Random Topics

Question 1

Exposure to an emotionally salient stimulus causes a physiological reaction which, in turn, is perceived as an emotion (experience of emotion follows physiological arousal)

Answer 1

James-Lange Theory of Emotion

Question 2

Experience of an emotion and physiological arousal occur together when an environmental stimulus causes the thalamus to simultaneously send signals to the cortex and sympathetic NS (views all emotions as involving similar physiological arousal and differences in emotional reactions cannot be attributed to differences in the nature of physiological arousal

Answer 2

Cannon-Bard Theory of Emotion

Question 3

Experience of emotion is the result of physiological arousal followed by an attribution (“cognitive appraisal”) for that arousal; proposes that differences in the experience of emotion are due to differences in the attributions for the arousal, which depend on the external cues

Answer 3

Schachter and Singer’s Two-Factor Theory of Emotion

Question 4

Proposes that differences in emotional reactions to events are due to different appraisals of those events; also assumes that physiological arousal follows cognitive appraisal

Answer 4

Lazarus’s Cognitive Appraisal Theory of Emotion

Question 5

Proposes that fear consists of two separate but interacting systems that both respond to threatening stimuli (a) subcortical system (survival system) and (b) cortical system (conscious emotional system)

Answer 5

LeDoux’s Two-System Theory of Emotion/Fear

Question 6

hypersecretion of thyroid hormones, symptoms include increased rate of metabolism, elevated body temperature, heat intolerance, increased appetite with weight loss, accelerated heart rate, insomnia, emotional lability, and reduced attention span

Answer 6

Hyperthyroidism

Question 7

Hyposecretion of hormones and involves a decreased rate of metabolism, reduced appetite with weight gain, slowed heart rate, lowered body temperature, cold intolerance, depression, lethargy, decreased libido, confusion, and impaired concentration and memory

Answer 7

Hypothyroidism

Question 8

Low level of antidiuretic hormone due to some factor that causes frequent and excessive urination, extreme thirst, dehydration, constipation, weight loss, and low blood pressure

Answer 8

Central Diabetes Insipidus

Question 9

chlorpromazine, haloperidol, thioridazine, and fluphenazine

Answer 9

First Generation Antipsychotics

Question 10

Used to treat schizophrenia and other disorders with psychotic symptoms; dopamine antagonists that exert their therapeutic effects primarily by blocking dopamine (D2) receptors; most effective for treating positive symptoms

Answer 10

First Generation Antipsychotics

Question 11

Major side effects of First Generation Antipsychotics

Answer 11

Anticholinergic side effects, Extrapyramidal side effects, Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Question 12

starts with involuntary, rhythmic movements of the tongue, face, and jaw and, over time, may also affect limbs and trunk; irreversible for some patients and generally treated by gradually withdrawing the antipsychotic, administering a benzodiazepine, or switching to a second-generation antipsychotic

Answer 12

Tardive dyskinesia

Question 13

clozapine, risperidone, olanzapine, and quetiapine

Answer 13

Second-Generation Antipsychotics

Question 14

dopamine-serotonin antagonists: alleviate positive symptoms primarily by blocking dopamine receptors and negative/cognitive symptoms primarily by blocking serotonin receptors

Answer 14

Second-Generation Antipsychotics

Question 15

aripiprazole, brexpiprazole, and cariprazine

Answer 15

Third-Generation Antipsychotics

Question 16

Referred to as dopamine-serotonin stabilizers and are categorized as partial agonists even though they have both antagonist and agonist effects

Answer 16

Third-Generation Antipsychotics

Question 17

fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline, citalopram, and escitalopram

Answer 17

SSRI’s (Antidepressants)

Question 18

Combining an SSRI with an MAOI or lithium can cause _____ which involves extreme agitation, confusion, autonomic instability, hyperthermia, tremor, seizures, and delirium

Answer 18

Serotonin syndrome

Question 19

venlafaxine, duloxetine, desvenlafaxine, and levomilnacipran

Answer 19

SNRIs (Antidepressants)

Question 20

used to treat MDD and assist with smoking cessation and exerts its therapeutic effects by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine at synapses

Answer 20

NDRIs (ex. bupropion)

Question 21

Include tertiary amines (amitriptyline, imipramine, clomipramine, and doxepin) and secondary amines (nortriptyline and desipramine)

Answer 21

TCAs (Tricyclic Antidepressants)

Question 22

phenelzine, isocarboxazid, and tranylcypromine

Answer 22

MAOIs (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors)

Question 23

diazepam, alprazolam, and lorazepam

Answer 23

Benzodiazepines

Question 24

These drugs increase GABA activity by acting as agonists at GABA receptors and are used to treat short-term anxiety, insomnia, seizures, and alcohol withdrawal

Answer 24

Benzodiazepines

Question 25

tiopental, amobarbital, and secobarbital

Answer 25

Barbiturates

Question 26

includes buspirone which is used to treat GAD and other anxiety disorders

Answer 26

Azapirones

Question 27

mimic the effects of the body's natural analgesics (endorphins and enkephalins) and include natural (e.g. morphine and heroin) and synthetic/semi-synthetic (methadone and fentanyl) forms

Answer 27

Narcotic-Analgesics (Opioids)

Question 28

Inhibit the activity of the sympathetic NS and are used to treat hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, migraine headache, and essential tremors; includes propranolol which is also used to treat anxiety

Answer 28

Beta-Blockers

Question 29

First-line drug for acute mania and classic bipolar disorder (euphoric mania without rapid cycling)

Answer 29

Lithium

Question 30

carbamazepine and valproic acid; used to treat acute mania and bipolar disorder with mixed episodes

Answer 30

Anticonvulsant Drugs

Question 31

Includes cholinesterase inhibitors (tacrine, donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine) and NMDA reception antagonist (memantine)

Answer 31

Drugs for Treating Alzheimer's Disease

Question 32

methylphenidate, pemoline, and amphetamine-dextroamphetamine

Answer 32

Psychostimulants for ADHD

Question 33

Second- and third-line pharmacological treatments for ADHD are prescribed when:

Answer 33

1) inadequate response to psychostimulants 2) unable to tolerate psychostimulant side effects 3) have significant comorbidities that interfere with treatment 4) at high risk for stimulant misuse

Question 34

atomoxetine, guanfacine, clonidine

Answer 34

second-line ADHD medications

Question 35

tricyclic desipramine and NDRI bupropion

Answer 35

Third-line pharmacological treatments for ADHD

Question 36

disulfiram (causes nausea, vomiting, and other unpleasant symptoms), naltrexone (reduces pleasurable effects and craving), acamprosate (reduces craving), and topiramate (reduces craving and pleasurable effects)

Answer 36

Drugs used to treat alcohol use disorder

Question 37

NRT, bupropion, and varenicline

Answer 37

Drugs used to treat tobacco use disorder

Question 38

Exerts its psychoactive effects by stimulating the release of dopamine in the ventral striatum (nucleus accumbens) an essential component of the brain's mesolimbic dopaminergic reward pathway

Answer 38

Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)

Question 39

The _____ of a drug is the time needed for the blood level of the drug to decrease to 50% of its peal level

Answer 39

half-life

Question 40

Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory distinguishes between 5 environmental systems:

Answer 40

Microsystem (ex parents, siblings, friends) Mesosystem (ex influence of family relationships on child's relations with peers and teachers) Exosystem (ex parents' place of work, extended family) Macrosystem (ex cultural practices, economic conditions) Chronosystem (parental divorce, job loss, natural disasters)

Question 41

Environmental events in utero during sensitive windows of development can have permanent and long-lasting effects

Answer 41

Fetal programming

Question 42

Research on the heritability of intelligence has found that

Answer 42

the influence of genetics increases over the lifespan and, in adulthood, exceeds the influence of shared and non-shared environmental factors

Question 43

_____ is concerned with factors that modify the pattern of gene expression without altering the genetic code

Answer 43

Epigenetics

Question 44

most often caused by a deletion on the paternal chromosome 15; symptoms vary but often include a narrow forehead, almond-shaped eyes, short stature, and small hands and feet, hypotonia, global developmental delays, hyperphagia (chronic overeating), and obesity, hypogonadism, ID, and skin-picking and other self-injurious behaviors

Answer 44

Prader-Willi Syndrome

Question 45

Usually due to a deletion on the maternal chromosome 15; symptoms may include microcephaly (small head and brain), wide jaw with pointed chin, severe developmental delays, communication and ID, hyperactivity, tendency to be unusually happy, ataxia, seizures, and hand-flapping

Answer 45

Angelman Syndrome

Question 46

deletion on chromosome 5; symptoms range in severity and include a high-pitched (cat-like) cry, ID, developmental delays, microcephaly, low birth weight, weak muscle tone, widely set eyes, low-set ears, and round face

Answer 46

Cri-du-chat syndrome

Question 47

Affects males and is due to the presence of two or more X chromosomes in addition to a single Y chromosome; develop a normal male identity but have incomplete development of secondary sex char., gynecomastia (breast enlargement), and low testosterone level; disproportionately long arms/legs, taller than normal, delays in language, LD, and impaired problem-solving and social skills

Answer 47

Klinefelter syndrome

Question 48

Affects females and is due to the partial or complete deletion of one of the X chromosomes; don't develop secondary sex char. and are infertile, have a short stature, stubby fingers, drooping eyelids, receding or small lower jaw, and a web-like neck; may also have LD, vision and hearing problems, skeletal abnormalities, heart defects, and kidney and urinary tract abnormalities

Answer 48

Turner Syndrome

Question 49

X-linked dominant disorder that is usually caused by mutations in the MECP2 gene and almost exclusively affects females; slowed head and brain growth, loss of speech and motor skills, abnormal hand movements, sleep disturbances, breathing abnormalities, and seizures; can also display autistic-like symptoms during early stages

Answer 49

Rett Syndrome

Question 50

autosomal recessive disorder (caused by two autosomal recessive genes); unable to adequately metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine which build up of this causes ID, hyperactivity, seizures, eczema, a musty body odor, hypopigmentation, and stunted growth

Answer 50

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

Question 51

Depth perception relies on three types of depth information: Beginning as early as 3-4 weeks old, infants rely on _____ cues, which are based on the movement of objects. Between 2-3 months, they begin using _____ cues, which are derived from the integration of images received by each eye. Then around 5-6 months, they begin using _____ cues, which can be perceived with only one eye, create the impression of depth, and include size, texture gradients, shadows, and linear perspective

Answer 51

kinetic (motion); binocular (stereoscopic); pictorial (static-monocular)

Question 52

Male gender, African American or Native American, 6 months of age or younger, premature birth, low birth weight, poor prenatal care, maternal use of alcohol or drugs during pregnancy, pre- post-natal exposure to cigarette smoke, unsafe sleep practices

Answer 52

Factors that increase the risk for SIDS

Question 53

systematic procedure for identifying how a job is performed, the conditions under which it is performed, and the personal requirements it takes to perform the job

Answer 53

Job Analysis

Question 54

needed to write a job description, develop or identify appropriate job performance and selection measures, determine training needs, and make decisions about job design and redesign

Answer 54

Job Analysis

Question 55

focuses on the tasks that must be accomplished to achieve desired job outcomes; ex. task analysis

Answer 55

work-oriented job analysis

Question 56

focuses on the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics that are required to accomplish job tasks; ex. Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ)

Answer 56

Worker-oriented job analysis

Question 57

worker-oriented and focuses on the core competencies (attributes) that are required to successfully perform all jobs or a subset of jobs within an organization; linked to the organization's values, goals, and strategies; used to identify appropriate job selection and performance measures, determining the content of training programs, and identifying future job requirements

Answer 57

Competency Modeling

Question 58

conducted to facilitate decision related to compensation; used to establish comparable worth, which is the principle that workers performing jobs that require the same skills and responsibilities or that are of comparable value to the employer should be paid the same; commonly used method is the point system

Answer 58

Job Evaluation

Question 59

Provide quantitative information and include direct measures of productivity and number of errors, accidents, and absences

Answer 59

Objective Measures of Performance Appraisal

Question 60

take the form of performance ratings and are the most commonly used performance measures in organizations

Answer 60

Subjective measures of Performance Appraisals

Question 61

Disadvantages of Objective Performance Appraisal Measures

Answer 61

Not available for certain jobs; don't always provide complete info.; can be affected by situational factors

Question 62

Advantages of Subjective Performance Appraisal Measures

Answer 62

Can provide info. about performance that cannot be assessed objectively; allow raters to take situational factors into account; provide info. that's useful for giving feedback; disadvantage: can be affected by rater biases and errors

Question 63

require the rater to evaluate an employee by comparing the employee to other employees

Answer 63

Relative Ratings scales

Question 64

require the rater to evaluate an employee without considering the performance of other employees

Answer 64

Absolute rating scales

Question 65

rater compares each employee to all other employees in pairs on each dimension of job performance (e.g., work quality, job knowledge, communication) by indicating which employee is best

Answer 65

Paired Comparison Technique

Question 66

requires the rater to assign a certain percent of employees to prespecified performance categories for each dimension of job performance

Answer 66

Forced Distribution Method

Question 67

involves identifying employee behaviors that are associated with exceptionally poor and exceptionally good performance by observing employees while they work or by interviewing people familiar with the job; the list of behaviors is then used to evaluate performance by checking those that apply to each employee

Answer 67

Critical Incident Technique (CIT)

Question 68

rater rates an employee’s performance on several performance dimensions on a Likert-type rating scale – e.g., from 1 (poor performance) to 5 (excellent performance)

Answer 68

Graphic Rating Scale

Question 69

a type of graphic rating scale in which each point on a scale is “anchored” with a description of a specific behavior; development involves having job incumbents, supervisors, and other subject matter experts identify essential dimensions of job performance and specific behaviors for each dimension that are associated with good, average, and poor performance

Answer 69

Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS)

Question 70

refers to aspects of performance that are not assessed by the criterion

Answer 70

Criterion Deficiency

Question 71

occurs when the criterion measure is affected by factors unrelated to job performance

Answer 71

Criterion Contamination

Question 72

when raters consistently use only one part of the rating scale when rating all employees: consists of the central tendency bias (rater consistently gives average scores regardless of performance) and leniency and strictness biases (rater consistently gives low/high scores regardless of performance)

Answer 72

Distribution errors

Question 73

Occurs when a rater’s rating of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects how the rater rates the employee on all other dimensions, even when they’re unrelated to that dimension; can be positive or negative

Answer 73

Halo error (aka halo effect and halo bias)

Question 74

occurs when a rater’s ratings of an employee are affected by the performance of a previously evaluated employee

Answer 74

Contrast error

Question 75

Methods for reducing rater biases in job evaluations include:

Answer 75

Using relative rating scales, having anchoring points on an absolute rating scale, providing raters with adequate training

Question 76

structured and unstructured interviews have the _____ validity coefficient (.58) and that structured and unstructured interviews are the second most valid predictors of job performance after _____

Answer 76

same average; general mental ability tests

Question 77

based on the assumption that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior and consist of questions that ask interviewees how they responded to specific job-related situations in the past

Answer 77

Behavioral Interviews

Question 78

future-oriented and consist of questions that ask interviewees how they would respond to hypothetical situations

Answer 78

Situational Interviews

Question 79

A disadvantage of using general mental ability tests for predictors of job performance is

Answer 79

that they are associated with greater risk that other predictors for having an adverse impact on job applicants belonging to some ethnic/racial minority groups

Question 80

_____ integrity tests ask directly about attitudes toward and previous history of dishonesty and theft, while _____ integrity tests assess aspects of personality that have been linked to dishonesty, disciplinary problems, sabotage, and other counterproductive behaviors.

Answer 80

Overt; personality-based

Question 81

incorporate periods of training and evaluation and are useful for determining if inexperienced applicants are likely to benefit from training

Answer 81

Trainability work sample tests

Question 82

used to assess decision-making skills and requires participants to respond to memos, phone messages, and other communications that are similar to those they would encounter on-the-job

Answer 82

in-basket exercise simulation work sample

Question 83

used to evaluate the leadership potential of participants and requires a small group of participants to work together without an assigned leader to solve a job-related problem

Answer 83

leaderless group discussion simulation work sample

Question 84

_____ has been found to be a good predictor of performance for a variety of jobs, ranging from unskilled jobs to managerial- and executive-level jobs; may lack face validity and applicants may refuse to answer them

Answer 84

Biographical information (biodata)

Question 85

appropriate when a high score on one or more predictors can compensate for a low score on another predictor. Included in this category are clinical prediction and multiple regression

Answer 85

Compensatory Methods for hiring decisions

Question 86

used when a low score on one predictor cannot be compensated for by a high score on another predictor. Included in this category are multiple cutoff and multiple hurdles

Answer 86

Noncompensatory Methods for hiring decisions

Question 87

refers to the degree to which a predictor is free from the effects of measurement (random) error and, as a result, provides consistent scores

Answer 87

Reliability

Question 88

The reliability coefficient ranges from _____ and, the closer the coefficient is to _____, the less the effect of measurement error and the greater the consistency of scores.

Answer 88

0-1.0; 1.0

Question 89

refers to the extent to which a predictor adequately samples the knowledge or skills it’s intended to measure

Answer 89

Content Validity

Question 90

refers to the extent to which a predictor measures the construct (hypothetical trait) it was designed to measure

Answer 90

Construct Validity

Question 91

refers to the degree to which scores on the predictor correlate with scores on the criterion

Answer 91

Criterion-related validity

Question 92

This coefficient ranges from _____ and, the closer it is to _____, the lower the predictor’s criterion-related validity.

Answer 92

-1.0 to +1.0; 0

Question 93

Refers to the increase in decision-making accuracy that occurs by adding a new selection technique (predictor) to the existing selection procedure

Answer 93

Incremental Validity

Question 94

A _____ is most likely to increase decision-making accuracy when its _____ validity coefficient is large.

Answer 94

predictor; criterion-related

Question 95

percent of job applicants the company plans to hire; calculated by dividing the number of applicants that will be hired by the total (ex. 0.1 is low and means that one of 10 applicants will be hired)

Answer 95

Selection Ratio

Question 96

percent of employees who were hired using the current selection procedure and are considered successful

Answer 96

base rate

Question 97

used to obtain an estimate of a predictor's incremental validity for various combinations of criterion-related validity coefficients, base rates, and selection ratios

Answer 97

Taylor-Russell tables

Question 98

a type of unfair discrimination in which the result of using a particular personnel selection method has a negative effect on protected group members compared with majority group members

Answer 98

Adverse impact

Question 99

occurs when members of one group consistently obtain lower scores on a selection test or other employment procedure but the score difference is not reflected in differences in scores on a measure of job performance

Answer 99

Test unfairness

Question 100

occurs when a selection test or other employment procedure has significantly different validity coefficients for members of different groups

Answer 100

Differential validity

Question 101

when using this rule, adverse impact is occurring when the hiring rate for a legally protected group is less than 80% of the hiring rate for the majority group

Answer 101

80% or 4/5 rule based on the Uniform Guidelines

Question 102

a method for evaluating the economic return on investment of human resource interventions such as staffing and training; ex. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula

Answer 102

Utility Analysis

Question 103

conducted to identify training needs; includes four analyses - organizational analysis, task analysis, person analysis, demographic analysis

Answer 103

Needs analysis (needs assessment)

Question 104

identify organizational goals and determine if employee performance problems are due to a lack of training or to inadequate selection procedures or other factors

Answer 104

organizational analysis

Question 105

identify the tasks required to perform the job and the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other char. required to successfully perform each task

Answer 105

Task (job) analysis

Question 106

identify which employees have deficiencies that require training

Answer 106

person analysis

Question 107

identify the training needs of specific groups of workers such as older vs younger workers

Answer 107

demographic analysis

Question 108

involve having inexperienced employees observe and learn about the job from a supervisor or experienced employee; includes apprenticeships, internships, coaching, mentoring, job rotation, and cross-training

Answer 108

On-the-job training methods

Question 109

take place at a site away from the actual worksite. Included in this category are classroom lectures, technology-based training, behavior modeling, and simulation training.

Answer 109

Off-the-job training methods

Question 110

Studies have found that depression is associated with abnormally high levels of activity in the _____ prefrontal cortex and abnormally low levels of activity in the _____ prefrontal cortex

Answer 110

ventromedial; dorsolateral

Question 111

Describes depression as the result of a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement for social behaviors due to a lack of reinforcement in the environment and/or poor social skills

Answer 111

Lewinsohn's social reinforcement theory

Question 112

attributing negative life events to stable, internal, and global factors; describes a sense of hopelessness as the proximal and sufficient cause of depression which, in turn, is the result of exposure to negative events and a negative cognitive style

Answer 112

Seligman's Learned helplessness model

Question 113

attributes depression to a negative cognitive triad that consists of negative thoughts about oneself, the world, and the future

Answer 113

Beck's cognitive theory of depression

Question 114

When compared to other treatments, Electroconvulsive therapy has a ___ response rate, a ___ remission rate, and faster time to ____

Answer 114

higher, higher, remission

Question 115

NCD due to Alzheimer's Disease is diagnosed when:

Answer 115

a) meet the criteria for mild or major NCD b) insidious onset and gradual progression of impairment in one or more cognitive domains c) meet criteria for probable/possible form of disorder d) not better explained by another disorder

Question 116

Frontotemporal NCD is diagnosed when:

Answer 116

a) meet criteria for major or mild NCD b) insidious onset and gradual progression c) don't include sig. impact on learning and memory or perceptual-motor functioning d) meet criteria for the behavioral (declines in social cognition and/or EF) or language (deficits in speech production, word finding, object naming, grammar) variant

Question 117

Brief Psychotic Disorder is between _____ in duration; Schizophreniform Disorder is between _____ in duration; Schizophrenia requires an active phase for at least _____ and continuous signs of disorder for at least _____

Answer 117

one day to one month; one month to six months; one month; six months

Question 118

Relationship to Person with Schizophrenia & Concordance Rate: 6% - 9% - 13% - 17% - 46% - 48% -

Answer 118

Parent Biological Sibling Child of one parent with schizophrenia Dizygotic (fraternal) twin Child of two parents with schizophrenia Monozygotic (identical) twin

Question 119

Treatments for paraphilic disorders: Covert sensitization and Orgasmic reconditioning

Answer 119

CS - form of aversive counterconditioning that's conducted in imagination and replaces the sexual arousal elicited by the paraphilic object or behavior with fear or other undesirable response OR - instructing the person to switch while masturbating from fantasizing about the paraphilic object or behavior to fantasizing about a more appropriate object or behavior

Question 120

_____ recurrent and intense sexual arousal from touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting adult as manifested in fantasies, urges, and/or behaviors _____ involves cross-dressing for the purpose of sexual arousal as manifested in fantasies, urges and/or behaviors _____ involves recurrent and intense sexual arousal related to fantasies, urges, and/or behaviors involving sexual activity with a child or children 13 years of age or younger _____ recurrent and intense sexual arousal in response to a nonliving object or specific non-genital body part _____ recurrent and intense sexual arousal from exposing one's genitals to an unsuspecting person as manifested by fantasies, urges, and/or behaviors

Answer 120

Frotteuristic Disorder; Transvestic Disorder; Pedophilic Disorder; Fetishistic Disorder; Exhibitionistic Disorder

Question 121

Freudian Psychoanalysis: Personality Theory

Answer 121

Id - present at birth, life and death instincts primary source of psychic energy, operates on pleasure principle and seeks immediate gratification Ego - develops ~6mo., operates on reality principle, seeks to partially gratify id instincts in realistic rational ways Superego - internalization of society's values and standards, acts as conscience, attempts to block Id's instincts

Question 122

Freudian Psychoanalysis: View of Maladaptive Behavior

Answer 122

Psychopathology stems from an unconscious, unresolved conflict that occurred during childhood

Question 123

Freudian Psychoanalysis: Goal of Therapy

Answer 123

To make the unconscious conscious and to strengthen the ego so that behavior is based more on reality and less on instinctual cravings and irrational guilt

Question 124

Jung's Analytical Psychology: Personality Theory

Answer 124

Personality continues to develop throughout life; divided the unconscious aspect of psyche into the personal (person's own forgotten or repressed memories) unconscious and collective (memories shared by all and passed down by generation) unconscious

Question 125

Jung's Analytical Psychology: Treatment Goals

Answer 125

Bring unconscious material into consciousness to facilitate the process of individuation (process by which a person becomes a psychological 'in-dividual', that is, a separate, indivisible unity or whole)

Question 126

Roger's Person Centered Therapy: View of Maladaptive Behavior

Answer 126

the self becomes disorganized as the result of incongruence between self and experience, which can occur when the individual experiences conditions of worth; people react to incongruence defensively by distorting or denying their experience which leads to psychological maladjustment

Question 127

Roger's Person Centered Therapy: Treatment Goals

Answer 127

help the client become a "fully functioning person" who isn't defensive, open to new experiences, and is engaged in process of self-actualization; therapist utilizes three facilitative conditions: unconditional positive regard, empathy, and congruence

Question 128

Gestalt Therapy: Assumptions

Answer 128

a) people motivated to main homeostasis b) people seek to obtain things from environment to satisfy unfulfilled needs in order to restore homeostasis

Question 129

Gestalt Therapy: View of Maladaptive Behaivor

Answer 129

Neurosis occurs when there's a persistent disturbance in the boundary between the person and the environment that interferes with the person's ability to fulfill needs

Question 130

a collaborative therapeutic alliance between the therapist and client in which they become coinvestigators as they examine the evidence to accept, support, reevaluate, or reject the client's thoughts, assumptions, intentions, and beliefs

Answer 130

CBT collaborative empiricism

Question 131

involves asking the client questions that are designed to clarify and define the client's problems, identify the thoughts and assumptions that underlie those problems, identify the thoughts and assumptions that underlie those problems, and evaluate the consequences of maintaining maladaptive thoughts and assumptions

Answer 131

Socratic dialogue

Question 132

Bowen's Extended Family Systems Therapy: Key Concepts 1. Differentiation 2. Emotional Triangles 3. Family Projection Process 4. Multigenerational Transmission Process

Answer 132

1. person's ability to distinguish between their own feelings and thoughts and those in the family 2. When a family dyad experiences tension, it may recruit a third family member to form an emotional triangle which helps alleviate the tension and increase stability 3. parents' projection of their emotional immaturity onto their children, which results in lower levels of differentiation 4. Transmission of emotional maturity (and low levels of differentiation) from one generation to the next

Question 133

Bowen's Extended Family Systems Therapy: Treatment Goal

Answer 133

Increase each family member's differentiation

Question 134

Minuchin's structural family therapy: Key Concepts 1. Subsystems 2. Boundaries 3. Family Triads

Answer 134

1. smaller units of the entire family system that are responsible for carrying out specific tasks 2. implicit and explicit rules that determine the amount of contact that family members have with each other; differ in terms of degree of permeability and exist on a continuum 3. Stable coalition (P+C vs other P); Unstable coalition (each P demands C side with them); Detouring-attack coalition (P avoid conflict by blaming C for problems); detouring-support coalition (P avoid conflict by overprotecting C)

Question 135

Minuchin's Structural Family Therapy: View of Maladaptive Behavior

Answer 135

Dysfunctional family structure that causes the family to repeatedly respond inappropriately to developmental and situational stress

Question 136

Minuchin's Structural Family Therapy: Treatment Goals

Answer 136

alleviate current symptoms and change the family structure by altering coalitions and creating clear boundaries; focuses on promoting behavior change rather than insight

Question 137

Haley's Strategic Family Therapy: Assumptions

Answer 137

struggles for power and control in relationships are core features of family functioning; a symptom is a strategy that is adaptive to a current social situation for controlling a relationship when all other strategies have failed; power and control are determined primarily by hierarchies within a family; maladaptive family functioning often related to unclear or inappropriate hierarchies

Question 138

Haley's Strategic Family Therapy: Goal of Therapy

Answer 138

alter family interactions that are maintaining its symptoms by changing behavior rather than instilling insight

Question 139

Strategic Family Therapy Paradoxical directives: Prescribing the symptom - Restraining - Ordeal -

Answer 139

P - instructing family members to engage in the problematic behavior, often in an exaggerated way R - encouraging family members not to change or warning them not to change too quickly O - unpleasant task that a family member is asked to perform whenever they engage in the undesirable behavior

Question 140

Milan Systemic Family Therapy: Assumption

Answer 140

the family as a whole protects itself from change through homeostatic rules and patterns of communication (maladaptive - rigid and involve power struggles between family members)

Question 141

Milan Systemic Family Therapy: Goal of Therapy

Answer 141

alter family rules and communication patterns that are maintaining problematic behavior which involves providing the family with info that challenges family games and helps family members develop communication patterns that increase family's ability to adapt to change

Question 142

Psychologists that adopt an _____ perspective believes that behaivor is affected by culture and, as a result, psychological theories and interventions that apply to members of one culture may not apply to others while Psychologists that adopt an _____ perspective believes that behavior is similar across cultures and that the same psychological theories and interventions are appropriate for everyone, regardless of their cultural background

Answer 142

emic; etic

Question 143

_____ interventions focus on making changes in the client so that they can successfully adapt to the environment while _____ interventions focus on altering the environment or situation to fit the client's needs, desires, or other attributes

Answer 143

autoplastic; alloplastic

Question 144

Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model Stages(Atkinson, Morten, & Sue 1998) Conformity - Dissonance - Resistance and Immersion - Introspection - Integrative Awareness -

Answer 144

C - Have neutral/negative attitudes towards own minority group and other minority groups and positive attitudes towards majority group D - Question attitudes toward members of own minority group, other minority groups, and majority group as result of exposure to info. or events that contradict their worldview RI - Positive attitudes towards own minority group and negative attitudes towards majority group Intro - Question allegiance to own minority group and concerned about biases that affect judgments of members of other groups Integ - Aware of the positive and negative aspects of all cultural groups and focus on becoming more multicultural

Question 145

Cross's Black Racial Identity Development Model (1971) Pre-encounter - Encounter - Immersion-Emersion - Internalization - Internalization-Commitment -

Answer 145

P - idealize and prefer white culture; negative attitudes towards own culture E - question views of white and black cultures as result of exposure to events that cause awareness of impact of racism on their lives IE - Reject white culture and immerse in their own culture I - positive black identity and tolerate/respect racial and cultural differences IC - internalized a black identity and are committed to social activism to reduce oppression

Question 146

Multidimensional Model of Racial Identity (MMRI, 1998): Not stages but dimensions Racial Salience - Racial Centrality - Racial Regard - Racial Ideology -

Answer 146

RS - extent to which a person's race is relevant to their self-concept at a particular point in time and situation RC - extent to which a person normatively defines themselves in terms of race and affected by importance of race to person relative to other identities RR - private regard (extent to which a person feels + or - towards AA and how + or - they feel about being AA) and public regard (extent to which a person feels that others view AA + or -) RI - person's beliefs and opinions about the ways AA should live and interact with society

Question 147

Helm's White Racial Identity Development (WRID) Model Contact - Disintegration - Reintegration - Pseudo-independence - Immersion-Emersion Autonomy -

Answer 147

C - lack of awareness of racism and satisfaction with racial status quo (IPS: obliviousness) D- become aware of contradictions that create race-related moral dilemmas (IPS: suppression and ambivalence) R - attempted to resolve dilemmas by believing that Whites are superior to minority group members and blame them for their own problems (IPS: selective perception and negative out-group distortion) PI - question their beliefs about Whites and members of minority groups; superficial tolerance of minority group members and paternalistic attitudes (IPS: reshaping reality and selective perception) IE - search for personal meaning of racism and understanding of what it means to be White (IPS: hypervigilance and reshaping) A - develop a nonracist white identity, value diversity, and can explore issues related to race and racism without defensiveness (IPS: flexibility and complexity)

Question 148

Troiden's Model of Homosexual Identity Development: Sensitization - Identity Confusion - Identity Assumption - Identity Commitment -

Answer 148

S - occurs during childhood and characterized by feeling different from same-sex peers IC - middle to late adolescence; start to feel sexually attracted to individuals of same sex and suspect they are homosexual; brings up feelings of uncertainty, anxiety which can lead to denial, avoidance, repair, redefinition, or acceptance IA - person begins to accept a homosexual identity usually around young adulthood; seek out social and sexual relationships with same-sex individuals and disclose sexual orientation to homosexual peers and to some heterosexual peers and family members IC - have internalized gay or lesbian identity, accepted homosexuality as a way of life, and are comfortable disclosing to others

Question 149

______, which is due to a hardening of the lens of the eye, makes it difficult for adults to focus on nearby objects

Answer 149

presbyopia

Question 150

Erikson's Psychosocial Stages 1. Birth-1 year (hope) 2. 1-3 years (will) 3. 3-6 years (purpose) 4. 6-12 years (competence) 5. adolescence (fidelity) 6. young adulthood (love) 7. middle adulthood (care) 8. late adulthood (wisdom)

Answer 150

1. trust vs mistrust 2. autonomy vs shame and doubt 3. initiative vs guilt 4. industry vs inferiority 5. identity vs role confusion 6. intimacy vs isolation 7. generativity vs stagnation 8. integrity vs despair

Question 151

By _____, most children pass the mirror self-recognition test with the exception of children with Down Syndrome, ASD, and children with developmental delays

Answer 151

18-24 months

Question 152

Marcia's Adolescent Identity Development Model Identity Diffusion - Identity Foreclosure - Identity Moratorium - Identity Achievement -

Answer 152

ID - individuals have not undergone an identity crisis and are not committed to an identity IF - individuals have not experienced an identity crisis but have a strong commitment to a particular identity as the result of accepting the values, goals, and preferences of parents or other authority figures IM - individuals have or are experiencing an identity crisis but have not committed themselves to an identity IA - individuals have experienced an identity crisis and have a strong commitment to a specific identity

Question 153

From _____ children exhibit primary emotions which include _____; At _____ children develop secondary (self-conscious) emotions which include _____

Answer 153

birth to 18 months; contentment, interest, and distress (at birth) joy, surprise, sadness, disgust, anger, and fear (around 6 months); 18-36 months; envy, empathy, and embarrassment (18-24) shame, guilt, and pride (30-36)

Question 154

Piaget's Theory of Moral Development: Premoral Stage - Heteronomous Stage - Autonomous Stage -

Answer 154

PS - children have very limited understanding of rules and moral behavior HS - children believe rules are made by authorities and cannot be changed; base judgments primarily on the consequences of the behavior AS - believe rules are determined by agreement between people and can be changed by agreement; base judgments primarily on the actor's intentions

Question 155

Kohlberg's Theory of Moral Development: Preconventional Morality - Conventional Morality - Postconventional Morality -

Answer 155

PreM - punishment and obedience stage and the instrumental hedonism stage CM - "good boy/girl" stage and the law and order orientation stage PosM - morality of contract, individual rights, and democratically accepted laws and morality of individual principles of conscience

Question 156

Plays a role in reward-seeking, drug addiction, and, through its connection to the basal ganglia, motor control

Answer 156

Substantia Nigra

Question 157

Serves as the body's biological clock and regulates the sleep-wake cycle and other circadian rhythms

Answer 157

Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

Question 158

Includes the caudate nucleus, putamen, nucleus accumbens, and globus pallidus

Answer 158

Basal Ganglia

Question 159

The first four stages (NREM) of sleep are characterized by _____, ______ synchronized EEG activity

Answer 159

high-voltage; slow-wave

Question 160

Newborn infants sleep longer than older children and adults do, spend more time in _____, and begin the sleep period with _____ that is followed by _____

Answer 160

active (REM) sleep; active sleep; quiet (NREM) sleep

Question 161

MMPI-2 Clinical Scales and Interpretation of Elevated Scores 1. Hs _____ : preoccupation with physical complaints 2. D _____ : depression and hopelessness 3. Hy _____ : stress and conflicts expressed as physical symptoms 4. Pd _____ : social alienation and disinhibition 5. Mf _____ : stereotyped gender roles and interests 6. Pa _____ : suspiciousness and interpersonal sensitivity 7. Pt _____ : anxiety and excessive fear and doubt 8. Sc _____ : psychosis and severe social and emotional alienation 9. Ma _____ : unstable mood and hyperarousal 0. Si _____ : social withdrawal and avoidance

Answer 161

1. Hypochondriasis 2. Depression 3. Hysteria 4. Psychopathic Deviate 5. Masculinity/Femininity 6. Paranoia 7. Psychasthenia 8. Schizophrenia 9. Hypomania 0. Social Introversion

Question 162

Common Two Point Codes on MMPI-2 4-9: Psychopathic Deviate and Hypomania 2-7: Depression and Psychasthenia

Answer 162

4-9: associated with impulsive, narcissistic, and antisocial tendencies and substance abuse 2-7: associated with depression, excessive worry, agitation, and physical complaints

Question 163

Common three-point codes on MMPI-2: Conversion V Psychotic V Neurotic triad

Answer 163

CV - occurs when an examinee obtains elevated scores on scales 1 (Hs) and 3 (Hy) and a lower score of scale 2 (D); associated with expression of psychological problems as somatic complaints PV - occurs when an examinee obtains elevated scores on scales 6 (Pa) and 8 (Sc) and a lower score of scale 7 (Pt); associated with delusions, hallucinations, paranoia, and disordered thought NT - occurs when an examinee obtains elevated scores on scales 1 (Hs), 2 (D), and 3 (Hy); associated with depression, somatic complaints, interpersonal and work-related problems, and general dissatisfaction

Question 164

Validity Scales on the MMPI-2 L (Lie) - K (Defensiveness/Correction) - F (Infrequency) - Fb (F back) - Fp (Infrequency/Psychopathology) - S (Superlative Self-Presentation) - VRIN (Variable Response Inconsistency) - TRIN (True Response Inconsistency) -

Answer 164

L - detects underreporting of symptoms (fake good) K - detects underreporting of symptoms and used to correct scores in clinical scales (fake good, defensiveness) F - detects overreporting of symptoms based on general population (fake bad) Fb - detects overreporting of symptoms on last 197 items (fake bad, boredom) Fp - detects overreporting of symptoms based on psychiatric population (exaggeration of symptoms) S - detects tendency to present oneself in positive light (defensiveness, denial of flaws) VRIN - detects random responding (invalid profile) TRIN - detects fixed pattern of responding (invalid profile)

Question 165

Classical Conditioning Procedures: _____ - presentation of CS precedes and overlaps presentation of US _____ - CS is presented and terminated just before the US is presented _____ - CS and US are presented and terminated at about the same time _____ - US is presented before the CS

Answer 165

delay conditioning trace conditioning simultaneous conditioning backward conditioning

Question 166

occurs when, after the CS is repeatedly presented without the US, the CS no longer produces a CR

Answer 166

Classical Conditioning

Question 167

After a CR has apparently been extinguished by repeatedly presenting the CS without the US, the CR returns in a reduced or less intense form when, after a period of time, the CS is again presented alone; provides evidence that the apparent extinction of a CR is due to a physiological process that suppresses (rather than eliminates) the association between the CS and CR

Answer 167

Spontaneous Recovery

Question 168

ability to discriminate between the CS and similar stimuli

Answer 168

Stimulus Discrimination

Question 169

a method for reducing or eliminating a conditioned response and involves inhibiting a previously established conditioned response (CR) to a conditioned stimulus (CS)

Answer 169

Conditioned Inhibition

Question 170

involves treating a CS (e.g., a ringing bell) as an unconditioned stimulus and pairing it with a neutral stimulus (e.g., a blinking light) so that the neutral stimulus also becomes a CS and elicits the CR (e.g., salivation) when presented alone

Answer 170

Higher-Order Conditioning

Question 171

Thorndike concluded that the cats learned how to escape through a process of _____ and that the likelihood that behaviors would recur depended on their consequences

Answer 171

trial-and-error

Question 172

behaviors that are followed by satisfying consequences are likely to occur again, while behaviors that are followed by dissatisfying consequences are less likely to be repeated.

Answer 172

Thorndike's Law of Effect

Question 173

Skinner's theory of Operant Conditioning Positive Reinforcement - Negative Reinforcement - Positive Punishment - Negative Punishment -

Answer 173

PR - occurs when a behavior increases or is maintained at its current level because a stimulus is applied following the behavior NR - occurs when a behavior increases or is maintained because a stimulus is removed following the behavior PP - occurs when a behavior decreases because a stimulus is applied following the behavior NP - occurs when a behavior decreases because a stimulus is taken away following the behavior

Question 174

To extinguish a behavior that has been reinforced, reinforcement is withheld every time the behavior occurs

Answer 174

Operant Extinction

Question 175

reinforcement is consistently provided after a fixed period of time regardless of how many times the behavior occurs during each interval

Answer 175

Fixed Interval (FI) Schedule

Question 176

reinforcement is provided after intervals of varying and unpredictable lengths

Answer 176

Variable Interval (VI) Schedule

Question 177

reinforcement is consistently provided after a specific number of responses

Answer 177

Fixed Ratio (FR) Schedule

Question 178

reinforcement is provided after a variable number of responses; produce the highest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction

Answer 178

Variable Ratio (VR) Schedule

Question 179

Reducing the amount of reinforcement for a behavior

Answer 179

Thinning

Question 180

occurs when two behaviors (Behaviors A and B) are being reinforced and the frequencies of Behavior A and Behavior B change when there is an alteration in the rate of reinforcement for one of the behaviors

Answer 180

Behavioral Contrast

Question 181

_____ (e.g., food, water) are inherently reinforcing because they satisfy needs that are related to basic survival. In contrast, _____ (e.g., praise, tokens) are neutral stimuli that become reinforcing because of their association with primary reinforcers

Answer 181

Primary reinforcers; secondary reinforcers

Question 182

Performance of a particular behavior is due to positive reinforcement (operant conditioning). Performance of the behavior in the presence of a positive discriminative stimulus but not in the presence of a negative discriminative stimulus is the result of discrimination training (classical conditioning)

Answer 182

Two-factor learning

Question 183

occurs when a behavior occurs because it allows the individual to escape an unpleasant stimulus

Answer 183

Escape Conditioning

Question 184

result of two-factor learning and occurs when a stimulus signals that an unpleasant stimulus is about to be applied and a behavior occurs because it allows the individual to avoid the unpleasant stimulus

Answer 184

Avoidance Conditioning

Question 185

refers generally to the gradual decline in the frequency or magnitude of a response

Answer 185

Habituation

Question 186

involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior

Answer 186

Shaping

Question 187

used to establish a complex behavior that consists of separate responses; begins with a task analysis to identify the individual responses that make up the behavior chain and can be forward or backward

Answer 187

Chaining

Question 188

When using the _____, a high frequency or preferred behavior is used as reinforcement for a low frequency or less preferred behavior to increase the low frequency behavior

Answer 188

Premack Principle

Question 189

classified as a type of positive punishment because it involves applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior

Answer 189

Overcorrection

Question 190

which occurs when a person is asked to memorize a list of unrelated words and then asked to recall as many words as possible in any order either immediately or after a brief delay

Answer 190

Serial Position Effect

Question 191

Baddeley's Model of Working Memory Central Executive - Phonological Loop - Visuo-spatial Sketchpad - Episodic Buffer -

Answer 191

CE - controls 3 subsystems by directing attention to relevant information and coordinating other cognitive processes PL - responsible for temporary storage of verbal information VS - responsible for temporary storage of visual and spatial information EB - integrates verbal, visual, and spatial info. and links WM to LTM

Question 192

_____ are also referred to as nondeclarative memories and are memories for learned skills and actions. _____ are divided into two types – _____ memories are memories for facts, concepts, and other kinds of knowledge while _____ memories are memories for personally experienced events

Answer 192

Procedural memories; Declarative Memories; Semantic; Episodic (autobiographical)

Question 193

As a phenomenon, _____ occurs when exposure to a stimulus subsequently facilitates or inhibits a person’s response to the same or a similar stimulus

Answer 193

Priming

Question 194

As a _____, there are several different types of priming that each use different ways to investigate implicit memory. Types of priming include perceptual and conceptual priming, affective/evaluative priming, masked priming, semantic priming, associative priming, and repetition priming.

Answer 194

method

Question 195

attributes forgetting to the disruption of memories by previously or more recently acquired information

Answer 195

Interference theory

Question 196

_____ occurs when previously learned information interferes with the ability to learn or recall new information. For example, proactive interference has occurred when memorization of a list of words in the past interferes with your ability to learn or recall a new list of words. ______ occurs when newly acquired information interferes with the ability to recall previously acquired information. Retroactive interference has occurred when you’re unable to recall the first list of words you memorized after you memorize a second list of words.

Answer 196

Proactive Interference; Retroactive Interference

Question 197

retrieval from long-term memory is maximized when the conditions at the time of learning (encoding) new information are the same as the conditions at the time of recall

Answer 197

Encoding Specificity

Question 198

Personality Assessment Associations 16PF -> EPPS -> MBTI -> NEO-PI-3 -> TAT ->

Answer 198

16PF -> Cattell (1947) (developed using lexical strategy and factor analysis) EPPS -> Edwards (1959) (derived from Murray's system of human needs) MBTI -> Myers & Briggs (1962) (based on Jung's personality typology) NEO-PI-3 -> Costa & McCrae (1985) (assesses Big 5 traits; developed using lexical approach and factor analysis) TAT -> Murray (1943) (based on system of human needs)

Question 199

Measure of IQ for ages 2-85+; based on hierarchical general mental ability model that incorporates 5 cognitive factors derived from CHC theory; Subtest scores have mean of 10 and SD of 3; Composite Scores have a mean of 100 and SD of 15

Answer 199

Stanford Binet Intelligence Test-5 (SB5)

Question 200

Measure of IQ for ages 16-90; based on hierarchical model of intelligence (no theory backing); Subtest scores have mean of 10 and SD of 3; Composite Scores have a mean of 100 and SD of 15

Answer 200

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-IV

Question 201

are inferences that people draw about the causes of their own behaviors and the behaviors of others

Answer 201

Causal Attributions

Question 202

is the tendency to overestimate the role of dispositional factors and underestimate the role of situational factors when making attributions about the behavior of another person

Answer 202

Fundamental Attribution Error

Question 203

addresses the attributions we make about ourselves and other people, and it is the tendency to attribute our own behaviors to situational factors and the behaviors of others to dispositional factors

Answer 203

Actor-observer Effect

Question 204

applies to attributions we make about ourselves. It occurs when we attribute our own behaviors to dispositional factors when those behaviors have desirable outcomes but to situational factors when they have undesirable outcomes

Answer 204

Self-Serving Bias

Question 205

applies to attributions made about members of entire groups. It occurs when the negative behaviors of members of one’s own in-groups are attributed to situational factors while the negative behaviors of members of out-groups are consistently attributed to dispositional factors, and vice versa for positive behaviors

Answer 205

Ultimate attribution error

Question 206

applies to attributions made about a group and its members. There are two versions. As described by Hamill, Wilson, and Nisbett (1980), it occurs when people believe that an individual group member’s beliefs, attitudes, and preferences are reflective of those of the group as a whole. As described by Allison and Messick (1985), it occurs when people believe that the decision or conclusion drawn by a group reflects the decision or conclusion of each individual group member, even in the presence of information suggesting that the group decision was not unanimous

Answer 206

Group attribution error

Question 207

According to this model, when consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness are all high, people are likely to make an external attribution about another person’s behavior. In contrast, when consensus is low, consistency is high, and distinctiveness is low, people are likely to make an internal attribution.

Answer 207

Kelley's Covariation Model

Question 208

the tendency to seek and pay attention to information that confirms our attitudes and beliefs and ignore information that refutes them

Answer 208

Confirmation Bias

Question 209

occurs when we overestimate the relationship between two variables that are not related or are only slightly related

Answer 209

Illusory correlation

Question 210

tendency to ignore or underuse base rate information (information about most people) and instead to be influenced by the distinctive features of the case being judged

Answer 210

Base rate fallacy

Question 211

the tendency to overestimate the extent to which other people share our opinions, values, and beliefs and has been found to affect judgments in a variety of situations

Answer 211

False consensus Effect

Question 212

occurs when people “believe that a particular chance event is affected by previous events and that chance events will ‘even out’ in the short run”

Answer 212

Gambler's Fallacy

Question 213

the tendency to imagine what might have happened but didn’t and can involve imagining either better or worse outcomes

Answer 213

Counterfactual thinking

Question 214

occurs when people believe they can influence events that are outside their control; superstitious behaviors

Answer 214

Illusory Control

Question 215

occurs when people “believe that more people take note of their actions and appearance than is actually the case”

Answer 215

Spotlight Effect

Question 216

occur when people overestimate the extent to which other people notice them; applies to thoughts and feelings rather than actions and appearance and occurs when people “overestimate the extent to which others can discern their internal states”

Answer 216

Illusion of transparency

Question 217

refers to people’s judgments after an event occurs and is the tendency of people to inaccurately believe they predicted the event would occur or to overestimate the likelihood that they could have predicted that the event would occur

Answer 217

Hindsight bias

Question 218

the tendency of people to continue investing resources (e.g., time, money) in an endeavor when they have already invested significant resources that have not produced desired outcomes and/or are not recoverable

Answer 218

Sunk-cost Fallacy

Question 219

When using the _____ heuristic to make judgments about the frequency or likelihood of an event, we ignore base rates and other important information and focus, instead, on the extent to which the event resembles a prototype (typical case).

Answer 219

representativeness

Question 220

occurs when people estimate that the odds of two uncertain events happening together are greater than the odds of either event happening alone

Answer 220

Conjunction Fallacy

Question 221

When using the _____ heuristic, we base our judgments about the frequency or likelihood of an event on how easy it is to recall relevant examples of the event.

Answer 221

availability

Question 222

When using the _____ heuristic, we estimate the frequency of an event or other value by beginning with a starting point and then making upward or downward adjustments.

Answer 222

anchoring and adjustment

Question 223

When we use the _____ heuristic, we judge the likelihood of an event based on how easy it is to imagine the event happening to us or others: Events that are more easily imagined are judged to be more likely to occur.

Answer 223

simulation

Question 224

According to the theory of planned behavior, a person's behavior intention is determined by three factors:

Answer 224

person's attitude toward behavior, what the person thinks others believe they should do (subjective norms), and the person's confidence in their ability to perform the behavior (perceived behavior control)

Question 225

According to this theory, willingness depends on the person’s perceived acceptability of the behavior which, in turn, is determined by the person’s prototype (social image) of people who engage in the behavior. When the prototype is positive, a person is more willing to engage in the behavior in social situations that are conducive to that behavior, and vice versa.

Answer 225

Prototype/willingness model

Question 226

The health belief model identifies the following factors that predict the likelihood that a person will engage in behavior that will reduce the risk for developing a disorder:

Answer 226

Perceived susceptibility, Perceived severity, Perceived Benefits, Perceived Barriers, Self-efficacy, Cues to Action

Question 227

According to the _____, a persuasive message can be processed through a central or peripheral route. The _____ route is characterized by a high level of elaborative processing that involves thoughtful and careful evaluation of the message. In contrast, the _____ route is characterized by a low level of elaboration and involves an automatic evaluation of the message.

Answer 227

Elaboration Likelihood Model; central; peripheral

Question 228

It is most likely to be used when the person perceives the message to be personally relevant, has the cognitive ability to process the message, and/or is in a neutral or bad mood. Attitude change induced via this route depends on the strength of the argument presented in the message and is likely to be strong, enduring, and predictive of behavior.

Answer 228

Central Route of processing

Question 229

It is most likely to be used when the person perceives the message to be unimportant, does not have the cognitive ability to process the message, and/or is in a good mood. Attitude change induced via this route depends on source, message, and recipient factors that are not central to the content of the message – e.g., the communicator’s attractiveness, likability, credibility, or celebrity; the length of the message; and the recipient’s reliance on heuristics. When this route produces attitude change, the change is likely to be weak and temporary and not predictive of behavior.

Answer 229

Peripheral Route of Processing

Question 230

Social Judgment Theory: Latitudes Latitude of acceptance Latitude of noncommitment Latitude of rejection

Answer 230

LA - consists of positions the person finds acceptable because they are similar to their own position LN - consists of positions the person will not automatically accept or reject but will consider because they are moderately different from their position LR - consists of positions the person finds unacceptable because they are extremely different from their position

Question 231

As the person's level of ego-involvement _____, the latitudes of acceptance and noncommitment become smaller and the latitude of rejection becomes larger.

Answer 231

increases

Question 232

proposes that, when people become aware of an inconsistency between two of their cognitions (attitudes, opinions, beliefs) or between a cognition and a behavior, they experience a state of mental discomfort that they’re motivated to relieve. To do so, people typically use one of the following ways to relieve this: replace or subtract a dissonant cognition, add a consonant cognition, increase the importance of a consonant cognition, or decrease the importance of a dissonant cognition

Answer 232

Festinger's (1954) Cognitive Dissonance Theory

Question 233

predicts that, when people are externally reinforced for engaging in an intrinsically rewarding behavior, their intrinsic motivation decreases.

Answer 233

Overjustification effect

Question 234

_____ strategies attempt to overcome resistance to persuasion by increasing approach forces. These strategies involve providing reasons why change is desirable by, for example, maximizing the strength of the arguments presented in the message and using consensus information (showing that the attitude, belief, or behavior advocated by the message is the most popular one). In contrast, _____ strategies attempt to reduce or neutralize resistance by decreasing avoidance forces. These include addressing resistance by providing recipients with counterarguments to their concerns and using comparisons to make the position advocated by the persuasive message seem more desirable.

Answer 234

Alpha; Omega

Question 235

Communicators are more persuasive when they are:

Answer 235

attractive, likable, and credible

Question 236

In general, the relationship between amount of _____ and _____ has an inverted-U shape, with the greatest amount of change being elicited when there’s a moderate discrepancy between the recipient’s current position and the position advocated by the message.

Answer 236

attitude change; message discrepancy

Question 237

When both sides of an argument are presented, a _____ occurs when the two sides are presented back-to-back and a period of time passes before recipients’ attitudes are assessed. In other words, the side presented first has the greatest effect on attitudes. In contrast, a _____ occurs when a period of time passes between presentation of the two sides and the recipients’ attitudes are assessed soon after the second presentation. In this situation, the side presented second has the greatest impact.

Answer 237

primacy effect; recency effect

Question 238

based on the medical model of immunization and proposes that an effective way to increase resistance to persuasion is to “immunize” people against attempts to change their attitudes. This involves providing them with weak arguments against their current attitudes along with counterarguments that refute those arguments before they’re exposed to the persuasive message.

Answer 238

attitude inoculation hypothesis

Question 239

_____ occurs when people conform to the judgments of others because they think others know more than they do. It helps explain conformity in ambiguous situations and is likely to lead to private (genuine) acceptance of the judgments of others. _____ occurs when people conform to the judgments of others to avoid their ridicule or rejection. It helps explain conformity in unambiguous situations and is likely to lead to public acceptance (compliance) without a real change in judgment

Answer 239

Informational influence; Normative influence

Question 240

Social facilitation and social inhibition occur when the mere presence of other people affects a person’s task performance. _____ is an improvement in performance and affects easy and well-learned tasks, while _____ is a decrease in performance and affects difficult and unfamiliar tasks.

Answer 240

Social facilitation; Social inhibition

Question 241

the tendency for people to come to like things simply because they see or encounter them repeatedly

Answer 241

Mere Exposure Effect

Question 242

states that there’s a positive relationship between attitude similarity and attraction and that this relationship is due to the fact that interacting with people who have similar attitudes is reinforcing because it validates our views and produces good feelings

Answer 242

Byrne's (1971) Law of Attraction

Question 243

attractiveness of a person who is perceived to be competent increases when that person commits a blunder, while the attractiveness of a person who is perceived to be mediocre decreases when he or she commits a blunder

Answer 243

Aronson, Willerman, and Floyd's (1966) pratfall effect

Question 244

(a) we’re more attracted to people who initially dislike us but then change their minds as they get to know us than we are to people who express constant liking for us and (b) we’re less attracted to people who initially like us and then change their minds than we are to people who express constant dislike for us

Answer 244

Gain-loss effect

Question 245

According to Berscheid’s (1991) _____, strong emotions are elicited in close relationships when a partner interrupts the couple’s usual behavioral routines (sequences) because he or she engages in an unexpected behavior.

Answer 245

emotion-in-relationships model

Question 246

According to _____ (Pettigrew, 1978), prejudice and discrimination are the result of direct competition between different groups for scarce and valued resources.

Answer 246

realistic conflict theory

Question 247

Tajfel and Turner’s (1986) _____ is based on the assumptions that people have a natural tendency to categorize people into groups, to identify with one or more groups, and to favor in-groups. Feeling positively toward an in-group increases a group member’s self-esteem, but it can also lead to prejudice and discrimination against members of out-groups.

Answer 247

social identity theory

Question 248

prejudice occurs because members of dominant groups use discrimination against weak target groups to vent their frustration and disappointment

Answer 248

Scapegoat Theory

Question 249

based on two assumptions: The first assumption is that, like other animals, humans have a biological drive to stay alive. The second assumption is that, unlike other animals, humans have cognitive abilities that allow them to be aware of their own existence and of threats to existence that thwart the drive to stay alive. It also contends that awareness of mortality creates a sense of terror and that cultural worldview and self-esteem act as defenses against this terror (a) by maintaining faith in a cultural worldview “that imbues reality with order, meaning, and permanence and provides paths to literal and/or symbolic immortality for those who meet prescribed standards of value” and (b) by adhering to standards that are consistent with their worldview to maintain their self-esteem.

Answer 249

Terror Management Theory

Question 250

proposes that contact between members of majority and minority groups is most effective for reducing prejudice and discrimination when (a) members of the groups have equal status; (b) members must work together to achieve common (superordinate) goals; (c) there is no competition between members; and (d) the contact is sanctioned by law, custom, or institutional authorities

Answer 250

Allport's (1954) contact hypothesis

Question 251

characterized by a belief in egalitarianism coupled with the beliefs that prejudice and discrimination no longer exist, that members of certain minority groups violate traditional White American values such as the Protestant work ethic, individualism, and self-determination, and that the social and economic hardships of these groups are due to a lack of effort and other internal factors

Answer 251

Symbolic Racism

Question 252

characterized by a belief in egalitarianism. However, it’s accompanied by a non-prejudiced self-image and negative, often unconscious feelings about minority group members that were acquired early in life

Answer 252

aversive racism

Question 253

characterized by a combination of positive and negative attitudes toward minority group members. These conflicting attitudes lead to emotional tension, which a person attempts to reduce by amplifying his/her positive or negative attitudes

Answer 253

ambivalent racism

Question 254

refers to “laws, policies, and practices that produce cumulative, durable, and race-based inequalities, and includes the failure to correct previous laws and practices that were explicitly racist”

Answer 254

Structural Racism

Question 255

the result of “policies, practices, and procedures of institutions – such as school, health care, law enforcement, and criminal justice systems – that marginalize diverse racial groups”

Answer 255

Institutional Racism

Question 256

occurs when individuals from socially and politically dominant racial groups behave in ways that diminish and harm people who belong to other racial groups

Answer 256

Interpersonal Racism

Question 257

the acceptance by diverse racial populations of the negative societal beliefs and stereotypes about themselves … that reinforce the superiority of Whites and can lead to the perception of themselves as devalued, worthless, and powerless

Answer 257

Internalized (intrapersonal) racism

Question 258

refers to a person’s unconscious internalization of positive and negative stereotypes that are applied to his/her own group by other groups

Answer 258

Self-stereotyping

Question 259

occurs when situational factors activate group stereotypes in members of low status groups, inducing assimilation to the stereotypes or self-stereotyping

Answer 259

Stereotype Threat

Question 260

Mentoring incorporates two functions: (a) _____ depend on the mentor’s status and influence in the organization and are behaviors that prepare mentees for career advancement within their organizations. These behaviors include acting as a trainer or tutor, sponsoring the advancement of mentees, and increasing the exposure and visibility of mentees. (b) _____ depend on the interpersonal bond between the mentor and mentee and include role-modeling, offering advice, providing support, and engaging in other behaviors that promote the mentee’s personal and professional growth and feelings of self-confidence and self-efficacy.

Answer 260

Career Functions; Psychosocial functions

Question 261

Coaching consists of two activities: (a) _____ involves identifying the conditions that contribute to the employee’s satisfactory and unsatisfactory performance, and (b) _____ are direct communications between the coach and employee that are aimed at helping the employee achieve and maintain optimal performance.

Answer 261

Coaching analysis; Coaching discussions

Question 262

_____ practice involves providing opportunities for learning and practice in multiple sessions with periods of rest between sessions, while _____ practice involves providing opportunities for learning practice in one session.

Answer 262

Distributed; massed

Question 263

_____ training involves teaching an entire task at once, while _____ training involves dividing the task into subtasks and teaching each subtask separately. The best approach depends on the type of task: _____ training is more effective when the task is highly organized and subtasks are highly interrelated.

Answer 263

Whole-task; part-task; Whole-task

Question 264

refers to learning or practicing beyond the point of mastery and results in automaticity, which occurs when information is recalled or a behavior is performed with little conscious effort or awareness

Answer 264

Overlearning

Question 265

A _____ evaluation is conducted to assist with the development and improvement of a program, while a ______ evaluation is conducted to determine whether program outcomes met the program’s goals.

Answer 265

Formative; summative

Question 266

Components of a formative training evaluation

Answer 266

a) A needs assessment b) An evaluability assessment c) A structured evaluation d) An implementation evaluation e) A process evaluation

Question 267

Components of a summative training evaluation

Answer 267

a) An outcome evaluation b) An impact evaluation c) A cost-effectiveness and cost-benefit analysis d) A secondary analysis e) A meta-analysis

Question 268

Dessinger-Moseley full-scope evaluation Model: Four Types of Evaluation 1. Formative Evaluation 2. Summative Evaluation 3. Confirmative Evaluation 4. Meta-evaluation

Answer 268

1. Conducted during development of training program to determine what changes are needed for program to achieve goals; may include expert review and administering measures of attitudes and learning to trainees 2. Conducted soon after training program delivered to determine its immediate effects; involves admin. measures that assess trainee's reactions to training and training effectiveness 3. Conducted at later time to evaluate long-term effects of training; involves administering similar measures from summative evaluation 4. ongoing process conducted during and after previous evaluations to assess reliability and validity

Question 269

Kirkpatrick's evaluation model (1988): Four Levels of training program evaluation Reaction Criteria Learning Criteria Behavior Criteria Results Criteria

Answer 269

React - assess trainee's impressions of training Learn - assess how well trainees acquired info. and skills presented Behave - evaluate degree which trainee's job performance improved as result of training Results - assess the effects of training on return-on-investment, customer satisfaction, and other organizational outcomes

Question 270

Super's Life-Space, Life-Span Career Theory distinguishes between 5 stages of career development:

Answer 270

Growth (birth-14) Exploration (15-24) Establishment (25-44) Maintenance (45-64) Disengagement (65+)

Question 271

Super used the term _____ to refer to the various life roles a person assumes at different times and in different contexts (e.g., child, student, worker, parent). He proposed that each person has a unique _____ due to differences in needs, interests, values, and other personal factors and in family, cultural, and other situational factors.

Answer 271

life-space

Question 272

Holland's Theory of Career Choice distinguished between 6 personality and work environment types ("RIASEC")

Answer 272

realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional

Question 273

Holland proposed that people are most productive and satisfied at work when there’s a high degree of _____ between a person’s personality and the characteristics of the work environment.

Answer 273

congruence (“goodness-of-fit”)

Question 274

Krumboltz's Social Learning Theory of Career Decision-Making identifies 4 factors that contribute to career decisions:

Answer 274

genetic endowment and special abilities, environmental conditions and events, instrumental and associative learning experiences, task approach skills

Question 275

Driver and Brousseau's Career Concept Model: Four career concepts Linear Career Concept - Expert Career Concept - Spiral Career Concept - Transitory Career Concept -

Answer 275

L - motivated primarily by a desire for power and achievement; view careers as involving upward movement with infrequent career changes E - motivated by a desire to have job security and develop expertise and view careers as involving a lifelong commitment, with the mastery of skills being more important than upward advancement S - motivated by a need for personal growth and opportunities to be creative and view careers as involving lateral movements across similar occupations that occur every 5-10 years T - motivated by a desire for variety and independence and view careers as involving lateral movements across different occupations that occur every 2-4 years

Question 276

Taylor’s (1911) _____ proposes that, to maximize organizational efficiency and productivity, managers must: (a) use _____ (e.g., time-and-motion studies) to identify the best way to do a job; (b) make sure that workers are_____ by determining the skill requirements for each job and selecting and training workers so their skills match those requirements; (c) have an _____, with managers responsible for planning and organizing work and workers responsible for implementing the manager’s plans; and (d) cooperate with (rather than coerce) workers to ensure that all work is done in ways consistent with scientific principles.

Answer 276

Scientific management; scientific methods; scientifically selected and trained; equal division of labor

Question 277

As described by Weber, the essential elements of a bureaucratic organization include

Answer 277

division of labor, a well-defined hierarchy of authority, formal rules and procedures, employment decisions based on competence and merit, written records of decisions and actions, and separation of ownership and management.

Question 278

Research conducted by Mayo (1933) at Hawthorne Plant of the Western Electric Company found that

Answer 278

social factors were more important than physical work conditions for work motivation and productivity

Question 279

McGregor’s (1960) _____ focuses on the interactions between supervisors and subordinates and proposes that a supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates have a self-fulfilling prophecy effect. In other words, a supervisor’s beliefs determine how the supervisor acts toward subordinates which, in turn, determines how subordinates behave.

Answer 279

Theory X/Theory Y

Question 280

_____ - Subordinates are lazy, resist change, and selfish so supervisors have to be directive and controlling to get work done _____ - Subordinates are self-directed, enjoy work, and internally motivated so supervisors provide conditions that allow them to fulfill their own goals to achieve org. goals

Answer 280

Theory X; Theory Y

Question 281

Lewin's (1951) three-step model of planned change which has three stages: Unfreezing - Changing - Refreezing -

Answer 281

U - identifying and reducing forces that are maintaining an undesirable status quo and identifying and increasing forces that disrupt status quo C - implementing the desired changes to move org. to new state of equilibrium R - integrating the desired change into organizational values and traditions to stabilize new state of equilibrium and prevent regression

Question 282

Cummings and Worley's general model of planned change: Four phases of change 1. ______ - Org. identifies primary problems and relevant members of org. to address problems and selects an OD practitioner 2. ______ - collecting and analyzing diagnostic info. at org., group, and individual levels and providing org. feedback about problems 3. ______ - addressing readiness to change, creating future vision, designing interventions and implementing an action plan, manage transition, and sustain momentum 4. ______ - evaluating implemented changes and deciding if changes should continue, be modified, or suspended; institutionalizing changes through feedback, reward allocation, and training

Answer 282

1. Entering and contracting phase 2. Diagnosing phase 3. Planning and implementing phase 4. Evaluating and institutionalizing phase

Question 283

are groups of employees who have total responsibility for and control over their own work, including budgeting, task assignments, methods for completing tasks, work schedules, employee selection and training, and performance appraisal.

Answer 283

Self-Managed Work Teams (SMWTs)

Question 284

are small groups of employees who volunteer to meet regularly to identify problems related to quality, productivity, and other issues and discuss methods for resolving them. The employees then provide management with recommendations for alleviating the identified problems.

Answer 284

Quality Circles (QCs)

Question 285

is an organizational tool that involves “a continuous process of measuring products, services and practices against major competitors or industry leaders”; Its purpose is to identify ways for improving organizational processes, productivity, and the quality of products and services.

Answer 285

Benchmarking

Question 286

is an “approach to quality management … [that provides] training for employees and managers in statistical analysis, project management, and problem-solving methods to reduce the defect rate of products”

Answer 286

Six sigma

Question 287

Leaders high in _____ are task-oriented and focus on achieving performance goals, while leaders high in _____ are person-oriented and focus on fostering the trust and respect of subordinates. Because the two dimensions are independent, leaders can exhibit high levels of both dimensions, low levels of both dimensions, or a high level of one dimension and low level of the other dimension.

Answer 287

initiating structure; consideration

Question 288

French and Raven (1958) identified 5 bases of social power that leaders use to influence subordinates:

Answer 288

reward power, coercive power, legitimate power, expert power, referent power

Question 289

Fiedler's _____ is based on the assumption that the most effective leadership study depends on the favorableness of the situation

Answer 289

Contingency Model

Question 290

According to Fiedler, ____ are most effective in very unfavorable and very favorable situations, while _____ are most effective in moderately favorable situations

Answer 290

low LPC leaders; high LPC leaders

Question 291

Hersey and Blanchard's _____ proposes that the optimal leadership style depends on a subordinate's job maturity (determined by the subordinate's willingness and ability to perform the job)

Answer 291

Situational Leadership Theory

Question 292

Situational Leadership Theory: Four leadership styles 1. _____ - high-task, low-relationship style; best for sub. low in willingness and ability 2. _____ - high-task, high-relationship style; best for sub. high in willingness low in ability 3. _____ - low-task, high-relationship style; best for sub. low in willingness and high in ability 4. _____ - low-task, low-relationship style; best for sub. high in willingness and ability

Answer 292

1. Telling Leader 2. Selling Leader 3. Participating Leader 4. Delegating Leader

Question 293

House's _____ based on assumption that effective leaders act as facilitators who help subordinates achieve their own goals by adopting one of four leadership styles (directive, achievement-oriented, supportive, or participative)

Answer 293

Path-Goal Theory

Question 294

Dansereau, Graen, and Haga’s (1975) _____ is based on the assumption that leader effectiveness and subordinate outcomes are determined by the quality of the interactions between the leader and the subordinate, and proposes that subordinates are treated as in-group or out-group members based on whether or not the leader perceives them as being competent, trustworthy, and willing to assume responsibility.

Answer 294

leader-member exchange (LMX) theory

Question 295

involves an “interplay between leaders and followers in which each raises the other to higher levels of ethics, morality, and motivation”; includes 4 characteristics: idealized influence, inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration

Answer 295

Transformational Leadership

Question 296

_____ make rewards contingent on performance by informing employees what tasks and goals must be accomplished and the rewards they will receive for accomplishing them. Management-by-exception (MBE) refers to how _____ intervene to correct employee mistakes or rule violations and can be active or passive: Active MBE occurs when leaders closely monitor the behaviors of employees and take immediate action when necessary to keep mistakes or rule violations from becoming major problems. Passive MBE occurs when leaders do not closely monitor employee behaviors and take corrective action only when serious mistakes or rule violations have already occurred.

Answer 296

Transactional Leaders

Question 297

Organizational decisions are often classified as programmed or nonprogrammed: _____ are repetitive and routine decisions that are governed by rules, policies, and procedures and are often made by lower-level personnel. Included in this category are decisions related to hiring, ordering, and billing. In contrast, _____ are non-repetitive and complex, require unique or creative solutions, and rely on the decision-maker’s judgment and problem-solving skills.

Answer 297

programmed decisions; nonprogrammed decisions

Question 298

assumes that decision-makers choose the optimal alternative after identifying and evaluating all possible alternatives in an objective, deliberate, and orderly way

Answer 298

Rational Model (classical model, rational-economic model)

Question 299

recognizes that rational decision-making is limited by organizational and individual factors such as time restrictions, limited access to information, and the cognitive abilities of the decision maker. It proposes that, as a result of these factors, people often “satisfice” (rather than “optimize”) when making decisions by considering alternatives only until a minimally acceptable alternative is found.

Answer 299

Bounded rationality model

Question 300

decisions are often made by many individuals or groups, are constrained by the organization’s routines and standard operating procedures, and often follow and depend on “small incremental choices made in response to short-term conditions”

Answer 300

organizational process model

Question 301

occurs when people “are deeply involved in a cohesive in-group … [and their] strivings for unanimity override their motivation to realistically appraise alternative courses of action”

Answer 301

groupthink

Question 302

In addition to a high level of cohesiveness, the risk for groupthink is _____ when the group has a strong directive leader, is isolated from outside opinions, and must make an important decision quickly.

Answer 302

increased

Question 303

the tendency of groups to make more extreme (more risky or more cautious) decisions than individual group members would make alone

Answer 303

Group Polarization

Question 304

based on the assumption that humans are motivated to maintain a state of equilibrium (homeostasis). Proposed that an unfulfilled innate physiological need causes an uncomfortable state of disequilibrium and a drive to restore equilibrium by engaging in behaviors that fulfill the need.

Answer 304

Hull’s (1943) drive-reduction theory

Question 305

_____ focuses on the impact of acquired psychological needs on motivation and proposes that these needs are shaped by early experiences. He distinguished between three acquired needs that contribute to work motivation: need for achievement, need for power, and need for affiliation

Answer 305

McClelland's (1961) acquired needs theory

Question 306

Maslow's (1970) Hierarchy of Needs

Answer 306

physiological, safety, social (love and belongingness), esteem, and self-actualization

Question 307

addresses both motivation and satisfaction and predicts that satisfaction and dissatisfaction are independent states that are affected by different factors (hygiene and motivator factors)

Answer 307

Herzberg's (1966) Two-factor theory

Question 308

The job characteristics model (Hackman & Oldham, 1980) proposes that jobs vary with regard to five core job characteristics – _____ – and that these characteristics affect three critical psychological states of workers

Answer 308

skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback

Question 309

attributes a worker’s level of motivation to social comparisons and proposes that workers compare their own inputs (what they contribute to work) and outcomes (the pay and other reinforcers they receive from work) to the inputs and outcomes of workers doing the same or a similar job

Answer 309

Equity Theory

Question 310

also known as VIE theory and describes job motivation as the result of three factors: (a) the worker’s belief that effort will lead to successful performance (expectancy); (b) the worker’s belief that successful performance will result in certain outcomes (instrumentality); and (c) the value of those outcomes for the worker (valence).

Answer 310

Vroom Expectancy theory (1964)

Question 311

based on the assumption that the most important contributor to a worker’s motivation to achieve goals is the worker’s acceptance of and commitment to those goals. Studies have found that goal acceptance and commitment are maximized when goals are specific and moderately difficult and when workers are provided with immediate feedback about their accomplishment of goals

Answer 311

Goal Setting Theory

Question 312

Job satisfaction has been linked to:

Answer 312

self-esteem, affective disposition, genetic predisposition

Question 313

Three types of organizational justice: 1. _____ - fairness of the distribution of resources and other outcomes 2. _____ - fairness of the procedures used to determine outcomes 3. _____ - fairness of the way that outcomes are communicated to workers and is divided into interpersonal and informational

Answer 313

1. Distributive justice 2. Procedural justice 3. Interactional justice

Question 314

Selye (1976) proposed that people respond physically to all types of stressors with the same sequence of three stages, and he referred to this response as the _____

Answer 314

general adaptation syndrome

Question 315

Consequences of prolonged stress

Answer 315

suppression of immune system, increased blood pressure, increased risk of headaches, indigestion, and insomnia, possible damage to hippocampus which impairs ability to form LTM

Question 316

Sources of work-related stress include

Answer 316

Lack of Control - over scheduling, pace of work, and other work-related factors Work-family conflict - men and women reported similar levels of work-family conflict Downsizing - impacts both those who are laid off but also for those who stay (survivor syndrome)

Question 317

Job burnout has three core characteristics

Answer 317

exhaustion, depersonalization and cynicism, and a sense of inefficacy

Question 318

Individual characteristics that have been linked to resistance to stress

Answer 318

hardiness, organization-based self-esteem, and Type A behavior pattern

Question 319

A _____ affects the direction and/or strength of the relationship between independent and dependent variables while a _____ explains the relationship between independent and dependent variables.

Answer 319

Moderator; Mediator

Question 320

In a _____ distribution, the mean has the lowest value, the median is the middle value, and the mode has the highest value In a _____ distribution, the mean has the highest value, the median is the middle value, and the mode has the lowest value

Answer 320

Negatively Skewed (tail towards low side); Positively Skewed (tail towards high side)

Question 321

_____ is the extent to which it is possible to derive an accurate conclusion about the cause-effect relationship between a study’s independent and dependent variables. _____ is the extent to which it is possible to generalize that conclusion beyond the conditions of the current study.

Answer 321

Internal validity; External validity

Question 322

External Validity consists of 5 subcategories:

Answer 322

Population Validity (gen. to pop.) Ecological Validity (gen. to other settings/environments) Temporal Validity (gen. across time) Treatment Variation Validity (gen. variations in treatment) Outcome Validity (gen. different DVs)

Question 323

Common Threats to Internal Validity

Answer 323

* History -refers to events that occur during the course of a study and are not part of the study but affect its results * Maturation - refers to physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that occur within subjects during the course of the study that are due to the passage of time and affect the study’s results * Differential selection - refers to differential assignment of subjects to treatment groups * Statistical regression - also known as regression to the mean and threatens a study’s internal validity when participants are selected for inclusion in the study because of their extreme scores on a pretest * Testing - taking a pretest affects how participants respond to the posttest * Instrumentation - the instrument used to measure the dependent variable changes over time * Differential attrition - participants drop out of one group for different reasons than participants in other groups do and, as a result, the composition of the group is altered in a way that affects the results of the study