Random questions Flashcards

1
Q

4 presenting features of necrotising enterocolitis and 1 finding with abdominal X-ray?

A

Abdominal distension, faeces with red specks, vomiting, feeding intolerance

Gas cysts in Bowel wall

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2
Q

Scoring system for DVT/PE

A

Wells score

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3
Q

Parklands formula is used to?

A

IV fluid required for burn resus in first 24 hours

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4
Q

What is a red risk child who is ill? (2)

Action taken? (1)

A

Temperature above 38 degrees, below 3 months old —> same day paediatric assessment

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5
Q

What valve abnormality is associated with polycystic kidney disease?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

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6
Q

Best investigation for anal fistula?

A

Pelvic MRI

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7
Q

Lichen sclerosus first line management? (1)

A

Topical steroid (clobetasol propionate)

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8
Q

Common cause of pneumoturia?

A

Colovesical fistula

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9
Q

2 investigations for >60 y.o. with hypercalcaemia or leucopenia with spinal mass to find what?

A

Bence-Jones urine test and protein electrophoresis within 48 hours
for multiple myeloma

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10
Q

What drug causes red man’s syndrome and how to resolve?

A

Vancomycin, stop and commence at lower rate once symptoms (erythema, pruritus) has died down

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11
Q

When should babies sit up? When to refer?

A

7-8 months, refer if still not able at 12 months

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12
Q

Clinical features of polymyalgia rheumatica? (3)

A

Polyarthalgia, fever, morning stiffness in proximal muscles

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13
Q

What condition does polymalgia rheumatica associated with? (1)

A

Temporal arteritis

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14
Q

Antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia?

If staphylcocci suspected what to add?

A

Amoxicillin

Flucloxacillin

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15
Q

Antibiotic for hospital-acquired pneumonia depending on time period? (2)

A

Co-amoxiclav (within 5 days)

Cephalosporin or quinolone (past 5 days)

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16
Q

Antibiotic for atypical pneumonia?

A

Clarithromycin

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17
Q

First line treatment for menorrhagia?

A

Mirena coil (IUD)

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18
Q

Complication of chest draining pleural effusion? (1)

A

Re-expansion pulmonary oedema

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19
Q

Imaging for pleural effusion? (2)

A

PA x-ray

Ultrasound

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20
Q

Management of pleural effusion? (1)

A

US guided pleural aspiration (thoracentesis)

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21
Q

Transudate vs exudate?

Criteria used to differentiate?

A

Transudate (low protein - clear)

Exudate (protein high - cloudy)

Light’s criteria

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22
Q

Features of bronchiolitis? (4)

A

dry cough, wheeze, child under 2, coryzal prodrome

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23
Q

Common pathogen of bronchiolitis?

A

RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)

24
Q

When to give prophylaxsis in HIV patient and what drug is commonly used? (2)

A

CD4+ count below 200/mm3 (can cause pneumonia - pneumocystis jirovecii)

Co-trimoxazole

25
What pneumonia is associated with influenza? (1)
Staphylococcus aureus
26
Management of acute upper urinary tract infection?
Nephrostomy
27
Management of chronic upper urinary tract obstruction?
Ureteric stent or pyeloplasty
28
Treatment of patient with unstable ventricular tachycardia?
Synchronised cardioversion
29
Presentation of IgA nephropathy? (3)
Young male Visible haematuria Recent respiratory tract infection (1-2 days)
30
Presentation of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis? (1)
Low complement Proteinuria and haematuria Less recent respiratory tract infection (1-2 weeks)
31
Mature onset diabetes of the young feature? and inheritance?
Type 2 diabetes >25 years old | Autosomal dominant
32
Ovarian cancer blood marker?
cancer antigen 125
33
Ciclosporin main side-effect?
Hypertension
34
Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's syndrome) features?
Hypokalaemia and hypertension
35
Pituitary tumour vision loss? in what condition?
Bitemporal hemianopia Acromegaly
36
Condition where anti-hypertensives have no effect on BP?
Renal artery stenosis
37
Bacteria that causes acne? (1)
Propriumbacterium acnes
38
Delusional jealousy condition?
Othello's syndrome
39
Charcot's triad?
Cholangitis: - RUQ pain - Fever - Jaundice
40
Management of cholangitis? (2)
ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography) IV antibiotics
41
Keloid scars most common where?
Sternum
42
Management of ureteric stone? (2)
NSAID and alpha-adrenergic blocker
43
Management of acute migraine? (2)
Triptan (5-HT agonist) and NSAID
44
Prophylaxis of migraine? (2)
5-HT receptor antagonists and beta blocker
45
Treatment of hyperkalaemia? (3)
Calcium gluconate Insulin/dextrose Nebulised salbutamol
46
Diuretic to remove potassium from body?
Loop diuretic
47
Anti-psychotic medication can develop into what? (1) Causing what clinical features? (3)
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome High CK and leukocytosis High potassium
48
Pregnant woman with DVT history? What not to use?
LMWH until 6 weeks post natal Warfarin
49
Most common renal stone?
Calcium oxalate
50
Periureteric fat stranding indicates?
Recent stone passage
51
Wernicke's aphasia? (1) location? (1)
Receptive aphasia | Superior-temporal gyrus
52
Broca's aphagia? Location? (2)
Expressive aphasia Inferior frontal gyrus
53
Potassium infusion limit?
10 mmol/hr
54
Excess saline can cause? (1)
Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis
55
Pheochromocytoma presents as? (2)
Raised 24h urinary catecholamines and adrenal mass
56
Primary hyperPTH affects calcium and phosphate how?
Calcium high | Phosphate low
57
UC presentation? (7)
``` Bloody diarrhoea Tenesumus LLQ abdo pain lead pipe appearance of colon (x-ray) Rectum --> ileo-ceocal valve Pseudopolyps Crypt abscesses ```