Rapid Review Nichols Path Flashcards

1
Q

Heartburn

A

GERD

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2
Q

Pathogen for acute sialadenitis? Which gland?

A

Staph aureus, parotid

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3
Q

Is surgery an option for GERD?

A

Yes

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4
Q

Cause of chronic sialadenitis?

A

Sialolith

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5
Q

Most common salivary gland tumor?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma – ductal epithelium and mesenchymal elements

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6
Q

Rx for a 50 y/o female that presents with rounded, well-circumscribed, painless, motile, firm mass at angle of jaw? Complication?

A

Surgery; CN VII injury (Bell’s)

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7
Q

Second MC tumor of parotid?

A

Warthin’s Tumor (Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum)

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8
Q

60 y/o male smoker presents with slow-growing, painless, firm mass?

A

Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum (Warthin’s)

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9
Q

Cystic spaces lined by double layer of oncocytes + prominent lymphoid stroma

A

Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum

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10
Q

Expresses CagA gene and causes degradation of p53 leading to activation of cell proliferation pathways? (Ras, Mek, Erk, NF-kB, B-cat)

A

H pylori

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11
Q

Syringe-like Type IV secretion system pilus

A

H Pylori

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12
Q

Difference b/w H. pylori gastritis and autoimmune atrophic gastritis?

A

G-cell hyperplasia

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13
Q

Is a Warthin’s tumor a true neoplasm?

A

No

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14
Q

MC malignant tumor of salivary glands? Prognosis?

A

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma, pretty good

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15
Q

Treatment plan for Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma based upon what three factors?

A

Histologic grade, location, stage

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16
Q

Abdominal pain/discomfort + heartburn + N/V + massive hematemesis

A

Acute hemorrhagic gastritis

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17
Q

MCC Chronic gastritis?

A

H Pylori

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18
Q

What inflammatory cell type seen in chronic H pylori gastritis?

A

Neutrophil

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19
Q

Brain injury stress ulcers?

A

Cushing

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20
Q

Burn injury stress ulcers?

A

Curling

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21
Q

Diagnostic modality for esophageal cancer?

A

Endoscopy

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22
Q

Imaging to help stage and det. depth esophageal cancer?

A

CT and Ultrasound

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23
Q

MC gastric polyp?

A

Hyperplastic (H pylori)

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24
Q

Standard diagnostic modality for gastric cancer? Staging modality? Curative modality?

A

Endoscopy, CT, surgery

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25
Q

What two factors make a tumor malignant?

A

Invasion or malignancy

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26
Q

Main/Earliest mutation in esophageal SCC?

A

p53

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27
Q

Majority of esophageal SCC are protruding, flat, or excavated?

A

Protruding

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28
Q

Order of mutations in Esophageal SCC?

A

p53 –> FHIT and TOC –> DLC1, 9p31, Cyclin D1 –> EGFR, HIST, cMYC; everything from cyclin D1 on in this list is amplification

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29
Q

Mutations occurring in Esophageal Adenocarcinoma? Are they all necessary or sufficient?

A

p53, epigenetic silencing/hypermethylation of p16/INK4 cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor, RB; amplification of cERB-B2, Cyclin D, Cyclin E; no

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30
Q

Histologic type of gastric polyp – Dilated corpus oxyntic type glands?

A

Fundic gland polyp

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31
Q

Type of epithelium in an adenomatous polyp?

A

Stratified columnar

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32
Q

First-line therapy for constipation according to Nichols

A

Prunes (theoretical candy…?)

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33
Q

Together, the RFs obesity, alcohol, and low veggie diet are the three most important in what cancer?

A

Colon

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34
Q

Name that gene (loss of methylation just included for completeness): Chr 5q –> loss of DNA methylation –> Chr 12q –> Chr 17q –> Chr 18q

A

APC/B-cat –> loss of DNA methylation –> KRAS –> p53 –> Smad2/Smad4/DCC

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35
Q

MLH1, MSH2, BAX, BRAF mutations – what pathway?

A

Microsatellite instability pathway to colonic adenocarcinoma

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36
Q

BRAF mutation mimics?

A

KRAS

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37
Q

Signet rings?

A

Linitis plastica/Diffuse type gastric adenocarcinoma

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38
Q

Leather Bottle?

A

Linitis plastica/Diffuse type gastric adenocarcinoma

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39
Q

Order of events leading to esophageal adenocarcinoma?

A

Obesity –> GERD –> Barrett –> Dysplasia –> Adenocarcinoma (lower esophagus)

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40
Q

Definitive therapy for pancreatic carcinoma?

A

Surgery

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41
Q

Villous blunting and intraepithelial CD8 lymphocytes?

A

Celiac sprue/gluten-sensitive enteropathy

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42
Q

Cause for temporary disaccharidase (lactase) deficiency?

A

Viral gastroenteritis (Norwalk/Rotavirus I’m guessing)

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43
Q

PAS+, foamy macrophages in the lamina propria of a white, middle aged male presenting with GI, cardiac, and joint Sx? Cause?

A

Whipple disease; Tropheryma whipplei/actinomycete

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44
Q

What type of worm is Ascaris? How to differentiate from a protozoa like Giardia?

A

Roundworm; eosinophilia

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45
Q

27 y/o man with psychiatric hx admitted to ER in coma, hypothermic, with a hard/distended abdomen and fatal abdominal compartment syndrome related to the absorption of antidepressents and benzodiazepines – cause of death?

A

Acquired toxic megacolon

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46
Q

Gold standard for definitive Dx of Hirschprung? Treatment?

A

Rectal Biopsy; Surgical resection

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47
Q

Sessile serrated adenoma – which pathway?

A

Microsatellite instability

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48
Q

MC Symptom of colon cancer?

A

Abdominal pain

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49
Q

KRAS after APC mutation =

A

Cancer

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50
Q

KRAS without APC mutation =

A

Hyperplastic polyp

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51
Q

Color of a carcinoid?

A

Yellow

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52
Q

Small, sessile polyp in the rectum of an adult >60 y/o with a serrated/star-shaped lumen on histo? Mutation?

A

Hyperplastic polyp; KRAS

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53
Q

Length for progression of an adenoma to carcinoma?

A

10 yr

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54
Q

Highest risk adenomatous polyp?

A

Sessile villous

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55
Q

What are the most important mutations in esophageal adenocarcinoma? (ones he listed in TBL)

A

p53; EGFR (30% [15% are HER2 – RX trastuzumab])

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56
Q

p16/INK4, EGFR, TP53 together most important in which upper GI cancer?

A

Esophageal SCC

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57
Q

Cleaves E-cadherin, thus releasing B-cat

A

CagA from H Pylori

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58
Q

CDH1 mutation coding for E-cadherin important in which cancer?

A

Linitis plastica

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59
Q

Corkscrew glands (type of polyp)

A

Hyperplastic

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60
Q

Hamartomas in the small intestine (type of polyp)

A

Peutz-Jeghers

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61
Q

MC type of polyp?

A

Adenomatous

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62
Q

Longstanding IBD causes what type of polyp?

A

Inflammatory/Pseudopolyp

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63
Q

Location of colon cancer causing occult bleeding/anemia?

A

Right side

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64
Q

Location of colon cancer causing overt bleeding and obstructive symptoms?

A

Left side

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65
Q

ATG16L1, IRGM, NOD2 seen in Crohn’s or UC? Which activates NF-kB and is assoc. w/ epithelial integrity? Which is a/w defective Paneth cell granules and affects intestinal microbiota? (all key points from Robbins)

A

Crohn’s; NOD2; ATG16L1

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66
Q

IL23R, Stat3, IL12B – adaptive or innate immunity genes in IBD?

A

Adaptive

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67
Q

Role of SLC22A5, ZNF365, NKX2-3 in IBD – Innate or adaptive immunity or cell integrity?

A

Cell integrity

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68
Q

Location of colon cancer causing tenesmus, pain, and bleeding?

A

Rectum

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69
Q

Apple core lesion with barium enema

A

Left sided colon cancer

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70
Q

Th1, Th17, IL23 – Crohn’s or UC?

A

Crohn’s

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71
Q

Th1, Th2, Th17, IL13, IL10, IL10R, IL23

A

Ulcerative colitis

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72
Q

Annular, napkin ring lesion

A

Left sided colon cancer

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73
Q

Disease limited to mucosa/submucosa

A

Ulcerative colitis

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74
Q

Polypoid exophytic cancer

A

Right sided colon cancer

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75
Q

Why do a CT before you take someone to surgery to excise a polyp?

A

Look for metastasis

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76
Q

Flask-shaped ulcer in the submucosa? Geographic prevalence?

A

Entameoba Histolytica; Mexico

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77
Q

Organism that resembles human macrophages; how do you tell it’s not a macrophage?

A

Entamoeba Histolytica; ingests RBCs

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78
Q

What amoeba sits atop intestinal ductular cells and is extremely dangerous in immunocompromised patients?

A

Cryptosporidium

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79
Q

Toxic megacolon in which IBD? (big time bad complication)

A

Ulcerative colitis

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80
Q

Most sensitive evaluation of free air in the colon (for Dx of toxic megacolon)? What’s a quickie test in case of emergency (Uworld)

A

CT; flat plain of abdomen

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81
Q

Useful test to observe mucosal changes in IBD?

A

Barium enema

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82
Q

IBD with strong monozygotic concordance?

A

Crohn’s

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83
Q

MC age range of diagnosis of Crohn’s

A

20-29

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84
Q

Transmural involvement

A

Crohn’s

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85
Q

Fistula

A

Crohn’s

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86
Q

Noncaseating granuloma

A

Crohn’s – Excellent!!!!

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87
Q

Skip lesion

A

Crohn’s

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88
Q

Cobblestone mucosa

A

Crohn’s

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89
Q

Creeping fat

A

Crohn’s

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90
Q

Volcano appearance on H&E?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

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91
Q

Thickened submucosal collagen layer w/ lymphs in the epithelium? Etiology? Responds to?

A

Collagenous colitis, decreased MMP1 or increased TIMP, budesonide

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92
Q

ANCA + anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae in IBD?

A

Crohn’s

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93
Q

Chromogranin stains?

A

Carcinoid

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94
Q

Hypergastrinemia in majority or minority of carcinoids?

A

Majority

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95
Q

Secretin stimulation test is used for dx of what?

A

Zollinger-Ellison

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96
Q

MC symptom and location of intestinal neuroendocrine carcinoid (not ZE)?

A

Abdominal pain; ileum/appendix

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97
Q

MC neoplasm of appendix

A

Carcinoid

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98
Q

CD 117 is also known as? Mutated in what? MC location?

A

cKIT, GIST, stomach

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99
Q

Tumor whose cells differentiate from interstitial cells of Cajal

A

GIST

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100
Q

MC presentations of GIST

A

overt GI bleed or abdominal mass

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101
Q

Detection of GIST? Biopsy method?

102
Q

Imatinib

103
Q

Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder

104
Q

MC GI lymphoma location?

A

Stomach (50% are MALTomas, rest are diffuse large B-cell lymphomas)

105
Q

MC GI lymphoma presenting symptom? Next MC?

A

Epigastric pain; anorexia

106
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis associated with?

107
Q

Most specific antibody for Dx of Celiac? Other antibodies present?

A

IgA Anti-endomysium; Anti-gliadin, anti-tissue transaminase

108
Q

Young female with lupus – think what GI complication?

A

Necrotizing vasculitis of GI tract (hypercoagulable –> ischemia)

109
Q

Middle-aged man with polyarteritis nodosa – think what GI complication?

A

Necrotizing vasculitis of GI tract

110
Q

Child with Henoch-Schonlein Purpura – think what GI complication?

A

Necrotizing vasculitis of GI tract

111
Q

Lymphs in the epithelium without thickened submucosal collagen

A

Lymphocytic colitis

112
Q

Oral and genital aphthous ulcers + uveitis + gastric ulcers + arthritis

A

Behcet’s (was in Marino’s part of Diarrhea lecture – just in case he gets sneaky!)

113
Q

Embolus to the SMA – think what GI vascular issue?

A

Acute mesenteric ischemia

114
Q

Congestive heart failure in the ICU – think what GI vascular issue?

A

Ischemic colitis

115
Q

Atherosclerosis with pain after eating – think what GI vascular issue?

A

Chronic mesenteric ischemia

116
Q

Middle age woman with autoimmune disorders/hypercoagulability – think what GI vascular issue?

A

Venous mesenteric ischemia

117
Q

Upper GI bleed

118
Q

Lower GI bleed

A

Hematochezia

119
Q

Active bleeding of ulcer upon endoscopy + visible vessel (risk of rebleed?)

120
Q

Completely white base of ulcer (risk of rebleed?)

121
Q

Ulcer in the posterior wall of the duodenum or lesser curvature of the stomach?

122
Q

3 predictive factors of esophageal varices?

A

Pressure, size, color

123
Q

Decreased risk by smoking and appendectomy

A

Ulcerative colitis

124
Q

Increased risk by smoking, appendectomy, high childhood sanitation level, high carbohydrate miles

125
Q

Begins in rectum, no skip lesions

A

Ulcerative colitis

126
Q

Rectum only; rectal bleed and tenesmus

127
Q

Rectum + sigmoid colon; bloody diarrhea, tenesumus, abdominal cramps and pain

A

Proctosigmoiditis

128
Q

Rectum + Sigmoid + Descending colon to flexure; bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramping, pain on left side, and unintended wt loss

A

Left-sided colitis

129
Q

Entire colon; severe bouts of bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramps/pain, fatigue, and significant weight loss

A

Pancolitis

130
Q

Is fulminant colitis common with IBD?

131
Q

Sclerosing cholangitis

A

Ulcerative colitis

132
Q

ANCA alone in IBD?

A

Usually ulcerative colitis

133
Q

MALToma treatment

A

Antibiotics

134
Q

MALToma prognosis with treatment

A

Good (other GI lymphoma prognoses bad)

135
Q

Watershed infarct

A

Splenic flexure

136
Q

Early severe abdominal pain without ileus but not actually tender on physical exam; doesn’t bleed

A

Acute mesenteric ischemia (medical or surgical emergency, poor prognosis)

137
Q

Key diagnostic test of acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

Angiography

138
Q

Dusky =

A

Small bowel infarct = dead = surgical excision

139
Q

Key diagnostic test of ischemic colitis?

A

Colonoscopy

140
Q

Pill-induced esophageal ulcer

A

Bisphosphonates

141
Q

Ischemic esophageal ulcers (AIDS)

142
Q

Punched out ulcers right above GEJ

143
Q

MCCs of acute lower GI bleed

A

Diverticulosis + angiodysplasia

144
Q

MCCs of chronic lower GI bleed

A

Hemorrhoids + neoplasia

145
Q

Degenerative change in blood vessels in cecum (dilated, tortuous) with mucosal telangiectasias; A/w advanced age (>70), chronic renal failure, Osler-Weber-Rendu, prior radiation, and watermelon stomach

A

Angiodysplasia

146
Q

Intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma – MCC?

147
Q

Rate limiting enzyme for cholesterol metabolism

A

7alfa-hydroxylase

148
Q

Three factors in pathophys of gallstone formation

A

Cholesterol supersat, accelerated nucleation, gallbladder hypomotility

149
Q

Hemolysis, advancing age, long-term TPN, cirrhosis – type of stone?

150
Q

Decreasing biliary secretory IgA, high B-glucuronidase activity, bacterial infection – type of stone?

151
Q

MC gallbladder disease?

152
Q

Diagnostic modality for gallstone?

A

Ultrasound

153
Q

Extraction method for stone?

154
Q

Post-cholecystitis abdominal pain, melena, and jaundice and find a clot in the bile duct

155
Q

Cancer from PSC?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

156
Q

Cancer Sometimes Penetrates Benign Liver

A

Colon, stomach, pancreas, breast, lung

157
Q

MCC of HCC

A

Chronic viral hepatitis

158
Q

Four presenting Sx of HCC

A

Jaundice, encephalopathy, ascites, bleeding

159
Q

Four predictors of prognosis in HCC

A

Size, differentiation, invasion and mets

160
Q

HCC tumor marker

A

a-fetoprotein

161
Q

Mainstay Rx of HCC? Are patients usually eligible?

A

Surgery; no

162
Q

Central stellate scar grossly (liver tumor)

A

Focal nodular hyperplasia

163
Q

Anabolic steroids or OCPs?

A

Hepatic adenoma

164
Q

Complication of hepatic adenoma?

A

Rupture/massive peritoneal hemorrhage

165
Q

MC benign liver tumor

A

Hemangioma

166
Q

Liver tumor usually <2cm, commonly subcapsular, composed of blood-filled vascular spaces?

A

Hemangioma

167
Q

Malignant epithelial neoplasm of liver in kids

A

Hepatoblastoma

168
Q

What’s another name for a cholangiocarcinoma at the bifurcation of the common bile duct?

A

Klatskin tumor

169
Q

MC mutations in cholangiocarcinomas?

A

KRAS (50% intra, 15% extra) and p53 (33% in all)

170
Q

Mode of metastasis for cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Lymphatics

171
Q

Mode of metastasis for HCC?

A

Hematogenous

172
Q

Differentiate Extrahepatic Cholangiocarcinoma from intrahepatic.

A

EH has pruritis, fever, jaundice, and high bilirubin

173
Q

Prognosis for cholangiocarcinoma?

174
Q

Obstruction, hepatitis, Dubin-Johnson

A

Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

175
Q

Hemolysis, hepatitis, Gilbert

A

Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

176
Q

Rx for severe hyperbilirubinemia damaging brain?

177
Q

MCCOD from liver disease in childhood?

A

Biliary atresia

178
Q

Jaundiced 3-6 weeks of age, conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, disproportionately high GGT, mild-moderately high ALT and AST – Dx?

A

Biliary atresia

179
Q

Congenital lack of intrahepatic bile ducts?

A

Alagille syndrome (arteriohepatic dysplasia)

180
Q

Mutation in JAGGED1 gene for ligand for NOTCH1 receptor? Inheritance?

A

Alagille, AD

181
Q

Trichrome stain of portal triad shows blood vessels but no bile ducts

182
Q

Prognosis for Alagille?

183
Q

Defective excretion of bilirubin conjugates and other organic anions across hepatocyte canalicular membrane?

A

Dubin-Johnson

184
Q

Brown-black liver pigment

A

Dubin-Johnson

185
Q

Lysosomes containing polymers of epinephrine metabolites?

A

Dubin-Johnson (causes the pigmentation)

186
Q

Recurring or fluctuating jaundice (general, but just for association with this disease)

A

Dubin-Johnson

187
Q

Autosomal recessive deficiency of UGT?

188
Q

Young adult with mild, primarily unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia brought on by febrile illness, exertion, fasting, or hemolysis and no other manifestations of disease?

189
Q

Disease that causes hyperbilirubinemia but also decreased incidence of colon cancer and heart disease?

190
Q

Dense lymphocytic infiltrate in and around interlobular bile ducts with granulomas and bile duct destruction and loss, and progressive portal fibrosis

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

191
Q

Anti-mitochondrial antibody

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

192
Q

Onion-skinning fibrosis of bile ducts

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

193
Q

PSC presenting Sx

A

Fatigue, pruritis, jaundice

194
Q

Beading of bile ducts

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

195
Q

Portal hypertension due to thrombosis of hepatic veins

A

Budd-Chiari

196
Q

MCC Budd-Chiari

A

Polycythemia vera (or myeloproliferative disease – he seemed to harp on that)

197
Q

Hypertrophy of caudate lobe

A

Budd-Chiari

198
Q

Patients lie still because pain is aggravated by movement. Usually have voluntary and involuntary guarding.

A

Acute Cholecystitis

199
Q

Acute acalculous cholecystitis – 4 associations?

A

Postoperative state after major surgery, severe trauma, severe burns, or sepsis

200
Q

Skin vesicles and bullae with sun exposure? Etiology?

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda; ROS from uroporphyrinogen

201
Q

Porphobilinogen-deaminase deficiency

A

Acute Intermittent Porphyria; AD

202
Q

Gallstones in the bile ducts

A

Choledocolithiasis

203
Q

Infection of the intrahepatic biliary ducts

A

Ascending cholangitis

204
Q

Bacterial ascending cholangitis – acute or chronic?

A

Acute (Gram negative intestinal anaerobes

205
Q

Olive-like mass

A

Congenital pyloric stenosis

206
Q

Parasitic ascending cholangitis – acute or chronic?

A

Chronic (Cryptosporidium, Fasciola hepatica, Schistosoma, Clonorchis)

207
Q

N-acetylcysteine

A

Acetaminophen OD

208
Q

Boiled cabbage? Inheritance?

A

Tyrosinemia, AR

209
Q

Mousy/musty

A

Phenylketonuria

210
Q

Rotting Fish

A

Trimethylaminuria

211
Q

Sweaty feet

A

Isovalaric acidemia

212
Q

Maple syrup

A

Maple syrup disease

213
Q

Fumaryl-aceto-acetase deficiency

A

Tyrosinemia Type I

214
Q

French Canadian baby presenting with failure to thrive in first few months of life, then vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice, lethargy, coma, and then death; high urine succinylacetone – Dx?

A

Tyrosinemia

215
Q

Acetaminophen OD

A

Centrilobular necrosis

216
Q

Yellow fever or mushrooms

A

Midzone necrosis

217
Q

Phosphorous compounds

A

Periportal necrosis

218
Q

Most common urea cycle disorder? Inheritance?

A

Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency, X-linked

219
Q

Beta-glucocerebrosidase deficiency? Inheritance?

A

Gaucher’s disease, AR

220
Q

Most common lysosomal storage disease?

A

Gaucher’s

221
Q

Kupffer cells and macrophages expanded with crinkled cytoplasm

A

Gaucher’s

222
Q

Most common initial sign of Gaucher’s? Other main manifestations (2)?

A

Splenomegaly; Pancytopenia and bone pain

223
Q

Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency

A

Von Gierke’s Disease/Glycogen Storage Disease Type I

224
Q

Marked hepatomegaly with hypoglycemia in the first year of life

A

Von Gierke

225
Q

3 big Sx in Von Gierke?

A

Hyperlipidemia, Hyperuricemia, Lactic Acidosis

226
Q

Most common porphyria?

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

227
Q

Urine becomes dark, even purple during an attack of this disease

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

228
Q

Dx for Acute Intermittent Porphyria?

A

Urine test for porphobilinogen

229
Q

Rx for Acute Intermittent Porphyria?

230
Q

Anchovy-paste

231
Q

Canalicular bile plugs

A

Canalicular cholestasis

232
Q

Accumulation of bile in hepatocytes

A

Hepatocellular cholestasis

233
Q

Epiallopregnanolone sulfate inhibition of farnesoid X receptor-mediated bile acid efflux

A

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

234
Q

Rx for intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

235
Q

Second MC drug class to cause liver injury in a hepatocellular/cholestatic pattern?

A

Psychoactive meds

236
Q

What is NAPQI?

A

Toxic metabolite of acetaminophen that is conjugated with glutathione

237
Q

First region of hepatocytes to run out of glutathione?

A

Centrilobular

238
Q

ANCA + anti-smooth muscle

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

239
Q

Subtle histologic difference between autoimmune hepatitis and viral hepatitis?

A

Plasma cells are more prominent in autoimmune hepatitis

240
Q

MCC acute liver injury?

241
Q

Failure of Na-K Pump in hepatocytes due to injury that causes depletion of ATP, leading to influx of Na and H2O – what histologic finding does this describe? Is it reversible?

A

Ballooning degeneration; yes

242
Q

What do acute fatty liver of pregnancy, Reye syndrome, and multiple hornet stings all have in common?

A

Microvesicular steatosis

243
Q

Mega-mitochondria

A

Microvesicular steatosis

244
Q

Aggregates of intermediate filaments

A

Mallory bodies

245
Q

Steatosis, Mallory Bodies and Neutrophils are triad for what?

A

Alcoholic Hepatitis

246
Q

Severe hepatocyte damage leading to swelling of hepatocyte cytoplasm and wispy appearance

A

Feathery degeneration

247
Q

How does NASH differ from alcoholic hepatitis? (2 ways)

A

Milder and lacks cholestasis

248
Q

Key cytokines in Alcoholic Liver Disease?

A

TNFa, IL1, IL6, and L8

249
Q

Key cytokines in NASH/NAFLD?

A

TNF, IL6, MCP-1

250
Q

Type IV collagen in the space of Disse?

251
Q

Type I and III collagen in the space of Disse?