Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Gastrointestinal System_Didactic Year > Rapid Style Questions > Flashcards

Rapid Style Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of acute cholecystitis?

A

Gallstones obstructing the cystic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which physical exam finding is classically associated with acute cholecystitis?

A

Murphy’s Sign

Murphy’s Sign: RUQ pain/tenderness with deep palpation during inspiration (halts inspiration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the first-line imaging modality for suspected acute cholecystitis?

A

Abdominal Ultrasound

Transabdominal gallbladder US is best test to detect gallstones and evaluate GB disease
* Ultrasonographic Murphy sign: local abdominal tenderness over GB
* Pericholecystic fluid and GB wall thickening indicates acute inflammation

Classically CT scans are done in the ED, but they are not first-line nor the best test in diagnosing acute cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why is a transabdominal ultrasound superior to CT scans in diagnosing acute cholecystitis?

A
  • Visualization of Gallbladder Wall and Structures: US is superior when visualizing the GB and detecting its thickening, which is a key indicator of acute cholecystitis
  • Reproduction of Murphy’s Sign
  • Non-invasive and is a quick test in the ED
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Although labs can be normal in acute cholecystitis, what are some common labatory findings?

A
  • Elevated WBC
  • LFT’s normal to slightly elevated
  • Elevated bilirubin and alk phos
  • Lipase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the initial management for a patient presenting with acute cholecystitis?

A

IV Fluids, antibiotics, and pain control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What surgical procedure is commonly performed for acute cholecystitis?

A

Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy

Earlier is better, within 24-48 hours is ideal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which antibiotic is commonly used for treating acute cholecystitis?

A

Piperacillin-tazobactam or ceftriaxone w/metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What complication occurs when the gallbladder wall becomes ischemic and necrotic?

A

Gangrenous cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the role of a HIDA scan in diagnosing acute cholecystitis?

A

To confirm diagnosis when ultrasound findings are equivocal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What finding on ultrasound is indicative of acute cholecystitis?

A

Gallbladder wall thickening, pericholecystic fluid, and a positive Murphy’s sign

Positive Murphy’s sign reproduced during exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a non-surgical alternative procedure for acute cholecystitis when surgery is contraindicated?

A

Percutaneous cholecystostomy

A percutaneous cholecystostomy is a minimally invasive procedure used to drain the gallbladder, typically performed in patients with acute cholecystitis who are not candidates for immediate surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the common pathogen of acute cholecystitis?

What is the typical duration of abx treatment?

A

E. coli

5-7 days post surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What imaging finding is described as a “porcelain gallbladder” and why is it significant?

A

Calcification of the gallbladder wall, significant because it can be associated with an increased risk of gallbladder cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the name of the condition where a stone obstructs the common bile duct, often presenting with jaundice?

A

Choledocholithiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the typical cause of chronic cholecystitis?

What are common symptoms of chronic cholecystitis?

A

Repeated episodes of acute cholecystitis or chronic irritation caused by gallstones

Intermittent RUQ pain, nausea, and bloating (especially after fatty meal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the typical imaging finding in chronic cholecysitits?

A

Thickened gallbladder wall and presence of gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Are LFT’s elevated in chronic cholecystitis?

A

No, they are usually normal as well as white blood cell counts

These can be normal or elevated in acute cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the definitive treatment for chronic cholecystitis?

A

Cholecystectomy (surgical removal of the gallbladder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Are men or women more affected by chronic cholecystitis?

A

Women (Middle-aged)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a common complication of untreated chronic cholecystitis?

A
  • Gallbladder cancer
  • Gallstone ileus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does chronic cholecystitis differ from acute cholecystitis in terms of presentation?

A

Chronic cholecystitis presents with intermittent and less severe symptoms compared to the acute, severe pain and systemic symptoms of acute cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What dietary modification can help manage symptoms of chronic cholecystitis?

Because what type of gallstone are most common in chronic cholecystitis?

A

Reducing Fatty Foods

Cholesterol gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What type of cholelithiasis (gallstone) is related to cirrhosis?

A

Black Stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the best imaging test to diagnose stones in the common bile duct (choledocholithiasis)?

A

ERCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the biggest risk factor associated with gastric cancer?

What factors can reduce risk?

A

H. Pylori

Chronic aspirin or NSAID use, and wine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most common gastric cancer type?

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are Virchow’s nodes?

A

Supraclavicular nodes seen in gastric cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What finding on physical exam strongly suggests choledocholithiasis?

A

Icterus (yellowing of the sclera)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What symptom might a patient with choledocholithiasis experience after eating a fatty meal?

A

Biliary colic (severe abdominal pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a common cause of secondary choledocholithiasis?

A

Migration of gallstones from the gallbladder into the common bile duct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What condition must be ruled out in a patient with suspected choledocholithiasis and severe right upper quadrant pain?

What lab findings suggest bile duct obstruction?

A

Acute pancreatitis

Elevated bilirubin, particularly direct (conjugated) bili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

On imaging in a patient with choledocholithiasis is the bile duct constricted or dilated?

What imaging can be done if US is inconclusive?

A

Dilated

Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which symptom differentiates choledocholithiasis from uncomplicated cholelithiasis?

A

Jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What serious complication can arise from choledocholithiasis if not treated?

What is choledocholithiasis?

A

Cholangitis

Gallstones in the common bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic procedure for choledocholithiasis?

A

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the definition of chronic hepatitis?

Which hepatits is most likely to progress to chronic infection?

A

Hepatitis lasting more than 6 months

Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What serologic marker indicates chronic hepatitis B infection?

A

HBsAg positive for more than 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which hepatitis virus is most commonly associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Hepatitis B (HBV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the goal of antiviral therapy in chronic hepatitis B?

A

To suppress HBV DNA to undetectable levels and normalize ALT levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which direct-acting antiviral (DAA) class is used to treat chronic hepatitis C?

A
  • NS5A inhibitors
  • NS5B polymerase inhibitors
  • Protease inhibitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What screening test is recommended for patients with chronic hepatitis B and cirrhosis to monitor for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Liver ultrasound every 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What serologic marker indicates immunity to hepatitis B due to vaccination?

A

Anti-HBs (Hepatitis B surface antibody)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which hepatitis virus can lead to fulminant liver failure in pregnant women?

A

Hepatitis E virus (HEV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which serologic marker indicates a resolved hepatitis B infection?

A

Positive anti-HBs and anti-HBc with negative HBsAg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which hepatitis virus is associated with the highest risk of chronic infection in neonates?

A

Hepatits B virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the most common cause of acute appendicitis?

A

Obstruction of the appendiceal lumen, often by a fecalith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the initial symptom of acute appendicitis?

What physical exam finding is indicative of appendcitis?

A

Periumbilical pain that later localizes to the right lower quadrant

McBurney’s point tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What sign involves pain in the right lower quadrant with palpation of the left lower quadrant?

A

Rovsing’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice for diagnosing appendicitis in adults?

What about in children and pregnant persons?

A

CT of abdomen and pelvis

Ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What laboratory finding is commonly associated with appendicitis?

A

Elevated white blood cell count (leukocytosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended before appendectomy?

What is the definitive treatment for acute appendicitis?

A

A single dose of a broad-spectrum antibiotic such as cefoxitin or cefazolin with metronidazole

Appendectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Is surgery indicative in a patient with appendicitis who on imaging has a fecalith present?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the name of the sign where there is pain upon passive extension of the right hip?

A

Psoas sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the name of the sign where there is pain upon internal rotation of the flexed right thigh?

A

Obturator sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What complication can arise if appendicitis is left untreated?

A

Perforation leading to peritonitis or abscess formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a common differential diagnosis for appendicitis in young women?

A

Ovarian Cyst
Ectopic Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the typical initial symptom of appendicitis?

What is the treatment?

A

Crampy or “colicky” pain around the umbilicus

Surgical appendectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the most common symptom of appendicitis in children?

A

Right lower quadrant pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A 10-year old child presents with periumbilical pain that later localizes to the right lower quadrant. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the most common complication of appendicitis in pediatric patients?

A

Peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

True or False: Appendicitis can sometimes present with diarrhea in pediatric patients

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

At what age does colic peak?

When does it typically end?

A

Peaks 2-3 months of age

4 months of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the Rule of 3’s in infantile colic?

A

Cry –> 3 hrs/day, 3d/wk, for 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

True or False: Constipation can lead to urinary incontinence in children.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the most accurate signs of moderate to severe dehydration in kids?

A
  • Prolonged capillary refill
  • Poor skin turgor
  • Abnormal breathing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What congenital disorder is classified by the absence or complete closure of a portion of the lumen of the duodenum?

What is seen in utero in this diagnosis?

A

Duodenal Atresia

Increased levels of amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the most common presenting symptom of duodenal atresia in a newborn?

A

Bilious vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the most frequent viral cause of diarrhea in children?

A

Rotavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the hallmark presentation of Hirschsprungs Disease?

A

Delayed passage of meconium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Encopresis in children is almost always associated to what underlying condition?

A

Severe Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the most likely etiology for diarrhea after a picnic (i.e. egg salad)?

A

Staph. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the etiology of travelers diarrhea?

A

E.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Vibrio cholerae infection is associated with the consumption of what food?

A

Shellfish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Is a nighttime cough associated with GERD?

A

Yes, nighttime cough can indeed be associated with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). In children and adults, GERD can cause a variety of respiratory symptoms, and cough is one of the more common manifestations, particularly when it occurs at night.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

a

True/False: Esophageal pH monitoring is the gold standard for diagnosing GERD in children of all ages.

A

False (It is informative but not necessarily the standard for all ages, particularly in infants where clinical presentation is often sufficient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Neonatal jaundice appears when total bilirubin levels are above what value?

At what level does neonatal hyperbili require treatment?

A

2mg/dL

Levels greater than 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When is a Coomb’s test done?

A

To evaluate neonatal jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis for lactose intolerance?

A

Lactose hydrogen breath test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Are gastric or duodenal peptic ulcers more common?

What are the two biggest risk factors of peptic ulcer formation?

A

Duodenal

H. Pylori and NSAID use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the most common cause of an upper gastrointestinal bleed?

What increases the risk of bleeding?

A

Peptic Ulcer Disease

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Does food exacerbate or alleviate symptoms in peptic ulcers?

A

Duodenal ulcer: pain is alleviated by ingesting food (mnemonic: DUDe, give me food)

Gastric ulcer: pain is exacerbated by ingesting food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which risk factors should prompt a GERD patient to be screened for Barrett’s esophagus?

A

Presence of multiple risk factors including age ≥ 50, central obesity, chronic GERD, cigarette smoking, hernia, male gender, white race, and a confirmed history of Barrett’s esophagus or esophageal adenocarcinoma in a first-degree relative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the most common risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus?

What is the most common esophageal cancer in the U.S.?

A

Smoking and alcohol use

Adenocarcinoma, and squamous cell is the most common worldwide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the screening recommendation for esophageal cancer in patients with known Barrett’s Esophagus?

A

Screening endoscopy every 3-5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which nerve is most likely injured when patients with esophageal cancer have a hoarse voice?

A

The recurrent laryngeal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice in diagnosing acute diverticulitis?

What is contraindicated due to risk of perferation?

A

Abdominal CT with contrast

Barium enema or colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What finding is seen on abdominal radiographs with bowel perforation?

A

Free air under the diaghragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What bowel disease is classically associated with toxic megacolon?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The presention of dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food, and halitosis is consistent with what GI diagnosis?

What is the diagnostic study of choice?

A

Zenker’s Diverticulum

Barium Swallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the most common etiology of appendicitis?

A

Fecalith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Describe the special tests applicable to working up appendicitis?

A
  • Rovsing Sign: RLQ pain with LLQ palpation
  • Obturator Sign: RLQ pain with internal rotation of the hip
  • Psoas Sign: RLQ pain with right hip flexion/extension (raise leg against resistance)
  • McBurney’s point tenderness: point one third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the belly button
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What finding on abdominal x-ray should make you think of bowel obstruction?

A

Air Fluid Levels (“string of pearls” or “stack of coins”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What imaging modality should be ordered immediately in the work-up of a suspected bowel obstruction?

What is the imaging modality of choice?

A

Obtain plain radiographs (KUB) to quickly confirm a diagnosis of bowel obstruction, and, provided the films do not have findings that indicate the need for immediate intervention, then use computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen and pelvis to further characterize the nature, severity, and potential etiologies of the obstruction

Abdominal CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What will be seen on the KUB postive for a bowel obstruction?

What is the treatment?

A

KUB shows dilated small bowel loops (< 3 cm), air-fluid levels in the small bowel with valvulae conniventes visible across the full width of the bowel, string of pearls (multiple air-fluid levels), and paucity of gas in the colon

NG tube or surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Is vomiting more common in small bowel obstructions or large bowel obstructions?

A

Small Bowel Obstructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the recommended treatment for mild-to-moderate GERD?

What drug class is used when first line treatment fails?

A

Histamine 2 receptor antagonists such as cimetidine or famotidine

PPI’s (omeprazole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the most common type of hiatal hernia and how does it commonly present?

A

A sliding hiatal hernia is the most common and it typically presents with GERD symptoms refractory to treatment with a PPI and symptoms worse at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is Budd Chiari Syndrome?

What is it associated with?

A

a triad of abdominal pain, ascites, and hepatomegaly

Cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the most common complication of cirrhosis?

How is it treated?

A

Ascites

Paracentesis

101
Q

What is the most common cause of painless rectal bleeding in the pediatric population?

A

Colonic Polyps

102
Q

What is Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)?

When should screening begin with patients at high risk of FAP?

What is the definitive and preferred treatment?

A

An autosomal dominant genetic predisposition that is characterized by the development of hundreds to thousands of colonic adenomatous polyps

Yearly sigmoidography beginning at age 12

Prophylactic colectomy

103
Q

How is constipation defined?

A

Less than 3 bowel movements per week

According to the Rome III criteria, functional constipation is defined as any two of the following features:

  • Straining
  • Lumpy, hard stools
  • A sensation of incomplete evacuation
  • Use of digital maneuvers
  • A sensation of anorectal obstruction or blockage with 25 percent of bowel movements
  • A decrease in stool frequency (less than three bowel movements per week)
104
Q

What is the presentation of travelers diarrhea?

What is the treatment?

What is the most common etiology?

A

Abrupt onset of watery diarrhea, malaise, anorexia, and abdominal cramps.

Supportive Care

Enterotoxic E. Coli (ETEC)

105
Q

What toxicity can occur with large amounts of bismuth ingestion?

A

Salycilate toxicity

106
Q

Which chronic esophageal condition predisposes the development of esophageal cancer?

A

Barrett’s Esophagus

107
Q

What are the two most common causes of pancreatitis?

What is the most sensitive lab test to diagnos pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones and alcohol use

Lipase

108
Q

What is Charcoat’s Triad?

What is Reynold’s Pentad?

A

Abdominal Pain, Jaundice, Fever

Associated with cholangitis

Charcoat Triad + Confusion, Hypotension

109
Q

How does a distal bowel obstruction present compared to a proximal bowel obstruction?

A

Patients present with less vomiting and more abdominal distension

110
Q

Describe a hiatal hernia?

How does a Type 1 hiatal hernia present?

A

A hiatal hernia occurs when the upper portion of the stomach protrudes into the chest cavity due to a weakness or tear in the diaphragm or the distal esophagus slides above the diaphragm.

Similar to GERD, it is the most common type

111
Q

What are the layers of the GI Tract?

A
  • Mucosa
  • Submucosa
  • Muscularis
  • Serosa
112
Q

Mucosa contains epithelium and glands that secrete what?

A

GLP-1: glucagon-like peptide
CCK: choleystokinin

113
Q

What type of neurons are in the submucosa?

A

Autonomic neurons are within the Meissner’s plexus

114
Q

What enzyme is within saliva that helps to break down carbs?

A

salivary amylase

115
Q

Salivary glands are innervated by what branch of the nervous system?

A

Parasympathetic

116
Q

The cricopharyngeal muscle helps with what function

A

Closes the UES during inspiration

117
Q

What is the Z line of the esophagus?

A

A demarcation line, the squamocolumnar (SC) junction or “Z-line”, represents the normal esophagogastric junction where the squamous mucosa of the esophagus and columnar mucosa of the stomach meet

118
Q

The stomach is impermeable to water, but will absorb what?

A

NSAIDs and ETOH

119
Q

What hormone will decrease motility and emptying during the intestinal phase in the stomach?

A

Cholecystokinin

120
Q

What hormone will slow gastric juice release during the intestinal phase in the stomach?

A

Somatostatin

121
Q

What helps to release gastric acid?

122
Q

Where is the vomiting center located?

A

Medula - will induce deep breathing and close to the epiglottis

123
Q

What cells secrete hydrochloric acid?

A

Parietal cells

124
Q

Where is bile produced?

125
Q

Bile is released with pancreatic enzymes through what sphincter?

A

Sphincter of Oddi

126
Q

What hormone stimulates bile production?

127
Q

What cell type makes up a bulk of the pancreas?

A

Acini cells

128
Q

What breaks down starches and glycogen?

129
Q

What is the primary site of chemical digestion and nutrient absoprtion?

A

Small intestine

130
Q

What ligament separates the duodenum from the jejunum?

A

Treitz ligament

131
Q

What portion of the small intestine accepts chyme from the stomach?

132
Q

Where is magnesium absorbed?

A

Jejunum and ilium

133
Q

What ligament comes off the falciform to support superiorly to the diaphragm?

A

Coronary ligament

134
Q

What is the functional unit of the liver?

A

Liver lobule

135
Q

Where do sinusoids drain into?

A

Central vein –> hepatic vein –> IVC

136
Q

What normally determines osmotic pressure?

137
Q

What substance results from the breakdown of proteins?

138
Q

The head of the pancreas receives blood from what artery?

A

Superior mesenteric artery (SMA)

139
Q

Which antibiotic is used for the treatment of diarrhea due to Clostridioides difficile?

A

Oral vancomycin

140
Q

What is the recommended procedural treatment for patients with refractory grade II internal hemorrhoids who are on anticoagulants?

A

Sclerotherapy due to the high risk of bleeding

141
Q

What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction in adults?

What is the most common cause in children?

A

Adhesions from previous surgeries

Intussusception

142
Q

What is the most common cause of large bowel obstruction?

A

Colorectal Cancer

143
Q

What classic triad of symptoms is associated with bowel obstruction?

A

Abdominal Pain
Vomiting
Constipation (or inability to pass flatus)

144
Q

What imaging study is typically first line to diagnose a bowel obstruction?

What signs are you looking for?

A

Abdominal X-ray

Multiple air-fluid levels and dilated loops of bowel

145
Q

What is the initial management step for a suspected bowel obstruction?

What electrolyte imbalance do you want to watch out for?

A
  • Nasogastric tube insertion for decompression
  • IV fluids
  • NPO

Hypokalemia

Bowel obstructions cause hypokalemia due to several different mechanisms including - vomiting, decreased oral intake, third-spacing (fluid can accumulate in the bowel lumen and interstitial space), and in some cases diarrhea

146
Q

What are some common physical exam findings in bowel obstruction?

A
  • Abdominal distension
  • Hyperactive bowel sounds initially, followed by hypoactive bowel sounds
147
Q

What complication is a major concern with bowel obstruction?

A

Bowel ischemia and perforation

148
Q

What finding on CT scan is suggestive of a closed-loop bowel obstruction?

A

A segment of bowel with a twisted appearance and a C-shaped loop

149
Q

What is the typical presentation of a patient with a sigmoid volvulus?

A

Elderly patient with chronic constipation and a sudden onset of crampy abdominal pain and distension

150
Q

What is the term for a bowel obstruction caused by gallstone migration?

A

Gallstone ileus

151
Q

What is the most common initial management approach for uncomplicated small bowel obstruction?

A

Concervative management with bowel rest, IV fluids, and monitoring

152
Q

What is the classic triad of symptoms for intussusception in children?

A

Abdominal pain, “current jelly” stools, and a palpable abdominal mass (sausage-like mass)

153
Q

What is intussusception?

What are the most common age groups affected?

A

Telescoping of one part of the intestine into an adjacent part

Infants and young children, typically between 6 months and 3 years

154
Q

What is the most common location for intussusception to occur?

A

Ileocecal region

155
Q

What is the first line imaging modality to diagnose intussesception?

A

Abdominal Ultrasound (sensitivity and specificity > 95%)

Will see a target or a “doughnut” sign

156
Q

What is the initial treatment for intussusception in a stable patient?

A

Air or contrast enema (can also be therapeutic)

157
Q

What is Dance’s sign?

A

Emptiness in the right lower quadrant seen in intussesception

158
Q

What underlying conditions can predispose to intussusception in older children?

A
  • Meckel’s diverticulum
  • Polyps
  • Lymphomas
159
Q

What is the typical presentation of “currant jelly” stools in intussusception?

A

Stools mixed with blood and mucus

160
Q

What is the most common cause of intussesception in children?

A

Idiopathic, often with an associated viral infection leading to lymphoid hyperplasia

161
Q

What is the typical disposition for a child after successful enema reduction of intussusception?

A

Observation in the hospital for 12-24 hours to monitor for recurrence

162
Q

What is a potential risk during the enema reduction of intussusception?

A

Bowel perforation

163
Q

What is the etiology of esophagitis?

A
  • Reflux/erosive
  • Infection (usually fungal)
  • Pill induced esophagitis
  • Eosinophilic
  • Radiation induced
164
Q

What is the most common pathogen in infectious esophagitis?

165
Q

What is the presentation of esophagitis?

A

Retrosternal chest pain
Heartburn
Odynophagia
Dysphagia

166
Q

What is the diagnosis and work-up for esophagitis?

A

Endoscopy and biopsy may differentiate subtypes

167
Q

How will candidiasis appear on endoscopy?

A

Small, diffuse, linear, yellow-white, “cheese like” plaques adherent to mucosa

168
Q

What is the treatment for erosive/reflux esophagitis?

A

H2 blocker or PPI

169
Q

What is the treatment for candida esophagitis?

A

Oral fluconazole

170
Q

What is the treatment for EoE esophagitis?

A

Budesonide or fluticasone

171
Q

What needs to be avoided in patients with esophagitis?

172
Q

What is the first-line treatment for a superficial perianal abscess?

A

Surgical Drainage

173
Q

A patient presents with a painful, red, swollen area near the anus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Perianal Abscess

174
Q

What is a common complication of an untreated perianal abscess?

A

Fistula Formation

175
Q

What type of fistula is associated with Crohn’s Disease?

A

Enterocutaneous fistula

176
Q

What is the typical presentation of an anorectal fistula?

A

Recurrent perianal abscesses

177
Q

Which surgical procedure is commonly performed to treat a simple anal fistula?

A

Fistulotomy

178
Q

What is the primary characteristic of an ileus?

A

Paralysis of the intestinal muscles

179
Q

Are electrolyte imbalances a common cause of postoperative ilues?

A

Yes

Postoperative ileus is a temporary impairment of bowel motility after surgery. Several factors can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus, including: electrolyte imbalance (hypokalemia), inflammation, medication, and pain

180
Q

A patient presents with abdominal distension, vomiting, and absent bowel sounds. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Ileus

Absent bowel sounds helps distinguish ileus from a bowel obstruction

181
Q

What imaging study is most helpful in diagnosing an ilues?

A

Abdominal X-ray

182
Q

What is the first line treatment in a patient with ilues>

A

Nasogastric decompression and supportive care

183
Q

Which electrolyte abnormality is commonly associated with ileus?

A

Hypokalemia

184
Q

What is the role of prokinetic agents in the treatment of ileus?

A

Help stimulate bowel motility

185
Q

What is the classic age range for the presentation of pyloric stenosis in infants?

What symptom is the most characteristic?

A

3-6 weeks of life

Projectile vomiting

186
Q

What is the typical physical exam finding in an infant with pyloric stenosis?

A

Olive-shaped mass in the RUQ

187
Q

What imaging modality is most commonly used to confirm the diagnosis of pyloric stenosis?

A

Ultrasound

188
Q

What is the first line treatment for pyloric stenosis?

A

Pyloromyotomy

189
Q

What is the primary cause of pyloric stenosis?

A

Muscle hypertrophy

190
Q

What is the primary cause of nutritional rickets?

What population is at highest risk?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

Exclusively breastfed infants without vitamin D supplementation

191
Q

What is the classic radiographic finding in a child with rickets?

A

Cupping and fraying of the metaphyses

192
Q

What lab value is typically elevated in rickets?

A

Alkaline phosphatase

193
Q

What is the most common skeletal deformity seen in rickets?

A

Bowing of the long bones

194
Q

What is the most common symptom of celiac disease in children?

A

Chronic diarrhea

195
Q

Which serological marker is most commonly used for screening celiac disease?

What is the definitive method for diagnosing?

A

Anti-tissue transglutaminase (tTG) antibodies

Endoscopic biopsy of the small intestine

196
Q

Describe some of the findings of a positive celiac disease biopsy?

A
  • Villous Atrophy: Villi of the small intestine are flattened or atrophied
  • Crypt Hyperplasia: The crypts of Lieberkuhn, the glands lining the small intestine become elongated and hyperplastic
  • Increased lymphocytes
197
Q

What is the most likely complication of untreated celiac disease?

A

Osteoporosis

*This does come up frequently on EORE’s and the PACKRAT

198
Q

What is a non-gastrointestinal manifestation of celiac disease?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

199
Q

What is Zenker diverticulum and where is it usually located?

A

An acquired outpouching of the esophagus which is typically found at the junction of the pharynx and esophagus

200
Q

What is the most common presenting symptom of Zenker divericulum?

What is a common complication?

A

Dysphagia

Aspiration pneumonia

201
Q

What diagnostic test is most commonly used to identify Zenker diverticulum?

A

Barium swallow study

202
Q

What is the treatment for Zenker diverticulum?

A

Surgery (Diverticulectomy)

203
Q

What anatomical defect contributes to the formation of the Zenker diverticulum?

A

Weakness in the cricopharyngeal muscle

204
Q

What diagnosis is defined as a painful tear in the lining of the anus?

A

Anal Fissure

205
Q

What symptom is most characteristic of an anal fissure?

A

Severe pain during and after bowel movements. Patient will typically refrain from defecating.

Also, bright red blood per rectum.

206
Q

Where are anal fissures most commonly located?

A

Posterior midline

207
Q

What is the first line treatment for an acute anal fissure?

What pharmacologic treatments are typically used?

A

Supportive measures: Sitz baths, analgesics, high fiber diet, increased water intake, stool softeners, laxatives

Second line: topical nitroglycerin or calcium channel blockers

208
Q

What is the primary cause of GERD?

A

Incompetence of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)

209
Q

What is the typical symptom of GERD?

What are some atypical signs of GERD?

A

Heartburn - often retrosternal and postprandial (pain can increase in the supine position)

Hoarseness, aspiration pneumonia, wheezing, chest pain, cough (esp kids)

210
Q

Which diagnostic test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing GERD?

A

Esophageal pH monitoring

*It is rarely done in clinical practice, GERD is a clinical diagnosis

211
Q

What medication class is considered first-line for GERD?

A

H2 Receptor Antagonists

212
Q

What is a potenital complication of chronic untreated GERD?

A

Barrett’s Esophagus

213
Q

Which symptom suggests that a patient with GERD might have developed a more serious condition like Barett’s esophagus or esophageal cancer?

214
Q

Which surgical procedure may be considered for patients with severe, refractory GERD?

A

Fundoplication

215
Q

What is the most common esophageal neoplasm?

A

Squamous cell (in the mid to upper third of the esophagus)

216
Q

What are risk factors of adenocarcinoma esophageal neoplasms?

A

Barrett’s esophagus (complication of GERD), smoking, and high BMI

217
Q

What is etiology of gastritis?

A

Inflammation of the superficial lining of the stomach mucosa

218
Q

What is the most common cause of gastritis?

What are some other causes?

A

H. pylori

NSAIDs (second m/c), acute stress, ETOH, medications, pernicious anemia

219
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice for gastritis?

A

Uppoer endoscopy with biopsy

*should also test for H. pylori

220
Q

A patient presents with GERD like symptoms that are refractory to PPI treatment. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hiatal hernia

221
Q

What demographic is most commonly affected by rectal prolapse?

A

Elderly women

222
Q

A palpable mass protruding the anus would be consistent with what diagnosis?

A

Rectal Prolapse

223
Q

What underlining genetic condition is related to an acute rectal prolapse in children?

A

Cystic Fibrosis

224
Q

What is the initial management step for an acute rectal prolapse?

What surgical procedure is often performed to correct rectal prolapse?

A

Manual reduction of the prolapse

Rectopexy

225
Q

What is the most common cause of cirrhosis?

A

Chronic Hepatitis C is the most common cause

226
Q

What biological process requires albumin?

A

Albumin is needed for transport of hormones, fats, nutrients. It also helps maintain intravascular and osmotic pressure.

227
Q

Bilirubin is a byproduct of what?

A

Breakdown of RBCs

228
Q

What is the pathology of cirrhosis?

A

Inflammation and fibrosis of the liver

Fibrosis will block the flow of bile or blood within the liver lobule which leads to hepatic impairment —> Jaundice and portal HTN

229
Q

What is the major complication of cirrhosis that involves the accumulation of fluid in the abdomen?

230
Q

Which scoring system is used to assess the severity of cirrhosis?

A

Child-Pugh score (calculates 1 and 2 year survival)

Places a score based on:
* Total Bili
* Serum albumin
* PT INR
* Acites
* Hepatic encephalopathy

231
Q

Which dietary recommendation is often advised for patients with cirrhosis and ascites?

A

Low-sodium diet to reduce ascites

232
Q

A patient with cirrhosis should be screened for hepatocellular carcinoma how frequently?

A

Every 6 months via US

233
Q

List three common causes of constipation in adults?

A
  • Low fiber diet
  • Insufficient fluid intake
  • Physical inactivity
234
Q

What dietary recommendation is commonly given to help alleviate constipation?

A

Increase dietary fiber intake

235
Q

Which OTC is commonly used first-line for constipation?

A

Bulk-forming laxatives, such as psyllium husk (Metamucil)

236
Q

Name two potential complications of chronic constipation?

A
  • Hemorrhoids
  • Anal fissures
237
Q

What is a common side effect of opioid medications related to the GI system?

A

Constipation

238
Q

Name a commonly used osmotic laxative for treating constipation?

A

Polyethylene glycol (Miralax)

239
Q

What is the recommended daily fiber intake for adults to help prevent constipation?

A

25-30 grams per day

240
Q

Which medical conditions are commonly associated with constipation as a symptom?

A
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Diabetes
  • Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
  • Depression
  • Parkinson’s Disease
  • MS
  • Hyper/hypocalcemia
  • Celiac Disease
  • Spinal cord injury
241
Q

What is a Mallory-Weiss tear?

What is the most common cause?

A

A tear in the mucous membrane at the junction of the esophagus and stomach

Forceful or prolonged vomiting or retching

242
Q

What symptom is most commonly associated with Mallory-Weiss tears?

A

Hematemesis (vomiting blood)

243
Q

Which diagnostic test is most commonly used to confirm a Mallory-Weiss tear?

A

Upper endoscopy (EGD)

244
Q

Name the most common risk factor for a Mallory-Weiss tear?

A

Alcohol abuse/Binge Drinking

245
Q

What is hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

A severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances

246
Q

What is cyclic vomiting syndrome (CVS)?

A

A disorder characterized by recurrent, severe episodes of vomiting with no apparent cause

247
Q

Which medication is commonly used to treat severe cases of hyperemesis?

A

Ondansetron (Zofran)

248
Q

Name a neurological condition that can cause hyperemesis?

Gastrointestinal System_Didactic Year (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions