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know your neuro question bank > Random Questions 2 > Flashcards

Random Questions 2 Flashcards

1
Q

MOA of ditans

A

agonist of 5HT-1F receptors in trigeminal ganglion

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2
Q

Can you use triptans for abortive therapy for cluster headaches?

A

yes

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3
Q

What is the first line treatment for blepharospasm?

A

botox

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4
Q

Which thalamic nucleus is the relay center for sensory information of the BODY?

A

VPL

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5
Q

Which thalamic nuclei is the relay center for sensory information of the face as well as taste?

A

VPM

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6
Q

Do people with schizoid PD want to have friends?

A

no they like being alone

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7
Q

Do people with avoidant pd want to have friends?

A

yes but they fear rejection

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8
Q

Trinucleotide repeat for Friedrich ataxia?

A

GAA
*A.R.

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9
Q

Pure sensory stroke is caused by damage to which thalamic nuclei?

A

VPL

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10
Q

Common peroneal neuropathy presents how?

A

weakness in ankle dorsiflexion, eversion and toe extension

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11
Q

Deep peroneal neuropathy presents how?

A

weakness in toe extension and ankle dorsiflexion
*can also have small patch of numbness between 1st and 2nd tos

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12
Q

Does X- linked adrenoleukodystrophy have anterior or posterior white matter changes?

A

posterior

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13
Q

How is schizotypal PD present?

A

eccentric, socially awkward, magical thinking

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14
Q

Anterior should dislocation can cause injury to what nerve?

A

axillary

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15
Q

In which patients should you not use dalfampridine in?

A

epilepsy, CKD

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16
Q

Which 2 drugs ar eknown to exacerbate idiopathic generalized epilepsy?

A

oxcarb and carbamazepine

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17
Q

What is apneustic breathing?

A

regular deep respirations, inspiratory pause and inadequate expiration
*pons

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18
Q

What is ataxic breathing?

A

complete irregularity of breathing, increased periods of apnea and irregular pauses
*medulla

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19
Q

Cheyne Stokes breathing is be due to lesions where?

A

midbrain, thalami, b/l cerebrum

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20
Q

Eteplirsen is effective in treatment of Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy with which mutation?

A

out of frame mutation of exon 51

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21
Q

How does botulism present?

A

DESCENDING weakness, areflexia and opthalmoplegia

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22
Q

What is the enzyme deficiency in Pompe disease?

A

alpha glucosidase

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23
Q

Phenotype for Pompe?

A

macroglossia, wide open eyes/mouth, hypotonia

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24
Q

Phenotype for Zellweger syndrome?

A

hypotonia, midface hypoplasia, hypoplastic supraorbital ridges, prominent high forehead

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25
Q

amaurosis fugaux is due to occlusion of which artery?

A

ophthalmic

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26
Q

occlusion of branch of retinal artery causes what kind of vision loss?

A

segmental, not total loss

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27
Q

Treatment for toxo?

A

pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

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28
Q

Treatment for neurocystercosis?

A

albendazole

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29
Q

treatment for malaria?

A

chloroquine

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30
Q

Bradyzoites and tachyzoites can be seen in what infection?

A

toxoplasmosis

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31
Q

Posterior cortical atrophy has what pathologic findings?

A

amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
*variant of Alzheimer’s
*visual processing abnormalities

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32
Q

MOA of aducanumab?

A

monoclonal Ig-1 antibody binding to amyloid beta

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33
Q

Gene associated with early - onset Alzheimer’s ?

A

Presenilin 1

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34
Q

What is the only adult anatomical structure that is derived from notocord?

A

nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc

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35
Q
A
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36
Q

What is the best treatment for lance adams?

A

depakote

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37
Q

How does congenital toxo present?

A

MACROocephaly, hypotonia, jaundice, rash, chorioretinitis, and diffuse scattered intracranial calcifications

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38
Q

How does congenital CMV present?

A

sensorineural deafness, hepatosplenomegaly, MICROcephaly and calcifications (mostly BG)

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39
Q

Refsum disease

A

peripheral neuropathy, palpable enlarged nerves, ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa, cardiac disease

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40
Q

What is the defective in Refsum disease?

A

defective alpha oxidation of phytanic acid

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41
Q

Kluvery Bucy syndrome is caused by what lesion?

A

bilateral temporal lobes

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42
Q

Expressive aprosodia (no emotion or meldoy in speech) is caused by a lesion where?

A

non-dominant hemisphere, specifically frontal lobe

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43
Q

What is the triad of Parinaud syndrome?

A

impaired upward gaze, convergence retraction nystagmus, pupillary hyporeflexia

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44
Q

Where is the lesion in Parinaud syndrome?

A

doral midbrain

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45
Q

Which progressive language disorder presents with dysnomia, repetition errors, without deficits in comprehension?

A

logopenic progressive aphasia

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46
Q

What does SPECT scan show in logopenic progressive aphasia?

A

hypometabolism in dominant temporoparietal regeion

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47
Q

Non-fluent primary progressive aphasia exhibit what?

A

effortful, halting speech

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48
Q

What does SPECT show in non-fluent primary progressive aphasia?

A

hypometabolism in dominant posterior frontal and insular lesions

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49
Q

Is CMT type 1A a duplication or deletion of PMP22?

A

duplication

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50
Q

Is hereditary neuropathies with pressure palsies associated with deletion or duplication of PMP22?

A

deletion

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51
Q

Gerstmann syndrome symptoms?

A

finger agnosia, agraphia, acalculia, left/right confusion

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52
Q

What disease is associated with “extreme delta brush”

A

NMDA encephalitis

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53
Q

Where is hypometabolism in Alzheimer’s disease?

A

temporoparietal

54
Q

Progranulin protein (gene PGRN) is associated with what?

A

FTD

55
Q

West nile presents how?

A

encephalitis, myalgia, acute flaccid paralysis, areflexia without sensory abnormalities
*asymmetric

56
Q

Mutation sin progranulin protein (PGRN) is associated with what?

A

FTD

57
Q

lissencephaly is due to impaired what?

A

cell migration

58
Q

How does Giant axonal neuropathy present?

A

sensorimotor neuropathy, corticospinal tract involvement with UPMN signs, and optic atrophy, tightly curled hair
*walk on inner edges of feet

59
Q

What are lewy bodies?

A

aggregates of folded alpha synuclein

60
Q

Lewy bodies are primarily seen where in PD?

A

substansia nigra and locus coeruleus

61
Q

Aggregation of hyperphosporylated tau protein is seen in which disease?

A

Alzheimers

62
Q

Which antibodies is opsoclonus myoclonus syndrome associated with?

A

anti-HU and anti-Ri

63
Q

When someone closes their eyes what happens on EEG?

A

postiive (downward) deflection

63
Q

What happens when someone looks to the left on EEG?

A

negative (upward) deflection

64
Q

Inability to make “ok sign” is due to damage to what nerve?

A

anterior interosseuous nerve

65
Q

Is alzheimer’s an alpha synucleinopathy or taoopathy?

A

tau

66
Q

Pre-term infant with kernicterus can present how?

A

choreoathetosis
*bilateral cystic lesions in globus pallidi

67
Q

What is the reversal agent for dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab

68
Q

Andexanet alfa is a reversal agent for what?

A

factor Xa inhibitors- rivaroxaban and apixaban

69
Q

Which condition can exacerbate sx of diabetic polyneuropathy due to intermittent hypoxia and sleep fragmentation?

A

OSA

70
Q

What must be done before doing electrocerebral inactivity testing?

A

tap testing, sensitivity must be set to <2 uV and double distance between electrodes

71
Q

Benign hereditary chorea is caused by what gene mutation?

A

thyroid transcription factor (TITF1)

72
Q

Autosomal dominant disease that presents with cold-induced myotonia?

A

Paramyotonia congenita
*SCN4A

73
Q

Do sx of paratonia congenita worsen with activity or get better?

A

worsen with activity

74
Q

Do symptoms of myotonia congenita worsen with activity or get better?

A

improve with activity
*CLCN1 gene

75
Q

Intracranial AVM and mucosal telangiectasias is concerning for what syndrome?

A

osler-weber-rendu

76
Q

What is a “never event”

A

a severe medical error that should never occur
*ie having surgery on wrong body part

77
Q

Mutation in alternating hemiplegia of childhood?

A

ATP1A3

78
Q

How does alternating hemiplegia of childhood present?

A

sudden transient episodes of paralysis affecting 1 side of the body which can alternate

79
Q

Chordoma arises from the remnants of what?

A

notochord

80
Q

Does Alexander disease have a anterior or posterior predominant demyelation?

A

Anterior- A

81
Q

What is apomorphine used for?

A

*recently came out
sublingual med for “off periods” of PD

82
Q

DMPK gene is associated with what?

A

myotonic dystophy

83
Q

Does Gerstmann’s localize to dominant or non-dominant hemisphere?

A

dominant

84
Q

Difference between malingering and factitious disorder ?

A

malingering desire secondary gain

85
Q

Movement disorder with progressive involuntary movements, cognitive decline, behavioral outbursts, elevated LFTs and CK?

A

chorea acanthocytosis

86
Q

Which areas of the brain are most susceptible to injury from ischemia?

A

BG, thalami, occipital and perirolandic cortex

87
Q

The laterality of the INO is based on the eye that cannot what?

A

ADDuct

88
Q

How does Isaac’s syndrome present?

A

muscle cramps, pain, percussion myotonia
*AB against voltage gated K channels leading to hyperexcitability and continuous firing of muscle fibers

89
Q

Fragile X cardiac abnormalities?

A

aortic arch dilation and MVP

90
Q

What is the MOA of Eculizumab

A

binds to the human terminal complement protein C5, inhibiting its enzymatic cleavage and consequently preventing the formation of the C5b-induced membrane attack complex (MAC).

91
Q

Which AED is associated with low birth weight?

A

topiramate

92
Q

“Superior” ocular muscles are responsible for what?

A

intorsion

93
Q

“inferior” ocular muscles are responsible for what?

A

extorsion

94
Q

What do you see on EMG with colchicine exposure?

A

myopathy and neuropathy

95
Q

Patient with behavioral changes and with new habits, new activity?

A

FTD

96
Q

Where do you put the DBS for epilepsy?

A

anterior nucleus

97
Q

Where do you put DBS for PD patients?

A

GPi and STN

98
Q

HINTS exam for central veritgo?

A

No corrective saccade, skew deviation present, nystagmus is vertical and horizontal

99
Q

HINTS exam for peripheral veritgo?

A

corrective saccade present, no skew deviation and unidirectional; horizontal nystagmus

100
Q

CSF in AD

A

elevated total tau, phosphorylated tau
decreased beta amyloid 42

101
Q

What is Fregoli syndrome?

A

Erroneously perceive different people as being familiar individuals in disguise, often leading to confusion or confrontation.

102
Q

Gene mutation associated with alternating hemiplegia of childhood?

A

ATP1A3

103
Q

What structures don’t have intact BBB?

A

area postrema, pineal gland, choiroid plexus, posterior pituitary and other circumventricular organs

104
Q

Classic MRI findings for transient global amnesia?

A

restricted diffusion DWI/ADC in CA1 area of hippocampus

105
Q

Which genetic test should you get before starting Siponimod?

A

CYP2C9 test
CYP2C93/*3 genotype, in particular, is associated with significantly reduced enzymatic activity.

106
Q

What nuclei is the relay center for sensory info of the BODY?

A

VPL

107
Q

What nucleus is the relay center for the face/taste?

A

VPM

108
Q

Bilateral exotropia can be caused by what lesion?

A

Bilateral MLF lesion

109
Q

The trochlear nucleus sends nerve fibers to which muscle?

A

Trochlear nerve decusssates prior to exiting the brainstem so innervation is to the contralateral side

110
Q

bulbar complaints, LMN findings, and gynecomastia. Disease?

A

Kennedy’s disease

111
Q

Gene mutation in Kenndy’s disease?

A

CAG repeats on androgen receptor on X chromosome
*x-linked

112
Q

Krabbe disease demyelination

A

spares U fibers

113
Q

How does Krabbe’s present?

A

infantile onset, developmental regression, spasticity, irritability, exaggerated startle response, pale optic discs

114
Q

Submaximal stimulation is applied when you want to elicit what on EMG?

A

H-reflex – so that only sensory nerves are stimulated

115
Q

Tetrabenazine carries a block box warning for what?

A

depression and suicidality

116
Q

Blackbox warning for carbamazepine?

A

agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia

117
Q

Most common gene associated with primary generalized dystonia?

A

TOR1A

118
Q

How does primary generalized dystonia present?

A

action induced dystonia in early childhood

119
Q

Mutation in Sagawa syndrome aka dopa responsive dystonia?

A

GCH1 (GTP cyclohydrolase I)

120
Q

Gene mutation in choreoacanthoyctosis?

A

VPS13A

121
Q

What is a “never event”

A

Something that should’ve never happened
ie. doing surgery on wrong body part

122
Q

What artery supplies the posterior limb of the internal capsule?

A

anterior choroidal (branch directly off ICA)

123
Q

Lissencephaly is a disorder of what

A

cell migration

124
Q

lateral temporal lobe seizure manifests how?

A

auditory
ALSO vertigo is another ictal sign

125
Q

depression with psychotic featuers

A

only experience psychotic features DURING a major depression episode

126
Q

What does non-arteritic optic neuropathy mean?

A

that the cause of the optic neuropathy is not arteritic in nature

127
Q

What do you see on fundoscopic exam with central retinal artery occlusion?

A

CHERRY RED SPOT

128
Q

what does the optic disc look like if there is a short posterior cilliary artery occlusion?

A

pale, swollen
*no cherry red spot on fundoscopy

129
Q

kernicterus (elevated bilirubin) in newborn with abnormal movements?

A

athetoid cerebral palsy

know your neuro question bank (3 decks)

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