monitoring patients, how and how frequently do you monitor them?

A

Sputum culture q2-3 months
Repeat imaging after 6 months

882
Q

When do you treat NTM?

A

2020 guidelines say treat if diagnosed instead of watchful waiting. (condition and very low evidence)
Especially treat if:
Positive smear or cavitary disease

883
Q

What is the treatment for NTM? other than Abscessus See table.

A
  • Note rifampicin and rifampin are the same thing
  • MAC should
    ** always have a azithromycin if susceptible and if cavitary/macrolide resistant/refractory should have amikacin or streptomycin addedd
    **Treated 12 months post conversion
  • Kanasii
    ** Rifampin susceptible suggest Rifampin, Ethambutolo and either INH or azithro (daily is preferred in most cases)
    ** Rifampin resistant then add moxifloxacin
    ** Treated for at least 12 months (regardless of conversion)
  • Xenopi
    ** Moxi or Azithro with a total of minimum 3 drugs.
    ** If cavitary or adanced add amikacin
    ** Treat 12 months beyond conversion
884
Q

How do we treat NTM Abscessus?

A

Abscessus
* There is an initial and continuation phase and you need to know if it is Mutational susceptible and inducible susceptible (14 days).
* Need 3 active drugs initially
* duration - “short vs. long”-Expert opinion

885
Q

What is the definition of refractory disease in NTM?

A

Culture positive after 6 months

886
Q

What makes treatment of abscessus unique?

A

Can have chromosomal mutations
Mutation and inducible resistance

887
Q

Treatment categories for MAC

A

Fibronodular disease
Extensive disease/cavitary disease
Macrolide resistant disease
Refractory disease

888
Q

Treatment categories for Kansasii treatment

A

Fibronodular disease
Extensive disease/cavitary disease
Rifampin resistance

889
Q

Treatment categories for Xenopi treatment

A

Fibronodular
Extensive/cavitary disease

890
Q

Indications for surgical management

A

Severe complication e.g. hemoptysis
Not responding to medical therapy, refractory disease

891
Q

Duration of treatment for MAC, Kansasii and Xenopi

A

MAC x 12 months post first negative culture/culture conversion
Kansasii x 12 months fixed
Xenopi x 12 months post culture conversion
Abscessus - expert opinion

892
Q

Which fungi require T cell mediated defense vs phagocytosis?

A

T cell mediated immune defense: PJP, endemic fungi, NTM/TB, crypto
Phagocytosis: candida, aspergillus, mucormycosis

893
Q

Disease manifestations of aspergillus

A

ABPA
Aspergillus nodule
Aspergilloma - unusual to be caused by other fungus
Chronic cavitating pulmonary aspergillosis
Chronic fibrosing pulmonary aspergillosis
Semi invasive pulmonary aspergillosis
Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis
Tracheobronchitis

894
Q

Available aspergillus microbiological testing

A

Aspergillus IgG - most sensitive IgE specific Aspergillus for ABPA)
Serum/BAL - PCR
Serum/BAL - galactomannan
Sputum/BAL/tissue/blood/other - culture

895
Q

RFs for chronic cavitation aspergillosis

A

Pre-existing structural lung disease.
COPD
Tuberculosis
Cystic fibrosis
Others

896
Q

Risk factors for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis

A

Prolonged neutropenia <500 for >10 days (biggest risk)
Transplantation - lung, HSCT
Hematological malignancy
Steroids >3 weeks
Chemotherapy
HIV/AIDs
Chronic granulomatous disease

897
Q

How do you generally diagnose chronic pulmonary aspergillosis?

A

At least 3 months in duration
Consistent clinical and imaging features
Evidence of Asp IgG vs positive sputum/BAL/biopsy culture

898
Q

Imaging findings for invasive aspergillosis

A

Nodules
Reverse halo sign (more common with OP and less commonly fungal but mucormycosis most common of the fungal)
Atoll sign (same as reverse halo sign)
Halo sign is most commonly associated with IPA
Air crescent sign (delayed finding)
Wedge shaped infarcts
Tree in bud opacities

899
Q

Treatment for a pulmonary aspergilloma

A

Single - can observe or surgery/embolization if symptomatic
Multiple - antifungals (itraconazole)
Can give antifungals pre/post surgery if high risk spillage

900
Q

Treatment of chronic cavitary pulmonary aspergillosis

A

Observe
Itraconazole, vori, posi x 6 months

901
Q

Treatment for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis

A

Voriconazole x >/6 weeks

902
Q

Imaging findings for ABPA

A

Finger in glove, mucous plugging
Mucous plugging can cause collapse
Bronchial wall thickening
Central bronchiectasis
Fleeting pulmonary alveolar opacities, usually upper lobes
Pulmonary fibrosis in chronic disease

903
Q

diagnostic criteria for ABPA - new criteria

904
Q

Treatment for ABPA

A

Prednisone 0.5mg/kg x 2-4 weeks then taper to complete over 4 months OR itraconazole for 4 months
Itraconazole x 16 weeks/voi/posi (old)
Do not use high dose ICS for treatment purposes
Do NOT recommend Anti-IL5 agent as first line (nt confirmed by RCT yet) Prednisone
Itraconazole x 16 weeks/voi/posi
Anti-IL5 agent (not confirmed by RCT yet)

905
Q

Treatment of ABPA exacerbation

A

New treat same as Anewly diagnosed ABPA (pred or itraconazole) but no biologic
MIld → ICS (No)
More than mild → increase oral steroids
If refractory (>/=2 in last 2 years) can combine pred adn itraconazole)

906
Q

Treatment response

A

Improvement in 8-12 weeks of:
* Chest radiograph
* IgE level (20% fall)
* Clinical symptoms.
NOTE: aspergillus IgE and IgG levels or eos may not fall so don’t recheck for response.

907
Q

Risk factors for disseminated disease of endemic Fungi?

A

Medications e.g. TNF-alpha inhibitors, steroids, IST
HIV/AIDs
Immune disorders e.g. CVID
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Extremes of age

908
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of histoplasmosis

A

Acute localized pulmonary histoplasmosis
Diffuse pulmonary histoplasmosis
Chronic pulmonary histoplasmosis
Disseminated histoplasmosis

909
Q

Radiographic manifestations of histoplasmosis

A

Acute localized pulmonary histoplasmosis
- Local infiltrates/pneumonitis (usually lower)

Diffuse pulmonary histoplasmosis
- Reticulonodular
- Miliary

Chronic pulmonary histoplasmosis
- Apical fibrocavitary

Disseminated histoplasmosis
- Miliary

910
Q

Manifestations of chronic pulmonary histoplasmosis

A

Apical infiltrations, fibrosis
Cavitation
Fibrosing mediastinitis
Mediastinal granuloma
Can send secondary infection of cavitation
Broncholithiasis

911
Q

Diagnosis of different manifestations of histoplasmosis

A

Use antigen (urine*, blood, BAL) + antibody for acute disease (local or diffuse) or disseminated disease
Use culture (BAL, TBBx) for chronic disease - sputum sensitivity is low
Mediastinal disease: ab usually positive; antigen -, culture

912
Q

Histopathology of histoplasmosis

A

Small yeast with narrow based budding

913
Q

Treatment of mediastinal manifestations of histoplasmosis

A

Broncholithiasis → observe, bronchoscopic preferred, surgical
Mediastinal granuloma → observe, surgical removal if needed
Fibrosing mediastinitis → stent if needed, no antifungals or steroids (unless sarcoid or vasculitis causing it, then can be trialed)

914
Q

Manifestations of pulmonary coccidioidomycosis

A

Local primary
Diffuse pulmonary coccidioidomycosis
Chronic fibrocavitary disease
Disseminated

915
Q

Diagnostic criteria for coccidioidomycosis

A

Combination of tests
Antigen (urine, serum, BAL)
Antibody (EIA preferred)
Direct visualization (sputum, BAL, bx material), path - can see spherules
Culture

916
Q

Manifestations of pulmonary blastomycosis

A

Acute focal pulmonary blasto
Acute diffuse pulmonary blasto
Chronic pulmonary blasto
Disseminated

917
Q

Extra pulmonary manifestations of blasto

A

Brain
Bone - OM
Cutaneous - crusting, verrucous lesion
GU tract

918
Q

Diagnostic criteria for blasto

A

Combination of tests
Antigen
Antibody
Direct visualization, path
Culture - gold standard

919
Q

Imaging findings of PJP

A
  • Reticular changes, perihilar distribution (more often upper lobe)
  • Crazy paving (also smooth septal thickening)
  • Pneumatoceles
  • Less commonly nodular pattern (granulomatous PJP)
  • Often hypoxemia is out of proportion to degree of radiographic findings
920
Q

General blood work to assess for PJP

A

LDH - sensitive
Beta D glucan - sensitive

921
Q

Causes of positive beta d glucan

A
  • Pseudomonas infection
  • IVIG or olther blood products/albumin
  • IHDialysis using cellulose membrane
  • Presence of invasive fungal infection (candida, aspergillus,fusarium, histoplasmosis, PJP).
    ** Not mucormycosis.
922
Q

When is beta d glucan usually negative?

A

Mucormycosis
Cryptococcus
Blastomycosis
False negative: Hyperpigmented serum (bilirubin or triglyceride elevation)
False negative: azitrhomycin or IV pentamidine

923
Q

Diagnosis of PJP

A

Stained respiratory specimens - sputum, BAL - very sensitive in HIV (97% vs 50-60% HIV -)
PCR - blood, sputum, BAL - especially useful in HIV - (Sensitivity up to 100% but 20% of normal population colonized)
Beta D Glucan (serum) sensitive in HIV (BHIVA 2024)

924
Q

Treatment of PJP

A

Septra x 21 days, 15-20 mg/kg IV of TMP component
Alternatives: IV pentamidine, primaquine + clinda, atovaquone, dapsone + septra
Plus steroids

925
Q

Indications of treating with steroids

A

PaO2 <70 mmHg
A-a gradient >/35 mmHg
U2D: SpO2 <92%
Most effective within 72h of treatment initiation
Steroid Regimen (Classic)
Prednisone 40 mg BID days # 1-5.
Prednisone 40 mg daily days #6-11.
Prednisone 20 mg daily days #12-21.
Hg
U2D: SpO2 <92%

926
Q

Indications of PJP prophylaxis in HIV

A

CD4 <200 (continue until >200 for >3 months)
CD4 <14%

927
Q

Options for PJP prophylaxis

A

Septra SS, DS
Pentamidine
Dapsone
Atovaquone

928
Q

Risk factors for invasive candidal infection

A

Neutropenia
Immunosuppression
Broad spectrum abx use
Necrotizing pancreatitis
TPN
CVC
Intra abdominal surgical procedures

929
Q

Risk factors for mucormycosis

A

Diabetes, especially DKA
Iron overload, deferoxamine tx
Hematological malignancies, HSCT, SOT
Glucocorticoid treatment
COVID-19 pneumonia
neutropenia

930
Q

Imaging findings of mucormycosis

A

Like IPA
More pleural effusion

931
Q

Diagnosis of mucormycosis

A

Culture (usually negative)
Histopathology*

932
Q

Treatment of mucormycosis

A

Liposomal Amphotericin B
Surgical debridement
IV isavuconazole and IV/PO posaconazole also now recommended as an alternative first line.

933
Q

Risk factors for the development of nocardia

A

HIV CD4<100
SOT, especially lung
- High steroids independent RF
- High CNI levels independent RF
- CMV in last 6 months independent RF
Long term steroids, other IST
Lymphoma
PAP
COPD, bronchiectasis

934
Q

Extra pulmonary manifestations of nocardia

A

Brain - abscess, meningitis
Skin - abscess
Bone
Muscle

935
Q

Imaging findings of nocardi

A

Nodule
LN rare

936
Q

Teatment of nocardia

A

Septra
Imipenem
Cephalosporins 3rd generation
Amikacin

937
Q

Treatment duration for nocardia

A

6-12 months normally
12 months at least if immunosuppressed

938
Q

Compare and Contrast Nocardiosis and Actinomycosis

939
Q

Treatment of Nocardiosis

A
  • Mild or moderate pulmonary disease septra x 6-12 months
  • Severe:
    ** Septra IV + amkacin 7.5mg/kg
    ** OR Imipenem + Amikacin
  • IV therapy if required is for at least 6 weeks then PO for 6-12 months
    ** Po options include Septra +/- either minocylcine or amox clav.
940
Q

Treatment of Actinomycosis

A
  • Mild-Moderate
    ** Oral pen V 2-4g divided into q6 dosing
    ** Alternative: amoxicillin or Amox clav.
  • Severe: IV peng G 10-20million units divided into q6h dosing
    ** CTX is alternative
  • Duration:
    ** mild -Moderate 2-6 months
    ** SeverE: 6-12 months
941
Q

Causes of unilateral hyperlucent lung

A

Poland syndrome (a congenital unilateral absence of the pectoralis major and minor muscles and is a recognized cause of unilateral hyperlucent hemithorax)
Mastectomy
Pneumothorax
Pulmonary embolism - Westermark
Vascular pruning
Swyer james mcleod syndrome ( unilateral hemithorax lucency as a result of postinfectious obliterative bronchiolitis often adenovirus or mycoplasma pneumoniae)
Congenital lobar emphysema
CPAM
Giant bullous disease
Pneumatocele
Pneumonectomy

942
Q

Imaging features of bronchial atresia

A

LUL predominantly
Mucous filled atretic bronchial stump
Hyperlucent lung due to hyperinflation of distal lung (Pores of Kohn)
Bronchial atresia is a developmental anomaly characterized by focal obliteration of the proximal segment of a bronchus associated with hyperinflation of the distal lung.

943
Q

Imaging features of CLE (Congenital lobar Emphysema)

A

Unilateral hyperlucent lung
Larger affected lung
Decreased vascularity
Contralateral mediastinal shift

944
Q

Complications of CLE( Congenital Lobar Emphysema)

A

Recurrent pneumonia
Cyanosis
Failure to thrive

945
Q

Imaging features of CPAM(Congenital pulmonary airway malformation)

A

Type 1 (Most common 70% ) and 4 -1 or 2 large cysts - associated with malignancy
Type 2 - numerous cysts, appears bubbly (I found small mixed solid/cystic lesions with 90% associated to bronchial atresia)
Type 3 - large, solid homogeneous mass (numerous small cysts solid or mixed)
Technically there is a Type 0 but though are very rare and are lethal at birth

946
Q

Indications for treatment of CPAM

A

Symptomatic

Asymptomatic but:
- >20% hemithorax
- Concern for malignancy
- Frequent complications

947
Q

Difference between CPAM and Bronchopulmonary sequestration?

A

BPS has no connection to the tracheobornchial tree and receives its blood supply from systemic ciculation vs. CPAM gets its blood supply via pulmonary circulation

948
Q

Imaging features of ILS (intralobar sequestration) and ELS (extralobar sequestration)

A

Predominantly LLL
Dense mass, sometimes with cystic areas
Feeding vessel

949
Q

Differences between intralobar and extralobar sequestration

A

Epidemiology (ILS 1:1 ; ELS Male 3: 1)
Blood supply ( both from systemic circulation but ILS drains to pulmonary veins and ELS to systemic and is fed from smaller vessels)
Location (ILS 60% left base ELS 90% Left with most associated with posterioro congenital diaphramatic hernia)
Pleural supply
Connection with tracheobronchial tree (ILS has no connection directly but may have bronchopulmonary foregute malformation, ELS does not)
Clinical presentation (ILS most likely infections, ELS is asymptomatic through life)

950
Q

Surgical indications for pulmonary sequestration

A

Symptomatic
Complications
>/20% of the hemithorax
Characteristics concerning for malignancy/pleuropulmonary blastoma

951
Q

Imaging abnormalities in Scimitar syndrome

A

Anomalous pulmonary venous return - (tubular structure)*
Right lung hypoplasia*
Pulmonary artery hypoplasia*
Ipsilateral mediastinal shift
Dextroposition
Pulmonary sequestration

952
Q

Causes of tracheobronchomalacia

A

Previous prolonged intubation
Previous tracheostomy
Previous surgery e.g. lung transplantation
Marfan’s syndrome, Ehlers danlos syndrome, scoliosis, pectus excavatum
Relapsing polychondritis, other autoimmune conditions
Chronic inflammation e.g. CF, bronchiectasis
Recurrent infections e.g. bronchitis
Multinodular goiter, malignant or benign lesions of neck and mediastinum
COPD, asthma, obesity

953
Q

Diagnostic criteria for tracheobronchomalacia

A

Non contrast dynamic CT and bronchoscopy (gold)
<70% normal, 70-80 mild, 80-90 moderate, >90% severe

954
Q

Treatment for tracheobronchomalacia

A

Treat underlying cause
PAP therapy
Airway clearance techniques
Stent trial → tracheobronchoplasty (really just focal and proximal tracheobronchial malacia)

955
Q

Diagnostic criteria for tracheobronchomegaly

A

Trachea >3 cm
RMS > 2.4 cm
LMS >2.3 cm

956
Q

Causes of tracheal and subglottic stenosis

A

Congenital and idiopathic
Previous intubation
Previous tracheostomy
Previous surgery e.g. lung transplantation
Inflammatory e.g. relapsing polychondritis, vasculitis, sarcoidosis, IgG4 disease, Ra, SLE, amyloidosis
Infectious e.g. tuberculosis, fungal, bacterial
Malignancy
Radiation

957
Q

Management of tracheal stenosis

A

Treat underlying cause
Balloon dilatation
Laser cautery
Stenting
Surgical

958
Q

Causes of tracheal thickening

A
  • Post intubation, post trauma, post surgery
  • Malignancy e.g. SCAMM ( da fuq? But squamous cell carcinoma is most common) - maybe they meant it as an acronym… )
    • Squamous cell carcinoma
    • Chondrosarcoma
    • Carcinoid tumour
    • Adenoid cystic carcinoma
    • Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
    • Metastatic disease
  • Infectious - e.g. TB
  • Inflammatory - e.g. RP, GPA, amyloidosis, sarcoidosis
  • Other - e.g. TBM, TBP OCP
959
Q

Causes of thickening spare the posterior membrane

A

TBM
TBPOCP (tracheobronchopathia osteochondroplastica - nodules of cartilage or bone in the submucosa along the tracheal rings)
Relapsing polychondritis (inflammation of cartilage in the body)

960
Q

Benign causes of tracheal masses

A

Chondroma ( slow growing made of cartilage)
Leiomyoma (fibroid, smooth muscle tumor)
Lipoma
Amyloidoma
Squamous cell papilloma
Hamartoma
Hemangioma
Tracheobronchomalacia osteochondroplastica -Nodules of cartilage or bone in the submucosa along the tracheal rings)

961
Q

Malignant causes of tracheal masses

A

Squamous cell carcinoma
Chondrosarcoma
Carcinoid tumour
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Metastatic disease
SCCAMM

962
Q

Differential diagnosis for mediastinal masses

A

Anterior
- Teratoma
- Thymoma and other thymic tumors
- Thyroid - goiter, malignancy
- Terrible lymphoma

Middle - 3A’s
- Adenopathy - lymphoma, sarcoid, silicosis, castleman’s, meds, infxn
- Aneurysms - aortic aneurysm, fistulas
- Anomalies - bronchogenic cyst
- Other - lipomatosis, lymphangiomas, hernias

Posterior
- Neural tumors e.g. Schwannoma, neuroblastoma
- Esophageal process e.g. mass, diverticula
- Descending aortic aneurysm
- Extramedullary hematopoiesis
- Bochdalek hernia

963
Q

Blood work in the assessment of teratoma

A

Beta HCG
AFP
LDH

964
Q

Examples of thymic tumors

A

Thymoma
Thymic carcinoma
Thymic lymphoma
Thymic neuroendocrine (carcinoid tumour)
Thymolipoma

965
Q

Differentiate a seminoma GCT vs nonseminoma GCT

A

Beta HCG is high, AFP normal in seminoma
Both high in non seminoma

966
Q

Complications associated with fibrosing mediastinitis

A

Atelectasis & Recurrent infections, dyspnea, cough
SVC syndrome
Pulmonary hypertension
Dysphagia
Phrenic nerve paralysis

967
Q

Causes of congenital hernias

A

Morgagni hernia (Anterior, asymptomatic)
Bochdalek hernia (More common, posterolateral, can cause newborn symptoms due to lung hypoplasia) - “Bochdalek is Back”

968
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of relapsing polychondritis

A

Tracheobronchomalacia
Tracheal stenosis
Subglottic stenosis
Tracheal thickening
These can cause OSA, post obstructive PNA

969
Q

Contraindications & complications for:

A

Thoracentesis
Chest tube insertion
Bronchoscopy
Transbronchial biopsies
Surgical lung biopsies

970
Q

Management of anticoagulation

A

Warfarin x 5 days, INR <1.5
DOAC 24-48 hours
LMWH x 24 hours, 6 hours if DVTp
Plavix , prasugrel x 5-7? days
Ticagrelor x 7 days
Dipyridamol x 24 hours
Platelet count >50K

971
Q

In what conditions is bridging required?

972
Q

Complications of suction

A

Increased RPO
Increased pneumothorax
Increased hemothorax
Increased pain

973
Q

Causes of hypoxemia post thoracentesis

A

RPO
Pneumothorax
Hemothorax
V/Q mismatch immediately post

974
Q

Risk factors for RPO following thoracentesis

A

Age <40
Large volume removed >1.5L ( GRAVITAS study says no)
Pressure <-20 cm H2O
Duration of collapse >72 hours
Size of pneumothorax
Diabetes

975
Q

Indications for large bore chest tube insertion

A

Pneumothorax not responding to chest tube
Pneumothorax on mechanical ventilation
Trauma patient
Hemothorax
Required for talc pleurodesis

976
Q

Microorganisms may not be pathogenic on BAL

A

NTM
Aspergillus
Candida
Cryptococcus
CMV, HSV

977
Q

Microorganisms are always pathogenic on BAL

A

Legionella
Endemic fungi
Tuberculosis
PJP
Influenza, RSV

978
Q

Diagnoses can be made with TBBx

A

Sarcoidosis
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Pneumoconiosis
Lymphangitic carcinomatosis
Tuberculosis
CMV pneumonitis
Lung transplant rejection

979
Q

Maximum dose of lidocaine that should be used during bronchoscopy

A

5 mL/kg without epinephrine
7 mg/kg with epinephrine

980
Q

Respiratory changes that occur during pregnancy

A

No change: VC, RR, lung compliance, resistance
Increase: MV, tidal volume, VO2 max, PaO2
Decrease: TLC, FRC, ERV, RV, total respiratory compliance, PaCO2

981
Q

What is the difference on PFTs between Pregnancy and Obesity?

A

In pregnancy RV will be decreased and will be increased/same in obesity

982
Q

Cardiovascular changes that occur during pregnancy

A

SVR decreases, PVR decreases - BP decreases
SV increases, HR increases, CO increases
Increased blood volume

983
Q

Acceptable upper limit in pregnancy for radiation

A

<50 milligrays or <50 mSv
<5 rad

984
Q

DDX for dyspnea in pregnancy

A

Physiological dyspnea in pregnancy
Peripartum cardiomyopathy
Tocolytic pulmonary edema
Asthma
Pulmonary embolism
Amniotic fluid embolism
Venous air embolism
PAVM growth
Obstructive sleep apnea

985
Q

PE/DVT treatment in pregnancy

A

LMWH
Warfarin and DOAC contraindicated
At least 3 months + 6 weeks postpartum

986
Q

Antibiotics that are contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Fluoroquinolones
Aminoglycosides
Septra, sulfa drugs
Tetracyclines

987
Q

Changes that occur at high altitude

A

Hyperventilation
Increased HR and CO
Hypoxic vasoconstriction
Renal compensation, bicarbonate secretion
Polycythemia
Muscle changes - increase vascularity, increase myoglobin concentration, decrease in muscle fiber size
2,3 DPG shifts the oxygen curve
RV hypertrophy
Blunted response to acute hypoxemia

988
Q

Associated complications with high altitude

A

Acute mountain sickness
High altitude pulmonary edema
High altitude cerebral edema
Periodic breathing of altitude

989
Q

Methods of assessing hypoxia at altitude

A

Normobaric hypoxic challenge
Hypobaric hypoxic challenge
Predictive equations
Walk test and SpO2
Hypoxic Challenge test

990
Q

Indications for a HAST test (High altitude Simulation Test)Hypoxic challenge Test

A

The obstructive algorithm, if at risk for hypercapnia
The restrictive algorithm, if either PaO2 <70 OR TLC <50%
CF FEV1<50% predicted
Severe asthma
NMD or chest wall weakness FVC <1L
Baseline hypercapnia or risk of hypercapnia

991
Q

Who does not require a HCT (Hypoxic challenge Test) BTS 2022

A

Stable disease previously underwent an HCT without exacerbation/change in treatment
COPD with baseline SpO2 >95% and EITHER
* MRC 1-2
* Desat to no less than 84% during 6MWT or SWT
Previous intolerance to air travel/have had an inflight emergency (should have 2L/min provided as long as no hypercapnia
Preterm infants as they should have 1-2 L prn

992
Q

Indications for HCT (Hypoxic challenge Test) BTS 2022

A

COPD with resing SpO2 <95%, MRC score 3 or greater, or desat <84% on 6MWT or SWT and hypercapnia
Infants with neonatal resp problems
Severe asthma with persistent symptoms
ILD with SpO2 <95% on exercise or PaO2 <9.42kPa or whose TLCO is <50%.
Severe respiratory muscle weakness or chest wall deformity in whom FVC<1L
Hypercapnia and at risk of hypercapnia including on meds that are high risk
Anyone with type 2 resp failure on home O2.

993
Q

Obstructive Lung Disease HCT Testing.

994
Q

Restrictive lung disease HCT testing

A

Note kPa of 9.42 is ~ 70mmHg.

995
Q

What is a hypoxic challenge test and possible outcomes?

A

Inspire 15% oxygen (estimate 8000 feet) for 20 min checking sats or ABG
ABG pO2 falls below 50 or O2sat <85%

996
Q

When is flying not recommended based on the HAST test?

A

pH falls <7.35
pCO2 increases by 7.5from baseline (1kPa)

997
Q

How soon after EBUS/Pneumothorax/PE should you fly?

A

If a procedure was done (EBUS, TBBx, etc)
* Always get opinion from interventionist.
* Wait 1 week post procedure or if pneumo 1 week post resolution on CT
* Note limited evidence but apparently trapped lungs are fine to travel with.
If PE/DVT
* Wait 2 weeks after diagnosis

998
Q

Flying with PH

A

NYHA WHO class 3 or 4 should have O2 (2L/min if no hypercapnia)
If on O2 should double it for the flight if no hypercapnia.

999
Q

Contraindication to flying?

A

Untreated pneumothorax or not out of time frame
Untreated respiratory failure
Active infection with risk to others w.g. COVID, TB
Bronchogenic cysts (Can cause cerebral air embolism after rupture)
Type 2 respiratory failure
Baseline O2 >4L (old, not really anymore?)

1000
Q

DDX of symptoms during descent

A

Barotrauma of descent
Nitrogen narcosis
Immersion pulmonary edema

1001
Q

DDX of symptoms during ascent

A

Barotrauma of ascent
Decompression sickness
Arterial air embolism

1002
Q

Mechanism of barotrauma on descent vs ascent

A

Descent - lung squeeze below RV, pulmonary edema and hemorrhage
Ascent - overinflation and possible rupture (have to exhale) → PNTX, pneumomediastinum, subcutaneous emphysema, air embolism

1003
Q

Complications of barotrauma

A

Non cardiogenic pulmonary edema
PNTX
Pneumomediastinum
Arterial gas embolism
Ear trauma
Sinus barotrauma
Dental barotrauma

1004
Q

Timeline of symptoms of decompression sickness

A

Upon surfacing
Can be delayed up to 24 hours

1005
Q

Risk factors for decompression sickness

A

Ascension to fast
Time of dive
Depth of dive (rare <10 m )
Air travel and altitude within 12 hours
Right to left shunt

1006
Q

DDx of complications while surfacing

A

Decompression sickness
Barotrauma of ascent - expanding pneumothorax or pneumomediastinum
Shallow water blackout(hyperventilation lowers Co2 prior to diving, during breath hold O2 drops, because Co2 is rising but starting at a lower point it never reaches a threshold to cause an inspiration and person loses consciousness seconcdary to hypoxemia, then person draws a breath breathing in water and drowning)

1007
Q

Diagnostic criteria of EIB

A

Reduction in FEV1 by >/10% within 30 minutes of exercise
Can use cycle ergometer or treadmill

1008
Q

Indications for EIB

A

Diagnosis of EIB
Assessment of management
Assessing fitness for scuba diving

1009
Q

Contraindications for EIB

A

FEV1 <75% predicted
Stroke or MI in the last 3 months
Uncontrolled hypertension
Aortic aneurysm
Recent eye surgery or ICP elevation risk

1010
Q

Procedure for EIB

A

2-4 mins ramp up → rapid needed, otherwise dampens response
4-6 mins at exercise target
60% MVV (preferred), 80-90% maximum HR

1011
Q

Causes of a false negative EIB

A

Exercise in last 4 hours
Took asthma medications
Took antihistamines in last 48 hours
Warm up too long, didn’t reach in 4 mins
Exercised for too long
Didn’t reach max exercise

1012
Q

Management of EIB

A

Treatment:SABA
Prevention: SABA before exercise, +/- mast cell stabilizing agent and SAMA
If using above daily or more: Controller therapy: 1) Daily ICS +/- 2) LABA, 3) LTRA

1013
Q

Samter’s triad

A

Chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyposis
Asthma
NSAID/ASA intolerance

1014
Q

Pathogenesis of AERD

A

NSAIDs that preferentially block COX-1 enzyme
Arachidonic acid metabolized through lipoxygenase pathway
Increased leukotrienes, cause bronchoconstriction

1015
Q

Management of AERD

A

Maintenance ICS
Add on LTRA
Nasal polyp surgery, intranasal steroids
ASA desensitization
Dupilumab

1016
Q

Indications for ASA desensitization in AERD

A

NSAID for another disease
Recurrent nasal polyps recurring after surgery

1017
Q

Risk factors for development of asthma

A

Personal history of atopy
Family history of asthma
Low birth weight, premature , IUGR
Maternal smoking
Pollution exposure - vehicle emissions, industrial waste
Allergen exposure - dust mites, mold, cockroaches, pet dander, mice
LTRIs

1018
Q

Roles of the different TH2 mediators

A

IL-5: maturation of eosinophils
IL-4: IgE production by cells
IL-13: mucous production, hyperresponsiveness, eos recruitment
IgE: mast cell degranulation
TSLP: downstream signaling

1019
Q

Symptoms that support a diagnosis of asthma

A

Variable symptoms and intensity
Worse at night, upon awakening or after viral infections
Often triggered by exercise, allergens, cold air or laughing

1020
Q

Severity of methacholine response

1021
Q

Contra-indications to methacholine challenge test?

A

Relative:
* Pregnancy and nursing mothers. No studies on association with fetal abnormalities/reproductive capacity and no known whether it is excreted in breast milk.
* Current use of cholinesterase inhibitor medication (for MG or PD)

1022
Q

Definition of Asthma severity CTS 2021.

1023
Q

Difference between difficult to treat asthma and Severe Asthma.

A
  • Difficult to treat Asthma:
  • Uncontrolled Symptoms and or exacerbations despite medium or high dose ICS/LABA or maintenance OCS. May still be issues with inhaler technique, poor adherence, smoking or comorbidities, or improper diagnosis
  • Severe Asthma:
  • Uncontrolled despite adherence with maximal optimized high dose ICS/LABA and all contributing factors or if high dose treatment is decreased.
1024
Q

When to hold medication prior to methacholine challenge.

1025
Q

Comorbidities that should be assessed for at every visit

A

Elevated BMI
OSA
GERD
Rhinosinusitis, post nasal drip
Anxiety, depression

1026
Q

Asthma control criteria CTS

A

Daytime symptoms </2/week
Night time symptoms <1 week and mild
Use of rescue SABA </2/week
Exacerbations are infrequent and mild
Physical activity level maintained/normal
No absences from work or school due to asthma
No missed work or hospitalizations
PEF and FEV1 >/90% personal best
PEF variability <10-15%
Sputum eosinophils <2-3%

1027
Q

Severity of asthma exacerbations

A

Mild: just change in bronchodilators
Severe: Systemic steroids, ED or hospitalization required
Near fatal: required ICU, mechanical ventilation, respiratory acidosis

1028
Q

Risk factors for severe asthma exacerbation

A

Current smoker (studies on tobacco, but others considered)
SABA use >2 canisters/year
Hx of severe exacerbation
Poorly controlled
FEV1 <70%
Older age
Female
Elevated BMi
Depression, anxiety
Others as per GINA: comorbidities (GERD, OSA etc), elevated blood eos

1029
Q

Risk factors for near fatal asthma exacerbation

A

History of near fatal asthma
History of severe asthma
Hx recurrent ED or hospitalizations in the last year
Non adherence
Missed appointments
Depression, anxiety
Substance use
Elevated BMI

1030
Q

Management options and their benefits in Asthma

A

Action plan - exacerbations
Inhaled steroids - symptoms/QOL, lung function, exacerbation, mortality
LABA - symptoms, lung function, exacerbation, need for reliever
LAMA - lung function, exacerbation (but increased if monotherapy)
LTRA - symptoms, lung function, exacerbation, need for reliever
Azithromycin - symptoms, exacerbations
Biologics
Bronchial thermoplasty - exacerbations (increased in first 3 months), not sx or fxn
Oral steroids

1031
Q

Dose and appropriate phenotype for azithromycin therapy in Asthma

A

500 mg oral 3/week
Inflammatory phenotype does not predict response

1032
Q

Indications/requirements for bronchial thermoplasty

A

Poor control despite max medical therapy
FEV1 > /60%
Non smoker >/1 year
No hx life threatening exacerbation
<3 hospitalization in last 12 months

1033
Q

Complications of bronchial thermoplasty

A

Increase exacerbation x 3 months
Atelectasis
Pneumonia

1034
Q

Benefits of aerochambers

A

Reduce oropharyngeal deposition and side effects
Improve pulmonary deposition and benefits
Make actuation coordination easier

1035
Q

Rating severity of asthma

A

Severe = high dose steroids + second controller OR oral steroids for >/50% of the year to keep asthma controlled or uncontrolled despite this

1036
Q

Definition of uncontrolled asthma - One of:

A

Poor control - control criteria, or ACQ >/1.5
Frequent exacerbations (>/2 per year) requiring OCS (>/3 days)
Serious exacerbations (>/1 per year) requiring hospitalizations, ICU, MV in the last year
Airflow limitation <80% personal best

1037
Q

Etiology of uncontrolled asthma

A

Non adherence
Inhalation technique
Exposures
Comorbidities e.g. GERD, OSA, PND, etc.
Alternative diagnosis
Severe asthma

1038
Q

Investigation of severe asthma

A

Rhinosinusitis - tx, CT sinus, ENT referral
GERD - 24 hour PH monitoring
OSA - PSG
Psychiatric - referral
EGPA - ANCA
ABPA - IgE, RAST, eos
VCD - ENT
Bronchiectasis - CT chest, CF testing, IGAM, sputum culture

1039
Q

Biomarkers in TH2 inflammation and their cut offs

A

FENO >/25 ppb
Sputum eosinophils >2%
Serum eosinophils >/150
Asthma allergen driven clinically

1040
Q

Role of FENO?

A

Etiology of respiratory symptoms -?inflammatory
Predict response to steroids or inhaled steroids
Monitor response
Guide management - step up, step down
Evaluate adherence

1041
Q

What is considered a significant increase or decrease in FENO?

A

Baseline over 50 ppb: >20% increase, >20% decrease
Baseline less than 50 ppb: >10 ppb increase, >10 ppb decrease

1042
Q

Causes of increased FENO

A

Atopic asthma
Atopy, allergic rhinitis, eczema
Eosinophilic bronchitis
COPD with mixed inflammatory phenotype
Viral infections
Acute/chronic rejection of lung including BO

1043
Q

Causes of decreased FENO

A

Smokers
LTRA
Rhinosinusitis
Non eosinophilic asthma
RADS
VCD
COPD
Bronchiectasis, CF

1044
Q

Benefits of biologic therapy in Asthma?

A

Improve symptoms
Improve FEV1
Reduce exacerbations
Reduce OCS - mainly mepo, benra, dupi; resi in post analysis, ?oma

1045
Q

Notable side effects of biologic therapy in Asthma?

A

Injection site pain and reaction, nasopharyngitis, headaches
Omalizumab - anaphylaxis
Dupilumab - hypereosinophilia (do not give if baseline >1.5)
Tezepelumab - anaphylaxis

1046
Q

Treatment options for NONtype 2 asthma

A

LAMA
Azithromycin
Anti-TSLP
Bronchial thermoplasty
(paucigranulocytic asthma)

1047
Q

When to hold medication prior to methacholine challenge.

1048
Q

Treatment of asthma exacerbation

A

All → SABA, steroids

Additional to consider:
SAMA
IV magnesium
High dose ICS
BPAP
HFNC if cannot tolerate BPAP
IV epinephrine - if anaphylaxis or angioedema component
Ketamine - acts as anxiolytic
Heliox if component of upper airway obstruction

1049
Q

Steroid equivalents in asthma CTS.

1050
Q

Diagnostic criteria for RADS(irritant induced asthma)

A

Consistent history (acute exposure preceding symptoms, no sx before)
Airflow obstruction on PFT, non specific bronchial hyperresponsiveness
Symptoms arise within 24 hours
Symptoms last at least 3 months
Exclusion of other causes

1051
Q

Causative agents for irritant induced asthma

A

Chlorine
Oxides of nitrogen
Acetic acid
Sulfur dioxide
Isocyanates

1052
Q

RFs for developing sensitizer induced OA

A

RFs for developing sensitizer induced OA
Atopy
Higher level of exposure
More frequent exposure
Cigarette smoking

1053
Q

Causes of sensitizer induced OA

A

LMW: isocyanates (polyurethane worker, insulation installer, spray painter), dyes and bleaches (hairdressers), wood dust (carpenter), metal salt (metal plating)
HMW: flour dust (baker), animal protein antigens e.g. murine urine (veterinarian, farmer) & shellfish (fish processing), natural rubber latex protein (HCW)

1054
Q

Extrapulmonary symptoms of sensitizer induced OA

A

Rhinitis
Urticaria, rash

1055
Q

Investigations to confirm the diagnosis of occupational asthma

A

PEF - best validated method - variability >/20%*
NSBHR - less sensitive and specific - > 3.2 fold* (NON-SPECIFIC BRONCHIAL HYPERRESPONSIVENESS)
Specific inhalation challenge test - FEV1 drop by >/15%*
Sputum eosinophils - increase by >1-2%
Spirometry - less sensitive and specific

1056
Q

Once occupational asthma is confirmed, how do we find out the causative agent?

A

IgE like RAST testing
Specific inhalation challenge test

1057
Q

Stages of change for smoking cessation

A

Pre contemplative
Contemplative
Preparation
Action
Maintenance

1058
Q

5A’s of smoking cessation

A

Assess
Advise
Ask
Assist
Arrange

1059
Q

Side effects of smoking cessation

A

Change in mood
Weight gain
Increased sputum production

1060
Q

Benefits of smoking cessation

A

Rate of FEV1 decline normalizes
Normal MI risk by 1 year
½ cancer risk by 10 years
½ risk of dying in next 15 years

1061
Q

Impact of smoking on fetus

A

IUGR
Premature birth
Low birth weight
SIDS
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

1062
Q

Success rate of quitting with and without aid cessation

A

5% without
30% with

1063
Q

Side effects of cessation aids

A

NRT: Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, insomnia, vivid dreams, local irritation, hypersensitivity
Varenicline: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, bizarre dreams, sleep walking, insomnia
Bupropion: decreased seizure threshold, suicidal or homicidal ideation, psychosis, mania or hypomania

1064
Q

Contraindications of the cessation aids

A

NRT: recent ACS or stroke (<2 weeks), uncontrolled BP
Varenicline: kidney disease, hypersensitivity
Bupropion: <18 (suicidality), seizure disorder, AN/BN, on MAOI, on wellbutrin, hypersensitivity, discontinuation of BZD, alcohol (things that lower seizure threshold)

1065
Q

RF for COPD development

A

Men
Cigarette smoking (in utero, passive, active), cannabis, vaping
Air pollution, biomass fuel burning
Occupational exposures e.g. coal, pesticides
HIV, childhood infections
Genetics e.g SERPINA
Early life lung insults, low birth weight

1066
Q

Comorbidities that are associated with COPD

A

Lung cancer
Cardiovascular disease
Skeletal muscle dysfunction
Osteoporosis
Anxiety, depression

1067
Q

JAMA physical examination findings with the highest LRs for COPD

A

Wheezing
Barrel chest
Decreased cardiac dullness

1068
Q

Physiological causes of exercise limitation in COPD

A

Hypoxemia - V/Q mismatch
Hypercapnia - DH, reached MVV
Increased WOB - due to mechanics
Muscle deconditioning
Cardiac deconditioning, decreased preload for DH

1069
Q

Measures of exercise tolerance?

A

6MWT
ISWT, ESWT
CPET

1070
Q

Measures of health status

A

CRQ Chronic Respiratory Disease Questionnaire) Evaluated physical functional and emotional
CAT
SGRQ (St. George Respiratory Questionnaire)
CCQ (Clinical COPD Questionnaire)

1071
Q

Prognostic factors in COPD

A

BMI </21
Severity of obstruction/FEV1
Dyspnea level/mMRC
6MWD
Concomitant hypoxemia requiring O2
Concomitant hypercapnia requiring NIV
Concomitant pulmonary hypertension, CPFE
Male, older, smoker

1072
Q

What can the BODE score be used to?

A

Referral and listing for transplant
Predictor of mortality

1073
Q

Survival associated with BODE scores (4 year survival) and its components

A

BMI:
Obstruction (FEV1):
Dyspnea (mMRC)
Exertion Capacity (6MWT)

0-2: 80%
3-4: 70%
5-6: 60%
7-10: 20%

1074
Q

Recommended vaccinations for patients with COPD

A

Influenza annually
Pneumococcal
COVID-19 as per public health
Pertussis if have not had in adulthood
Shingles >/50
RSV (If >60 OR chronic lung/cardiac condition)

1075
Q

What do we use to determine treatment in COPD?per CTS VS. GOLD

A

mMRC <2
CAT <10
FEV1>/80% predicted
Risk of future exacerbations (CTS: High Risk of AECOPD” if ≥ 2 moderate AECOPD or ≥ 1 severe exacerbation in the last year (severe AECOPD is an event requiring hospitalization or ED visit))

1076
Q

How is the risk of AECOPD determined?

A

Low: </1 moderate exacerbation in the last year
High: >/2 moderate exacerbations in the last year, >/1 severe

1077
Q

What is moderate vs severe exacerbation in COPD?

A

Mild: only change in short acting bronchodilators
Moderate: required steroids or abx
Severe: required ED visit or hospitalization

1078
Q

Benefits of inhaler therapies

A

Improve dyspnea
Improve health status
Improve exercise tolerance
+/- Reduce risk of exacerbation
+/- improve mortality

1079
Q

When is stepping down COPD bronchodilators NOT appropriate?

A

Moderate-high symptom burden
High risk of exacerbation
Eos >300

1080
Q

Indications that strongly favour ICS (as per GOLD)

A

> /2 moderate exacerbations for AECOPD
ED visit or hospitalization for AECOPD
History of concomitant asthma
Blood eosinophils >/300

1081
Q

ICS not strongly favoured (as per GOLD)

A

Eosinophils <100
Recurrent pneumonias
Hx of NTM disease

1082
Q

Indications for oral therapies in COPD

A

Symptomatic, high risk AECOPD group
Exacerbate despite triple therapy
+ chronic bronchitis phenotype for 2 of them

1083
Q

Benefits of oral therapies in COPD

A

Decrease exacerbation

1084
Q

Treatments that improve exercise tolerance in COPD

A

Smoking cessation
Appropriate bronchodilators
Pulmonary rehabilitation
Supplemental O2 in those who qualify
LVRS in appropriate patients
Bullectomy in certain patients
Endoscopic procedures
Lung transplantation

1085
Q

Treatments that reduce the risk of exacerbation in COPD

A

Appropriate bronchodilators - dual and triple
Oral therapies as indicated
Case management AND education
Pulmonary rehabilitation within 4 weeks of AECOPD
Smoking cessation
Influenza vaccination

1086
Q

Treatments that reduce mortality in COPD

A

Smoking cessation
Triple therapy (SITT)
PR within 4 weeks of AECOPD
O2 in resting hypoxemia( PaO2 <55 or <60 with core pulmonale/evidence of elevated hgb)

NIV acutely, or chronic hypercapnia
LVRS in appropriate patients
?Transplant in some

1087
Q

Ways to manage dyspnea in COPD (CTS table)

A

Walking aids
Pursed lip breathing
Neuromuscular electrical muscle stimulation
Low dose opioids
Oxygen in resting hypoxemia

1088
Q

Possible intervention in the treatment of COPD

A

LVRS
Bullectomy
Endoscopic procedures
Lung transplant

1089
Q

Who would be eligible for LVRS?

A

Symptomatic from emphysema and not CB/asthma
Smoking cessation >4 months
Heterogeneous emphysema
Upper lobe predominant emphysema
TLC >/100%
RV >/150%
FEV </45%
6MWD >140 m

1090
Q

What are the contraindications to LVRS?

A

Comorbid disease with life expectancy <2 years
Severe CAD or other cardiac disorder
BMI >31
FEV1 </20% oro DLCO </20%
Homogeneous distribution of emphysema
Giant bullae >⅓ chest
Extensive pleural symphysis e.g. previous infection, pleurodesis
O2 >6L/min
PaCO2 >60 mmHg or PaO2 <45 on room air
PAP >/35 mmHg
Prednisone >20 mg oral daily

1091
Q

Benefits of LVRS

A

Dyspnea
HRQOL
Exercise tolerance
Lung function
Mortality in some → upper lobe emphysema, low baseline exercise tolerance

1092
Q

Indications for treatment of giant bullae

A

Symptomatic
Complications
>/30% of hemithorax

1093
Q

Risk factors for COPDE

A

Older age
Low FEV1 at baseline
Previous COPD exacerbations **
Eos >/300 **
Chronic mucous hypersecretion
Duration of COPD
Pulmonary HTN
GERD

1094
Q

Treatment of AECOPD

A

SABA, SAMA
Steroids 40 mg oral daily x 5 days - hasten recovery, reduce relapse, improve FEV1
Antibiotics if meet criteria - hasten recovery, reduce relapse
IV magnesium

1095
Q

Abx options for treatment AECOPD

A

Amoxi-clav
Fluoroquinolones
Macrolides
Tetracyclines e.g. doxycycline

1096
Q

Indications for NIV in AECOPD?

A

pH <7.35, PcO2 >/45
Worsening WOB
Persistent and refractory hypoxemia

1097
Q

Different allele variants in A1AT deficiency

A

Normal - M
Deficient - Z/S
Dysfunctional - F
Null

1098
Q

Genotypes that have the highest risk of A1AT (in order)

A

-/- (least common)
Z/Z
Z/S (if they smoke)
Z/M (if they smoke)

1099
Q

Indications to screen for A1AT

A

Age <65 OR
Pack year <20

1100
Q

Non pulmonary manifestations of A1AT

A

Transaminitis
Cirrhosis
HCC
Necrotizing panniculitis
GPA/ANCA vasculitis
Intracranial aneurysms
Fibromuscular dysplasia

1101
Q

Diagnosis of A1AT

A

Applicable genotype
A1AT level <11 mmol/L or 57 mg/dL (our units)

1102
Q

Indications for treatment of A1AT

A

AAT <11 umol/L or 57 mg/dL (our units)
FEV1 25-80%
On maximal pharmacological and non pharm therapy (including PR)
Have quit smoking - non-smokers or ex-smokers (nothing in guidelines, funding requires at least 6 months)

1103
Q

Benefits of augmentation therapy in A1AT

A

Improve lung density on CT
Improve FEV1
Improve mortality

1104
Q

Benefits of supplemental O2 therapy at rest in COPD

A

Mortality benefit in those that qualify
Improved dyspnea
Improved exercise tolerance
Improved physiological effect e.g. ?decreased PH

1105
Q

Benefits of supplemental therapy with ambulation in COPD

A

Improved HRQOL
Improved outdoor mobility
Not clear re: dyspnea, exercise capacity

1106
Q

3 types of patients with COPD that would benefit from O2

A

Resting hypoxemia
Resting hypoxemia and comorbidities listed
Patient planning for air travel if they meet criteria
?Ambulatory or exertional hypoxemia

1107
Q

Duration of PR programs

A

Minimum 8 weeks
Minimum 24 sessions, 16 should be supervised

1108
Q

Quality indicators of a PR program

A

Necessary HCP, and resources:
Cycle ergometer, treadmill, flat open space
Vital machines
Education material
Etc.

Baseline intake indicators:
Dyspnea
Health status
Exercise capacity
1 Repetition maximum

Aerobic exercise prescription
Strength training prescription
Exercise indicators
Monitoring indicators
Education and self management component
Post program

1109
Q

4 parameters that are needed for exercise prescription (aerobic)

A

Frequency - 3 sessions
Intensity - 60% VO2 max
Time - 20 mins each session
Type - aerobic - treadmill, free walking, stair climb, ergometer (NOT arm alone)

1110
Q

4 parameters that are needed for exercise prescription (strength)

A

Frequency - 2-3 times per week
Intensity - 60% of 1-RM
Time - 1-3 sets, 8-12 repetitions each
Type - weights, resistance bands

1111
Q

Minimum health outcomes that need to be measured before and after PR

A

Aerobic exercise endurance
Muscle function
Health status
Others case by case: psychological status, nutrition status, self efficacy, etc.

1112
Q

Indications for referral to PR

A

COPD - regardless of FEV1 or smoking status
ILD
PHTN

1113
Q

Proven benefits of PR

A

COPD - dyspnea, HRQOL, exercise capacity, social/physical fxn, reduce anxiety, depression, ??mortality
ILD - dyspnea, HRQOL, exercise capacity
PHTN - dyspnea, HRQOL, exercise capacity

1114
Q

Physiological benefits post PR for COPD

A

Improved VO2 max
Improved O2 pulse
Decrease in HR
Increased AT
Increased muscle mass
Decrease dynamic hyperinflation

1115
Q

Which post COVID patients are appropriate for PR referral?

A

New respiratory symptoms post COVID +
At least 1 of: new O2 requirements, persistent reticular/fibrotic changes on imaging, new and persistent restriction/obstruction/DLCO impairment on PFTs

1116
Q

Causes of eosinophilic lung diseases

A

Acute/chronic eosinophilic pneumonia
EGPA
HES
ABPA
Infections - parasites, fungal
Neoplastic - e.g. paraneoplastic
PLCH
Lung transplantation

1117
Q

Causes of AEP

A

Idiopathic
Smoking - new, increased uptake, different type
Inhalation drugs- cocaine, marijuana
Medications - daptomycin**, antidepressants
Occupational exposures
Infections - parasites, fungi

1118
Q

Imaging findings in eosinophilic pneumonia

A

Acute: diffuse, bilateral GGO, bronchovascular thickening, effusion, LN
Chronic: peripheral, bilateral GGO, upper lobe, migrating

1119
Q

Differences between AEP and CEP

A

Causes - allergic/atopic causes in chronic
Clinical manifestations - symptoms, timeline
Relapse - common chronic
Imaging
Peripheral eosinophils - seen in chronic
Both have elevated IgE
Both have BAL eos >25%
Both are treated with steroids

1120
Q

Diagnostic criteria for AEP

A

Acute onset, <30 days
Patchy infiltrates on CXR/CT
BAL eos >25%
Absence of other specific eosinophilic diseases
Diagnostic criteria for CEP is similar, except that timeline is 4-5 months and imaging is peripheral infiltrates

1121
Q

Diagnostic criteria of HES

A

HE + eosinophilic mediated damage + other causes excluded
HE: >1.5 on 2 occasions at least 1 month apart, and >20% (2024 says 10%) on BM, and extensive eos infiltration on pathology

1122
Q

How is surfactant produced?

A

Type II pneumocytes secrete surfactant
Surfactant is mix of proteins + lipids (mainly phosphatidylcholine)

1123
Q

Causes of PAP

A

Idiopathic

Primary:
Hereditary
Autoimmune

Secondary (HI/TII):
Infections e.g. nocardia, PJP, tuberculosis
Inhalation exposures e.g. silicosis, chlorine, bakery powder
Transplantation e.g. SOT, HSCT
Hematological malignancies e.g. MM, WM
Immunodeficiencies e.g. CVID

1124
Q

BAL findings in PAP

A

Cloudy
Foamy macrophages
Send for PAS stain on cytology → PAS+ macrophages on background of PAS material

1125
Q

Other investigations in PAP

A

Anti GM CSF antibodies
GM CSF serum levels
GM CSF receptor function
BAL
TBBx - not required for biopsy

1126
Q

Pathological findings of PAP

A

Normal alveolar structure
Lipo Proteinaceous material fills terminal bronchioles and alveoli
This material stains positive on PAS stain
If done, electron microscopy shows lamellar bodies

1127
Q

Treatment options for PAP

A

Anti GMCS replacement
Whole lung lavage
Treat secondary cause
Lung transplantation
Rituximab, PLEX - case reports

1128
Q

Indications for whole lung lavage

A

Definitive histological diagnosis +
PaO2 <65, or A-a >/40 or severe dyspnea/hypoxia at rest or exercise

1129
Q

Imaging findings and distribution of different cystic lung diseases

A

LAM = diffuse, random, small cysts
BHD = lentiform, paramediastinal, peripheral, subpleural
PLCH = bizarre shaped, upper lobe predominant, spare costophrenic angles, nodules/cavities
LIP = diffuse, random, GGO in between
Amyloid/LCDD = cysts varying sizes/shapes, nodules, cavitations, opacities lower lobes/subpleural

1130
Q

Special pathological tests for different cystic lung diseases

A

LAM = HMB-45 positive smooth muscle cells
PLCH = S100 and CD1 a positive langerhans cells, intracellular Birbeck granules
Amyloid = apple green birefringence by congo red stain
LCDD = kappa light chains lacking the above

1131
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of PLCH

A

Cystic lung disease
Group 5 HTN
Eosinophilic lung disease

1132
Q

Extrapulmonary manifestations of PLCH

A

Rash - brown papules
Lytic bone lesions
Central diabetes insipidus

1133
Q

Treatment of PLCH

A

Smoking cessation
Steroids in some
Chemotherapy in some
Transplantation

1134
Q

Extrapulmonary manifestations of BHD

A

Fibrofolliculomas
Skin tags
Renal tumors

1135
Q

Extraparenchymal manifestations of LAM

A

Angiofibromas
Leiomyoma
Angiomyolipoma
Lymphadenopathy
Pleural effusions
Meningiomas

1136
Q

Pathological features of LAM

A

Lung cysts
Smooth muscle-like cell (LAM cells) infiltration of parenchyma and lymphatics
Stain positive for HMB45, s.m. actin
Have ER/PR receptors
Express VEGFC/D

1137
Q

Diagnostic criteria for LAM → table

1138
Q

Differential diagnosis for cystic lung disease

1139
Q

Indications for treatment of LAM

A

FVC <70%

Case by case basis for those who:
Resting hypoxemia PaO2 <70
Exercise induced desaturation
RV >120%
DLCO <80%
Progression of disease (FVC loss >/90 cc per year
Heavy burden of cysts >30% of lungs
Chylous effusion
AML >4 cm

1140
Q

Benefits of mTOR inhibitor as per the MILES study in LAM(Sirolimus)

A

Improve symptoms
Improve QOL
Stabilize lung function
Reduce VEGFD

1141
Q

Management of complications of LAM

A

Pneumothorax:Pleurodesis after first episode, advised not to air travel x 1 month
Chylothorax: chest tubes, consider mTOR inhibitor
Angiomyolipoma: embolization, radiofrequency ablation, consider mTOR if >/4 cm

1142
Q

Screening investigations that are required in LAM

A

Abdominal CT for all
Brain MRI if symptoms, or increased risk (e.g progesterone)
Basically looking for evidence of TSC given that is more common

1143
Q

Secondary causes of LIP

A

Idiopathic
Connective tissue diseases
Immunodeficiency e.g. CVID
Infections e.g. HIV, tuberculosis
PAP

1144
Q

PFT findings in different bronchiolar disorders

A

Proliferative - restrictive
Obliterative - obstructive
Follicular - mixed, restrictive, obstructive
Diffuse panbronchiolitis - mixed, restrictive, obstructive

1145
Q

Imaging findings of different bronchiolar disorders

A

Proliferative: patchy airspace, migratory, reverse halo, with distribution subpleural/peripheral, peribronchovascular
Obliterative: mosaic attenuation, centrilobular nodules, gas trapping bronchial wall thickening, bronchiectasis
Follicular: centrilobular nodules, tree in bud
Diffuse panbronchiolitis: centrilobular nodules, tree in bud, bronchiectasis

1146
Q

3 features of COP on CT

A

Distribution peripheral, subpleural, migrating, peribronchovascular, bilat
GGO or consolidative alveolar opacities
Atoll sign (Reverse halo sign-more common with OP and less commonly fungal but mucormycosis most common of the fungal)

1147
Q

Diagnosis of bronchiolitis

A

Surgical lung bx
Post transplant BOS can be clinical

1148
Q

Pathological findings of bronchiolitis

A

Proliferative - intrabronchial polypoid protrusions (mason bodies)
Obliterative - Lymphocytic inflammation of submucosa, in growth of fibromyxoid granulation tissue into airway, obliteration of airway - extrinsic compression of bronchioles by fibroinflammatory process
Follicular: hyperplastic lymphoid tissue along bronchial walls that obliterate lumen
Diffuse panbronchiolitis: lymphoplasmacytic inflammation of bronchioles; infiltration with lipid laden foamy macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells

1149
Q

Causes of proliferative bronchiolitis/organizing pneumonia

A

Idiopathic
Immune deficiency
Inhalational injury
Infections e.g. COVID
Malignancy, chemotherapy, radiation
CTD
Medications
Aspiration
Post transplantation

1150
Q

Causes of obliterative bronchiolitis

A

Post allograft transplantation (HSCT, lung)
Inhalational injury e.g. silo, sulfur, silica, diacetyl
Infection
CTD, especially RA

1151
Q

Causes of follicular bronchiolitis

A

Idiopathic
CTD, especially Sjogren’s; RA, SLE
Infection e.g. TB, HIV
Immunodeficiency
Chronic inflammatory e.g. bronchiectasis, CF, asthma

1152
Q

Causes of diffuse panbronchiolitis

A

CTD e.g. RA
Ulcerative colitis
Lymphoma
Basically always nonsmokers in Japanese and Korean patients

1153
Q

Treatment of the bronchiolar disorders

A

Proliferative: steroids
Obliterative: depends on cause
Follicular: steroids
Diffuse panbronchiolitis: erythromycin, bronchodilators

1154
Q

Treatment of COP if not responding to steroids

A

Azathioprine
MMF
Obviously treat underlying cause

1155
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of immunodeficiency

A

GLILD
LIP
Follicular bronchiolitis
Bronchiectasis
Organizing pneumonia
PAP
Recurrent pneumonias

1156
Q

Non pulmonary manifestations of immunodeficiency

A

Granulomas in other organs
Non hodgkin’s lymphoma
Pernicious anemia
Thyroiditis

1157
Q

Imaging findings of GLILD

A

Hilar and mediastinal LN
Bronchiectasis
GG and solid nodular opacities

1158
Q

Malignancies at highest risk for Radiation Induced Lung Disease

A

Lung cancer
Mediastinal lymphoma
Breast cancer

1159
Q

RFs for development of radiation pneumonitis

A

Dose of radiation (usually >40, very rare <20)
Volume of lung irradiated (V20 >/30%)
Form of radiation e.g. SBRT lower risk
Fraction of radiation
Previous chemotherapy
Underlying lung disease e.g. ILD**, COPD
Concomitant chemotherapy
Female > male
Smoker
Older age

1160
Q

Phases of development of radiation pneumonitis

A

Initial = increased capillary permeability
Latent = increased goblet cells
Acute exudative = radiation pneumonitis = 1-3 months = epithelial cell sloughing, microvascular thrombosis, alveolar exudate and hyaline membranes
Intermediate = 3-6 months = resolution of hyaline membranes
Fibrosis = >6 months = fibrosis

1161
Q

Time line of radiation induced lung disease

A

Radiation pneumonitis - within 1-3 months
Radiation fibrosis - 6-12 months
Radiation recall pneumonitis - really anytime
* Pneumonitis in the same radiation field. Usually triggered by systemic treatment or infection.

1162
Q

Symptoms of radiation pneumonitis

A

Fever, malaise, weight loss
Dyspnea
Dry cough
Pleuritic chest pain

1163
Q

Imaging findings in radiation pneumonitis

A

GGO
Consolidation
Straight line pattern, radiation port edges
Small pleural effusion

1164
Q

Pathological findings of radiation pneumonitis

A

Epithelial and endothelial cell sloughing
Fibrin rich alveolar exudate
Hyaline membrane formation
Microvascular thrombosis

1165
Q

Lung diseases are associated with smoking

A

DIP
RB ILD
PLCH

1166
Q

Lung diseases that have smoking as a risk factor

A

IPAF
RA ILD

1167
Q

Lung diseases are actually less common in smokers

A

Sarcoidosis
HP

1168
Q

Other than smoking, causes of DIP

A

Idiopathic
Occupational exposures e.g. metal worker
Drug reactions
Autoimmune conditions

1169
Q

Imaging differences RB-ILD vs DIP

A

RB-ILD: centrilobular GGO nodules, upper lobe predominant, preserved lung volumes
DIP: GGO, +/- cysts, reticular opacities, lower lobe predominance

1170
Q

BAL findings RBILD vs DIP

A

RB-ILD: pigmented macrophages, unlikely to have other cells
DIP: pigmented macrophages, may have increased lymphs/eos/neuts

1171
Q

PFT RBILD vs DIP

A

RB-ILD: can be obstructive, restrictive or mixed
DIP: usually restrictive

1172
Q

Exogenous causes of lipoid pneumonia

A

E cigarettes
Mineral based laxatives
Petroleum jelly lubricants (used in tracheostomy care)
Nasal decongestants
Fire eaters

1173
Q

Endogenous causes of lipoid pneumonia

A

Bronchial obstruction
PAP
Lipid storage and metabolism disorders
Chronic inflammatory disorders e.g. CTD

1174
Q

Imaging findings of lipoid pneumonia

A

GGO or consolidation
Crazy paving pattern

1175
Q

BAL features of lipoid pneumonia

A

Lipid laden macrophages
Are detected by oil red O staining

1176
Q

Red flags for cough

A

Age - > 55 years old
Smoker, ex smoker
Hemoptysis
Dysphonia, dysphagia
Recurrent pneumonia
Prominent dyspnea
Systemic symptoms
Vomiting

1177
Q

How does albuterol cause lactic acidosis?

A

Type A lactic acidosis - hypoxic or hypoperfusion
Type B lactic acidosis - malignancies, drugs and inborn errors of metabolism
Albuterol, by creating hyperadrenergic state enhances glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, leading to more glucose, pyruvate production. Lipolysis and increased FFA inhibit pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme, so it doesn’t enter krebs cycle and is reduced to lactate

1178
Q

Absolute and relative contraindications to cardiopulmonary exercise testing

1179
Q

How would you predict the maximal HR for a CPET according to ERS? (M and F)

A

Male MaxHR =207-0.78(Age)
Female Max Hr=209-0.86(Age)

1180
Q

Indications for cessation of exercise termination in a CPET (ATS)

1181
Q

What defines a maximal test according to ERS 2019

1182
Q

What defines an abnormal exercise response ERS 2019 on CPET.

1183
Q

What is the cause of limitation based on ERS 2019 on CPETs?

1184
Q

What is the cause of limitation based on ATS on CPETs?

1185
Q

What are the four phases of general CPET protocols based on ERS 2019.

1186
Q

Difference on CPET between cycling and Treadmill (ATS2001)

1187
Q

Difference between fibrosing mediastinitis and mediastinal granuloma?

1188
Q

What is the triad of hepatopulmonary syndrome

A

Liver disease
Intrapulmonary vasodilation
Gas exchange abnormalities

1189
Q

Define and write the equation for oxygen content (CaO2)

A

Oxygen content — The arterial oxygen content (CaO2) is the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin plus the amount of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood:

CaO2 (mL O2/dL) = (1.34 x hemoglobin concentration x SaO2) + (0.0031 x PaO2)

where SaO2 is the arterial oxyhemoglobin saturation and PaO2 is the arterial oxygen tension

1190
Q

Define and write the equation for oxygen delivery (DO2)

A

Oxygen delivery — Oxygen delivery (DO2) is the rate at which oxygen is transported from the lungs to the microcirculation:

DO2 (mL/min) = Q x CaO2
where Q is the cardiac output.

1191
Q

Define and write the equation for oxygen consumption(VO2)

A

Oxygen consumption — Oxygen consumption (VO2) is the rate at which oxygen is removed from the blood for use by the tissues. It can be measured directly or calculated. Both approaches assume that all unused oxygen passes from the arterial to the venous circulation.
VO2 (mL O2/min) = Q x (CaO2 - CvO2)

1192
Q

What are important bacteria for those with reduced cell counts?

A

<200: PJP, endemic fungi, aspergillus, candida
<100: Toxoplasmosis
<50: MAC, CMV

1193
Q

Causes of pulmonary disease in HIV?

A

ILD - OP, NSIP, LIP
PAP
Emphysema
Bronchiectasis
Bronchiolitis - obliterative, follicular
Pulmonary hypertension
HIV Cardiomyopathy causing pulmonary edema
Drug reaction to HAART or other medications
Various infections
Various malignancies

1194
Q

Manifestations of kaposi sarcoma

A

Skin disease
Parenchymal disease
Endobronchial disease
Mediastinal lymphadenopathy

1195
Q

Imaging findings in Kaposi Sarcoma

A

Flame shaped, ill defined opacities
Interlobular septal thickening
Lymphadenopathy

1196
Q

Publicly reported illnesses

A

Legionella
Invasive pneumococcal disease
Influenza
H. influenza
HIV
Tuberculosis
SARS
COVID
Legally, I have to share COVID-19 news

1197
Q

Most common bacterial causes of CAP

A

Strep
Staph
H influenza
Mycoplasma
Atypicals
Aerobic gram negative → klebsiella, e. Coli, enterobacter, pseudomonas, serratia, proteus, acintobacter
Anaerobes

1198
Q

Most common causes of VAP

A

Strep
Staph - MSSA and MRSA **
Pseudomonas **
Gram negative bacilli

1199
Q

Bacterial causes of cavitary pneumonia

A

Klebsiella
Staphylococcus
Anaerobes
Nocardia
Actinomyces
Rhodococcus
TB/NTM
Endemic fungi

1200
Q

Organisms that cause interstitial infiltrates

A

Legionella
Mycoplasma
Chlamydia
Viruses

1201
Q

Imaging features of viral pneumonia

A

Interstitial infiltrates - can be reticular, reticulonodular
Miliary pattern
Airspace opacities or consolidation
Peribronchial thickening

1202
Q

When is 5 days of antibiotic treatment OK vs. 10 days?

A

Afebrile x 48 hours AND
</1 sign of instability: HR >100, BP <90, RR>24, SpO2 <90%, normal mental status

1203
Q

Complications of MSSA pneumonia

A

Abscess
Cavitation
Pleural effusion
Bacteremia
Resistance to MRSA

1204
Q

Risk factors for VAP

A

Paralysis
Head injury or unconscious
Aspiration
Chronic lung disease
Nasogastric tubes
Condensate in ventilator tubing
Supine position

1205
Q

Diagnostic criteria for VAP

A

Occur >/48 hours of intubation
Not present before intubation/wasn’t the reason for intubation
New or progressive infiltrates on imaging
Clinical evidence of infection e.g. fever, purulent sputum, leukocytosis, hypoxemia
Positive pathogen required by some definitions

1206
Q

Methods to diagnose causative agent in VAP

A

Invasive (BAL, brush, biopsy) > non invasive (endotracheal aspirate)
Quantitative (colony forming units) > semi quantitative (1+/2+ growth rates)

1207
Q

Measures to reduce VAP

A

Head of bed elevated 30-45 degrees
Mouth hygiene (tooth brushing but no chlorhexidine)
Enteral over parenteral nutrition
Only clean tubing when there is visible soiling
Limit sedation
Subglottic drainage
Ventilator liberation where possible
Maintain physical functioning

1208
Q

Complications of strep pneumonia

A

Empyema
Meningitis
Endocarditis
Pericarditis
Septic arthritis
Invasive streptococcal disease - CSF, blood, pleural, pericardial, synovial

1209
Q

RFs for IPD

A

Age
Chronic heart disease
Chronic lung disease e.g. asthma requiring medical care in last year
Chronic liver disease
Chronic kidney disease
Diabetes
Malnutrition
Immunodeficiency
Splenectomy, functional asplenia from sickle cell
HIV infection
HSC transplant
SOT transplant
Leukemia and lymphoma
Immunosuppressive therapy

1210
Q

Risk factors for drug resistant strep pneumo

A

> 65 or <2
Daycare or institutional setting (exposure to child)
Beta lactam use within 3-6 months
Medical comorbidities
Immunocompromised
EtOH

1211
Q

Indications to test for legionella

A

Severe CAP
Not responding to beta lactam
Epidemiological factors e.g. outbreak

1212
Q

Diagnostic test for legionella

A

Urine legionella antigen
PCR
Culture

1213
Q

Treatment regimen for legionella

A

Azithromycin 500 or levofloxacin 750
Duration: 7 days (mild), 10 days (severe), 14 days (immunocompromised)

1214
Q

Viral causes of pneumonia

A

COVID-19
Influenza A and B
RSV
Parainfluenza
Rhinovirus
Adenovirus

1215
Q

RFs for a more severe response to influenza

A

> /65 years old
Pregnant
Postpartum up to 2 weeks
Long term care, nursing homes
Chronic medical condition - respiratory, renal, liver, etc.
Immunosuppression

1216
Q

The common superinfections post influenza

A

Staph aureus
Streptococcus

1217
Q

Diagnostic options for influenza and COVID

A

Rapid antigen test
RT-PCR
Cultures

1218
Q

Benefits of oseltamivir

A

Reduce duration of symptoms
Reduce risk of death in inpatients
Within 48 hours has best outcomes

1219
Q

COVID-19 imaging findings

A

GGO
Consolidation
Crazy paving
Bronchovascular thickening
Pleural effusion, LN

1220
Q

Current COVID-19 therapies

A

Mild: budesonide, remdesivir, Paxlovid, fluvoxamine
Moderate: dexamethasone, remdesivir, tocilizumab, baricitinib
Severe: dexamethasone, tocilizumab, baricitinib

1221
Q

COVID-19 vaccines available

A

MRNA - pericarditis, myocarditis, Bell’s palsy, anaphylaxis
Vector - VTE, GBS, anaphylaxis

1222
Q

Treatment of echinococcal cyst

A

Antiparasitic therapy e.g. albendazole
Consider surgical resection
Consider percutaneous aspiration