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RBC AND WBC Flashcards

1
Q
  1. After 20 years of age red cell production is abundant in… except ..
    Long bones
    Sternum
    Pelvis
    Vertebra
A

Vertebra

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2
Q
  1. What stage of red blood cells that passes into the blood capillaries by diapedesis? A. Basophil erythroblast B. Reticulocyte C. Proerythroblast D. Erythrocyte *Leukocytes
A

D. erythrocytes
**leukocytes

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3
Q
  1. Which of these does not cause hypoxia? A. Pneumonia B. Anemia C. Hypercapnia D. Obstructive respiratory disease
A

C. Hypercapnia

Hypercapnia, also called hypercarbia, iswhen you have too much carbon dioxide (CO2) in your blood

Hypoxia
a state in which oxygen is not available in sufficient amounts at the tissue level to maintain adequate homeostasis

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4
Q
  1. Process of neutrophils sticking to damaged capillary walls
    A. Margination B. Chemotaxis C. Diapedesis
A

A. Margination

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5
Q

.Most important test to check that anemia is caused by blood loss?

A

Hemoglobin concentration

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following condition is not considered a porphyria? *
    A. X-linked sideroblastic anemia
    B. ALA dehydratase deficiency
    C. acute intermittent porphyria
    D. porphyria cutanea tarda
A

A. X-linked sideroblastic anemia

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7
Q
  1. A person with type A blood has
    A. A agglutinogen
    B. B agglutinogen
    C. Anti-A agglutinin
    D. Anti-B agglutinin
A

C. Anti-A agglutinin

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8
Q
  1. What is the major protein in the
    cytoskeleton of red blood cells? *
    A. Actin
    B. Ankyrin
    C. Spectrin
    D. Glycophorin
A

C. Spectrin

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9
Q
  1. A woman has been suffering from heavy menstrual cycles for years. She is on a vegan diet. What is she at most risk of?
    A. Anemia B. Leukopenia C. Thrombocytopenia D. polycythemia vera
A

A. Anemia

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10
Q
  1. What type of anemia is caused by poor absorption of vitamin B12 and often seen in patients after removal of the intestines?

A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Megaloblastic Anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Pernicious Anemia

A

D. Pernicioud Anemia

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11
Q
  1. The role of basophils in acute inflammatory response, EXCEPT

a. release effectors that activates platelets b. release histamine that facilitate edema formation
c. secretes chemokines that attract lymphocytes
d. release chemokines that facilitates vascular constriction

A

a. release effectors that activates platelets

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12
Q
  1. Which among the white blood cells has a tendency to live for many years? A. Lymphocytes (memory lymphocyte) B. EosinophilsC. Neutrophils D. Monocytes
A

A. Lymphocytes

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following best defines diapedesis?
    A. Migration of leukocytes in response to signals produced in sites of infection

B. Locomotion of leukocytes to migrate in response to stimuli

C. Leukocytes encapsulate invading bacteria within membrane vesicles

D. Process of traversing the capillary wall in response to chemical signals

A

D. Process of traversing the capillary wall in response to chemical signals *mechanism of movement for leukocytesameboid

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14
Q
  1. What is the direct role of G-protein in chemotaxis? * A. Hydrolyzes diacylglycerol to increase the cytoplasmic Ca2+

B. Stimulates protein kinase C to induce translocation

C. Activates phospholipase C to produce diacylglycerol and IP3

D. Activates IP3 which then catalyzes phosphorylation of various proteins

A

C. Activates phospholipase C to produce diacylglycerol and IP3

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15
Q
  1. Which of these cells is also commonly known as polymorphonuclears?

A. Monocyte
B. Lymphocyte
C. Basophil
D. Neutrophil

A

D. Neutrophil

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16
Q

53.Not a macrophage?

A

Histiocytes-Skin

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17
Q
  1. Which does not describe polycythemia vera?
    A. High altitude
    B. Elevated hematocrit
    C. Elevated rbc mass
    D. Tumor in the bone marrow
A

D. Tumor in the bone marrow

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18
Q
  1. Production of too many immature cells called blast
A

C. Myelodysplastic anemia

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19
Q

Which of the following statements about mature circulating erythrocytes is true? *

A.Able to use ketones for ATP production

B. They are packed with mitochondria

C. They have no nucleus

D. They survive for an average of four days

A

C. They have no nucleus

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20
Q

Which is true about a molecule of hemoglobin? *
A. Can carry up to 120 molecules of oxygen

B. Consist of four globin proteins, each bound to a molecule of heme

C. Contains four glycoprotein units studded with oxygen

D. Shaped like a biconcave disk packed almost entirely with iron

A

B. Consist of four globin proteins, each bound to a molecule of heme

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21
Q

The production of healthy erythrocytes depends upon the availability of what molecules?
A. Oxygen

B. Vitamin C
C. Zinc
D. Carbon dioxide

A

C. Zinc

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22
Q

Aging and damaged erythrocytes are removed from the circulation by _________? * A. Myeloblast
B.Macrophages
C. Mast cells
D. Monocytes

A

B. Macrophage

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23
Q

A patient has been suffering for 2 months with a chronic, watery diarrhea. A blood test would likely to reveal what blood problem? *

A. Hypoxemia
B. Hematocrit below 30%
C. Polycythemia vera
D.Anemia

A

C. Polycythemia vera

a condition where the bone marrow goes into “overdrive” and makes too many red blood cells, along with too many white blood cells and platelets

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24
Q

A young woman has been experiencing unusually heavy menstrual bleeding for several years. She follows a strict vegan diet (no animal foods). She is at risk for what condition *

A. Anemia
B. Leukopenia
C. Polycythemia vera
D. Thrombocytopenia

A

A. Anemia

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25
Q

Mario has thalassemia, a genetic disorder characterized by abnormal synthesis of globin proteins and excessive destruction of erythrocytes. What substance might be increased in these cases that can be detected by blood chemistry? *

A. Albumin
B. Bilirubin
C. Iron
D. Hemoglobin

A

B. Bilirubin

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26
Q

Plasma protein that binds reversibly to iron and distributes it throughout the body. *

Transferrin

Apoferritin

Ferritin

Hemosiderin

A

Transferrin

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27
Q

How many oxygen molecule can one hemoglobin carry? *

A

4

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28
Q

Differentiation of a common myeloid progenitor cell to an erythrocyte would require what cytokine and hormone? *

A. interleukin 3, granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating factor, FT3 ligand and
erythropoietin

B.interleukin 3, interleukin 5, granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating factor and
erythropoietin

C. interleukin 1, interleukin 3, interleukin 6, granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating
factor

D. interleukin 3, granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating factor, stem cell factor
and erythropoietin

A

D. interleukin 3, granulocyte macrophage-colony stimulating factor, stem cell factor
and erythropoietin

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29
Q

A mature red blood cell is devoid of what organelle? *
A. mitochondria
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Nucleus
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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30
Q

Glucose enters the red blood cell for ATP production through what transport mechanism? *

facilitated diffusion

primary active transport

simple diffusion

D. secondary active transport

A

Facilitated diffusion

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31
Q

How does red blood cell generate its energy/ATP? *

A

Glycolysis

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32
Q

Which enzyme has a physiologic importance in reducing methemoglobin in the body? *

A

cytochrome b5 reductase

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33
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis and hereditary elliptocytosis is caused by an abnormality of what cytoskeletal protein in the cell membrane of RBCs? *

anion exchange protein

actin

spectrin

Band 3

A

Spectrin

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34
Q

Which is the plasma protein that binds reversibly to iron and distribute it throughout the body? *

A

Transferrin

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35
Q

What type of anemia is caused by poor absorption of Vitamin B12 and often seen in patients after removal of the intestines? *

A

Pernicious anemia

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36
Q

What triggers the release of erythropoietin from the kidneys? *

hypotension.
hypoxia
low iron stores in the body
blood loss

A

Hypoxia

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37
Q

What are immature red blood cells? *

A

Reticulocytes

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38
Q

Which is a major integral protein of the RBC membrane? *

A

Anion exchanged protein
(Band 3)

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39
Q

In ABO blood type system, which blood type has a Gene that encodes for the enzyme galactosamine transferase? *

A

Type B

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40
Q

The Rho antigen is what type of protein? *

A

Integral membrane

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41
Q

It is defined as abnormal variation in sizes of RBCs. *

.
anisocytosis

poikilocytosis

polymorphonuclear
aplasia

A

Anisocytosis

-microcyte
-normocyte
-megalocyte
-macrocyte

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42
Q

Which is an example of RBC with poikilocytosis? *

A

Stomatocyte

Acantocyte
Target cell
Ovalocyte
Sickle cell

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43
Q

Which of the following leukocyte is an agranulocyte? *

Basophils
Eosinophils
Monocytes
Mast cells

A

Monocyte

And Lymphocyte

Granulocytes
-neutrophil
-eosinophil
-Basophil

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44
Q

The following are principal steps of an inflammatory response, except: *

A.Vascular constriction to hold invading microorganisms in one place
*increased vascular permeability

B.Spontaneous resolution after invading microorganisms have been exterminated

C. Activation of platelets to release chemokines

D. Activated leukocytes enter the affected tissues

A

A.Vascular constriction to hold invading microorganisms in one place

-should be increased permeability

PRINCIPAL STEPS IN AN INFLAMMATORY RESPONSE
1) INCREASE IN VASCULAR PERMEABILITY
2) ENTRY OF ACTIVATED LEUKOCYTES INTO THE TISSUE
3) ACTIVATION OF PLATELETS
4) SPONTANEOUS SUBSIDENCE (RESOLUTION) IF THE INVADING MICROORGANISM HAVE BEEN DEALT WITH SUCCESSFULLY

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45
Q

Which of the following white blood cell has a tendency to live for many years? *

A

Lymphocytes

Specifically, Memory lymphocytes

46
Q

What is the MECHANISM OF MOVEMENT of leukocytes to migrate in response to chemical signals: *

A

Ameboid movement

47
Q

Which best defines diapedesis? *

A.Locomotion of leukocytes to migrate in response to stimuli

B. Process of traversing the capillary wall in response to chemical signals

C. Leukocytes encapsulate invading bacteria within membrane vesicles

D. Migration of leukocytes in response to signals produced in sites of infection

A

B. Process of traversing the capillary wall in response to chemical signals

48
Q

What is the G in G-protein which has a function in leukocyte chemotaxis? *

Guanidine
Guanine
Granulocyte
Guanosine

A

Guanosine

49
Q

What is the direct role of G-protein in chemotaxis? *

A

Activates phospholipase C to produce diacylglycerol and IP3

50
Q

Which is the correct description of the chemokine types? *

Type C chemokine contains 2 intrachains disulfide bonds

Type CC has a pair of conserved cysteine residues forming a disulfide bond

Type CXC is the largest of the four types

Type CX3C have cysteine residues separated by 3 intervening amino acid
residues

A

Type CX3C have cysteine residues separated by 3 intervening amino acid
residues

Four Subclasses of Chemokines:

  1. Type C chemokines - are characterized by an intrachain disulfide bond formed by a pair of conserved cysteine residues. In addition to the conserved disulfide bond present in type C, the other three recognized chemokine groups possess a second disulfide bond.
  2. Type CC chemokines - one of the additional cysteine residues lies adjacent to the first of the first pair of universally conserved residues.
  3. Type CXC - these cysteines are separated by one intervening amino acid residue.
  4. CX3C chemokines - are separated by three intervening amino acid residues. It’s the largest of the four types of cytokines, and has a longer C-terminus that includes sites of covalent modification by glycosylation.
51
Q

This bactericidal enzyme is responsible for the green color of pus? *

A

Myeloperoxidase

52
Q

What is the process where C3 binds to specific receptors on the neutrophil membrane to initiate phagocytosis? *

A

Opsonization

53
Q

Which WBC commonly known as a polymorphonuclear cell? *

A

Neutrophil

54
Q

Which white blood cell contains the receptor for IgM? *

A

Eosinophil

55
Q

Which white blood cell (WBC) secretes histamine that facilitates accumulation of fluid within infected tissues? *

A

Basophil

Histamine and heparin

56
Q

Which WBC is the first line of defense against infection? *

A

Neutrophil

57
Q

Which WBC that has a nucleus consisting of 2-5 lobes? *

A

Neutrophil 2-5 lobes

Basophil 2-3 lobes

58
Q

Which WBC protect the body against parasitic infections? *

A

Eosinophil

59
Q

Which WBC synthesize and liberate heparin into the circulation to prevent blood coagulation?

A

Basophil

60
Q

Which is the correctly paired tissue-resident macrophages and their locations? (3 correct answers only) *

Kuppfer cells=brain ( liver )

osteoblasts=bone

mesangial cells=liver (kidney)

alveolar macrophages=lungs

microglial cells=kidney (brain)

histiocytes=skin

A
61
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of an acquired immunity? (3 correct answers) *

involves phagocytes
antibody-mediated
includes lymphocytes
non specific
very high diversity
no memory involved

A

antibody-mediated
Very high diversity
Includes lymphocytes

62
Q

What type of anemia are hereditary spherocytosis? *
A. RBC membrane disorder
B. megaloblastic anemia
C. anemia of chronic disease
D. hypoproliferative anemia

A

RBC membrane disorder

63
Q
  1. A process where C3 binds to specific receptors on the neutrophil membrane to initiate phagocytosis: *

A. chemotaxis
B. oxidation
C. opsonization
D. trapping

A

C. Opsonization

64
Q

What is diapedesis? *

A. Migration of leukocytes in response to signals produced in sites of infection
B. Locomotion of leukocytes to migrate in response to stimuli
C. Leukocytes encapsulate invading bacteria within membrane vesicles
D. Process of traversing the capillary wall in response to chemical signals

A

D. Process of traversing the capillary wall in response to chemical signals

65
Q

macrophage system *
A. phagocytosis of dead tissues
B. formation of hemoglobin
C. production of erythropoietin
D. release tissue growth factor to repair damaged tissues

A

B. formation of hemoglobin

66
Q
  1. Correct name of tissue macrophage and their tissue location *

A. mesangial cells of the lungs - kidney

B. histiocytes of skin

C. reticular cells of the liver - lymph node,

D. Kuppfer cells of the spleen sinusoids of the liver

A

Histocystes of skin

67
Q
  1. Which of the following white blood cell has a tendency to live for many years *
    A. lymphocytes
    B. eosinophils
    C. neutrophils
    D. monocytes
A

A. Lymphocytes

68
Q

What is the role of basophils in acute inflammatory response * A. Secretes chemokines that attract lymphocytes
B. Release chemokines that facilitate vascular constriction
C. Release histamine that facilitate edema formation
D. Release effectors that activates platelets

A

C. Release histamine that facilitate edema formation

69
Q
  1. Differentiation and maturation of lymphoid cells usually happen in these tissue organs, except: *

A. spleen B. lymph nodes C. thymus D. bone marrow

A

Bone marrow

Like all blood cells, they arise from common precursor cells (stem cells) in the bone marrow. Unlike other blood cells, however, they can leave the blood vessels and circulate in the lymphatic system. Lymphoid tissues (such as lymph nodes, the spleen, and, above all, the thymus gland) play important roles
in the workings of the immune system

Campbell

70
Q
  1. The following are causes of anemia, except: * A. Increased blood loss B. Increased RBC production C. Impaired RBC production D. Increased RBC destruction
A

B. Increased RBC

71
Q
  1. What are the possible blood type of the offsprings if the mother’s blood type is A and the father is B? *
    A. A, B, AB and O
    B. A and B only
    C. A, B and AB only
    D. A, B and O only
A

A. A, B, AB and O

72
Q

Defined as the mechanism of movement of leukocytes to migrate in response to chemical signals: *

A. ameboid movement B. diapedesis C. phagocytosis D. chemotaxis

A

Ameboid movement

73
Q

What is the major component of red cell skeleton? * A. glycophorin B. ankyrin C. spectrin D. actin

A

Spectrin

74
Q

This bactericidal enzyme is responsible for the green color of pus. *

A. myeloperoxidase B. gelatinase C. lysozymes D. NADPH exidase

A

A. myeloperoxidase

75
Q

The purpose of RBC metabolism for the cell, except: *
A. Defend mineral balance B. Maintain fluid balance C. Keep proteins reduced D. Maintain cell shape

A

B. Maintain fluid balance

76
Q
  1. What are the two minerals that RBCs need to balance? * A. calcium and sodium B. sodium and potassium C. potassium and calcium D. magnesium and potassium
A

Potassium and calcium

77
Q

Where does hematopoiesis take place? * A. bone marrow B. lungs C. liver D. kidney

A

Bone marrow

78
Q

The following are crucial to normal RBC survival & function, except: * A. RBC metabolic pathways B. RBC membrane C. Hemoglobin structure & function D. Presence of antigens

A

D. Presence of antigens

79
Q

Which of the following is NOT primarily a function of blood plasma? *
A. Transport of antibodies
B. Maintenance of red cell size
C. Transport of hormones
D. Transport of O2

A

D. Transport O2

80
Q

Which is the correct chemokine type? * A. Type CXC is the largest of the four types
B. Type C contains 2 intrachains disulfide bonds
C. Type CC has a pair of conserved cysteine residues forming a disulfide bond
D. Type CX3C are separated by 3 intervening amino acid residues

A

D. Type CX3C are separated by 3 intervening amino acid residues

81
Q
  1. Why do RBCs unable to utilized fat as energy source? * A. absence of enzymes for fats B. lack of nucleus C. no protein synthesis D. absence of mitochondria
A

absence of mitochondria

82
Q

An integral protein of the red cell membrane * A. anion exchange protein B. ankyrin C. actin D. spectrin

A

anion exchange protein

83
Q

In which condition will eosinophils be elevated? * A. bacterial infection B. parasitic infection C. viral infection D. anaphylaxis

A

B. Parasitic infection

84
Q

Where does red cell maturation occur? * A. kidney B. bone marrow C. heartD. spleen

A

Bone marrow

85
Q
  1. What is the direct role of G-proteins in chemotaxis? * A. hydrolyzes diacylglycerol to increase the cytoplasmic Ca2+
    B. stimulates protein kinase C to induce translocation
    C. activates phospholipase C to produce diacylglycerol and IP3
    D. activates IP3 which then catalyze phosphorylation and various proteins
A

C. activates phospholipase C to produce diacylglycerol and IP3

86
Q
  1. In ABO blood group, B gene encodes for what sugar? * A. fructose B. galactose C. N-acetylgalactosamine D. phosphogluconate
A

B. Galactose

A substance contains an additional GalNAc, while B substance contains an additional Gal, linked as indicated.
● The A gene encodes a UDP-GalNAc-specific GalNAc transferase that adds the terminal GalNAc to H substance. The B gene encodes a UDP-Galspecific Gal transferase that adds the Gal residue to H substance.
● Individuals of type AB possess both enzymes, and thus have two oligosaccharide chains, one terminated by GalNAc and the other by Gal
Harpers Illustrated Biochemistry 30th Ed p698

87
Q
  1. It is a condition manifesting as decreased production of white blood cells * A. Leukopenia B. Lymphoma C. Leukemia
A

A. Leukopenia

88
Q

The following are principal steps of an inflammatory response, except: *
A. Vascular constriction to hold invading microorganisms in one place
B. Activated leukocytes enter the affected tissues
C. Activation of platelets to release chemokines
D. Spontaneous resolution after invading microorganisms have been exterminated

A

Vascular constriction to hold invading microorganisms in one place

89
Q
  1. What is the ratio of myeloid cell precursors to erythroid cell precursors? *
    A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 4:1 D. 3:1
A

C. 4: 1

4 myeloid to 1 erythroid

90
Q

A glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency will affect what pathway? *
A. Hexose mono-phosphate shunt *pentose phosphate pathway
B. Beta oxidation pathway C. Luebering Rapaport pathway D. Methemoglobin reductase pathway

A

Hexose mono-phosphate shunt *pentose phosphate pathway

91
Q
  1. *Best description of lymphocytes *
    A. All originate and mature from the bone marrow
    B. Convert to monocytes in response to antigens
    C. Part of the body’s defense against cancer
    D. Interact with eosinophils to produce platelets
A

Part of the body’s defense against cancer

92
Q
  1. What is the direct cause of the limited life span of RBCs? *
    A. lack of mitochondria
    B. easily phagocytosed
    C. not capable to reproduce
    D. no protein synthesis
A

A. Lack of mitochondria
D. No protein synthesis

93
Q
  1. A polymorphonuclear white blood cell * A. lymphocyte B. neutrophil C. eosinophil D. monocyte
A

Neutrophil

94
Q
  1. What cell do blood cells originate from? *
A

Myeloid stem cell

95
Q
  1. Which is not a metabolic pathway of RBC? * A. Beta oxidation pathway B. Luebering Rapaport pathway C. Hexose mono-phosphate shunt D. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
A

A. Beta oxidation pathway

96
Q
  1. In normal human blood * A. The eosinophil is the most common type of white blood cells
    B. There are more lymphocytes than neutrophils
    C. There are more platelets than red blood cells
    D. The iron is mostly in hemoglobin
A

The iron is mostly in hemoglobin

97
Q

What is the intermediate that is formed between bisphosphoglycerate mutase and DPG phosphatase? *
A. 3-phosphoglycerate
B. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
C. 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
D. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

A

C. 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate

98
Q

Which of the following best describes innate immunity? * A. composed of cells with multiple different surface molecules
B. commonly composed of lymphocytes
C. recognize identity of invaders D. fights invaders by complement system

A

D. fights invaders by complement system

99
Q

Which of the following best describes acquired immunity? *
A. commonly composed of natural killer cells
B. limited types of cells
C. identifies microbes through immunization
D. not specific to any invader
A defense system that produces immunity through medication

A

C. identifies microbes through immunization

100
Q

What are major proteins of RBCs? * A. Spectrin and ankyrin B. Glycophorin and actin C. Glycophorin and spectrin D. Actin and ankyrin

A

Glycophorin and spectrin

101
Q

Marcus was diagnosed with anemia and was tested positive for osmotic fragility test. What could be the cause of his anemia? *

A. hereditary spherocytosis B. aplastic anemia C. iron-deficiency anemia D. thalassemia

A

hereditary spherocytosis

E. No correct answer
Osmotic fragility is a blood test to detect whether red blood cells are more likely to break down

102
Q

Which factor regulates RBC glycolysis? * A. osmolality B. pH C. temperature D. altitude

A

B. pH

103
Q
  1. Which of the following leukocyte is an agranulocyte? * A. Eosinophils B. Monocytes C. Mast cells D. Basophils
A

Monocyte

104
Q

What does the network of microfilaments on the inner surface of the RBC do? *
A. control biconcave shape & deformability of the cell
B. maintain RBC ionic composition C. has Antigenic properties D. anchor the membrane bilayer to the cytoskeleton

A

A. control biconcave shape & deformability of the cell

105
Q
  1. White blood cell containing receptors for IgM * A. monocyte B. neutrophil C. basophil D. eosinophil
A

D. eosinophil
the cell membrane of eosinophil contains receptors for IgE, IgG, IgM Source: Dra. Laraya, PPT

106
Q
  1. A hematocrit of 41% means that in a sample of blood analyzed: *

A. 41% of the total blood volume is made up of red and white blood cells and platelets
B. 41% of the total blood volume is made up of blood plasma
C. 41% of the hemoglobin is in red blood cells
D. 41% of the hemoglobin is in the plasma

A

A. 41% of the total blood volume is made up of red and white blood cells and platelets

107
Q

Analyn was suffering from prolonged menses for three consecutive months and she was noted to be pale with occasional dizziness thus consulted the emergency department. Laboratory showed anemia and what blood cell type would likely increase? *

A. platelet
B. lymphocyte
C. reticulocyte- Increased release of nascent RBCs to try to compensate for the RBC loss.
D. neutrophils

A

C. reticulocyte- Increased release of nascent RBCs to try to compensate for the RBC loss.

108
Q

What functions does the red blood cell membrane control?
A. Glycolysis B. Durability/strength C. Exchange of gases

A

Durability/strength

109
Q

What does the Hexose monophosphate shunt produce? *

A. ATP B. ADP C. NADPH D. NADH

A

C.NADPH

The pentose phosphate pathway of the RBC metabolizes about 5%-10% of the total flux of glucose) and produces NADPH. Hemolytic anemia due to a deficiency of the activity of glucose6-phosphate dehydrogenase is common. (Harpers 31st ed p 648)

110
Q
  1. What is the G in G-protein? *

A. granulocyte B. guanidine C. guanine D. guanosine

A

D. Guanosine

BIOCHEM (2 decks)

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