Rapid Fire Facts Flashcards

1
Q

Vertebral compression fractures

A

Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Positive anterior drawer sign

A

ACL injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Swollen, hard, painful finger joints

A

Osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Swollen, boggy, painful finger joints

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cartilage erosion with polished bone underneath

A

Osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Swollen, red, acutely painful great toe joint

A

Gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

A

Pseudogout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals

A

Gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bamboo spine on X-ray

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HLA-B27

A

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Anti-Smith and anti-dsDNA antibodies

A

Lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Anti-histone antibodies

A

Drug-induced lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Anti-centromere antibodies

A

CREST scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Anti-topoisomerase antibodies

A

Diffuse systemic scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Anti-Jo-1 antibodies

A

Polymyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Anti-rho antibodies

A

Sjögren syndome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Facial rash and Raynaud phenomenon in a young woman

A

Lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Arthritis, dry mouth, dry eyes

A

Sjögren syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most common cause of death in SLE

A

Lupus nephropathy/nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Selective α-1 antagonist used to treat BPH

A

Tamsulosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hyperflexible joints, arachnodactyly, aortic dissection, lens dislocation

A

Marfan syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hereditary nephritis, cataracts, sensorineuronal hearing loss

A

Alport syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most common cause of neural tube defects

A

Folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most common cause of congenital intellectual disability in the U.S.

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Most common cause of congenital malformations in the U.S.

A

Alcohol use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Unilateral facial drooping involving the forehead

A

Bell’s palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis

A

Horner’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

“Worst headache of my life”

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Lucid interval following head trauma

A

Epidural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Bloody CSF on LP

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Most common cause of subdural hematoma

A

Rupture of bridging veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most common cause of epidural hematoma

A

Rupture of middle meningeal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Treatment for absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Treatment for tonic-clonic seizures

A

Phenytoin, valproic acid, carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Amyloid deposits in the gray matter of the brain

A

Senile plaques of Alzheimer’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Drooling farmer

A

Organophosphate poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Medical treatment for pheochromocytoma

A

α-antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Continuous machinery-like heart murmur

A

PDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

“Boot-shaped heart”

A

Tetralogy of Fallot or RVH in adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Most common congenital cardiac defect

A

VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most common congenital cause of early cyanosis

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Rib notching

A

Coarctation of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Bounding pulses, head-bobbing, diastolic murmur

A

Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Keratin pearls on skin biopsy

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Most common malignant skin tumor

A

Basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Most common cancer in men

A

Prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Most common cause of urinary obstruction in men

A

BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Most common treatment for erectile dysfunction

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Dysplastic cervical cells with enlarged dark nuclei

A

Koilocytes (associated with HPV infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Diethystilbestrol (DES) exposure

A

Clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Most common tumor in women

A

Leiomyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Most common gynecologic malignancy in the U.S.

A

Endometrial carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Most common tumor of the adrenal

A

Benign, non-functioning adrenal adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Most common tumor of the adrenal medulla (in adults)

A

Pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Most common tumor of the adrenal (in children)

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

Adrenal adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Medical treatment for hyperaldosteronism

A

Spironolactone or eplerenone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Medical treatment for pheochromocytoma

A

Nonselective α-blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and hyperparathyroidism

A

MEN 2A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and mucosal neuromas

A

MEN 2B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Adrenal disease associated with skin hyperpigmentation

A

Addison disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

HTN, hypokalemia, metabolic acidosis

A

Hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Most common thyroid cancer

A

Papillary carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Cold intolerance

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Enlarged thyroid cells with ground-glass nuclei

A

Papillary carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Standard treatment for DKA

A

IV fluids, IV insulin, potassium replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Standard treatment for type 1 DM

A

Insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Standard treatment for type 2 DM

A

Low-carb diet, weight loss, oral hypoglycemic drugs, insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Most common cause of hypercalcemia

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroid adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Chronic renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Most common cause of hypoparathyroidism

A

Accidental parathyroidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Facial muscle spasm when tapping on the cheek

A

Chvostek’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Parathyroid, pancreatic, and pituitary tumors

A

MEN 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Preferred anticoagulant for immediate anticoagulation

A

Heparin or LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Preferred anticoagulant for long-term anticoagulation

A

Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Preferred anticoagulant during pregnancy

A

Heparin or LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Causes of hypochromic, microcytic anemia

A

Iron deficiency, thalassemia, lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils

A

Megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Skull X-Ray shows a “hair-on-end” appearance

A

Marrow hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Basophilic stippling of RBCs

A

Lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Painful cyanosis of the fingers and toes with hemolytic anemia

A

Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Red urine in the morning and fragile RBCs

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs

A

Howell-Jowell bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Autosplenectomy

A

Sickle cell disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Drug used to treat sickle cell disease

A

Hydroxyurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Antiplatelet antibodies

A

Immune thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Bleeding disorder with GpIb deficiency

A

Bernard-Soulier disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

von Willebrand disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Cancer most commonly associated with noninfectious fever

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Sheets of lymphoid cells with a “starry sky” appearance

A

Burkitt lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Large B cells with bi-lobed nuclei and prominent “owl’s eye” inclusions

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

“Smudge” cells

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

“Punched out” lytic bone lesions

A

Multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

RBCs clumped together like a stack of coins

A

Rouleaux formation (multiple myeloma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Monoclonal antibody spike

A

Multiple myeloma, MGUS, Waldenström macroglbulinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Reddish-pink rods in the cytoplasm of leukemic blasts

A

Auer rods (AML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Dark purple nodules on the skin in an HIV patient

A

Kaposi sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Temporal lobe encephalitis

A

HSV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Owl’s eye inclusions in organ tissue

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Intranuclear eosinophilic droplets

A

HSV, CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Aplastic anemia in a sickle cell patient

A

Parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Child with a fever and “slapped cheek” rash on the face that spreads to his body

A

Fifth disease (Parvovirus B19)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Fever, runny nose, cough, conjunctivitis, and diffuse rash

A

Measles (Rubeola)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Small irregular blue-gray spots on the buccal mucosa surrounded by a base of red

A

Koplik’s spots (Measles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Dark purple nodules on the skin in an HIV patient

A

Kaposi sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Large cells with owl’s eye inclusions

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Treatment for CMV

A

Ganciclovir

109
Q

Most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

110
Q

Drug used to prevent Pneumocystis pneumonia

A

TMP-SMX

111
Q

Treatment for oral candidiasis

A

Nystatin, fluconazole

112
Q

Most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

113
Q

Prophylaxis for Cryptococcus in AIDS patients

A

Fluconazole

114
Q

Prophylaxis for PCP in AIDS patients

A

TMP-SMX

115
Q

Treatment for systemic candidiasis

A

Fluconazole, amphotericin B, echinocandin

116
Q

Treatment for Sporothrix schenckii

A

Itraconazole, potassium iodide

117
Q

Ring-enhancing brain lesion in an HIV patient

A

Toxoplasma gondii

118
Q

Treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole

119
Q

Most common protozoal diarrhea

A

Giardia lamblia

120
Q

Bone enlargement, bone pain, arthritis

A

Paget disease of the bone

121
Q

Most common helminth infection in the U.S.

A

Enterobius vermicularis

122
Q

Second most common helminth infection in the U.S.

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

123
Q

Inability to breastfeed, amenorrhea, cold intolerance

A

Sheehan syndrome

124
Q

Cold, pale, painful digits

A

Raynaud phenomenon

125
Q

c-ANCA

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s)

126
Q

p-ANCA

A

Microscopic polyangiitis

Churg-Strauss syndrome

127
Q

Treatment for Buerger disease

A

Smoking cessation

128
Q

Treatment for temporal arteritis

A

High dose steroids

129
Q

Most common etiology of bacterial meningitis in neonates

A

Group B Strep

130
Q

Most common etiology of bacterial meningitis in children

A

S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis

131
Q

Most common etiology of bacterial meningitis in adults

A

S. pneumoniae

132
Q

Osteomyelitis in an IV drug user

A

S. aureus, Pseudomonas

133
Q

Osteomyelitis in a sickle cell patient

A

Salmonella

134
Q

Most common reportable STD

A

Chlamydia

135
Q

Non-painful, indurated, ulcerated genital lesion

A

Primary syphilis

136
Q

Painful, indurated, ulcerated, genital lesion with exudate

A

Chancroid (H. ducreyi)

137
Q

Stippled vaginal epithelial cells on a wet prep of vaginal discharge

A

Bacterial vaginosis

138
Q

Common treatment for syphilis

A

Penicillin

139
Q

Common treatment for Trichomonas

A

Metronidazole

140
Q

Common treatment for Chlamydia

A

Doxycycline or azithromycin

141
Q

Common treatment for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

142
Q

A boy with self-mutiliating behavior, intellectual disability, and gout

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

143
Q

Most common vitamin deficiency in the U.S.

A

Folate (B9) deficiency

144
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils

A

Megaloblastic anemia

145
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy, edema, and polyneuropathy

A

Wet Beriberi (vitamin B1 deficiency)

146
Q

Orotic acid in the urine and elevations in serum ammonia

A

Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

147
Q

Orotic acid in the urine and no elevations in serum ammonia

A

Orotic acidura (UMP synthase deficiency)

148
Q

Megaloblastic anemia that does not improve with folate and B12

A

Orotic acidura (UMP synthase deficiency)

149
Q

Most common medication for ADHD

A

Methylphenidate

150
Q

Most common medication for bulimia nervosa

A

SSRIs (e.g. fluoxetine)

151
Q

Medical treatment for alcohol withdrawal

A

Benzodiazepines

152
Q

Most effective treatment for alcohol abuse

A

Alcoholics anonymous

153
Q

Atrophy of the mammillary bodies

A

Wernicke encephalopathy

154
Q

Treatment for central DI

A

Desmopressin

155
Q

Treatment for nephrogenic DI

A

HCTZ, indomethacin

156
Q

Treatment for lithium-induced nephrogenic DI

A

Amiloride

157
Q

Nodular hyaline deposits in the glomeruli

A

Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules (diabetic nephropathy)

158
Q

Glomerulonephritis + pulmonary vasculitis

A

Granulomatosis with polynagiitis

Goodpasture syndrome

159
Q

Red cell casts

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

160
Q

Waxy casts

A

Chronic renal failure

161
Q

Thyroid-like appearance of the kidney

A

Chronic pyelonephritis

162
Q

Most common renal tumor

A

Renal cell carcinoma

163
Q

Most common type of renal stone

A

Calcium stones

164
Q

Type of renal stone associated with Proteus

A

Struvite stones

165
Q

Bluish-colored lines on the gingivae

A

Lead poisoning (Burton’s lines)

166
Q

Treatment of choice for Rickets or osteomalacia

A

Vitamin D

167
Q

Weight loss, diarrhea, arthritis, fever, adenopathy, hyperpigmentation

A

Whipple disease

168
Q

Anti-transglutaminase/anti-gliadin/anti-endomysial antibodies

A

Celiac disease

169
Q

Vitamin given to pregnant women to prevent neural tube defects

A

Folate

170
Q

Most common surgical emergency

A

Appendicitis

171
Q

Severe RLQ pain with rebound tenderness

A

McBurney’s sign (appendicitis)

172
Q

Most common cancer of the appendix

A

Carcinoid tumor

173
Q

GI hamartomas, hyper pigmentation of mouth and hands

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndromeM\

174
Q

Multiple colon polyps, osteomas, soft tissue tumors

A

Gardner syndrome

175
Q

“Apple core” lesion on barium enema

A

Colon cancer

176
Q

Infertility, galactorrhea, and bitemporal hemianopsia

A

Prolactinoma

177
Q

Most common gynecologic malignancy worldwide

A

Cervical cancer

178
Q

Chocolate cyst of the ovary

A

Endometriosis

179
Q

Most common benign ovarian tumor

A

Serous cystadenoma

180
Q

Most common malignant ovarian tumor

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

181
Q

Disarrayed granolas cells in eosinophilic fluid

A

Call-Exner bodies (granulosa-theca cell tumor)

182
Q

Most common genetic cause of intellectual disability

A

Down syndrome

183
Q

Second most common genetic cause of intellectual disability

A

Fragile X Syndrome

184
Q

Horseshoe kidney, congenital heart defects, streak ovaries, and cystic hygroma

A

Turner syndrome

185
Q

Rocker-bottom feet, clenched hands, microcephaly with prominent occiput and small jaw

A

Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)

186
Q

Most common cancer in women in the U.S.

A

Breast cancer

187
Q

Most common benign breast tumor

A

Fibroadenoma

188
Q

Most common malignant breast tumor

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma

189
Q

Blue dome cyst in the breast

A

Fibrocystic change

190
Q

Treatment for ER+ breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

191
Q

Red, itchy, swollen rash on the areola or nipple

A

Paget disease

192
Q

Branching, filamentous, Gram + rods with sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces israelii

193
Q

Food poisoning due to exotoxin

A

S. aureus, B. cereus

194
Q

Osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease

A

Salmonella

195
Q

Most common bacteria in a patient with struvite kidney stones

A

Proteus

196
Q

Most common medication used for UTI prophylaxis

A

TMP-SMX

197
Q

Standard treatment for T. pallidum

A

Penicillin

198
Q

Cellulitis from a dog or cat bite

A

Pasteurella multocida

199
Q

A non-painful, indurated, ulcerated genital lesion

A

Chancre of primary syphilis

200
Q

Large bull’s eye rash

A

Erythema migrants of Lyme disease

201
Q

Calcified granuloma in the lung + hilar lymphadenopathy

A

Ghon complex

202
Q

Back pain, fever, night sweats, weight loss

A

Pott’s disease

203
Q

Standard treatment regimen for TB

A

Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

204
Q

Eczema, recurrent cold abscesses, high serum IgE

A

Hyper IgE syndrome

205
Q

Large lysosomal vesicles in phagocytes

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

206
Q

Dysphagia, glossitis, iron deficiency

A

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

207
Q

Hematemesis with retching

A

Mallord-Weiss syndrome

208
Q

Munin-filled cell with peripheral nucleus

A

Signet ring cell

also seen in LCIS

209
Q

Most common type of stomach cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

210
Q

Ovarian metastasis from gastric cancer

A

Krukenberg tumor

211
Q

Gastric ulcerations and high gastrin levels

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

212
Q

Acute gastric ulcer associated with elevated ICP or head trauma

A

Cushing ulcer

213
Q

Acute gastric ulcer associated with severe burns

A

Curling ulcer

214
Q

Toe extension upon stimulating the sole of the foot with a blunt instrument

A

Babinski reflex

215
Q

Hyperreflexia, increased muscle tone, and positive Babinski sign

A

Upper motor neuron lesion

216
Q

Hyporeflexia, decreased muscle tone, and muscle atrophy

A

Lower motor neuron lesion

217
Q

Eosinophilic inclusions the cytoplasm of neurons

A

Lewy bodies

218
Q

Chorea, dementia, and atrophy of the caudate and putamen

A

Huntington disease

219
Q

Depigmentation of the substantia nigra

A

Parkinson disease

220
Q

Conjugate lateral gaze palsy with nystagmus and diplopia during lateral gaze

A

Internuclear opthalmoplegia

221
Q

Mixed upper and lower motor neuron disease

A

ALS

222
Q

Degeneration of the dorsal columns

A

Tabes dorsalis

223
Q

Demyelinating disease in a young woman

A

Multiple sclerosis

224
Q

Newborn with arm paralysis following difficult labor

A

Erb-Duchenne palsy

225
Q

Most common cause of dementia

A

Alzheimer disease

226
Q

Second most common cause of dementia

A

Multi-infarct dementia

227
Q

Extracellular amyloid deposits in the gray matter

A

Alzheimer disease (amyloid plaques)

228
Q

Intracellular deposits of hyperphosphorylated tau protein

A

Alzheimer disease (neurofibrillary tangles)

229
Q

Intracellular spherical aggregates of tau protein seen on silver stain

A

Pick disease (frontotemporal dementia)

230
Q

Most common site of colonic diverticula

A

Sigmoid colon

231
Q

“String sign” on contrast X-ray

A

Crohn’s disease

232
Q

“Lead pipe” appearance of colon on contrast X-ray

A

Ulcerative colitis

233
Q

Painless jaundice

A

Pancreatic cancer

234
Q

Most common cause of pancreatitis

A

Gallstones and alcohol

235
Q

Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis

A

Alcohol abuse

236
Q

Severe hyperbilirubinemia in a neonate

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome (type I)

237
Q

Mild, benign, hyperbilirubinemia

A

Gilbert syndrome

238
Q

Triglyceride accumulation in hepatocytes

A

Fatty liver disease

239
Q

Eosinophilic inclusions in the cytoplasm of hepatocytes

A

Mallory bodies

240
Q

Cancer closely linked to cirrhosis

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

241
Q

Hepatomegaly, abdominal pain, ascites

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

242
Q

Green/yellow corneal deposits

A

Kayser-Fleischer rings (Wilson disease)

243
Q

Low serum ceruloplasmin

A

Wilson disease

244
Q

Cirrhosis, diabetes, and hyperpigmentation

A

Hemochromatosis

245
Q

Chronic sinusitis, infertility, and situs inversus

A

Kartagener syndrome

246
Q

Elevated D-dimers

A

PE, DVT

247
Q

Hypercoagulability, endothelial damage, stasis of blood

A

Virchow’s triad

248
Q

Blue bloater

A

Hypoxemia, hypercapnia (chronic bronchitis)

249
Q

Pink puffer

A

Dyspnea, hyperventilation (emphysema)

250
Q

Curschmann’s spirals

A

Shed epithelium from mucus plugs (asthma)

251
Q

Most common cause of pulmonary HTN

A

COPD

252
Q

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and uveitis

A

Sarcoidosis

253
Q

Vasculitis and glomerulonephritis

A

Goodpasture, Wegener’s

254
Q

Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

Goodpasture

255
Q

Honeycomb lung on X-ray

A

Interstitial fibrosis

256
Q

“Tennis racket” shaped cytoplasmic organelles

A

Birbeck granules

257
Q

Iron-containing nodules in the alveolar septum

A

Ferruginous bodies

258
Q

Lung cancer associated with SIADH

A

Small cell carcinoma

259
Q

Tumor associated with Horner syndrome

A

Pancoast tumor

260
Q

Chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and persistent fever occurring several weeks after MI

A

Dressler syndrome

261
Q

Retinal hemorrhages with pale centers

A

Roth spots (infective endocarditis)

262
Q

Splinter hemorrhages under the fingernails

A

Infective endocarditis

263
Q

Heart valve most commonly involved in infective endocarditis

A

Mitral valve

264
Q

Heart valve most commonly involved in an IV drug user with infective endocarditis

A

Tricuspid valve

265
Q

Granulomatous nodules in the heart

A

Aschoff bodies (Rheumatic heart disease)

266
Q

Most common pulmonary cardiac tumor in adults

A

Left atrial myxoma

267
Q

Most common primary cardiac tumor in children

A

Rhabdomyoma

268
Q

Most common cause of constrictive pericarditis

A

U.S. = Lupus

Developing countries = TB

269
Q

Swollen gums, poor wound healing, bleeding mucous membranes, and spots on the skin

A

Scurvy (vitamin C deficiency)