Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Board Review > Rapid Review > Flashcards

Rapid Review Flashcards

1
Q

Most common organism in osteomyelitis?

A

Staph aureus (even in sickle-cell pts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Osteomyelitis Organisms

Sickle Cell
Foot Puncture
After Dog/Cat Bite

A

SC - Salmonella
Foot - Pseudomonas
Dog/Cat - Pasteurella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Imaging for Osteomyelitis?

A

MRI is best

X-ray + after about 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Most common organism in septic arthritis?

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most common organism in migratory arthritis?

A

Gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Monoarticular arthritis is…..?

A

Septic until proven otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

4 Causes of Oligoarthritis?

A

Gonorrhea
Rheumatoid
Lyme
Reiter’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3 Causes of Polyarthritis (3+ Joints)

A

Lupus
Virus
Rheumatoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Urine in Rhabdomyolysis?

A

+ for hgb/no RBC on Micro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Most sensitive r/o for rhabdo?

A

Neg CPK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Expected CPK for Rhabdo?

When do renal problems start?

A

Total CPK > 5x normal

Renal Problems start at > 5000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment for Rhabdo?

A

FLUIDS!!!!
Bicarb (controversial)
Mannitol +/- Furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Common organism for preseptal/orbital cellulitis?

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Organisms causing Impetigo?

A

Group A Strep (but staph aureus also possible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Key finding in Impetigo?

A

Honey-Crusted Rash (not specific)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment options for Impetigo?

A

Topical mupirocin (Bactroban)
Oral Penicillin
Cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DDx for neurologic deficits that don’t make sense?

A

MS
Aortic/Carotid/Vertebral Artery Dissection
Vasculitis
Psychogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most common initial symptom in MS?

A

Optic Neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When should you think MS?

A

When distribution of neurologic deficits don’t make sense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Common presentation for migraine HA?

A

Young woman
Aura
N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Common presentation for cluster HA?

A

Young man
Orbital
Periodic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Common presentation for Tension HA?

A

Worse through day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Common presentations for SAH?

A 
Sudden
Syncope 
Nausea/Vomiting 
Severe 
Occipitonuchal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Common presentation for hypertensive HA?

A

Throbbing

Occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Associated symptoms for HA due to meningitis?

A

Fever

Meningismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Common presentation for HA due to tumor?

A

Early morning awaking HA

Worse w/Valsalva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Common presentation for Pseudotumor?

A

HA
Obese Young Woman
Papilledema

28
Q

Common presentation for HA due to Glaucoma?

A

Vomiting
Orbital Pain
Cloudy Cornea
Midposition/Non-Reactive Pupil

29
Q

How do you diagnose SAH?

A

Head CT - only 93% sensitive.
If neg and suspect SAH, must do LP

( 6hrs = CT + LP)

30
Q

Medication for SAH?

A

Oral Nimodipine

31
Q

General Treatment for Stroke?

A
  • Supplemental O2
  • Avoid IV’s w/Glucose (risk neuronal damage if hyperglycemic)
  • Treat only severe HTN
    +/- Fibrinolytic
32
Q

Goal for treatment of HTN in Stroke?

A

Treat only SEVERE HTN with goal to decease MAP by no more than 20-30%.

33
Q

Dosing for Fibrinolytic in stroke?

A

Total dose rt-PA: 0.9mg/kg, with max dose of 90mg.

10% given as bolus, remainder over 60 min

34
Q

Timing for Fibrinolytic in stroke?

A

Must be given within 3 hrs of the KNOWN ONSET of deficits.

35
Q

When should you suspect Epidural Abscess?

A

IVDA (Hematogenous Spread)
Fever
Back Pain
Percussive Tenderness

36
Q

How do you diagnose epidural abscess?

A

CT or MRI

37
Q

Management of Epidural Abscess?

A

Antibiotics

Neurosurgery

38
Q

MCC of Meningitis?

A

Pneumococcus (everyone but neonates)

39
Q

Causes of Meningitis in Neonates?

Antibiotics?

A

Group B Strep
Listeria
Gram Negs

Ampicillin + Cefataxine (?)

40
Q

Causes of Meningitis in Infants 1-3 months?

Antibiotics?

A 
Group B Strep 
Listeria 
Pneumococcus 
H. flu
N. meningitidis

Ampicillin + Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin

41
Q

Causes of Meningitis in 3 months - 18 yrs?

Antibiotics?

A

H. flu
Pneumococcus
N. meningitidis

Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin

42
Q

Causes of Meningitis in Adults?

Antibiotics?

A

Pneumococcus
N. meningititis

Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin or Rifampin
(If > 50 yo, add Ampicillin)

43
Q

Causes of meningitis in Immunocompromised Adults?

Antibiotics?

A

Adults (Pneumococcus) + Listeria, Aerobic Gram Negs

Vancomycin + Ampicillin + Ceftazidime

44
Q

How does Myasthenia Gravis typically present?

A

Proximal Muscle Weakness - improves w/rest
EOM - ptosis, diplopia
Rarely presents w/respiratory insufficiency

45
Q

Testing for Myasthenia Gravis?

Dose?

A

Edrophonium (Tensilon) - inhibits acetylcholinesterase and will improve MG crisis.

1-2 mg IV

46
Q

Risks associated w/edrophonium?

A

If pt has weakness due to excess of cholinergic medications, edrophonium may cause abrupt worsening, including respiratory arrest.

Have Atropine & ET tube at bedside!!

47
Q

Reiter’s Syndrome - Classic Triad?

A

Arthritis
Conjunctivitis
Non-GC Urethritis

48
Q

Trigger for Reiter’s Syndrome?

A

Chlamydia or GI Bug

49
Q

Describe the orthopedic symptoms typical in Reiter’s Syndrome?

A

Asymmetric Joint Stiffness
Low Back Pain
Worse w/Inactivity

50
Q

What is Felty Syndrome?

A

RA + Neutropenia + Splenomegaly -> Serious Bacterial Infection

51
Q

What c-spine problems is associated w/RA?

A

C1 - C2 degeneration -> minor trauma -> neurologic damage

52
Q

What type of vasculitis is HSP?

A

Hypersensitivity Vasculitis

53
Q

Features of Giant Cell Arteritis?

A 
Temporal/Other Carotid Branches 
HA
Fatigue
Fever
Anemia 
High ESR
54
Q

Treatment for Giant Cell Arteritis?

A

High Dose Steroids

55
Q

Complication of Giant Cell Arteritis?

A

Blindness

56
Q

How do new HIV infections typically present?

A

Most new cases in heterosexuals.

Present as anything & everything!!
Opportunistic infections if CD4

57
Q

Another name for Kawasaki Disease?

A

Mucocutaneous Lymph Node Syndrome

58
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki Disease?

A

Fever >/= 5 Days AND 4/5 of the following:

Bilateral Conjunctival Injection 
Oral Mucosal Changes
Rash (Not Vesicles) 
Extremity Changes 
Cervical Adenopathy
59
Q

Treatment for Kawasaki Disease?

A

Aspirin + Gamma Globulin Therapy

60
Q

MCC of death in Anaphylaxis?

A

Airway Obstruction

61
Q

Difference between Classic Anaphylaxis & “Anaphylactoid” reaction?

Does it matter?

A

Classic: IgE Mediated
Anaphylactoid: Non-IgE Mediated

Doesn’t matter - treatment is the same.

62
Q

Cause of low BP in Anaphylaxis?

A

Vasodilation, Capillary Leakage

63
Q

Initial Treatment of Anaphylaxis?

A 
EPI (IM/IV)
Bronchospasm: Inhaled B-agonists 
H1 Blocker: Benadryl
H2 Blocker: Cimetidine, Famotidine, Ranitidine 
Systemic Steroids
64
Q

Treatment of refractory hypotension in anaphylaxis?

A

Pressors w/alpha-adrenergic activity (Levarterenol or Dopamine)

65
Q

Treatment of anaphylaxis in pt taking beta blocker?

A

Pt may be resistant to epi if taking BB - Give GLUCAGON

66
Q

What drugs used to treat anaphylaxis may help prevent rebound?

A

Steroids & H2 Blockers (Cimetidine, Famotidine, Ranitidine)

Board Review (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions