Rashid Flashcards

1
Q

Max vacation/annual leave

A

non uniform - 640
uniform - 816

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

grievance, complaint
retention

A

G - 3 years
C - 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AA shall be destroyed

A

5 years after employee served

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

AA that results in FWR or corrective documentation
retention of

A

remove doc from PF after 3 years
but keep doc in AA file for 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

7E retention

A

investigation control log
at division for 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

extending probation

A

ok for PDH (5 days)
not ok to finish RDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PDH time to prep

A

4 hours state time
(both employee and rep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PDH period

A

starts day after notice served
ends at 1700 hours
10 working days later for uniform
5 working days later for non uniform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Employee may file appeal with SPB

A

within 30 calendar days after
effective date of NOAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

FWR appeal

A

within 14 calendar days of
PDH decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

NOAI shall inform of

A

date, time, location
scope
rank, name command
rep
mitigating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

searching locker or
other place for storage

A

presence
consent
notification and time to respond
search warrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

probation reports shall be completed

A

within 10 days of each designated period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

6 month probation

A

840 hours
appraisals: 2, 4, 6 months
then 6 months later, and every year thereafter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

12 month probation

A

1,680 hours
appraisals: 4, 8, 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

retraining due to leave or seperations?

A

less than 1 year: at area
12mo-2 yrs: refresher at academy
over 2 yrs: reinstatement at academy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

days to return after military leave

A

14 calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

military leave terms

A

short term: 6 mo or less
long term: more than 6 mo
can’t be more than 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CHP 738, 739 (FMLA) shall be provided within

A

5 business days
of FMLA request
739: med cert form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

FMLA time worked requirement

A

12 months state service
at least 1,250 hours during previous 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

absence for more than ___ would be FMLA

A

3 consecutive calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

employee time to submit FMLA medical cert

A

15 calendar days
10 calendar days extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

AWW off for whole pay period, what shift due you change to?

A

30 days +, revert to 8’s
less than 30 days, remain on AWW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

AWOL

A

auto resignation after 5 or more consecutive working days
(starts on next scheduled shift, following last day worked)
voluntary or involuntary (arrested)
whether or not they called in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

uniform replaced ID cards, separation ID cards
disposition?

A

shall be destroyed at the command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

sick leave usage

A

increments of 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

vacation credits used

A

increments of 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

OT credit

A

1/4 hour (15 minutes)
full 1/4 hour credit after more than half (7.5 minutes)of 1/4 hour period worked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

meal periods

A

not within 3 hours of beginning or end of shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

rest periods

A

not within 1 hour of beginning or end of shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

OT for non uniform

A

earned for work in excess of 40 hours per week
NOT based on work in excess of 8 hours per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

max CTO

A

non uniform 240 hours
uniform 480 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

not available for voluntary OT if worked how many hours?

A

16.5 hours in ANY 24 hour period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Doc time minimum

A

1/10 hours, 6 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Is AWOL reported on a STD 634

A

not reported on 634

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

STD 634 required for

A

Sick leave self or family
jury duty
IDL
NDI
bereavement
FMLA
absence without pay (not AWOL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how many STD 634s per employee per pay period?

A

only one per pay period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

time to comply with informal discovery request

A

15 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how long does the department’s have to responed to a PRA and how do you calculate it?

A

calculate 10 calendar days
1st day following the request is day 1
if day 10 is a weekend or holiday, use the next business day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

additional time for PRA

A

14 day extention if “unusual circumstances,” must notify requester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

PRA request and response retention

A

3 years at command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CHP 520, PRA log, is forwarded to division

A

quarterly basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

PRA for criminal report involving JUVENILE

A

if 14 or older and serious felony
may release NAME and OFFENSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

handling of 1421 request

A

original doc holder responds to PRU within 2 business days of request to notify if records exist.
within 3 business days of request, shall send records to PRU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

heating, cooling, water heater

A

heating- not above 68
cooling- not below 78
water heater- max 105

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

DUI max cost recovery

A

$12,000.00

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

CHP 78 shall be used to initiate all service agreements which are _____ regardless of dollar value and for one time services of _____ or more

A

repetitive
$5,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

competitive bidding is required unless what?

A

amendment to agreement
less than $5,000
emergency
interagency agreement
public entity contract
legal defense or advice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

X number is what

A

one time, short term, occasional, or single year, service under $5,000 from any source.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

X number is a streamlined

A

mechanism to quickly obtain simple services that have a total cost under $5,000 per fiscal year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

prohibited use of X number

A

for services already under contract
purchasing commodities only
using same X number twice
equipment rental longer than 1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

quotes

A

2 from certified businesses
3 from non certified businesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

payment due to contractors

A

within 45 days of invoice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

2400 CVC

A

CHP enforces law w/in jurisd.
is IC within jurisd.
covers state property
security for constitutional officers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

all employees review command specific EOP

A

annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

span of control

A

max - 1:8 supervisor to sub.
optimal - 1:5
federal guidelines - 1:3-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

5 basic ICS functions (COPLF)

A

command
operations
planning/intelligence
logistics
finance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

5 types of plans to assist with prep, response, mitigation of emergency incidents

A

EOP, emergency operations plan- prepared docs for earthquakes etc.
IAP, emergency action plan - existing emergency
OP, operational plan - major sporting event
72 hour self-sufficient operation- operational assistance will not be available
EAP, emergency action plan- facility specific “red binder”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

area commander, supervisor, OIC can place neighboring area on TA when ALL are met

A

actual or potential threat to pub safety
beyond resource capabilities of area
division is notified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

when on TA gas tanks shall not go below?

A

no less than 3/4 full
throughout duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

divisions need to have how many staging areas and what will they need to be able to accommodate ?

A

2 per division, can accommodate
at least 100 CHP uniform emp overnight
at least 30 PVs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

after action MEMO are due to who and by when?

A

to division within 30 calendar days of conclusion of emergency
(done by IC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

after action REPORT

A

to ACF within 60 calendar days of conclusion of TA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

generally accepted response of personnel to request for mutual aid is?

A

50% of available on-duty personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Mobil Field Force

A

minimum of 52 uniform personnel to be dispatched in 14 general purpose PVs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what shall be done prior to using pain compliance at a civil disturbance?

A

shall be a lawful order to disperse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

basic element in a tactical unit

A

squad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

squad composition

A

a leader (preferably a SGT)
11 officers
4 PVs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

arrest squad composition

A

leader (preferably SGT)
11 officers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

platoon composition

A

leader (normally LT)
2-3 squads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

company composition

A

leader (captain, assisted by 2 LTs)
4 squads (minimum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

battalion composition

A

leader (assistant chief or higher)
2 or more companies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

lifting or carrying a resistor

A

3 officers, minimum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

mass arrest restraint chain (can’t use on)

A

person uncooperative to the extent that injury to themselves or other arrestees is imminent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

who is not normally arrested at a civil disturbance

A

minor under 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

at incident command post how many arrest kits are required

A

at least 2 kits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

chemical protective masks shall be inspected

A

quarterly and
prior to use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

3 reliable/scientific FSTs

A

HGN
walk and turn
one leg stand
90% reliability for .08%+ BAC
SHOULD be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Person selects a breath test but is suspected of DUI drugs

A

must also do blood
can do urine if hemophilia, anti coagulant/heart condition, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

can juvenile consent to chemical test

A

can consent (if alone)
parents can refuse (if present)
no right to have parents present during test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

can juvenile waive miranda, can they give a statement?

A

can waive miranda and give statement (if alone)
parents can refuse (if present)
RIGHT to have parents present during questioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

blood and urine specimen retention

A

minimum 1 year
even if early adjudication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

breath test- how many samples and how close must the samples be?

A

2 samples
within. 02% agreement
observed for 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

PEBT and PAS checked for accuracy

A

every 10 calendar days or
150 tests
whichever occurs first
(same for both devices)
(PAS within .01% of known solution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

inventory of PASs

A

every 10 calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

DS 367, 367M and breath results to DMV

A

within 5 business days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

blood test results to DMV

A

within 15 calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

PAS device in/out log retention

A

2 years plus current year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Ingersoll decision safeguards for DUI checkpoint

A

1) established by supervisory LE
2) neutral formula
3) proper lighting, warning signs
4) location chosen by policy-making officials
5) high visibility
6) detention only long enough to look for DUI
7) advance publicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

checkpoint operational plan

A

to division at least 1 week prior to date of checkpoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

checkpoint operational plan retention

A

2 years plus current year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

at the completion of checkpoint

A

CHP 205 to division
within 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

news release prior to checkpoint

A

48 hours prior
general info only
specific location, no sooner than 2 hours prior to checkpoint start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

3 primary factors to assist in determining reasonableness of UOF (Graham factors)

A

1) severity of crime
2) immediate threat to safety
3) active resistance/attempt to evade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

immediate force examples

A

aerosol spray
ECD
kinetic energy weapon
impact weapons (baton)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

can use intermediate force when

A

immediate threat of harm to officer or others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

the decision regarding which force option to select should be guided by the following principles

A

1) sound, professional judgment
2) objective reasonableness, based on the totality of the circumstances
3) de-escalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

department approved handcuffing is not

A

UOF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what must be done before using deadly force if safe?

A

if reasonably safe and feasible
SHALL use other available resources and techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

basic principles for all handcuffing

A

balance, awareness, control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

at officer’s discretion, exempt from handcuffing to the rear

A

sick, injured, disabled
elderly
visibly pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

PHYSICAL body cavity search

A

shall not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

baton: potentially lethal striking areas, shall be avoided unless deadly force is authorized

A

head
neck
throat
spine
sternum
groin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

oc spray

A

may carry
incapacitation 15-45 minutes
shall not be used at less than 3 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

WMD, PPE inspection

A

upon issuance and
quarterly thereafter
coveralls replaced within 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

less lethal shotgun: potentially lethal target areas

A

head
neck
throat
spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

optimal deployment range for LL shotgun

A

5-60 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

12 guage shotgun with energy munitions: preferred target areas (regions)

A

hip
pelvic
buttock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

ECD dart spread rate

A

1 foot spread for every 9 feet travel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

ECD optimal distance

A

7-15 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

ECD min and max effective range

A

0 inches to 25 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

ECD should not be used on

A

handcuffed
person in control of vehicle
pregnant
elderly
frail
less than 80 pounds
young children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

ECD shall not use

A

as a prod
to arose conciousness
expose to flamables
could fall/water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

ECD shall avoid intentionally targeting

A

head
face
neck
throat
groin
spine
*preferred to split the belt line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

ECD probes shall not remove

A

groin
breast of female
head/eyes
neck
spinal column
joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

ECD download and retention

A

download monthly
records retained for life of ECD plus 10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

mentor program:
memo
assigned mentor
post program assessment

A

memo and assigned mentor: first 30 days.
assessment, no later than 30 days after program conclusion
regular contact b/t mentor and mentee for 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

entering POST training in ETRS

A

upon course completion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

entering all other training into ETRS

A

shall be entered within 10 business days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

mutual aide regions

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

CHP are peace officers in adjacent state when

A

1) request for services
2) situation requires immediate LE action or other emergency action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

milage limit for peace officer powers

A

50 statute miles along the common border
“interstate mutual assistance agreements”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

fresh pursuit act

A

extends peace officer authority to other state when in fresh pursuit of fleeing felon
timely and continuous pursuit
not applicable to misdemeanors, but this would be allowed per IMAA (50 mile rule)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

exclusive federal jurisdiction

A

all federal, state is without power to enforce fed, state, or local laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

partial jurisdiction

A

for day to day LE activities, same as exclusive. state reserves the power of taxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

concurrent jurisdiction

A

fed and state have same authority over land. can’t vote for fed laws, but all else CHP can enforce as usual
*all national forests are concurrent jurisdiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

national forests vs national park

A

NF - concurrent jurisdiction
NP - Exclusive jurisdiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

proprietary jurisdiction

A

feds have some interest in the property, but no jurisdiction. CHP provides a full range of services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

fish and game code violations on Indian reservations or rancherias

A

can only enforce against non-native Americans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

CVC infractions, DL laws (including misdemeanors) on reservation

A

shall not enforce against tribal members
but can enforce against non tribal members, or when members are on a different tribe’s reservation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

indian reservations are to be considered

A

exclusive jurisdiction
cant enforce:
parking violations
impose admin per se sanctions
zero tolerance minor DUI laws
ordinances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

exception to indian reservations when?

A

local tribes can contract for police services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

exclusive or partial jurisdiction

A

we wont routinely patrol or take enforcement action on any highway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

shall not place in custody arrest diplomats or consulars when?

A

diplomatic or consular immunity claimed
its verified or suspect its valid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

diplomatic arrests

A

exempt from arrest or detention, immune from prosecution
- family gets same protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

consular officers

A

immunity from arrest or detention except for felony warrant, immune from prosecution only for official acts
- family not immune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

signing 215, diplomatic/consular immunity

A

if verified, dont need to sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

if placed under arrest, then claims immunity

A

shall not be physically restrained
unless necessary for protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

vehicle owned by someone with immunity

A

shall not search or store/impound
ok if 11-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

foreign nationals

A

shall attempt to determine citizenship ONLY if arrest or detention exceeds 2 hours
(can’t for traffic stop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

making a correctable violation non correctable

A
  • persistent neglect or
  • immediate safety hazard or
  • refusal to correct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

phone calls (adults)

A
  • at least 3 completed calls, immediately upon booking or when detained.
  • except where physically impossible
  • no later than 3 hours after arrest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

phone calls by custodial parent

A

2 additional calls
immediately upon request
or as soon as practical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

phone calls (minor)

A

2 calls
no later than 1 hour of custody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

how long can you detain a minor

A

not longer than 6 hours
must transport to juvenile facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

miranda for juveniles

A

if not interrogated, must advise of
miranda, just prior to release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

private person arrest

A
  • have to accept custody but dont have to physically arrest
  • can ID then release
  • if for a felony or misd, mandatory appearance, take before magistrate, if satisfied of PC
  • if not satisfied of PC, you can release for any crime, with CHP 103
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

issue CHP 103 if

A

arrested and released
- supervisor shall have 103s
- complete in duplicate
- original to area, other to person
- if DA declines prosecution out of arrest, mail 103

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

regular traffic stop distance
high risk/felony stop distance

A

10 feet
30 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

prima facie rules

A
  • 10+ = shall stop and take appropriate enforcement action
  • 5-9 = should “
  • 1-4 = may “
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

absolute speed limit rules

A
  • 5+ = shall stop and take appropriate enforcement action
  • 1-4 = may “
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

slow moving vehicle enforcement action

A
  • 10+ below normal speed of traffic = shall stop and take appropriate enforcement action
  • 5-9 “ = should “
  • 1-4 “ = may “
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

victims that have right to confidentiality

A

hate crime
sexual assault
DV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

DV related incident reporting

A

monthly to DOJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

family violence incident, firearm

A
  • take
  • hold not less than 48 hours (unless evid)
  • other weapons like knives, release after 48 hours, no letter needed
  • once they present letter, no later than 5 business days after LE gun release app by DOJ, must release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

MJ 18 vs 21

A
  • 18 up to 21 (not including), must have prescription
  • 21 and older its legal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

missing person under 21 or at risk

A

notify DOJ within 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

locating missing person

A
  • immediately report to AG
  • notify original agency within 24 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

amber alert criteria

A
  • confirmed abduction by anyone (including parent)
  • 17 or younger, or disabled
  • imminent danger
  • info to disseminate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

STD 99 other agency

A

if completed by other agency, forward to CHP within 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

STD 99 retention

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

STD 99 enter into SCARS

A

within 10 days following receipt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

what is a threshold incident

A

high probability of lawsuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

threshold example

A
  • CHP seriously injured or killed
  • public seriously injured or killed, and involves CHP
  • intentional or accidental discharge at person, on or off duty, whether struck or not
  • any sensitive or complex internal investigation where liability appears to be on the department
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

what is a non threshold

A

not arising to threshold, but potential liability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

non threshold examples

A
  • PV collision, other visible/cop to public
  • UOF causing visible/cop to suspect or bystander
  • other visible/cop from handcuffs
  • HR/felony stood, on innocent person
  • slip and fall in lobby
  • innocent spike strip
  • damage from push bumpers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

threshold notification and 268

A

immediate notification to ORM via ENTAC
268 within 7 calendar days (to division)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

non threshold notification and 268

A

no notification required
268 within 7 calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

what is a 268

A

attorney client privilege document to OLA to notify of potential liability incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

how many 268s for multiple suspects and multiple employees?

A

only one 268

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

threshold vs non threshold preservation of evidence

A

T = 10 years
NT = 5 years
if incarceration, hold for incarceration period or the above respective lengths, whichever is longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

AA and 268

A

268 not included in AA packet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

what is CHP 275

A

stats for UOF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

can you do a 275 and 268 together?

A

may have both, if so route together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

CHP 275, when

A
  • any UOF, injury or not
  • could have 275 non injury, with no 268
  • ex. UOF to overcome physical resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

275, discharg of firearm

A

do a 275, whether or not suspect is struck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

control hold and 275

A

yes, do one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

attacks on officer (275 required)

A
  • serious or fatal injury to officer
  • suspect shoots at officer, even if not struck
  • in these cases there’s no requirement for the officer to have used force (to have to complete 275)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

CHP 275 forwarded

A

to division within 7 calendar days of incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

mere DISPLAY, THREAT, ATTEMPT, force (ECD, baton, KEW, firearm)

A

no 275

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

use of handcuffing technique on compliant subject

A

no 275

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

inadvertently injure a univolved party. Is it a UOF? what would you need?

A

no 275, not UOF
- canine bites wrong person
- ECD probe hits wrong person
(but would need a 268)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

how many 275s when more than one member of the public, more than one employee?

A

only one 275

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

reporting in custody death

A

ORM within 7 calendar days
AG within 10 calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

in-custody death defined

A

process of arrest or pursuit of suspect (not death of other parties)
UOF
in-custody, temporary or not
incarcerated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

STD 270, defined

A

preserves details of TC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

CHP 208 DEFINED

A

evaluates preventability of TC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

STD 270 AND CHP 208

A
  • State or personal vehicle (state purpose) driven by state driver injury or property damage
  • State vehicle legally parked TC
  • alleged state vehicle caused TC, whether or not physically contacted
  • unreported damage discovered
  • hidden damage discovered
  • legal intervention, that meets definition of TC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

no STD 270 or CHP 208 required

A
  • pursuit and only damage or injury to suspect vehicle or suspect
  • PIT damage to either vehicle, damage only on contact point
  • spike strip damage to PV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

STD 270 routing

A

DGS AND Office of Risk and Insurance Management (ORIM) within 48 hours, Division within 7 calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

CHP 208 routing

A

Division within 7 calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

STD 270 and CHP 208 retention

A

threshold = 10 years
non threshold = 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

CHP 187A

A

reports pursuit for allied agency. due to CHP no later than 30 calendar days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

CHP 287 is what?

A

claim of $1,000 or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

CHP 268 for 287

A

do a 268 and route to ORM through division within 7 calendar days
(you may not have known about this until submission on 287)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

CHP 287 routing

A

to ORM, via email, within 48 hours. Original mailed to ORM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

payout of 287 claim

A

deliver to claimant as soon as practical
but no later than 24 hours of receipt of check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

max vacation/CTO, uniform and non uniform

A

non uniform- vacation 640, CTO 240
uniform- vacation 816, CTO 480

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

special pay report due

A

by May 1 to HRS, PTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

FMLA forms to employee

A

CHP 738, 739, 740
to employee within 5 business days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

complaint findings

A

sustained
unintentional error
undetermined/no finding
departmental
exonerated

202
Q

complaint classifications

A

category 1, 2, other

203
Q

other complaints

A

departmental
citation validity
rescinded
frivolous

204
Q

non compliants

A

traffic
vehicle storage/impound validity
other agency
off duty conduct

205
Q

civilian complaint forms

A

non uniform 240D
uniform 240B

206
Q

initial complaint correspondence/
return of forms from civilian

A

initial, 5 business days
return, 10 business days

207
Q

complaints due

A

regular- 60 days
legislative- 30 days

208
Q

complaint closing correspondence

209
Q

approval of complaint (who)

A

category 1 = division
category 2 = area commander

210
Q

reporting complaint info

A

annually, no later than January 20, to OIA

211
Q

contacting SCIF when employee has been off duty

A

at least monthly

212
Q

121D to division

A

by 10th of each month- division copy shall have off duty/ limited duty for 30 or more days, may have less
(injury/illness status report)- commanders copy at area shall have both.

213
Q

employee off for 30 days on injury/illness

A

shall report the day following the 30th by com-net to AC and division

214
Q

CHP 443

A

employee shall provide physician with this
(limited duty assignment, physicians report)

215
Q

STD 634 due

A

no later than 1st working day following end of pay period

216
Q

death/serious injury to employee, notification

A
  • AC and division - immediately
  • MIS to AC and division - within 24 hours
    DOSH - within 8 hours
    State fund - ASAP
217
Q

reoccurrence of injury

A

CHP 51 within 24 hours

218
Q

OSHA 300 log

A
  • record injury within 6 days
  • if injury change within 5 years, update original OSHA 300
  • shall post log between 2/1 and 4/30 (previous year)
219
Q

CHP 121 and OSHA 300 retention

220
Q

CHP 121 packet timeline

A
  • complete and sign by officer and SGT = within 24 hours
  • commander’s signature = within 3 days
  • to SCIF = within 5 days
221
Q

CHP 442, individual accident, recognition record

A

within 3 days of notification of initial or change, update record

222
Q

CHP 600/601

A

to employee within 24 hours
- privacy rights, coping with injury

223
Q

SCIF 3301, employee claim for workers comp

A
  • initiate and provide to employee within 24 hours
  • forward to SCIF within 5 days
224
Q

commander’s memo (injury)

A

review with employee within 24 hours

225
Q

limited duty max

A

max = 2 years
- commander can approve up to 1 year
- AC approves every 3 months after that, up to 2 years

226
Q

travel advance

A

not less than $25
-submit no earlier than 2 weeks, no later than 2 days before trip
- must clear balance no later than 10 calendar days after trip

227
Q

SB 1421 and AB 748 PRU notifications?

A
  • notify PRU by telephone, within 2 business days of request, whether records exist
  • if exists, forward to PRU within 3 business days of request
228
Q

SB 1421 delay for criminal investigation

A
  • ongoing crim.
  • 60 days
  • 180 day intervals
  • up to 18 months
  • unless extraordinary circumstances warrant more delay
229
Q

SB 1421 delay (admin investigation)

A
  • ongoing admin.
  • 180 days
  • or 30 days after close of crim. (whichever is later)
230
Q

AB 748 delay (active investigation)

A
  • 45 days
  • reassess every 30 days, notify requester
  • up to 1 year, unless extraordinary circumstances
231
Q

court and admin per se witness fee

A

both are $275 deposit and per day
- only if subpoenaed by the defense- no personal checks by def. if has an attorney

232
Q

PAS inventory

A

every 10 days

233
Q

speedometer calibration/accuracy check

234
Q

special relationship training

235
Q

substance abuse 6 C’s

A

consistency
confirmation
collection of sample
chain of custody
control of quality
contracts

236
Q

non sensitive position chemical test?, reasonable suspicion based on?

A
  • cant compel test
  • based on articulable facts, close observations, good faith
237
Q

I&I vs substance abuse

A

I&I = .01 to .039
SA = .04+

238
Q

PRS audit

239
Q

9.2 chemical test

A

alcohol = breath only
drugs = urine only
combo = both breath and urine
no blood unless for crim

240
Q

urine test

A

-watch leave the body
-60 ml sample (BU5), 30 ml for other
-split into 2 (BU5 = 30 ml each)

241
Q

OIA notification of 9.2

A

within 48 hours after sample

242
Q

testing kits for 9.2

A

2 (urine) per command, in secure location

243
Q

negative results retention

A

5 years, separate from PF

244
Q

202X, 9.2 report to employee

A

within 48 hours
signed by confirming official

245
Q

EAP sessions

A

-BU5 and BU7 = 7 sessions (plus family (also uniform excluded employees get 7)
-everyone else = 3

246
Q

CISD

A

24-72 hours after
shooting, mandatory for involved

247
Q

for shooting officer and all involved, including despatch time off?

A

5 days paid ATO

248
Q

COSC meetings

A

-quarterly
-within 15 days following DOSC/EOOSC

249
Q

COSC minutes

A

to division within 10 working days

250
Q

action plan/IIPP retention

A

3 years plus current

251
Q

CHP 113, injury and collision report, submission

A

quarterly
15th day following month

252
Q

usually if something is due monthly

A

due on 10th of next month

253
Q

usually if something is due quarterly

A

15th day of following month

254
Q

DOSH complaint letter

A

respond within 14 calendar days

255
Q

Posting DOSH letter and response

A
  • for minimum of 3 days or
  • until unsafe condition is corrected
256
Q

100 forms are maintained

A

5 years, separate from PF

257
Q

probationary hours

A

6 months = 840
12 months = 1,680

258
Q

probation extension

A

when absent for 60 consecutive working days may extend

259
Q

annual appraisal extension

A
  • absent for 30 consecutive days (ex. illness)
  • can extend by 3 months
  • reverts back to regular interval after that
260
Q

118 retention

A

4 years, plus current

261
Q

FTO hours

A
  • minimum 600 (all 4 phases)
  • limbo date count for hours, but not rated
  • orientation week doesn’t count for hours OR rating
  • phases 1-3 = 187 hours each
262
Q

end if training cycle forms

A
  • to statewide FTEP coordinator within 30 days of end of trading cycle
263
Q

meeting with trainee

A

commander or management meet and end of 1st and 3rd phase (to ensure no discrimination or harassment)

264
Q

online sexual harassment training (SGT and above)

A

every 2 years, within 6 mos of promotion

265
Q

informal EEO

A

have 11 months to file

266
Q

formal EEO

A

have 10 working days after informal EEO decision

267
Q

CHP 612, formal discrimination complaint, retention

268
Q

EEO investigation retention

269
Q

change fund max

270
Q

change fund shortage

A

must report shortage of $6 or more

271
Q

petty cash max

272
Q

petty cash purchase

A

max $50, excluding tax
-approval needed

273
Q

funds audit

A
  • commander appoints someone other than the custodian to perform…
  • quarterly, surprise audit
  • also annual surprise audit by a different person then custodian
274
Q

donations for explorers

A

deposited within 72 hours

275
Q

establishing a POST (minimum)

A

5 explorers
5 adult advisors

276
Q

explorer age

A

15-21
age out the year they turn 21 (can finish chartered/calendar year)

277
Q

disbursement of funds from explorer account

A
  • under $1,000 = no approval req.
  • excess of $1,000 = commander
  • excess of $5,000 = division com.
  • excess of $10,000 = board of directors
278
Q

RTO

A

40 hours per cadet
max 120 hours per year
use within 1 year (extension per commander)

279
Q

range deficiency memo

A

by 2/15 each year

280
Q

pistol

A

all uniform
- quarterly shoots = 100 rounds
- can make up but 150 rounds max per session
- qualify = annually with 50 rounds
- night shoot = should
- tactical movement = shall

281
Q

shotgun

A

capt and below
- quarterly = 18 rounds, no more than 30 per shoot, can make up
- qualify = annually, 8 rounds
- night shoot = should
- tactical movement = shall

282
Q

rifle

A

capt and below
- quarterly = 40 minimum, make up ok, 60 max
- qualify = annually
- night shoot = should
- tactical movement = shall

283
Q

180 notice

A
  • sent within 48 hours
  • 10 days to request hearing
  • hearing within 48 hours of request
284
Q

180 evidence tow retention

285
Q

provide with tow hearing decision and CHP 422B

A

within 10 business days

286
Q

asset forfeiture 300A, summary report

A

to division monthly, by 10th of next month

287
Q

asset forfeiture training

288
Q

verification of asset forfeiture training

289
Q

prop 65 hazmat

A
  • notify county health and board of supervisors
  • within 72 hours
290
Q

hazmat =

A

42 gallons + on roadway
anything in dirt, drain, water

291
Q

407E hazmat

A
  • to division
  • within 10 business days
  • original to CVS within 30 business days
292
Q

hazmat report retention

A

1 year plus current calendar year

293
Q

215 signature box

A

owner’s responsibility
in custody
parental notification
complaint to be filed
refused
statistical purposes only

294
Q

215 white/green copy retention

A

white = 6 months
green = 1 year

295
Q

CHP 36 used for

A

record
receipt
notice
declaration
affidavit
report

296
Q

booking date/receipt date

A

may differ but no more than 3 calendar days

297
Q

evidence should be purged

A
  • weekly basis
  • check cases status as follows:
    felony = every year
    misd/infraction = after 6 months
298
Q

status of case update

A

court officer informs evidence officer within 2 days of DA declining case

299
Q

adjudicated case evidence must be held until appeals period has expired

A

felony = 90 days
misd = 60 days
juvenile = 90 days

300
Q

court ordered release of firearm appeal

A

department can appeal within 10 days

301
Q

evidence in passthrough/temporary lockers

A

no more than 1 day, excluding weekends

302
Q

notification for evidence tow

A
  • to DA within 72 hours
  • not including weekends and holidays
303
Q

evidence tow invoices

A

to division
within 3 business days

304
Q

posting staff meeting minutes

A

for 5 days
at area

305
Q

202D, consent search, retention

306
Q

management philosophies (PLOPC)

A

public responsibility
leadership and innovation
organizational development
personnel development
command accountability

307
Q

formal grievance/complaint retention

A

G = 3 years
C = 1 year

308
Q

grievance/complaint elements

A

1) alleged violation
2) statement of problem
3) proposed remedy

309
Q

specialty pay positions

A

motorcycle
pilot/flight officer
bilingual
investigator

310
Q

once initiated, an administrative investigation has 4 possible outcomes

A

adverse action
RDP
miscellaneous investigation
non-punitive termination

311
Q

adverse action penalties

A

1) FWR
2) suspension
3) reduction in salary
4) demotion
5) involuntary transfer
6) dismissal

312
Q

admin investigation due to OIA

A

within 60 days

313
Q

notes from meet and confer

A

kept by commander for 6 months

314
Q

ATO notification

A
  • CalHR notify of ATO of 30 days or less.
  • CalHR approval required if ATO goes past 30 days
315
Q

ATO without pay

A

shall serve NOAA within 15 days

316
Q

AA ranges

A

1) division commander range
- FWR
- 1-5 days; equivalent step reduction
2) AC range
- 6-20 days; equivalent step reduction
- removal from specialty pay position
3) commissioner/deputy commission range
- dismissal
- demotion
- suspension in excess of 20 days; equivalent step reduction
- RDP
- non-punitive termination

317
Q

effective date of AA non uniform, SGT, officer

A

no less than 25 days after service

318
Q

effective date of AA for managers

A

no less than 20 days after service

319
Q

days of suspension, how are they scheduled for officers and sgts?

A

officers/SGT - no RDOs or holidays in suspension period

320
Q

PDH period

A

uniform - 10 working days after service
non uniform - 5 working days after service

321
Q

PDH period when mail service

A

extra 5 days
extra 10 days for out of state

322
Q

RDP appeal

A

no later than 15 days to SPB

323
Q

leaves

A

regular leave = up to 1 year- commissioner approval
adoption leave = up to 1 year- commissioner approval
temporary leave = up to 30 days- commadner approval
informal leave = up to 11 days- commander approval

324
Q

working days for qualified pay period

A

11 or more

325
Q

working days in pay period for healthcare

A

1 working day

326
Q

MM validity

A

9 months, with possible 6 month extension

327
Q

com-net validity

A

90 days (if it contains policy/procedures)

328
Q

strategic plan

A

1) protect life and property
2) enhance public trust through superior service
3) invest in our people
4) anticipate public safety and LE trends, and provide assistance to allied agencies

329
Q

bereavement

A
  • close = 24 hours per occurrence
  • not close = 24 hours per fiscal year
330
Q

retirement seminar

A

was 50, now 49, entitled to 1 shift of state time to attend

331
Q

if you lose or damage state property, what can you do?

A

may use leave credits to satisfy (not sick leave)

332
Q

cash out of hours

A
  • 80 hours annually
  • department notifies by May 1
  • employee requests during month of May, recieve cash out payments in june
333
Q

department policy is contained in

A

GOs
HPMs
temporarily in MMs and com-nets

334
Q

com-net containing policy shall be incorporated

A

within 45 calendar days

335
Q

category 1 correspondence vs category 2 correspondence

A

cat 1 = CHP 51, memo
cat 2 = CHP letterhead

336
Q

manager role in substance abuse

A
  • acts as confirming official
  • authorizes test based on reasonable suspicion
337
Q

sensitive positions for substance abuse

A
  • could endanger health and safety of others
  • peace officer
  • cadet
  • auto tech
  • CVIS
  • PSD/PSO
338
Q

involuntary sample

A
  • only for sensitive positions, based on reasonable suspicion
  • can’t impose test on non sensitive position, but they can provide an unsolicited sample
339
Q

confirming official cant be

A
  • cant be sup/mgr that noticed or formed reasonable suspecion
  • confirming official would be Lt. or above
340
Q

officer, annual performance (118) completion

A

within 60 days of anniversary due to HRS.

341
Q

SGT 118S due

A

within 60 days of end of year due to HRS.

342
Q

chapter inspections

A

minimum of 2 per calendar year

343
Q

home storage of state vehicle

A

commander = 70 miles max
non commander = 50 miles max

344
Q

negative 9.2 result

A
  • sample = negative 3 weeks
  • 202X with results attached = 2 years, not in PF
  • negative results alone = 5 years, not in PF
  • not retained at area
345
Q

positive 9.2 result

A

part of AA, positive sample one year -20 degrees centigrade

346
Q

reporting shortages in the fund

A

no later than the first business day following discovery

347
Q

primary method for obtaining office and janitorial supplies

A

CalCard program

348
Q

general rule for inspections

A
  • Inspect 10% or at least 10 items.
  • if discrepancy exists, inspect an additional 10% for 20% or at least 20 items.
  • if there’s still a discrepancy, inspect 100%
  • if only 10 items, inspect all
349
Q

prior inspection

A
  • at least 5 items from the most recent inspection shall be evaluated.
  • if there’s a discrepancy, inspect entire, 100%
350
Q

an inventory is

A

survey of 100%
conducted annually

351
Q

evidence keys

A
  • commander has 1 property room key and one set of temporary locker keys (always)
  • if one evidence officer, he has a second property room key and a second set of temporary locker keys.
  • if there’s a second property officer, everyone has a property room key (3 total), but the second set of temporary locker keys is placed in the property room for access by both property officers.
352
Q

state fuel cards

A

max use = 5x per day
max = $3,500 per month
ok for: gas, oil purchase (not change, top off only), tire change/balance

353
Q

explorer program, 4 modes

A

training
operational support
fundraising
social modes

354
Q

explorer monthly financial statement AND annual audit

A

area commander is responsible

355
Q

senior volunteer qualifications

A

no felonies
available during office hours
minimal supervision
at least 50

356
Q

senior volunteer ID cards

A

when resigned, removed, etc.,
send to the statewide coordinator

357
Q

medical care for senior volunteers and explorers

A

not covered by worker’s compensation

358
Q

injuries to SVP members

A

not counted toward area’s occupational safety goals

359
Q

both explorers and SVP can drive

A

state vehicles with certain qualifications

360
Q

explorers access to

A

CLETS, MDC, CAD is ok if they sign confidentiality, CHP 101

361
Q

keys to the ammo locker

A

limited to the number of primary range officers (no more than 2 + the commander’s emergency access key)

362
Q

annual firearm inventory

A

April 1 of each year, academy weapons unit will send a report of firearms assigned to the command. commander shall designate 2 employees to physically verify.

363
Q

annul ECD inventory

A

every September academy weapons unit will send report. physically verify

364
Q

training for less lethal shotgun

365
Q

less lethal shotgun shall be inspected and cleaned

366
Q

4 authorized uniforms

A

formal uniform
work uniform
utility uniform
cold weather uniform

367
Q

campaign hat

A

when performing patrol duties, shall keep readily available within vehicle

368
Q

ponytails

A

shall not be worn

369
Q

soft body armor wearing

370
Q

body armour replacement

A

within 5 years

371
Q

body armour incident

A

as soon as practical but no later than 10 working days after, forward report to OLA

372
Q

wearing reflective vest

A
  • traffic control
  • outside of PV at checkpoint, COZEEP, MAZEEP
373
Q

tow hearing results 422B

A
  • whether valid of invalid, retain for 2 years
  • route to division within 5 working days, party get 422B within 10 business days.
374
Q

money in temporary locker

A

cannot exceed $1,000. must be in property room.

375
Q

cash assets having no evidentiary value

A

shall be deposited into an interest bearing account, within 10 working days

376
Q

asset forfeiture, seizing real property

377
Q

asset forfeiture, seizing personal items

A

departments policy is to NOT

378
Q

fatal, severe, or visible injury collision involving school bus, SPAB, general public paratransit vehicle, notify

A

by telephone:
- division commander
- research and planning section

379
Q

fatal, severe, or visible injury collision involving school bus, SPAB, general public paratransit vehicle, Com-net

A

within 24 hours to OSR and CVS

380
Q

MJ 18-almost 21

A

need prescription

381
Q

MJ 21 and older

382
Q

responsible for hazmat report

A

where first drop spilled. not necessarily where AOI happened in a TC. example, vehicle hits guardrail and lands in city street spilling hazmat. TC would be ours, hazmat would be city’s

383
Q

hazmat falls on

A

LE agency with primary traffic investigation authority (2454 CVC, IC authority)

384
Q

exception to reporting hazmat

A

ongoing criminal investigation

385
Q

sight safety plan

A

required for ALL hazmat, regardless of size

386
Q

verbal notification to OES

387
Q

does media have access to disaster areas that have been closed to the general public

A

if properly identified, shall not be restricted

388
Q

it is appropriate to deny media access when

A
  • crime scene
  • unrestricted access would interfere
  • collision of military aircraft (but it’s ok until the military arrives)
389
Q

collision reports and photos are releasable to

A

involved
- insurance companies
- attorney
media (only public portions)

390
Q

public info releasable from collision

A

that which is on the CHP 288A

391
Q

dont release

A

fatal victim info
specific injuries (only say “minor”)
BACs, PAS ok if PRAd
photos

392
Q

releasable criminal arrest info

A
  • arrestees full name (except juvi)
  • arrestees address
  • victim’s name and address (unless conf)
  • time, date, location, circumstances
393
Q

except as described, dont release arrest info of juvi, but can release collision info as follows:

A

name, age, hometown

394
Q

public release of BAC results

A

can’t, but can give PAS results

395
Q

radar/lidar unit recertification

A

every 30 months

396
Q

dismissing citation already issued

A
  • officer submits memo (and all copies of 215 if possible)
  • commander prepares letter in quadruplicate
  • send to court, DA, division (with photocopy of 215), and keep one at office
397
Q

voiding citation not issued

A
  • officer prepares memo
  • commander writes “void” on all copies
  • enters reason for voiding in “code and section”
  • signs in the area below the reason for voiding
398
Q

a citation is considered “issued” when

A

a violator has signed and receives a copy of the citation or a copy has been mailed

399
Q

media release of employee personnel action

A

not releasable under POBR

400
Q

upgrading classification of violation using 411

A

can’t, ex. upgrade infraction to misd of 411, must use complaint process to upgrade

401
Q

TC report availability

A

within 8 working days

402
Q

retain TC reports

A

48 months
unsolved felony 20001, 7 years, MAIT reports 10 years,
unsolved 20001 fatal, indefinitely

403
Q

MAIT shall be utilized

A

1) fatal or severe injury TC involving CHP or Caltrans, including subcontractors. Even if the fatal or severe injury is to someone else, but involves CHP or Caltrans.
2) fatal or severe injury accident involving departmental aircraft

404
Q

MAIT may be utilized

A
  • would be appropriate
  • fatality involving prosecution
  • fatality involving combination vehicles
  • significant amount of hazmat
  • NTSB is also investigating
  • fatal or severe injury involving roadway defect
  • vehicle manufacturing defect
405
Q

exclusive means by which peace officers personnel records can be disclosed

A

Pitchess motion
- complaints
- UOF
- racial profiling
- illegal search
- false arrest

406
Q

judge will exclude what from PF

A

complaints more than 5 years prior to date of motion

407
Q

category 1, 2, and other complaint retention

A

shall be destroyed after 5 years

408
Q

staples to seal evidence

A

should not be used

409
Q

What shall you not use plastic bags for pertaining to evidence

A

shall not for:
biological material
blood
saliva
fingerprints
living plant material

410
Q

all tape seals shall have

A

booking officer’s:
initials
ID
date packaged
(written across both tape and package)

411
Q

destruction of large quantities of controlled substance

A
  • may be destroyed without court order
  • only the excess of 10 pounds gross weight controlled substance
  • or 2 pounds harvested cannabis
  • requires division approval
412
Q

place copy of 70.1, chapter 5, packaging of evidence

A

in a binder at each area’s packaging station

413
Q

place all evidence and property in temporary storage locker

A

prior to end of work shift

414
Q

storing evidence or property in personal locker

415
Q

booking property for safekeeping and other as evidence/contraband

A

package separately

416
Q

blue sensitive item serialized tape

A

may be used for items of value such as jewelry, shall be used for money/ controlled substances

417
Q

evidence items that may require testing shall be what?

A

package separately from items that wont require testing

418
Q

can you open evidence packaging to verify contents during audit, inspection, inventory

419
Q

if need to open evidence to test, how do you do it?

A

shall not open on original seal
reseal as usual

420
Q

seizing alcoholic beverages, do we?

A

should not seize or retain
except for felony cases

421
Q

digital media taken by employees in performance of their duties

A

is the property of the department

422
Q

weighing drugs- what type of measurement of weight and what are the before and after weights called?

A
  • should be in grams
  • item weight = the weight of the drugs and its first container/or original packaging AS FOUND
  • package weight = weight of drugs, containers, after they have been placed in heat sealed bags, with evidence tape, barcode affixed, etc.
423
Q

drugs with a street value of $10,000 or greater

A

shall not be stored in a temporary locker.
shall be secured in evidence/property room

424
Q

caring for MJ plants

A

under no obligation to

425
Q

do we count pills

A

shall be weighed, not counted

426
Q

packaging guns

A

safe, unloaded
slide locked back
magazine removed

427
Q

unloading magazine

A

not for forensic testing

428
Q

packaging for guns

A

booking officer places firearm in box and makes safe.
evidence officer will secure firearm to the box

429
Q

counting money

A

shall be counted by 2 separate employees, regardless of amount
one should be a supervisor

430
Q

notification of money in excess of $1,000

A

during business hours evidence officer, alternative, or commander
if outside business hours, one of them shall respond to office

431
Q

retention of CHP 36 and other attachments

A

shall retain for life of evidence plus 5 years

432
Q

all serialized property must be

A

entered into APS

433
Q

all firearms and ECDs must be entered into AFS

A

within 7 days
whether found, seized as evidence, or safekeeping

434
Q

all firearms shall be entered into eTrace

A

within 7 days

435
Q

purging criminal case evidence

A

return to owner/finder
sale or auction
destruction
recycle
discard
donate
convert to use for training

436
Q

evidence hold times

A
  • punishable by death = indefinitely
  • 261 = indefinitely
  • felony sexual offenses = 10 years
  • CP = 10 years
  • punishable by 8 years or more = 6 years
  • = 6 years
  • 192 = 6 years
  • punishable by state prison = 3 years
  • misdemeanor/infraction = 1 year
437
Q

evidence from appeal case

A

hold until adjudicated

438
Q

civilian complaint evidence

A

hold 5 years

439
Q

biological material used to convict how long do we keep?

A

retain for duration of incarceration

440
Q

two person rule for controlled substance destruction

A

use 2 people when packaging controlled substances for destruction

441
Q

transportation of controlled substance for destruction

A

shall use 2 people, at least one armed officer

442
Q

destruction of controlled substance

A

requires court order

443
Q

CHP 37 and court order for destruction maintained for

444
Q

who can’t we release firearms to?

A

convicted felon
addicted to any narcotic
245, ADW
417, brandishing

445
Q

weapons seized during DV

A

hold for AT LEAST 48 hours

446
Q

court order for firearm destruction

A

generally not required

447
Q

retention of documents related to disposal of firearms

448
Q

property supervisor shall conduct inspections of property system

449
Q

commander inspection of property room

A

one unscheduled, unannounced inspection per calendar year, does not count as quarterly inspection

450
Q

property room inventory

451
Q

annual inventory of MVARS discs

A

not required due to high volume

452
Q

change of property officer

A

100% inventory
change locks or
update biometric access

453
Q

property officer

A

1 year road experience
should not be active field officer
should not be court officer

454
Q

property officer serves for

A

minimum of 3 years

455
Q

vehicle held as evidence

A

180 and 36
tow driver signs both
flatbed should be utilized
officer shall accompany tow to yard

456
Q

MVARS discs shall be submitted

A

at conclusion of shift

457
Q

MVARS significant event

A

red sleeve

458
Q

MVARS filing

A

chronologically, separated by month

459
Q

if third party information is contained on an MVARS

A

get Protective Order
bring to court to view
dont just release

460
Q

Peace Officer owes a duty of care to the public when the officer:

A

(1) Places a person in peril;
(2) Affects or increases the risk of harm to a person by specific conduct; or
(3) Creates a special relationship by making an expressed or implied promise

461
Q

Any uniformed employees establishing a special relationship as defined in this manual should remain at the scene until one or more of the following occurs:

A

(1) properly relieved

(2) relinquished scene management responsibilities properly

(3) reasonably apparent emergency requiring their immediate attention elsewhere.

(4) direction from a supervisor.

(5) assistance and/or protection no longer reasonably necessary.

462
Q

dont have to remain with 11-26 or party when?

A

all reasonable steps have been taken to resolve the incident, so long as no reasonable foreseeable danger to the individual or other traffic exists.

463
Q

single command pursuit

A

When an employee(s) from only one command is involved in a pursuit, regardless of whether or not the pursuit travels outside of the command’s geographical boundaries

464
Q

officer in a pursuit in another area

A

officer’s home command is responsible

465
Q

When more than one command and/or agency is involved in the same pursuit

A

each involved command and/or agency is responsible for completing and reviewing only those portions of the report that applies to their involvement.

466
Q

MVARS DVD routine events retention

467
Q

MVARS retention threshold vs non threshold

A

hold for 5 or 10 respectively

468
Q

MVARS admin evidence

469
Q

MVARS shooting incident

470
Q

MVARS showing employee exposure to hazmat

471
Q

earning the trust of CA communities three tenets

A
  1. individual evaluation
  2. respect and dignity
  3. unified vision
472
Q

meetings and briefings minutes

A
  • copy to division
  • post copy at area for 5 days
  • employee who were absent must read and initial
473
Q

OIC shall only be appointed

A
  • when 2 or more officers will be working under their supervision
  • gets incentive if OIC for 6 hours or more
474
Q

familiarity with CALEA

A

within 30 days of hiring
includes non uniform

475
Q

MVARS policy review

476
Q

shall activate MVARS

A

enforcement contacts/peds
pursuits
code 3/emergency response
vehicle search/inventory
assisting disabled motorist
confrontational interactions
pat down/frisk

477
Q

cant use MVARS to

A
  • record other CHP when not in enforcement capacity
  • recording allied agency
478
Q

while transporting to book

A

may discontinue recording should record entirey if combative

479
Q

retrieving loop footage

A

commissioner approval required

480
Q

MVARS becomes inoperable

A

get new PV

481
Q

personal use of MVARS footage

A

prohibited
cant make copy, record, etc

482
Q

supervisor should review MVARS

A
  • CHP severely injured or killed
  • UOF, resulting in death or serious bodily injury
  • in custody death
  • PV TC resulting in death or serious injury
  • pursuit
  • intentional or accidental discharge of firearm
  • to prove or disprove allegations of misconduct
483
Q

may view MVARS

A

employee agrees
employee behaviors of concern

484
Q

viewing MVARS in conjunction with annual eval

A

shall view minimum of 2

485
Q

employees can view for

A
  • AA
  • preparation of written documents
  • providing statement as victim/witness
  • UOF
486
Q

when regarding search and seizure and not addressed in policy, look to ______ for search and seizure

487
Q

a search occurs when

A

an expectation of privacy that society is prepared to recognize as responsible, is infringed upon

488
Q

a seizure of property occurs

A

where there is a meaningful interface with an individual’s possessory interest

489
Q

MVARS for other than severe injury to officer

A

make copy
but policy doesn’t say to review

490
Q

a seizure of a person occurs when

A

physical application of force or
submission to authority

491
Q

search definition

A

a physical intrusion into one’s person or property to seek potential evidence or contraband that may be concealed. merely looking at that which is open to view is not a search (ex. plain view)

492
Q

PC to search

A

enough facts, training, knowledge to provide a fair probability that the object being sought will be found in the location searched

493
Q

consent validity

A

freely
voluntarily
standing over thing
ability to withdraw consent
can define scope

494
Q

reasonable suspicion

A
  • something related to a crime just happened, is happening, or is about to happen
  • the person, vehicle detained is related to that activity (specific articulable facts)
495
Q

search and seizure policy review

496
Q

When involved in a multi agency pursuit

A

The CHP Area or Allied agency shall only report the minutes and mileage for the time they were actually in control of the pursuit.

497
Q

PRS time

A

shall be sent to division within 7 calendar days

498
Q

area commander shall conduct audits _____ to ensure pursuit reports are completed on time.

499
Q

In the event the concern for potential civil liability arises as a result of a pursuit

A

a CHP 268, shall be completed, in addition to a pursuit report.

500
Q

pursuit involving multiple officers from multiple areas

A

each area is responsible for documenting the time during which their units were involved. within that area