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Rapid Review Flashcards

1
Q

ECG pattern in A flutter

A

sawtooth

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2
Q

Unstable angina (definition)

A

New or worsening angina w/ no increase in troponins

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3
Q

Antihypertensive for a diabetic patient w proteinuria

A

ACEi or ARB

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4
Q

Beck triad for cardiac tamponade

A

Hypotension, distant heart sounds, JVD

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5
Q

Drugs that slow heart rate (4)

A

B-blockers, CCB, digoxin, amiodarone

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6
Q

Hypercholesterolemia treatment that causes flushing & pruritis

A

Niacin

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7
Q

Murmur - HOCM

A

Systolic ejection murmur along lateral sternal border, increases with decreased preload (Valsalva)

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8
Q

Murmur - aortic insufficiency

A

Diastolic decrescendo, low-pitched, blowing, loudest when sitting up; increases with increased after load (handgrip)

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9
Q

Murmur - aortic stenosis

A

Systolic crescendo/decrescendo murmur that radiates to neck; increases with increased preload (squatting)

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10
Q

Murmur - mitral regurg

A

Holosystolic murmur, radiates to axilla; increases with increased after load (handgrip)

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11
Q

Murmur - mitral stenosis

A

Diastolic, mid to late, low-pitched murmur; opening snap

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12
Q

Treatment for a fib & a flutter (stable, then unstable)

A

Stable: rate control w/ B-blocker or CCB
Unstable: cardiovert

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13
Q

Treatment for v-fib

A

Immediate defibrillation

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14
Q

Dressler syndrome

A

Autoimmune reaction with fever, pericarditis, elevated ESR 2-4 weeks post-MI

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15
Q

Treatment for: IVDU + JVD + holosystolic murmur at LSB

A

Treat existing heart failure, then replace tricuspid valve

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16
Q

Diagnostic test for HOCM

A

Echo (thickened LV wall & outflow obstruction)

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17
Q

Pulsus paradoxus, & associated dz

A

Decrease in SBP >10mmHg with inspiration. Cardiac tamponade

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18
Q

Classic ECG findings in pericarditis

A

Low voltage, diffuse ST segment elevation

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19
Q

Surgically correctible causes of HTN (8)

A

Renal artery stenosis, aortic coarct, pheo, Conn syndrome, Cushing syndrome, unilateral renal parenchymal disease, hyperthyroidism, hyperPTH

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20
Q

Evaluation mode for pulsatile abd mass + bruit

A

Abdominal US & CT

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21
Q

Indications for surgical correction of AAA

A

> 5.5 cm, rapidly expanding, symptomatic, ruptured

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22
Q

Treatment for Acute Coronary Syndrome

A

Morphine, Oxygen, Nitro, ASA, B-blockers, clopidogrel, heparin

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23
Q

Metabolic syndrome - definition

A

Abdominal obesity, high TG, low HDL, HTN, insulin resistance, prothrombotic or proinflammatory states

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24
Q

Signs of active ischemia during stress testing

A

Angina, ST segment changes, hypotension

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25
Q

ECG findings suggesting MI (3)

A

ST segment elevation, flattened T waves, Q waves

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26
Q

Coronary territories in MI

A

Anterior wall (LAD/diagonal), inferior (PDA), posterior (LCX/oblique, RCA/marginal), septal (LAD/diagonal)

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27
Q

Common sx of silent MI

A

CHF, shock, AMS, fatigue, heartburn, SOB, neck/jaw pain, indigestion

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28
Q

Diagnostic test for PE

A

CT pulmonary angio

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29
Q

Protamine is for…

A

Heparin reversal agent

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30
Q

Which coag measure does warfarin affect

A

Prothrombin time

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31
Q

Endocarditis prophylaxis regimes

A

Oral surgery - amoxicillin

GI/GU surgery - none

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32
Q

Virchow triad

A

Hypercoagulability, stasis, endothelial damage

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33
Q

Most common cause of hypertension in young women

A

OCPs

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34
Q

Most common cause of HTN in young men

A

EtOH

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35
Q

Figure 3 sign on CXR

A

Aortic coarctation

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36
Q

Water-bottle-shaped heart

A

Pericardial effusion - look for pulses paradoxus

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37
Q

Waxy, stuck-on skin lesion

A

SK

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38
Q

Red plaques with silvery-white scales and sharp margins

A

Psoriasis

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39
Q

Pearly-colored papule with translucent surface and telangiectasias

A

BCC - most common skin cancer

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40
Q

Honey crusted skin lesions

A

Impetigo (staph, strep)

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41
Q

Febrile pt w diabetes presents w red, swollen, painful leg & intact pulses

A

Cellulitis

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42
Q

+Nikolsky sign, flaccid blisters

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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43
Q

-Nikolky sign, tense blisters

A

Bullous pemphigoid

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44
Q

What to check when you find acanthosis nigricans in obese patient

A

Blood glucose

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45
Q

Dermatomal distribution of painful vesicles

A

Varicella zoster

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46
Q

Flat-topped, itchy, violet papules

A

Lichen planus

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47
Q

Iris-like targetoid lesions

A

Erythema multiforme

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48
Q

Christmas tree pattern of rash + herald patch

A

Pityriasis rosea

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49
Q

Flat, hypopigmented lesions on chest & back; KOH shows “spaghetti and meatballs”

A

Tinea versicolor

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50
Q

Characteristics of melanoma

A

Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter (large), evolution

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51
Q

Premalignant lesion caused by sun exposure that leads to SCC

A

AK

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52
Q

Crusting vesicles in all stages of healing

A

Varicella

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53
Q

Cradle cap (real name)

A

Seborrheic dermatitis

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54
Q

Associated w propionibacterium acnes & changes in androgen levels. Treatment of last resort?

A

Acne vulgaris. Oral isotretinoin. Needs monthly blood tests and 2x contraception

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55
Q

Painful, recurrent vesicular eruption of mucocutaneous surfaces

A

Herpes simplex

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56
Q

Inflammation and epithelial thinning of anogenital area, predominantly in postmenopausal women

A

Lichen sclerosus

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57
Q

Exophytic nodules on skin with scaling or ulceration

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma, 2nd most common skin cancer

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58
Q

Most common cause of hypothyroidism in USA

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

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59
Q

Lab findings in Hashimoto thyroiditis

A

high TSH, low T4, +TPO

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60
Q

Exophthalmos, pretibial myxedema, low TSH

A

Graves dz

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61
Q

Most common cause of Cushing Syndrome

A

Iatrogenic corticosteroid administration (2nd most common is Cushing dz)

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62
Q

Post thyroidectomy pt with hypocalcemia

A

Iatrogenic hypoparathyroidism, low PTH, high phos

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63
Q

Stones, bones, groans, psychiatric overtones

A

Hypercalcemia

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64
Q

HTN, hypoK, metabolic alkalosis

A

Hyperaldosteronism (1˚, caused by Conn syndrome or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia)

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65
Q

Tachycardia, highly variable BP, HA, diaphoresis, AMS, panic sx

A

Pheochromocytoma

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66
Q

First step in treating pheo

A

A-blockers (phenoxybenzamine)

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67
Q

Lithium use + increased urination

A

Nephrogenic DI

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68
Q

Treatment of central DI

A

DDVAP

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69
Q

Posted patient in pain + hyponatremia + 130/85

A

SIADH

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70
Q

Antidiabetic agent associated w lactic acidosis

A

Metformin

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71
Q

Pt w weakness, nausea, vomiting, wt loss, skin pigmentation. Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia. treatment?

A

1˚ adrenal insufficiency. Tx: Exogenous corticosteroids & mineralocorticoids, IV fluids

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72
Q

Goal HbA1c in T2DM

A

<7.0

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73
Q

Treatment of DKA

A

Fluids, insulin, electrolyte repletion

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74
Q

Bone pain, hearing loss, increased alk phos

A

Paget’s

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75
Q

Increased IGF-1

A

Acromegaly

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76
Q

Galactorrhea, amenorrhea, bitemporal hemianopsia

A

Prolactinoma

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77
Q

Elevated serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone

A

CAH (21-hydroxylase deficiency)

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78
Q

Pancreas, pituitary, & parathyroid tumors

A

MEN1

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79
Q

Most common cancer in men, most deadly cancer in men

A

Prostate, lung

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80
Q

% of cases within 1 standard deviation? 2SD? 3SD?

A

68% 95.4% 99.7%

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81
Q

Most common cause of SBO in its with no history of abdominal surgery

A

Hernia

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82
Q

Most common bacteria - diarrhea

A

Campylobacter

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83
Q

Most common bacteria - recent abx

A

C diff

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84
Q

Most common bacteria - camping

A

Giardia

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85
Q

Most common bacteria - picnic/mayonaise

A

S aureus

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86
Q

Most common bacteria - travelers diarrhea

A

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia

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87
Q

Most common bacteria - uncooked burger

A

E coli O157:H7

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88
Q

Most common bacteria - fried rice

A

Bacillus cereus

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89
Q

Most common bacteria - poultry/eggs

A

Salmonella

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90
Q

Most common bacteria - seafood

A

Vibrio, HepA

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91
Q

Most common bacteria - diarrhea in AIDS pt (3)

A

Isospora, cryptosporidium, MAC

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92
Q

Most common bacteria - pseudoappendicitis (2)

A

Yersinia, campylobacter

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93
Q

Cancer screening in Ulcerative Colitis

A

Colonoscopy every 1-2 years starting 8 years after dx

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94
Q

Extrainestinal manifestations of IBD (5)

A

Uveitis, ankylosing spondylitis, pyoderma gangrenous, erythema nodosum, 1˚ sclerosing cholangitis

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95
Q

Medical treatment of IBD - acute & chronic

A

Chronic 5-ASA agents, acute add steroids

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96
Q

30yoM with UC, new jaundice, pruritus, fatigue

A

1˚ sclerosing cholangitis

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97
Q

Mallory-Weiss tear

A

Superficial tear in esophageal mucosa

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98
Q

Boerhaave Syndrome

A

Full-thickness esophageal rupture

99
Q

Charcot triad

A

Fever, jaundice, RUQ pain/Murphy’s sign

100
Q

Reynolds pentad

A

Fever, jaundice, RUQ pain/Murphy’s sign, shock, AMS

101
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy tx (3)

A

Decrease protein intake, lactulose, rifaximin

102
Q

Occupational exposure to HepB

A

IVIG + vaccine if non-immune

103
Q

Classic causes of drug-induced hepatitis

A

TB meds (rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide), APAP, tetracyclines

104
Q

Hernia type most at risk for incarceration

105
Q

Abdominal pain out of proportion to exam

A

Mesenteric ischemia

106
Q

Watery diarrhea, dehydration, muscle weakness, flushing - dx & tx?

A

VIPoma. Replace fluids & electrolytes, octreotide, resection)

107
Q

Causes of microcytic anemia (5)

A

Iron deficiency, lead poisoning, anemia of chronic disease, sideroblastic anemia, thalassemia

108
Q

Precipitants of hemolytic crisis in G6PD Deficiency

A

Sulfa, fava beans, infections, nitrofurantoin, dapsone, isoniazid, antimalarials (quinines)

109
Q

Most common inherited hypercoagulability dz

A

Factor V leiden

110
Q

Most common inherited bleeding d/o

111
Q

Diagnostic test for spherocytosis

A

Osmotic fragility

112
Q

Pure RBC aplasia

A

Diamond-Blackfan anemia

113
Q

Anemia + absent radii/thumbs, hyper pigmentation, cafe-au-lait spots, microcephaly, pancytopenia

A

Fanconi anemia

114
Q

Meds (4) & viruses (4) that lead to aplastic anemia

A

Meds: Chloramphenicol, sulfa, radiation, chemo
Viruses: ParvoB19, EBV, HIV, Hepatitis

115
Q

Polycythemia vera vs 2˚ polycythemia labs: Hct, RBC, O2 sat, Epo

A

Polycythemia vera: high hct & RBC, normal O2, low EPO

2˚ polycythemia: high hct, RBC, EPO, low O2 sat

116
Q

TTP pentad

A

LMNOP - low platelets, MAHA, Neuro sx, “Obsolete” renal fxn, Pyrexia

117
Q

HUS triad

A

Anemia (MAHA), thrombocytopenia, acute renal failure

118
Q

Treatment for TTP

A

Large-volume plasmapheresis, corticosteroids, anti platelet drugs
NO platelet transfusion - they’ll just get shredded

119
Q

Treatment for ITP in children

A

Observe. May need IVIG or corticosteroids

120
Q

Labs in DIC: fibrin split products, d-dimer, fibrinogen, plt, hct

A 
Split: elevated
D-dimer: elevated
Fibrinogen: low
Plt: low
Hct: low
121
Q

Med for hemophilia A

A

Desmopressin

122
Q

Med for von Willebrand disease

A

Desmopressin (or FFP, cryoprecipitate)

123
Q

Urine finding in multiple myeloma

A

Bence-jones protein

124
Q

Reed-sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma

125
Q

Anterior mediastinal masses

A

Thymoma, thyroid cancer, teratoma, terrible lymphoma

126
Q

Ferritin

A

Iron stores. High in anemia of chronic disease, low in iron deficiency

127
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome electrolytes

A

Low Ca2+

High PO4, uric acid, K+

128
Q

Bacterial causes of PNA in neonates (3)

A

GBS, listeria, e. coli

129
Q

Bacterial causes of PNA in adults 40-65 (3)

A

S. pneumo, H. flu, Mycoplasma

130
Q

Asplenic pts are particularly susceptible to (4)

A

Encapsulated organisms - pneumococcus, meningococcus, H. flu, klebsiella

131
Q

Causes of ring-enhancing brain lesions (5)

A

Abscess, toxo, metastasis, lymphoma, AIDS, neurocysticercosis

132
Q

Causes of meningitis in neonates (3). Treatment?

A

GBS, listeria, E. coli. [Amp + cefotaxime] or [amp + gent]

133
Q

Causes of meningitis in infants (3). Treatment?

A

S. pneumo, H. flu, N. meningitidis. [vanc + ceftriaxone]

134
Q

Sx of Lyme disease (6)

A

Erythema migrant, arthralgias, migratory polyarthropathies, facial nerve palsy, myocarditis, 3˚ heart block

135
Q

SIRS criteria

A

Temp
Tachypnea
Tachycardia
WBC

136
Q

Endocarditis exam findings (6)

A

Fever, murmur, Osler nodes, splinter hemorrhages, Janeway lesions, Roth spots

137
Q

Bacteria in burn victim infections

A

Pseudomonas

138
Q

Migraine prophylaxis (4)

A

Antihypertensives, antidepressants, anticonvulsants, dietary changes

139
Q

Treatment of prolactinoma

A

Dopamine agonists (bromocriptine, cabergoline)

140
Q

Crescentic brain bleed

A

Subdural hematoma; bridging veins

141
Q

Lens-shaped brain bleed; lucid interval

A

Epidural hematoma; middle meningeal artery

142
Q

Albumoniocytologic dissociation

A

Guillain-barre - elevated CSF protein without elevated WBC

143
Q

First line med for status epilepticus

144
Q

Confusion, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia

A

Wernicke encephalopathy, 2/2 thiamine deficiency

145
Q

Treatment for ALS

146
Q

Mainstay for Parkinson’s treatment

A

Carbidopa/levodopa

147
Q

Hyperphagia, hyper sexuality, hyperorality, hyperdocility

A

Kluver-Bucy syndrome (amygdala)

148
Q

Chromosomal pattern of complete molar pregnancy

149
Q

Teratogenic abx

A

Tetracycline, fluoroquinolones, aminoglycosides, sulfonamides

150
Q

Medical treatment for postpartum hemorrhage (1)

151
Q

PCOS therapy (2)

A

Weight loss, OCPs

152
Q

Medical treatment for endometriosis (3)

A

OCPs, danazol, GnRH agonists

153
Q

Increased vaginal discharge with petechial patches in upper vagina & cervix - cause?

A

Trichomonal vaginitis

154
Q

Tx for bacterial vaginosis

A

Oral metronidazole

155
Q

Bloody nipple discharge

A

Intraductal papilloma

156
Q

Nipple itching, burning & erosion

A

Paget’s disease of the breast - malignant

157
Q

Urge incontinence treatment

A

Anticholinergics (oxybutynnin) or beta-adrenergic (metaproterenol)

158
Q

Most common cause of female infertility

A

Endometriosis

159
Q

ASCUS x 2 - now what?

A

Colposcopy & endocervical curettage

160
Q

Breast cancer type that increases future risk of invasive carcinoma in BOTH breasts

A

Lobular carcinoma in situ

161
Q

Kid with nontender abdominal mass, elevated VMA & HVA

A

Neuroblastoma - look for metastases

162
Q

Most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula

A

Esophageal atresia with distal tracheoesophageal fistula - presents w inability to pass NGT

163
Q

Contraindication to TDaP

A

Encephalopathy within 7 days of last TDaP - switch to just Td vaccines

164
Q

Contraindication to rotavirus vax

A

Personal hx intususception

165
Q

Meconium ileus causes (2)

A

CF, hirschprung disease

166
Q

Bilious emesis after first feed

A

Duodenal atresia

167
Q

2mo baby w nonbilious projectile emesis

A

Pyloric stenosis. Hydrate, replete lytes. Pyloromyotomy to fix problem

168
Q

Infant w high fever, breaks, then rash. What is he at increased risk for?

A

Febrile seizure. Roseola (HHV6 & 7)

169
Q

1-3mo kid with recurrent severe infections

A

Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia - occurs earlier than T-cell immunodeficiencies (where sx start around 6mo)

170
Q

Reye syndrome

A

Microvesicular fatty liver infiltration & mitochondrial damage causes fulminant liver failure

171
Q

Other cancer associated with retinoblastoma

A

Osteosarcoma

172
Q

First line tx otitis media

A

Amoxicillin x 10 days (then augmentin if failed)

173
Q

Muscle rigidity, autonomic instability, fever, confusion, elevated CPK

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

174
Q

Side effects of atypical antipsychotics (3)

A

Wt gain, T2DM, QT segment prolongation

175
Q

IV haldol then eyes are stuck looking sideways - dx & tx

A

Acute dystonia; diphenhydramine or benztropine

176
Q

Treatment of acute mania

A

Lithium + atypical antipsychotic

177
Q

Exudative pleural effusion criteria

A

Pleural/serum protein > 0.5

Pleural/serum LDH > 2/3

178
Q

Causes for exudative pleural effusion

A

Leaky capillaries 2/2 inflammation - malignancy, TB, bacterial or viral infection, PE with infarct, pancreatitis

179
Q

Causes of transudative pleural effusion

A

Intact capillaries, increased hydrostatic pressure - heart failure, liver dz, kidney dz, protein-losing enteropathy

180
Q

Dyspnea, hilar LAD, increased ACE, hyperCalcemia

A

Sarcoidosis, noncaseating granulomas

181
Q

Honeycomb pattern on best imaging - dx & tx

A

Interstitial lung disease; supportive care

182
Q

SVC syndrome treatment

A

Radiation & endovascular stenting

183
Q

Acid-base derangement in Pulmonary Embolism

A

Respiratory alkalosis with hypoxia & low PaCO2

184
Q

NSCLC associated with hypercalcemia

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (ectopic PTHrP)

185
Q

Lung cancer associated with SIADH

A

Small cell lung cancer (ectopic ADH)

186
Q

Lung cancer associated with Lambert Eaton

A

Small cell lung cancer

187
Q

Lung cancers related to cigarettes (2)

A

SCLC, squamous cell carcinoma

188
Q

Treatment for all (even small) spontaneous pneumothoraces

A

Supplemental O2

189
Q

Hypoxemia & pulmonary edema with normal PCWP

190
Q

Sequelae of asbestos exposure (4)

A

Pulmonary fibrosis, pleural plaques, bronchogenic carcinoma (mass in lung field), mesothelioma (pleural mass)

191
Q

Silicosis causes increased risk for what type of infection?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

192
Q

Causes of hypoxemia (4)

A

R>L shunt, hypoventilation, low FiO2, diffusion defect, V/Q mismatch

193
Q

CXR: cardiomegaly, prominent pulmonary vessels, Kerley B lines, bats-wing appearance of hilarious shadows, perivascular & peribronchial cuffing

A

Pulmonary edema

194
Q

Treatment of hypernatremia

A

NS if unstable vitals

D5W or 0.45%NS to replace free water loss

195
Q

DDX hypotonic hypervolemic hyponatremia (5)

A

Cirrhosis, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, AKI, CKD

196
Q

Treatment of hyperK

A

Calcium glutinate, bicarb, insulin + glucose, kayexalate

197
Q

First-line tx for severe hyperCalcemia

198
Q

Muscle spasms from tapping face or inflating BP cuff

A

Hypocalcemia

199
Q

Acid base disturbance in salicylate ingestion

A

Gap metabolic acidosis (late) ; early primary respiratory alkalosis

200
Q

Acid base disturbance in pregnancy

A

Respiratory alkalosis

201
Q

RTA with abnormal H+ secretion & nephrolithiasis

A

Type 1 RTA (1 H, type 1)

202
Q

RTA with abnormal bicarb reabsorption & rickets

A

Type 2 RTA (bi-carb, bi = 2, type 2)

203
Q

RTA with low Aldosterone

204
Q

AKI with BUN:Cr > 20:1

A

Prerenal AKI

205
Q

Muddy brown casts

A

Acute tubular necrosis

206
Q

Drowsiness, asterixis, nausea, pericardial friction rub

A

Uremic syndrome 2/2 renal failure

207
Q

Hematuria, HTN, oliguria, RBC casts

A

Neprhitic syndrome

208
Q

Glomerulonephritis + deafness

A

Alport Syndrome

209
Q

Glomerulonephritis + hemoptysis (2)

A

Goodpasture Syndrome

Wegener’s GPA

210
Q

Proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia, thrombosis

A

Nephrotic syndrome

211
Q

Waxy urine casts & maltese crosses (lipiduria)

A

Nephrotic syndrome

212
Q

Most common form of nephrotic syndrome in adults

213
Q

Best test for nephrolithiasis

A

Non-contrast CT

214
Q

US shows bilateral enlarged kidneys with cysts. Dx? What else to look for?

A

ADPKD. Check for brain aneurisms

215
Q

BPH treatment options

A

Terazosin, finasteride, TURP

216
Q

Most common type of bladder cancer

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

217
Q

Hematuria, flank pain, palpable flank mass

A

Renal cell carcinoma

218
Q

Most common type of testicular cancer

A

Seminoma (germ cell tumor)

219
Q

Testicular cancer associated w high beta-hCG

A

Choriocarcinoma

220
Q

Side effects of corticosteroids (6)

A

Acute mania, immunosuppression, thin skin, easy bruising, osteoporosis, myopathies

221
Q

APAP overdose treatment

A

N-acetylcysteine

222
Q

Benzo overdose treatment

A

Flumazenil (monitor for seizures)

223
Q

NMS & malignant hyperthermia treatment

A

Dantrolene

224
Q

Malignant HTN treatment

A

Nitroprusside

225
Q

A-fib stabilization

A

Rate control, rhythm conversion, anticoag

226
Q

Treatment for SVT (stable & unstable)

A

Stable: rate control w carotid massage or vagal maneuver. 2nd line: adenosine
Unstable: cardiovert (synchronized)

227
Q

Causes of drug-induced SLE

A

INH, penicillamine, hydrazine, procainamide, chlorpromazine, methyldopa, quinidine

228
Q

Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia with neuro sx

A

B12 deficiency

229
Q

Burnt patient with flushed skin, oral SaO2, elevated carboxyhemoglobin. Tx?

A

100% O2 (consider hyperbaric O2 if severe or pregnant)

230
Q

Blood in urethral meatus, high-riding prostate

A

Bladder rupture or urethral injury

231
Q

Test to r/o urethral injury

A

Retrograde cystourethrogram

232
Q

Fluid repletion in burn victims - calculation

A

24h fluids = 4 x kg x %BSA

233
Q

Acceptable urine output in trauma pt vs stable pt

A

Trauma: 50 cc/hr
Stable: 30 cc/hr

234
Q

Spinal injury + hypotension + bradycardia

A

Neurogenic shock

235
Q

Cushing triad - elevated ICP

A

Hypertension, bradycardia, abnormal respirations

236
Q

Shock: low CO, low PCWP, high PVR. Tx?

A

Hypovolemic shock. Fluid/blood repletion

237
Q

Shock: low CO, high PCWP, high PVR. Tx?

A

Cardiogenic shock. Inotropes (dobutamine)

238
Q

Shock: high CO, low PCWP, low PVR. Tx?

A

Distributive (septic or anaphylactic) shock.
Septic: fluids & abx
Anaphylactic: 1:1000 epi, diphenhydramine

239
Q

Pt with chest trauma was stable, suddenly dies. Why?

A

Air embolism

240
Q

Distended neck veins, hypotension, diminished heart sounds. Dx? What other telltale symptom?

A

Cardiac tamponade. Pulsus paradoxus

241
Q

Blunt or penetrating abdominal trauma + hemodynamically unstable. What’s next?

242
Q

Head trauma with immediate LOC, then Lucent period, then rapid deterioration

A

Epidural hematoma

243
Q

Expanding neck mass after recent surgery - what’s next

A

Wound exploration, hematoma evacuation

Step 2 Rapid Review (1 decks)

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