Random questions Flashcards

1
Q

4 presenting features of necrotising enterocolitis and 1 finding with abdominal X-ray?

A

Abdominal distension, faeces with red specks, vomiting, feeding intolerance

Gas cysts in Bowel wall

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2
Q

Scoring system for DVT/PE

A

Wells score

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3
Q

Parklands formula is used to?

A

IV fluid required for burn resus in first 24 hours

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4
Q

What is a red risk child who is ill? (2)

Action taken? (1)

A

Temperature above 38 degrees, below 3 months old —> same day paediatric assessment

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5
Q

What valve abnormality is associated with polycystic kidney disease?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

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6
Q

Best investigation for anal fistula?

A

Pelvic MRI

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7
Q

Lichen sclerosus first line management? (1)

A

Topical steroid (clobetasol propionate)

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8
Q

Common cause of pneumoturia?

A

Colovesical fistula

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9
Q

2 investigations for >60 y.o. with hypercalcaemia or leucopenia with spinal mass to find what?

A

Bence-Jones urine test and protein electrophoresis within 48 hours
for multiple myeloma

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10
Q

What drug causes red man’s syndrome and how to resolve?

A

Vancomycin, stop and commence at lower rate once symptoms (erythema, pruritus) has died down

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11
Q

When should babies sit up? When to refer?

A

7-8 months, refer if still not able at 12 months

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12
Q

Clinical features of polymyalgia rheumatica? (3)

A

Polyarthalgia, fever, morning stiffness in proximal muscles

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13
Q

What condition does polymalgia rheumatica associated with? (1)

A

Temporal arteritis

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14
Q

Antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia?

If staphylcocci suspected what to add?

A

Amoxicillin

Flucloxacillin

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15
Q

Antibiotic for hospital-acquired pneumonia depending on time period? (2)

A

Co-amoxiclav (within 5 days)

Cephalosporin or quinolone (past 5 days)

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16
Q

Antibiotic for atypical pneumonia?

A

Clarithromycin

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17
Q

First line treatment for menorrhagia?

A

Mirena coil (IUD)

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18
Q

Complication of chest draining pleural effusion? (1)

A

Re-expansion pulmonary oedema

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19
Q

Imaging for pleural effusion? (2)

A

PA x-ray

Ultrasound

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20
Q

Management of pleural effusion? (1)

A

US guided pleural aspiration (thoracentesis)

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21
Q

Transudate vs exudate?

Criteria used to differentiate?

A

Transudate (low protein - clear)

Exudate (protein high - cloudy)

Light’s criteria

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22
Q

Features of bronchiolitis? (4)

A

dry cough, wheeze, child under 2, coryzal prodrome

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23
Q

Common pathogen of bronchiolitis?

A

RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)

24
Q

When to give prophylaxsis in HIV patient and what drug is commonly used? (2)

A

CD4+ count below 200/mm3 (can cause pneumonia - pneumocystis jirovecii)

Co-trimoxazole

25
Q

What pneumonia is associated with influenza? (1)

A

Staphylococcus aureus

26
Q

Management of acute upper urinary tract infection?

A

Nephrostomy

27
Q

Management of chronic upper urinary tract obstruction?

A

Ureteric stent or pyeloplasty

28
Q

Treatment of patient with unstable ventricular tachycardia?

A

Synchronised cardioversion

29
Q

Presentation of IgA nephropathy? (3)

A

Young male
Visible haematuria
Recent respiratory tract infection (1-2 days)

30
Q

Presentation of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis? (1)

A

Low complement
Proteinuria and haematuria
Less recent respiratory tract infection (1-2 weeks)

31
Q

Mature onset diabetes of the young feature? and inheritance?

A

Type 2 diabetes >25 years old

Autosomal dominant

32
Q

Ovarian cancer blood marker?

A

cancer antigen 125

33
Q

Ciclosporin main side-effect?

A

Hypertension

34
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome) features?

A

Hypokalaemia and hypertension

35
Q

Pituitary tumour vision loss? in what condition?

A

Bitemporal hemianopia

Acromegaly

36
Q

Condition where anti-hypertensives have no effect on BP?

A

Renal artery stenosis

37
Q

Bacteria that causes acne? (1)

A

Propriumbacterium acnes

38
Q

Delusional jealousy condition?

A

Othello’s syndrome

39
Q

Charcot’s triad?

A

Cholangitis:

  • RUQ pain
  • Fever
  • Jaundice
40
Q

Management of cholangitis? (2)

A

ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography)

IV antibiotics

41
Q

Keloid scars most common where?

A

Sternum

42
Q

Management of ureteric stone? (2)

A

NSAID and alpha-adrenergic blocker

43
Q

Management of acute migraine? (2)

A

Triptan (5-HT agonist) and NSAID

44
Q

Prophylaxis of migraine? (2)

A

5-HT receptor antagonists and beta blocker

45
Q

Treatment of hyperkalaemia? (3)

A

Calcium gluconate

Insulin/dextrose
Nebulised salbutamol

46
Q

Diuretic to remove potassium from body?

A

Loop diuretic

47
Q

Anti-psychotic medication can develop into what? (1) Causing what clinical features? (3)

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

High CK and leukocytosis
High potassium

48
Q

Pregnant woman with DVT history?

What not to use?

A

LMWH until 6 weeks post natal

Warfarin

49
Q

Most common renal stone?

A

Calcium oxalate

50
Q

Periureteric fat stranding indicates?

A

Recent stone passage

51
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia? (1) location? (1)

A

Receptive aphasia

Superior-temporal gyrus

52
Q

Broca’s aphagia? Location? (2)

A

Expressive aphasia

Inferior frontal gyrus

53
Q

Potassium infusion limit?

A

10 mmol/hr

54
Q

Excess saline can cause? (1)

A

Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

55
Q

Pheochromocytoma presents as? (2)

A

Raised 24h urinary catecholamines and adrenal mass

56
Q

Primary hyperPTH affects calcium and phosphate how?

A

Calcium high

Phosphate low

57
Q

UC presentation? (7)

A
Bloody diarrhoea
Tenesumus
LLQ abdo pain
lead pipe appearance of colon (x-ray)
Rectum --> ileo-ceocal valve
Pseudopolyps
Crypt abscesses