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Random Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of receptors (PRR) bind to LPS and peptydoglycans?

A

TLR2 bind to peptidoglycan from G+ bacteria
TLR4 bind to LPA from G- bacteria

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2
Q

What type of virus is foot and mouth disease?

A

A picornavirus

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3
Q

What type of virus is rabbies?

A

A lyssavirus

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4
Q

What are the most resistant allele to scrapie in sheep?

A

ARR very resistant
ARQ is in between
VRQ is less resistant

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5
Q

What is the concentration of Na+ and Cl- in the extracellular fluids?

A

Na+ is 140mmol/L
Cl- is 120mmol/L

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6
Q

How much of the dietary phosphate and calcium are absorbed?

A

60% of phosphate and 20% of calcium(small intestine)

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7
Q

Where is the phosphate and calcium reabsorbed in the kidneys?

A

Phosphate in the PCT = 90% of it. If it is not then it will be excreted
Calcium in the PCT passively = 70% of it. And actively in the DCT

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8
Q

Which molecule is stimulated in response to increase in serum calcium levels and inhabits PTH? Due to which co-factor?

A

FGF23 with the co-factor klotho

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9
Q

What is called the specific structure found at the end of rabbit’s ileum?

A

The sacculus rotundus - it is a lymphoid tissue

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10
Q

What bacteria species are found in rabbit’s caecum?

A

Bacterioides species, E. Colis spp and Clostridia spp.

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11
Q

What is called the force transmitting protein in cardiac muscle fibres?

A

Desmosomes in the intercalated discs

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12
Q

How many lobes does the liver of carnivores has ? How many in ruminants?

A

6 lobes and 2 processes in carnivores
4 lobes in ruminants

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12
Q

How many lobes does the liver of carnivores has ? How many in ruminants?

A

6 lobes and 2 processes in carnivores
4 lobes in ruminants

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13
Q

What is the blood supply of the abdominal muscles ?

A

Cranial and caudal epigastric arteries and veins

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14
Q

What is the protein in milk broken down by the abomasum?

A

Casein

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15
Q

What is the name of the groove extending from the oesophagus to the omasum?

A

Gastric groove

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16
Q

Which nerves orchestrate the movement between the rumen and the reticulum?

A

Cranial nerve X (also called the vagus nerve)

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17
Q

How do you assess the secondary movement?

A

By touching the paralumbar fossa

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18
Q

How is called the section separating the glandular and non-glandular stomach of the horse?

A

The Margot plicatus

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19
Q

How are cold/warm blooded animals called?

A

Poikilotherm or ectoderm.
Warm blooded are called endoderm

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20
Q

What is called an animal which is born immature?

A

Altricial

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21
Q

What type of virus is the papillomas virus?

A

Non-enveloped dsDNA virus

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22
Q

What type of virus is the Retrovirus?

A

It is an enveloped RNA virus and it possesses a reverse transcriptase

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23
Q

What is the net fluid production and the net fluid absorption?

A

Then net fluid production is the amount of fluid sent by the crypt cells into the intestines by the sending of sodium (water follows).
The net fluid absorption is the absorption of Na+ by the villi with water therefore following.

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24
Q

What is it called when there is destruction of the brush border cells and we can find some blood shreds and cellular debris inside the feaces (diarrhoea)?

A

It is called dysentery

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25
Q

On what receptors do the acetyl choline binds?

A

The nicotinic receptors for the autonomic NS in the pre-ganglionic neurons or the muscarinic receptors for the parasympathetic NS in the post ganglionic neurons.

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26
Q

What is the blood partial pressure of CO2?

A

40mmHg

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27
Q

Which equation allows us to determine the pH of a solution from its Ka and pKa?

A

The Handerson-Hasselback equation

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28
Q

What strain of bacteria is found in the lining of cows stomach? What does it produce?

A

Lactobacilli which produce lactic acid and butyric acid

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29
Q

In Peters Patches what’s the precise activation role of TH2 and TH3 cells?

A

TH2 stimulate B cells class witching to IgE through IL-4 production
TH3 stimulate B cells class switching to IgA through TGF-B production

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30
Q

How much IgG do foal need when they are born?

A

They need to have at least 400md/dl. If they have under 400mg/dl they need to be given more colostrum orally. If less than 200mg/dl they need IV immune plasma infusion.

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31
Q

What is ground substance?

A

An amorphous gel like substance. It does not possess any elastin and collagen. It is the basic component of ECM and is abundant in loose connective tissues.

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32
Q

What is in situ hybridisation used for?

A

It is used to determine mRNA presence

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33
Q

What is a neural ganglion?

A

It is a cell body in the PNS. In the CNS it is called a nucleus.

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34
Q

what is the name of the multi unit smooth muscles innervations?

A

varicosities

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35
Q

what is the basal lamina and what is it made of ?

A

it is the ECM of muscles. It is made of collagen type IV, laminin, perlecan (heparan sulfate proteoglycans) and entactin

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36
Q

what is the physiological explanation of the intensity of contraction of a muscle fibre ?

A

The intensity of the contraction comes with the frequency of the nerve impulse and the number of muscle fibres that contract at once.

The lower the frequency the lighter the contraction. This is basically the calcium being released and reabsorbed directly after. If you send a high frequency then the calcium will not be reabsorbed and the contraction will perdure.

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37
Q

What are the 3 different types of neurons ?

A

he cell body can be in 3 different locations, categorising 3 different types of neurons. The first one multipolar, it is when the cell body is at an extremity of the neurone, next to the dendrites, the second one is bipolar, it is when the cell body is in the middle of the neuron embedded in the axon. The third one is pseudo-polar, it is when the cell body is in the middle of the cell but separated from the axon.

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38
Q

What are the different kind of cells we can find in the nervous system ?

A

Firstly, there are the microglia. Those are the immune phagocytic cells of the nervous system.
Secondly, there are the astrocytes. Those provide nutrients and necessary molecules for the proper health and normal functioning of the NS.
Thirdly, there are oligodendrocytes. They myelinate the neurones of the CNS. The PNS equivalent are the schwann cells.
Fourthly, there are the ependymal cells, which line the epithelium of the CNS.
Finally, there are stem cells.

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39
Q

what are the main neurotransmitters ?

A

acetyl choline, GABBA, adrenaline, NE, dopamine, glutamate, serotonin, catecholamine.

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40
Q

what are the different internal sensory organs ?

A

The muscle spindles, the inner ear and the viscera sensing system

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41
Q

what is a disynaptic reflex during a patellar reflex test ?

A

It is when the muscle spindle of the patella is stretch, it therefore sends a message to the stimulatory neurons of the quadriceps (normally) but before reaching the quadriceps it stimulates the inhibitory neurons of the quadriceps and therefore relaxes the muscles. This result in a lack of reflex.

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42
Q

what are the major salivary gland

A

the parotid, the sublingual, the submaxillary and the zigomatic gland

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43
Q

which artery supplies the pancreas ?

A

the splenic artery

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44
Q

what are the 2 different teeth growing ways ? give animal examples

A

There are different kind of teeth which are found across most species, these are incisive, canines, premolars, molars. Those are then classified as hypsodont and brachydont. Brachydont teeth erupt and then stop growing, these are found in carnivores, in the incisive or ruminants or in pigs. Hypsodont teeth are teeth which grow continuously and are shortened by attrition. This is the case for horse, rabbits and tusk of pigs.

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45
Q

what is the tongue’s blood supply ?

A

the tongue is also vascularised by the lingual artery which branches into 3 blood supplies : the carotid, facial and ascending pharyngeal artery.

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46
Q

what are the intestine’s haustrations ?

A

these are small bumps on the intestine

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47
Q

what are migrating motility complex

A

these are Interdigestive phase peristaltic contractions passing over large sections of the intestine

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48
Q

what is the migrating motor complex ?

A

it is large segment of contraction which happens to control bacterial population. It sweeps the remaining food of the intestine to make sure there is no accumulation of food and therefore no overgrowth of bacteria somewhere. This happens at regular cycle and allow to prevent sepsis.

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49
Q

what is the migrating motor complex ?

A

it is large segment of contraction which happens to control bacterial population. It sweeps the remaining food of the intestine to make sure there is no accumulation of food and therefore no overgrowth of bacteria somewhere. This happens at regular cycle and allow to prevent sepsis.

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50
Q

Describe the roles of the enteric nervous system and its modulation by the autonomic nervous system

A

The gut muscle contraction works just like the cardiac muscles. There is no voluntary control and it does not require an external input from the central nervous system to occur. Gut smooth muscle exhibit spontaneously rhythmic slow wave activity. There is therefore a basic electric rhythm of depolarisation and repolarisation occurring. When the level of the basic electric rhythm reaches a threshold, an action potential is sent and a muscle contraction occurs.

This pattern is taken care of by an extension of the peripheral nervous system. It comprises of two types of nerves : the submucosa plexus (nerves in the mucosa) and the myoentriec plexus (nerves between muscle layers) which enervates the whole length of the gut.
Those nerves are stimulated by mechano and chemo receptors which senses stretch and chemicals produced in the intestines. The level of stretch and hormones sent can reduce the threshold of action potentials and therefore induce a contraction. Those sensory input send a message therefore to the previously explained nerves and to the enteric nervous system.

The submucosal plexus (also called Meissner’s plexus) and the myenteric plexus (also called Auerbach’s plexus) are two networks of neurons located in the wall of the gastrointestinal tract.

The submucosal plexus is situated in the submucosa layer of the gut wall, which is the layer just beneath the mucosa. It contains sensory, motor, and interneurons that regulate secretory and absorptive functions of the mucosa. This plexus controls the contraction of the smooth muscles in the mucosa and regulates the blood flow and nutrient absorption in the gut.

The myenteric plexus, on the other hand, is located between the circular and longitudinal muscle layers in the muscularis externa layer of the gut wall. It is responsible for controlling the contractions and movements of the smooth muscles in the gut wall, which are essential for peristalsis and digestion. The myenteric plexus also regulates the secretion of digestive enzymes and hormones.

Together, the submucosal and myenteric plexuses play a crucial role in the regulation of gut function, including motility, secretion, and absorption. Dysfunction of these plexuses can lead to various gastrointestinal disorders such as irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), constipation, and diarrhea

The enteric nervous system can alter secretions, degree of contractility, blood supply, absorption and motility.

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51
Q

Discuss the concept of regulation of the GIT motility, through endocrine, paracrine and neural mechanisms.

A

The endocrines actors are cholecystokinin and gastrin. They are released in the circulation by cells of the GIT or by an accessory organ.
Cholecystokinin induce secretion of enzymes by pancreatic acinar cells and bile by the liver.
Gastrin induce production of gastric acid.

Paracrine mechanisms is when cells of the GIT secretes molecules influencing the neighbouring cells. Paracrine mechanisms comprise production of somatostatin which inhibits HCL secretion, pancreatic secretion, reduce motility and reduce blood flow. There can also be production of histamine which has the opposite effect and stimulate the production of HCL and induce smooth muscle relaxation.

Neural mechanisms are either sympathetic or parasympathetic from the autonomic nervous system.
The sympathetic NS induce reduction of motility. This is ensured by the splanchnic nerve and can be stimulated by noradrenaline.
The parasympathetic NS increase motility through the vagus nerve activation by acetylcholine.

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52
Q

what problems can happen with the feet of rabbits or guinea pigs ?

A

They also have no footpad, their paws are protected by either fur or skin. If it gets damaged this can result in pododermatitis.

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53
Q

what is the teeth structure of rabbits ?

A

2/1 incisors, 0/0 canine, 3/2 premolars and 3/3 molars.

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54
Q

what is the specificity of rabbits colon ?

A

the rabbit’s caecum produces ceocotrophs which is expelled as feaces and covered with mucus to be swallowed again. This is called caecotrophy.

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55
Q

can rabbits breath from the mouth ?

A

no only from the nose

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56
Q

why is the liver so small in ruminants ?

A

because the rumen is taking so much space maybe the liver did not have enough to develop

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57
Q

what are the lesser and the greater papillae ?

A

these are the outing of the lesser and the greater pancreatic duct in horses

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58
Q

which molecules can be used to measure GFR ?

A

creatinine or any kind of molecule which is freely excreted and not reabsorbed or metabolised (eg : iohexol)

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59
Q

how is amonia used in the distal convoluted tubule ?

A

it is sent in the tubule under the form of amonium ions and fuse with H+ to buffer the urines

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60
Q

what happens if the ratio of Ca2+ over PO4- increases too much ?

A

cristallisation in the tissues

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61
Q

give an example of osmotic diuretics

A

mannitol

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62
Q

give an example of a viral protein which can be both structural and non-structural protein ?

A

RdRp - RNA dependent RNA polymerase

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63
Q

What could be a side effect of a pituitary tumour ?

A

Troubled vision because the pituitary is right next to the optic nerve and therefore can disrupt its function

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64
Q

Which is the largest cranial nerve ?

A

Cranial nerve X

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65
Q

which parts of the brain take care of the pressure in the brain ?

A

carotid bodies and sinuses => 0 stroke

66
Q

If there is a unusual infection in a cat what is the likely underlying infection to be present as well?

A

FeLV.

67
Q

Which material make up bones (minerals, proteins ..) ?

A

collagen type 1 , hydroxyapatite (Ca2+, PIO42-, Mg2+), water and proteoglycans and other non collagenous proteins

68
Q

what is the lacunae ?

A

small gap between the bone and the osteocyte cell membrane. they have mechanosensor.

69
Q

which protein prevent the activation of osteoclasts ?

A

OPG proteins (osteoprotegerin)

70
Q

which organ can only use glucose as a source of energy ?

A

brain, the retina, the erythrocyte and the germinal epithelium of the gonads cannot use something else than glucose

71
Q

which hormones does insulin up regulate and down regulate

A

up : lipoprotein lipase - glycogen synthase - glucokinase
down : glycogen phosphatase - hormone sensitive lipase

72
Q

what should be the concentration of bicarbonate in the blood?

A

The bicarbonate should be at 24mmol/L

73
Q

what is the function of CD4 TH1 and 2 cells and CD8 T cells ?

A

TH1 -> activate macrophages
TH2 -> activate B cells
CD8 -> kill infected cells

74
Q

what is the function of the germinal center in the lymph nodes

A

The germinal center is a specialized area within the lymph nodes where B lymphocytes (B cells) undergo a process called somatic hypermutation and class-switch recombination, which are critical for the development of a strong and effective immune response.

During an immune response, B cells are activated by binding to specific antigens (foreign substances) presented on the surface of invading pathogens. Once activated, the B cells migrate to the germinal center, where they undergo rapid proliferation and differentiation into two main types of cells: plasma cells and memory B cells.

75
Q

what are the function of the germinal centers, cortex, paracortex and the medulla in the lymph nodes?

A

cortex = plasma cells => humoral response
GC = B Cells maturation and differentation to produce plasma cells and memory cells
paracortex = T cells => cell mediated immune response
medulla = B cells and plasma cells + macrophages => cleaning of tissues

76
Q

what is the Bursa of Fabricius?

A

It is a cloacal tonsil found in birds which is involved in the maturation differentiation of B cells

77
Q

through which blood vessels do the dendritic cells reach the cortex of the lymph nodes with ?

A

endothelial Venules

78
Q

What is the serosa and its function ?

A

The serosa is a thin, protective layer of tissue that covers the outer surface of many organs in the body, including the oesophagus. It is also sometimes called the serous membrane or serous layer.

The primary function of the serosa in the oesophagus is to provide a protective barrier against damage or injury to the underlying tissues. The serosa also helps to anchor the oesophagus to surrounding structures, such as the diaphragm and other organs in the abdominal cavity

79
Q

what are the enzyme present in erythrocyte degradation ?

A

heme oxygenate
biliverdin reductase
glucoronyl-bilirubin transferase

80
Q

what are the different cephalic lymph nodes

A

1- suprapharyngeal
2- lateral retropharyngeal
3- mandibular
4- deep cervical
5- superficial cervical
6- parotid

81
Q

what are the palpable lymph nodes ?

A

supra inguinal
popliteal
axillary
madibular
pre-scapular

82
Q

what is the difference between type 1 and gamma interferons

A

The main targets of type 1 interferons are virus-infected cells and immune cells such as dendritic cells and natural killer cells.

gamma interferon (IFN-gamma) is primarily produced by activated T cells and natural killer cells in response to antigenic stimulation. It acts on a variety of immune and non-immune cells, including macrophages, B cells, and epithelial cells. IFN-gamma promotes the activation and differentiation of immune cells and enhances the immune response against intracellular pathogens such as bacteria and parasites.

83
Q

what is the respiratory burst ?

A

it happens during phagocytosis. When the phagocytic cell engulfed the micro-organism, it fuses it with lysosomes which possess free radicals. Those can be hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), superanion (O2-) or hydrogen radicals (OH-). Those unstable proteins will destroy the microorganism’s structure.

Inside the lysosomes there are also :
- defensin = cationic anti microbial peptide which degrade bacterial wall
- lactoferrin = iron chelator (iron being necessary for bacterial survival)
- acid protease = digestive enzyme present at low pH => work with pumping of H+ to decrease the pH.

84
Q

what is the acute phase response ?

A

It is when protein are produced by the liver, they bind to the cell wall of bacteria and aid phagocytosis.

Those proteins can be C reactive proteins, fibrinogen and mannose binding lectin
Fibrinogen is a soluble plasma protein that is produced by the liver and circulates in the blood. In response to tissue injury or infection, fibrinogen is cleaved by thrombin to form fibrin, which is the main component of blood clots. Fibrin also plays a role in the innate immune response by promoting the recruitment of immune cells to the site of infection or tissue damage. It can act as a scaffold for the migration of leukocytes, and it can also promote phagocytosis of bacteria and other pathogens by immune cells.

Mannose-binding lectin (MBL) is a type of soluble pattern recognition receptor (PRR) that recognizes carbohydrate structures on the surface of pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. MBL binds to these structures and activates the complement system, a group of proteins that work together to destroy pathogens. MBL can also directly opsonize (coat) pathogens, making them more recognizable and susceptible to phagocytosis by immune cells. Additionally, MBL can enhance the clearance of apoptotic cells and cellular debris, which is important for maintaining tissue homeostasis.

85
Q

What is neonate isoerythrolysis?

A

The mare’s and the stallion have incompatible blood.
Foal inherit the stallion’s RBC antigen
When it takes the maternal IgG they attack the RBC
=> anaemia and jaundice happens
Similar to rhesus factor in humans.

86
Q

how is vaccination for rabbies checked?

A

Rabies serology test is required as part of PETS (pets travel scheme)
3/6 weeks after vaccination, serology test needs to show more than 0.5IU/ml to be considered positive

87
Q

what is kinaesthesia

A

The proprioception is the sens of self, the sens of body parts or the sens of movement of body parts

88
Q

What is the difference between nuclear bag fibres and nuclear chain fibres in muscle spindles ?

A

nuclear bag are medial in the muscle spindles and have loosely packed nucleus. They are useful for sensing rate of change of length of the muscle, to detect rapid change of length for instance.

nuclear chain fibres are lateral to the muscle spindles . They have more densely packed nucleus and they can sense sustained change of length of the muscles therefore helping with sensing the overall length of the fibres.

89
Q

difference between a segmental and a long reflex arc ?

A

a segmental reflex arc is when an action happen (you hurt your toe) and then several messages are sent as reflexes at the same time (lift foot, put pressure on the other one…).
additionally this reflex does not pass by the brain and therefore induce very simple reflexes.

on the contrary, the long reflex arc pass by the brain and allow more elaborated relfexes.

90
Q

give and explain 3 kinds of reflex ?

A

the reciprocal inhibition reflex : happens when a muscle contract during a reflex, it is therefore activated by an activating motor neuron, and another muscle relaxes by activation of an inhibitory motor neurons. For instance during the patellar reflex, the quadriceps contracts and the hamstrings relax.

the crossed extensor reflex : happens when a reciprocal reflex happens and the opposite mechanisms happen in an opposite limb.

the flexor reflex : For example, if you accidentally touch a hot stove with your hand, the sensory neurons in your skin detect the heat and transmit the information to the spinal cord. The interneurons in the spinal cord then activate the motor neurons that control the muscles in your arm, causing them to contract and pull your hand away from the stove, preventing further injury.

91
Q

which proportion of the cardiac output goes to the brain ?

A

20%

92
Q

what is the rete mirabile?

A

dense network of vessels perhaps though to be there for heat exchange or thermoregulation.

93
Q

Identify the various foramina of exit in the skull for the individual cranial nerves

A

CN2 = optic canal
CN3 = orbital fissure
CN4 = orbital fissure
CN5 - V1 = orbital fissure
V2 = round foramen and alar rostral foramina
V3 = foramen ovale
CN6 = orbital fissure
CN7 = stylomastoid foramen and internal auditory meatus
CN8 = internal auditory meatus
CN9/10/11 = jugular foramen
CN12 = hypoglossal canal

94
Q

what are the different part of immunoglobulin?

A

there are heavy chains and light chains.
There are as well constant and variable regions.

95
Q

where do B cells detect the antigen and where do they go afterwards to fire the AB?

A

they detect the antigen in the ECF and in the germinal centres of the lymph nodes. They then go to either the medulla of the lymph nodes or to the bone marrow and fire the AB from there.

96
Q

what kind of T cell represent 90% of pigs T cells?

A

Y-D T cells in the gut

97
Q

what is Crohn’s disease ?

A

it is a disease where there is IgA deficiency, in this disease, there is a lot of pathogen infiltration through the enterocytes. This and the class switching of defective TH2 & TH3 cells into TH1 and TH7 pro-inflammatory T cells, along with pro-inflammatory macrophages induce gut diseases.

98
Q

to which receptor to IgA bind to protect against mucosal infections?

A

they bind to receptor for polymeric immunoglobulin

99
Q

what are Fc receptors?

A

these are the receptors taking up the maternal IgG inside the offspring’s circulation on the gut membrane.

100
Q

what is an inverse agonist ?

A

sometime an organ will continuously send a signal, a partial agonist is an agonist which make the receptor send an attenuated signal

101
Q

which enzyme induce the metabolisation of drugs?

A

cytochrome P450

102
Q

what is the difference between first and zero order kinetics ?

A

first order kinetics = increase the dosage of a drug, the half life does not change because the elimination mechanisms are not saturated

zero order kinetics = you increase the dosage of a drug -> the half life changes because a fixed amount of drug is removed per unit of time -> saturation of elimination pathways.

103
Q

what is schmallenberg virus?

A

enveloped virus infecting ruminants. It induces mild fever in adults while in newborns it can get congenital malformation or stillbirth.
It can cross the placenta to infect the foetus. It circulates in Europe through a biological vector (biting midges).

The control happens through vaccination.
One can also shift mating to later on or make them graze young to pre-infect the ruminants.

104
Q

what is west nile virus?

A

is a flavivirus. It is mainly hosted by birds but also humans and horses slightly. The symptoms are paralysis or malcoordination. In horses, there is 50% mortality if they have the symptoms.

The birds have the disease, the mosquitoes feed on bird and get the disease and eventually infect the last host. It is complicated to controls it because one can’t kill all mosquitoes. Therefore vaccines are used.

105
Q

what is looping ill virus ?

A

Louping ill virus is another flavivirus which infect sheep and red grouse. It induce fever and then enters the NS and induce encephalitis and neurological signs (convulsions, death and paralysis).
However, once infected we get immunity for life. Grouse can get depressed. They are transmitted by ticks (ixodes ricinus). The control focuses on tick controls with pasture rotations and destruction of habitat favourable to ticks. When an animal is infected, cull it.

106
Q

what is african horse sickness?

A

African horse sickness is a reovirus which has 9 serotypes. It typically infect equids. It has a high mortality : 50-90% in horses and mules and less than 10% in donkeys. It transmits by midges (culicoides imicola mainly). To control this disease there is a lot of quarantining, insect proof housing. The vaccine is a live vaccine therefore there is a lot of risks.

107
Q

what is a paired sample?

A

it is a test used when trying to detect if a vaccine worked or not. Basically you take 2 samples (hence the word paired). The first one during the infection or vaccination (low AB) the second one after a while (high AB).

108
Q

which subtype of human papilloma virus are malignant?

A

subtype HPV-16 and HPV-18

109
Q

what is the part of the dog’s penis forming the copulatory lock?

A

the bulbus glandis

110
Q

swimming from the epididymis to the oocyte is equivalent to swimming how many miles?

A

109 miles

111
Q

what are the names of oestrogens in horses?

A

equilin - equilenin - estrone

112
Q

what is the equivalent of FSH and LH in horses?

A

eCG

113
Q

what is the name of the reflex creating a positive feedback loop of oxytocin release?

A

the fergusson reflex

114
Q

what happens in terms of H+ excretion before and after pH 4.5 in the kidneys in terms of metabolism?

A

before pH 4.5, the main mechanism is excretion of H+ due to hydrogen phosphate and after it is due to ammonium.

115
Q

which 2 drugs can be used against ostertagiosis and how do they roughly work?

A

1- doramectin every 8 weeks (5 weeks for action and 3 weeks is the incubation time)
2- panacure -> anthelmintic device which releases anthelmintic drugs for 5 months.

116
Q

what is the PPP of emeria tenella? its sporulation time and the its reproduction capacities?

A

The pre-patent period is about 140 hours.
The sporulation takes at least 2 days
They have a massive reproductive (one oocyst = 500 000 oocysts) production potential) potential and a self limiting life cycle.

117
Q

where is emeria tenella location of replication?

A

the caecum

118
Q

what is the first, second and third line of attack defense emeria tenella?

A

1- good husbandry = good ventilation, dry and clean litter and reasonable stocking density

119
Q

what is the first, second and third line of attack defense emeria tenella?

A

1- good husbandry = good ventilation, dry and clean litter and reasonable stocking density
2- inophores = Na+ pumping drugs => very useful but dangerous at too high concentration
3- vaccination -> the vaccine is live-virus => too much of it will be dangerous. There is an attenuated version as well

120
Q

which is the spp of cryptosporidium that we need to remember? what is its PPP? how to treat it?

A

C. Parvum.
Its PPP is 1 week.
treat it with halofuginone = stops replication of the parasite.
this parasite causes diarrhoea

121
Q

give 2 specificity of fasciola hepatica : one for attachment and another one for the oocyst

A

attachment = actin filaments
oocyst = 150um = big compared to 80 normally

122
Q

what is the PPP of F. Hepatica ?

A

8-12 weeks

123
Q

how many eggs can fasciola Hepatica produce per da y

A

20-50k

124
Q

how can we identify a F. hepatica infection serologically?

A

by checking the level of glutamate dehydrogenase and y glutamyl transpeptidase

125
Q

what are the different lines of defense against F. hepatica generally?

A

1- physical defense (calcification of bile duct and fibrosis)
2- tricalbenzadole and albendazole
3- kill the snails => molluscicides

126
Q

why do surgeon sometime take out a lymph node during tumour removal ?

A

because malignant tumours easily migrate to lymph nodes and easily cause tumour in it.

127
Q

what is the name of the cat flea?

A

ctenocephaldies

128
Q

how does noradrenaline increase the HR?

A

by increasing the leakage rate of Na+ inside the cells => increased rate of depolarisation => increased HR

129
Q

what is the Borh effect ?

A

it is when the RBC produce 2,3-biphosphoglycerate in the blood which can help to unload O2 in the tissues. When you’re in altitude and you stop to the basecamp:
More blood vessels created, more RBC, more 2,3-biphosphoglycerate created.

130
Q

what is the molecule produced by sufractant?

A

DPPC (dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine)

131
Q

how does digoxin work?

A

block the Na+/K+ exchanger => more Na+ => less leaving of Ca2+ through the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger => more Ca2+ => more contraction

132
Q

give me an example of a K+ channel inhibitor

A

Amiodarone - This effect helps in stabilizing the electrical activity of the heart and preventing certain types of arrhythmias

133
Q

give an example of a Ca2+ channel blocker

A

Verapamil. slower depolarisation => reduce HR

134
Q

which type of bacteria does not have a cell wall?

A

mycoplasma bacteria

135
Q

how many basepair in a bacteria’s chromosome ?

A

10^6 bp

136
Q

what is the name of bacteria’s immune system?

A

restriction modification complex

137
Q

what is the enervation of the tongue?

A

It accounts for 3 aspects
1- movement -> hypoglosses nerve (CN XII)

2- sensory (temperature and touch) -> rostral 2/3 of the tongue. This is taken care of by the lingual branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) (pain, temp, touch)

3- sensory (taste) -> caudal 1/3 of the tongue -> glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX). Provides sensory function for taste.

138
Q

What are the different types of papillae in the tongue?

A

1- conical papillae which are present in the 1/3 caudal part, no taste receptors.
Function = mechanical receptors
Not present in horses

2- foliate papillae, are present in 8 to 12 papillae in parallel fold on either side of the tongue midline.
Taste buds -> present in 1/3 of caudal tongue part
Absent in ruminant

3- vallate papillae -> taste bud and lymphatic are present.
These are gustatory

4- Fungiform ->
Red dots on tongue surface and consist of stratified keratinised squamous epithelium and blood vessels
Involved in loss of heat via panting in dogs
Present in 2/3 rostral of the tongue

5- Filiform ->
Most numerous and point caudally
They are mechanical. They are not taste buds, glands or lymphatics.
Small and consist of a thick keratin on stratified squamous epithelium
Present in the 2/3 rostral part

139
Q

what is the myenteric plexus and the submucosal plexus?

A

The myenteric plexus is a network of nerves located between the layers of muscles in the gastrointestinal tract. It controls the movement and contractions of the digestive muscles, allowing for proper food propulsion.

The submucosal plexus is another network of nerves found in the submucosal layer of the gastrointestinal tract. It regulates the secretion of digestive enzymes, hormones, and mucous, as well as the absorption of nutrients.

In summary, the myenteric plexus controls muscle movements, while the submucosal plexus regulates secretion and absorption in the digestive system.

140
Q

what supplies the intestine, caecum, ascending and transverse colon?

A

the cranial mesenteric artery

141
Q

what supplies the descending colon?

A

caudal mesenteric artery

142
Q

what can C. perfringens cause ?

A

In pigs = necrotising enterocolitis
Poultry = necrotic enteritis
Dogs = haemorrhagic gastroenteritis
Humans = histotoxic

143
Q

what is aplastic anaemia ?

A

a condition where your body stops producing new red blood cells

144
Q

what is the structure of an AB?

A

it has a heavy chain (inside) and a light chain (inside). They also have a constant (base) and a variable (top) section.

145
Q

how many antigen can IgM bind at once?

A

10

146
Q

What is the function of Y:D T cells ?

A

Y:D T cells are specialized T cells found under the enteric mucosal epithelium. They have the ability to recognize stress factors without the need for major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules. This allows them to detect and respond to cellular stress, contributing to the defense and maintenance of the mucosal barrier.

147
Q

what is Chrohn’s disease?

A

Crohn’s disease is characterized by defects in pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) in macrophages and dendritic cells. These defects impair the recognition and response to pathogens, allowing them to cross the intestinal epithelium and trigger an inappropriate immune response, leading to chronic inflammation and tissue damage

148
Q

what are paneth cells ?

A

located at the base of the intestinal crypts, produce and secrete antimicrobial peptides, such as defensins and other immuno-modulating peptides. These peptides contribute to the regulation of the intestinal flora and the defense against pathogens by exerting antimicrobial activity.

149
Q

what is passive immunisation?

A

Passive immunisation occurs when maternal antibodies are passed from the mother to the offspring through colostrum. This provides immediate protection to the newborn as they have not yet developed their own immune response. Maternal antibodies help in defending against pathogens until the offspring’s immune system matures.

150
Q

what are examples of passive-immunisation vaccines ?

A

Lactovec-rotavec vaccines for enteric infections in calves

151
Q

what can be an adverse reaction for cats who are vaccinated?

A

they can have a sarcoma at the site of vaccination

152
Q

which breeds of dogs respond less to vaccines?

A

Doberman and Rottweiler

153
Q

what is myasthenia gravis ?

A

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease characterized by the production of autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors (AChR) on muscle cells. The binding of these autoantibodies to AChR leads to complement activation, receptor destruction, and impaired neuromuscular transmission, resulting in muscle weakness and fatigue.

154
Q

what is Angioedema?

A

swelling that occurs in the subcutaneous or submucosal tissues, typically involving the face, lips, or limbs. It can be triggered by various factors, including insect stings

155
Q

when do we see spherocytes ?

A

Autoimmune-mediated hemolytic anemia (AIHA) is a condition in which the immune system mistakenly targets and destroys red blood cells. As the immune system attacks the red blood cells, they can undergo changes, leading to the formation of spherocytes. Spherocytes are smaller and rounder red blood cells without the usual central pallor. Their presence in blood samples can indicate AIHA.

156
Q

what is Pemphigus complex

A

roup of autoimmune blistering diseases that affect the skin and mucous membranes. In these conditions, autoantibodies target the cellular adhesion molecules and extracellular matrix (ECM) proteins of the basement membrane, leading to the formation of vesicles, ulceration, and crusting lesions.

157
Q

what is Keratoconjunctivitis sicca?

A

destruction of the lacrimal glands => can’t produce tear and have dry eyes. It is T cell mediated as well.

158
Q

give an example of a cox2 inhibitor

A

celecoxib - meloxicam is also slightly cox2 selective but still retain some activity for cox1

159
Q

which are the site of CSF collection?

A

cerebellomedullary cistern - paralumbar cistern

160
Q

what is the organ of Corti?

A

it is made of 3 things, the inner hair cells, the outer hair cells and the tectorial membrane. it is the organ within the cochlea sensing the vibration of sound.

161
Q

In 80% of the cases, thymic lymphoma is caused by which virus?

A

FeLV

162
Q

what is primary and secondary inertia?

A

1- primary uterine inertia = failure to contract because of low levels of oxytocin or low levels of oxytocin receptors. This can be due to obesity or lack of induction of contraction by the foetus (small foetus for instance).

2- secondary uterine inertia = the contraction are good at the beginning but at some point they stop -> this can be due to fatigue bcs of longer foetus, or because the foetus is in an abnormal position. An injection of oxytocin is necessary.

163
Q

which artery is branching from the aorta to supply the mammary gland? which veins drain it?

A

it is the external pubic artery. the caudal and cranial mammary veins or when standing up, the subcutaneous abdominal vein

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