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IF1 Study for exam > Random Questions > Flashcards

Random Questions Flashcards

1
Q 
Famine, economic recession and war are examples of:
A. particular risks.
B. fundamental risks.
C. pure risks.
D. speculative risks.
A

B. fundamental risks

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2
Q 
Insurers can share a risk, in proportions with other insurers as part of a collective
policy, by means of:
A. self-insurance.
B. reinsurance.
C. dual insurance.
D. co-insurance
A

D. Co- insurance

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3
Q

James helps to run his local rugby club. A special requirement that he would need to
consider when arranging insurance for the club would be to protect the members
and the committee against:
A. employers’ liability claims.
B. liability for personal injury caused by the use of a motor vehicle.
C. liability for the association’s actions.
D. liability for professional negligence

A

C. liability for the association’s actions.

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4
Q 
An individual who has been appointed to transact business by an authorised person
under a contract is known as:
A. an appointed representative.
B. an introducer appointed intermediary.
C. an independent intermediary.
D. a principal
A

A.An appointed representative

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5
Q

Which of these activities is an example of consolidation in the general insurance
market?
A. The establishment of broker networks
B. The introduction of online aggregators
C. The emergence of web chat functionality
D. The growth of direct marketing channels

A

A.The establishment of broker networks

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6
Q 
Insurers arrange facilities to enable them to place risks within agreed criteria. These
arrangements are called:
A. syndicates.
B. treaties.
C. balance sheets.
D. portfolios
A

B. Treaties

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7
Q 
That is the major trade association many insurance intermediaries belong to?
A. ABI
B. BIBA
C. IUA
D. LMBC
A

B. BIBA= British Insurance Brokers association, BIBA is the major non-statutory trade association for insurance
intermediaries, with a membership of just under 2,000 regulated firms

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8
Q

Big Flat Insurers offer to insure Claire’s flat on the telephone. Claire accepts the offer
verbally. What needs to happen next in order for a valid contract to be formed?
A. Big Flat Insurers need to make their offer in writing.
B. Claire needs to fill in a direct debit form to agree to pay a monthly premium.
C. The policy document needs to be issued.
D. Claire needs to sign a proposal form

A

B.Claire needs to fill in a direct debit form to agree to pay a monthly premium

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9
Q

A situation where a person acts without authority, but the principal accepts the act as
having been done by the agent on their behalf is known as agency by:
A. agreement.
B. necessity.
C. ratification.
D. consent

A

C.Ratification

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10
Q 
An agent has a right to claim any expenses incurred when acting on behalf of the
principal. This is called:
A. remuneration.
B. commission.
C. indemnity.
D. accountability
A

C.Indemnity

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11
Q

Simon takes out buildings insurance to cover the cost of re-building his house. If it is
destroyed by fire, the financial interest he has in the property is called the:
A. security for the insurance.
B. subject-matter of the contract.
C. insurer’s insurable interest.
D. subject-matter of the insurance.

A

B.Subject matter of contract

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12
Q 
Under the principle of good faith, what must the insured declare to the insurer before
the contract is formed?
A. Facts that they are not yet aware of
B. All material circumstances
C. Statutory requirements
D. Facts that lessen the risk
A

B.All material circumstance

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13
Q

Pierre leaves a question blank on a proposal form he is completing for motor
insurance and the insurer does not question this and issues him with confirmation of
cover. Can the insurer later avoid the policy due to non-disclosure of a material fact
relating to the question left blank by Pierre?
A. No, because the insurer will be deemed to have waived their rights by not asking
for further information.
B. Yes, because it was Pierre’s responsibility to fully complete the form.
C. Yes, because all material facts need to be disclosed on the form.
D. No, because a court would rule that Pierre made an honest mistake

A

A. No, because the insurer will be deemed to have waived their rights by not asking
for further information.

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14
Q

What are the two types of material circumstances in non-life proposals?
A. Security and construction risks
B. Physical and moral hazards
C. Moral and physical perils
D. Insurance history and personal history

A

B. Physical and moral Hazard

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15
Q 
In a liability policy, the settlement is usually paid to:
A. the policyholder.
B. the wronged party.
C. a retailer.
D. a repairer.
A

Policy wording

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16
Q 
What is the most common way of providing indemnity in motor insurance claims?
A. Cash payment
B. Replacement
C. Reinstatement
D. Repair
A

D.Repair

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17
Q

What is the limit of indemnity under a liability policy?
A. The limit requested by the insured when making a claim
B. The legal costs of the insured
C. Unlimited liability
D. The limit stated in the policy

A

D.The limit stated in the policy

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18
Q

In which type of policy condition is there no margin for error allowed for the sum
insured declared at the start of the policy?
A. Betterment
B. Reinstatement memorandum
C. Day one reinstatement
D. First loss

A

C. Day one reinstatement

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19
Q 
When is the indemnity used as the basis of calculating claims for stock based on the
local market price? When it is for:
A. farming stock.
B. manufacturers' stock in trade.
C. retailers' stock in trade.
D. wholesalers' stock in trade.
A

A.Farming stock

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20
Q

Which of the following combinations correctly reflect the requirements for
contribution to arise?
A. Common insurable interest, peril, and a non-contribution clause
B. Identical sum assured, common insurable interest and subject-matter
C. Identical policies, common peril, and subject-matter
D. Common insurable interest, peril, and subject-matter

A

D. Common insurable interest peril and subject matter

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21
Q 
Which of these is a method of determining the rateable proportion of an insurer's
contribution?
A. Reinstatement
B. Subrogation
C. Sum insured
D. Average
A

C. Sum insured

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22
Q 
Which method of calculating the insurer's rateable proportion is used when a policy is
subject to average?
A. Independent liability
B. Sum insured
C. Day One reinstatement
D. First loss
A

A. Independent liability

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23
Q

How can an insurer ensure that they can issue proceedings against a third party as
soon as possible and if necessary, before indemnifying the policyholder?
A. By exercising a common law right
B. By putting a condition in the policy wording to say that they can do this
C. By getting the insured to initiate proceedings
D. By getting the insured to sign a waiver of their rights

A

B. By putting a condition in the policy wording to say that they can do this

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24
Q 
What is the residual value in an item, after it has been declared beyond economic
repair, called?
A. Reinstatement
B. Salvage
C. Indemnity
D. Recovery
A

B. Salvage

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25
Q 
What is the condition in a commercial policy where an insurer agrees not to pursue
damages against a third party called?
A. A subrogation waiver
B. A hold harmless clause
C. A contribution waiver
D. A market agreement
A

A. A subrogation waiver

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26
Q

Which Act consolidates and clarifies existing consumer legislation on unfair contract
terms?
A. Consumer Rights Act 2015
B. Insurance Act 2015
C. Consumer Insurance (Disclosure and Representations) Act 2012
D. Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999

A

A. Consumer Rights Act 2015

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27
Q

Which Act includes amendments to the Third Parties (Rights Against Insurers) Act
2010 aimed at rectifying the failure to include certain insolvency circumstances in the
original Act?
A. The Finance Act 2015
B. The Consumer Rights Act 2015
C. The Deregulation Act 2015
D. The Insurance Act 2015

A

D. The insurance act 2015

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28
Q

In which section of the FCA Handbook would you find regulatory rules and guidance
relating to the prevention and detection of money laundering?
A. SIMR
B. PRIN
C. COND
D. SYSC

A

D. SYSC senior management

arrangements, systems and controls

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29
Q 
The General Data Protection Regulation applies to:
A. data communicators and controllers.
B. data analysts and processors.
C. data analysts and controllers.
D. data controllers and processors.
A

D. Data controllers and processors

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30
Q

How long does the complainant have to refer a complaint to the FOS, after the
complaints procedures within an authorised firm have been exhausted?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months

A

B. 6 months

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31
Q 
Which of the following is an ideal rather than an absolute requirement when it comes
to the availability of insurance?
A. Fortuitous loss
B. Insurable interest
C. Not being against the public interest
D. Homogenous exposures
A

D. Homogenous exposures

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32
Q 
Which type of insurance company is owned by the policyholders?
A. A proprietary company
B. A mutual company
C. A captive company
D. A public limited company
A

B. Mutual company

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33
Q

Jenna is a professional working within the financial services industry. Her role
involves applying statistical and probability techniques to predict future losses. This
suggests that she is an:
A. auditor.
B. underwriter.
C. accountant.
D. actuary

A

D. Actuary

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34
Q

The Capable Car Insurer makes it a condition of Maureen’s insurance that any
modifications to her car must be notified to them. Maureen fits different wheels to
the car without informing the insurer. This means that the policy is now:
A. valid.
B. verifiable.
C. fulfilled.
D. voidable

A

D. Voidable

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35
Q

If an agent incurs expenses travelling to a meeting to carry out the principal’s
instructions, under what kind of authority will they be able to claim expenses without
needing a specific agreement?
A. Agency
B. Apparent
C. Express
D. Implied

A

D. Implied

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36
Q

Whose responsibility is it to establish all the relevant facts and ensure that the
products a retail customer decides upon, fulfil their needs?
A. The customer
B. The adviser
C. The underwriter
D. The FCA

A

B. The adviser

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37
Q

If all the causes of a loss are insured perils, except one which is an excepted peril,
what will the insurers do?
A. Turn the claim down.
B. Pay the claim.
C. Assess what proportion of the loss was covered by the excepted peril.
D. Apply the doctrine of proximate cause

A

D. Apply the doctrine of proximate cause

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38
Q 
Under the Riot Compensation Act (2016), who may have responsibility for paying for
the damage caused to property?
A. The ABI
B. The police authority
C. The insurer
D. The FOS
A

B. The police authority

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39
Q

Which of the following is a new addition to the ‘grey list’ of terms presumed to be
unfair?
A. Requiring the consumer to take disputes exclusively to arbitration not covered by
legal provisions
B. Unduly restricting the evidence available to the consumer
C. Disproportionately high charges where the consumer decides to cancel the
contract
D. Imposing on the consumer a burden of proof which should lie with another party
to the contract

A

C. Disproportionately high charges where the consumer decides to cancel the
contract

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40
Q

When considering the FCA’s approach to supervising small firms, each of the
following statements is correct, with the exception of?
A. Small firms generally receive less contact from the FCA compared to large firms
B. Small firms are targeted by the FCA with roadshows and workshops
C. Regulatory intrusiveness into small firms is always less than with large firms
D. Visits to small firms are usually as a result of thematic reviews

A

C. Regulatory intrusiveness into small firms is always less than with large firms

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41
Q 
Which body is currently able to review and react to ‘super complaints’ submitted by
consumer groups?
A. Financial Conduct Authority
B. Financial Ombudsman Service
C. Office of Fair Trading
D. Competition Commission
A

A. FCA financial conduct authority

42
Q

What was the effect of the Crime and Courts Act of 2013?
A. It merged the operations of SOCA and the NCA
B. It removed the right of the FCA to be involved in serious crime investigations
C. It replaced the NCA with POCA
D. It merged the operations of the FCA and the PRA

A

A. It merged the operations of SOCA and the NCA

43
Q 
A person who wishes to minimise a risk is termed:
A. risk-seeking.
B. predictable.
C. unpredictable.
D. risk-averse
A

D. Risk averse

44
Q

Risk identification is the process of discovering:
A. historic and future threats.
B. threats that currently exist.
C. threats that currently exist and potential threats.
D. potential threats

A

C. threats that currently exist and potential threats

45
Q

Mark owns a small garage. He decides to send potentially risky welding repairs to an
outside contractor. This is a method of risk:
A. elimination.
B. reduction.
C. prevention.
D. improvement

A

A. Elimination

46
Q 
Risk management is a legal requirement for:
A. companies quoted on the stock market
B. private customers
C. high net worth individuals
D. mortgagee
A

A.Companies quoted on the stock market

47
Q 
Which of these risks is insurable?
A. A fundamental risk
B. A speculative risk
C. A non-financial risk
D. A pure risk
A

D. Pure risk

48
Q 
Which of the following buyers of insurance may be exempt from compulsory
insurance requirements?
A. Private individuals
B. Partnerships
C. Public bodies
D. Companies
A

C. Public bodies

49
Q

The second stage in the risk management process is:
A. implementing physical control measures.
B. identifying hazards.
C. the decision to transfer risk.
D. analysing past data

A

D. Analysing past data

50
Q 
What is a cedant?
A. A Lloyd's syndicate
B. A re-insurer
C. An insurer who buys re-insurance cover
D. A re-insurance broker
A

C. An insurer who buys re-insurance cove

51
Q 
A building survey is used by insurers as a method of risk:
A. identification
B. analysis
C. control
D. management
A

A. Indentification

52
Q 
Insurance is classified as a:
A. physical control measure
B. risk removal method
C. financial control measure
D. risk prevention metho
A

C. Financial control measure

53
Q 
Which of these risks is insurable?
A. A fundamental risk
B. A speculative risk
C. A non-financial risk
D. A pure risk
A

D. Pure risk

54
Q 
For a risk to be insurable it must be:
A. fortuitous
B. non-fortuitous
C. inevitable
D. deliberate
A

A . Fortuitous

55
Q 
Which of the following buyers of insurance may be exempt from compulsory
insurance requirements?
A. Private individuals
B. Partnerships
C. Public bodies
D. Companies
A

C. Public bodies

56
Q 
A company wishing to transact insurance business in the UK must be authorised to do
so by which body?
A. The ABI
B. The CII
C. The BIBA
D. The PRA
A

D. The PRA= is part of the Bank of England and is responsible for the stability and resolvability of systemically important
financial institutions such as banks, building societies and insurers. It will not seek to prevent all firm failures
but seeks to ensure that firms can fail without bringing down the entire financial system.

57
Q 
Which type of insurance provider is owned by shareholders?
A. A proprietary company
B. A mutual company
C. Lloyd's
D. A captive company
A

A. Proprietarty company

58
Q 
Which of these people accepts a risk on behalf of a syndicate in the Lloyd's market?
A. A broker
B. An underwriter
C. An insurer
D. A managing agent
A

B. An underwriter

59
Q

Peter’s motor garage hands out brochures for Super Motor Car Insurance but they do
not offer any advice on the insurance company’s products. Therefore they would be
classified as:
A. a principal
B. an introducer appointed representative
C. an authorised person
D. an appointed representative

A

B. An introducer appointed representative

60
Q

What is the main activity of consolidators?
A. They offer centralised services such as training
B. They offer appointed representative status to members
C. They acquire brokerage firms
D. They make purchasing negotiations with insurers

A

C. They acquire brokerage firms

61
Q 
Arranging reinsurance on a single known risk is called:
A. retroceding
B. dual insurance
C. co-insurance
D. facultative reinsurance
A

D. Facultative reinsurance

62
Q 
The member of staff in an insurance company whose role it is to ensure that the firm
abides by FCA rules, is called:
A. a risk manager
B. an FCA officer
C. a compliance officer
D. an actuary
A

D. A compliance officer

63
Q

Which case established the principle that a valid contract can be formed at the point
at which the letter of acceptance is posted?
A. Household Fire Insurance Co. v. Grant (1879)
B. Currie v. Misa (1875)
C. Hyde v. Wrench (1840)
D. Castellain v. Preston (1883)

A

A. Household Fire insurance co. v grant 1879

64
Q

Which one of the following arises where a person is entrusted with someone else’s
goods and it becomes a requirement that they act in a certain way to protect the
property in an emergency? Agency by…
A. authority
B. consent
C. ratification
D. necessity

A

D. Necessity

65
Q 
Which of these is the duty of a principal to an agent?
A. Obedience
B. Remuneration
C. Accountability
D. Due care and skill
A

B. Remuneration= The agent has a right to the remuneration agreed by their principal or, if none has been
fixed, to a reasonable remuneration as is customary or appropriate. For insurance
transactions the remuneration usually consists of commission, and to earn this the agent
must prove that they were the effective cause of any transaction. In short, an agent has not
‘earned’ their commission until a contract has been signed.

66
Q 
Paul takes out car insurance on his car which means his car is:
A. the subject-matter of the insurance
B. his financial interest
C. the subject-matter of the contract
D. the insurer’s insurable interes
A

A. Subject matter of the insurnace

67
Q

The case which illustrates the principle that an expectation of acquiring insurable
interest at some time in the future may not create an insurable interest in general
non-marine insurance is:
A. Currie v. Misa (1875)
B. Hyde v. Wrench (1840)
C. Lucena v. Craufurd (1806)
D. Castellian v. Preston (1883)

A

C. Lucena V. craufurd 1806

68
Q

The case which established the principle of utmost good faith was:
A. Rozanes v. Bowen (1928)
B. Roseloge v. Castle (1966)
C. Hyde v. Wrench (1840)
D. Kettlewell v. Refuge Assurance Company (1909)

A

A. Rozanes V. Bowen 1928

69
Q

Which of the following bodies issued a ‘Statement of General Insurance Practice’ to
provide some protection for those acting in their private capacity in cases of non-
deliberate mistakes in disclosure?
A. Lloyd’s
B. The ABI
C. The FCA
D. The FOS

A

B. ABI= Association of British insurers, The Abi is the largest of the insurance market associations formed in 1985
its 250 member companies include UK insurers and foreign insurance companies operating in the UK.

70
Q

Which kind of change in circumstance would a Public Liability insurer be particularly
keen to know about?
A. Any change in the number of staff members
B. Any change in the business activities of the insured
C. Any storage of property at other premises
D. Any car accidents caused by employees

A

B. Any change in the business activities of the insured

71
Q

If an insurer offers a replacement item from a particular retailer to indemnify a
policyholder for a loss and the policyholder refuses to accept the item offered, the
insurer will usually:
A. refuse to settle the claim in any other way
B. pay the insured the amount they would have paid the retailer
C. repair the item instead
D. ask the policyholder to get a quote from another retailer

A

B. pay the insured the amount they would have paid the retailer

72
Q

Luther’s property is damaged by fire and his insurers offer to take responsibility for
restoring it to its pre-loss condition. This method of indemnity is called:
A. reinstatement
B. retrieval
C. restoration
D. replacement

A

A. Reinstatment

73
Q

The policy condition where the insurer makes an automatic allowance for uplift to the
sum insured declared at the policy inception and the policyholder pays a premium
based on a modest increase, is called:
A. day one reinstatement
B. reinstatement memorandum
C. betterment
D. first loss

A

A Day one reinstatement

74
Q

What is the principle used when an insurer steps into the shoes of the insured to
recover the amount paid to the insured, from a third party?
A. Liability
B. Contribution
C. Subrogation
D. Indemnity

A

C. Subrogation

75
Q

If an insurer does not have a contribution condition in their policy wording what must
they do if the insured claims from them?
A. Pay the claim in full and recover from the other insurers
B. Pay the claim in full themselves
C. Pay only their proportion of the claim
D. Turn down the claim

A

A. Pay the claim in full and recover from the other insurers

76
Q

Which case defined the relationship between subrogation and indemnity?
A. Lister v. Romford Ice and Cold Storage Ltd (1957)
B. Yorkshire Insurance Co. v. Nisbet Shipping Co. Ltd (1961)
C. Castellain v. Preston (1883)
D. North British and Mercantile v. Liverpool and London and Globe (1877)

A

C. Castellain v. Preston (1883)

77
Q

What can the insured do if they wish to keep an item that has been declared beyond
economic repair?
A. They can keep it and receive a full settlement from the insurer
B. They can negotiate with the salvage company to buy back the item
C. They can negotiate with the insurer to have the salvage value deducted from the
settlement
D. They cannot keep the item once it is beyond economic repair

A

C. They can negotiate with the insurer to have the salvage value deducted from the
settlement

78
Q 
With which Act is the ‘grey list’ associated with?
A. Insurance Act 2015
B. Deregulation Act 2015
C. Consumer Rights Act 2015
D. Equality Act 2010
A

C. Consumer Rights Act 2015

79
Q

Which of the following bodies is responsible for the stability and resolvability of
systemically important financial institutions?
A. The PRA
B. The FPC
C. The FOS
D. The FCA

A

A. PRA

80
Q 
Who may carry out a controlled function in a regulated firm?
A. A regulated person
B. An approved person
C. An authorised person
D. A compliance person
A

B. An approved person

81
Q 
To gain authorisation from the PRA to transact business in the EU, a company must be
operated by:
A. fit and proper persons
B. diligent persons
C. competent persons
D. controlled persons
A

A. Fit and proper persons

82
Q 
Which body is primarily concerned with serious crime prevention and the recovery of
the proceeds of crime?
Which body is primarily concerned with serious crime prevention and the recovery of
the proceeds of crime?
A. NCA
B. POCA
C. FCA
D. FOS
A

A. NCA= . It
abolished the ARA and transferred all its activities to the Serious Organised Crimes Agency
(SOCA). SOCA’s operations merged into a larger National Crime Agency (NCA) created
through the Crime and Courts Act 201

83
Q 
Which legislation made it a specific criminal offence to fail to disclose that someone
else is engaged in money laundering?
A. The Data Protection Act 1998
B. The Criminal Justice Act 1993
C. The Proceeds of Crime Act 2002
D. The Money Laundering Regulations 1993
A

C. The Proceeds of Crime Act 2002

84
Q 
Which legislation made it a criminal offence to tip off a person suspected of money
laundering?
A. The Criminal Justice Act 1993
B. Proceeds of Crime Act 2002
C. The Money Laundering Regulations 2017
D. The Data Protection Act 1998
A

A. The Criminal Justice Act 1993

85
Q

Under the General Data Protection Regulation ‘sensitive personal data’ is now
referred to as?
A. protected personal data
B. special categories of personal data
C. restricted categories of personal data
D. ring-fenced personal data

A

B. Special categories of personal data

86
Q

To whom can an individual apply if they believe their details have been used in
contravention of the Data Protection Act 2018?
A. The Complaints Commissioner
B. The Data Commissioner
C. The Information Commissioner
D. The Police Commissioner

A

C. The Information Commissioner

87
Q

What expectation does the FCA have in relation to an employee’s level of
competence at work?
A. The employee’s competence with be appropriate to the nature of the business
B. The employee will be an expert in their field
C. The employee has achieved a pre-defined set of qualifications for their role
D. The employee’s skills are suitable for the job undertaken

A

A. The employee’s competence with be appropriate to the nature of the business

88
Q

One of the FCA definitions of an eligible complainant is a:
A. charity with an annual income of less than £6.5 million
B. micro-enterprise with fewer than 20 employees and a turnover or balance sheet
total of no more than 2m euros
C. commercial buy-to-let consumer
D. trustee of a trust with a net asset value of less than £1 million

A

A. charity with an annual income of less than £6.5 million

89
Q

Which of the followings statements relating to the FOS is TRUE?
A. The insurer can reject the Ombudsman’s decision
B. The insured can reject the Ombudsman’s decision
C. The maximum financial award the FOS can make is £100,000
D. It is concerned with commercial insurances for larger enterprises

A

B. The insured can reject the Ombudsman’s decision

90
Q 
Under common law, what must an insurer do before exercising its subrogation rights?
A. Indemnify the insured
B. Seek the permission of the insured
C. Check any market agreements in place
D. Indemnify the third party
A

A. Indemnify the insured

91
Q

What principle did the King and Queen Granaries case establish?
A. That both policies must cover a common peril
B. That both policies must cover a common interest in the subject-matter
C. A contribution wording
D. A rateable proportion

A

B. That both policies must cover a common interest in the subject-matte

92
Q

If an insurer does not have a contribution condition in their policy wording what must
they do if the insured claims from them?
A. Pay the claim in full and recover from the other insurers
B. Pay the claim in full themselves
C. Pay only their proportion of the claim
D. Turn down the claim

A

A. Pay the claim in full and recover from the other insurers

93
Q 
Which kind of policy cannot have an average condition?
A. Fire policies
B. Theft insurance
C. Household policies
D. Liability insurance
A

D. Liability insurance

94
Q 
The average condition deals with which kind of issue:
A. deductibles
B. under-insurance
C. new for old
D. reinstatement
A

B. Under-insurance

95
Q

Which type of cover has no stated limit of indemnity?
A. Third party injury under a motor policy
B. Insurance for farming stock
C. Pet insurance
D. Property insurance on a reinstatement basis

A

A. Third party injury under a motor policy

96
Q

In which situation is an insurer unlikely to offer replacement as a method of
indemnity?
A. Car write offs where the car is less than a year old
B. Jewellery claims where an insurer can obtain a discount from a particular retailer
C. Car write offs where the car is more than a year old
D. Glass insurance where the insurer has an arrangement with a specialist company

A

C. Car write offs where the car is more than a year old

97
Q

In which circumstance is an insurer unable to decline a claim payment?
A. Fraudulent misrepresentation by a commercial insurer
B. Innocent misrepresentation by a personal insurance customer
C. Fraudulent misrepresentation by a personal insurance customer
D. Misrepresentation by a commercial customer concerning something they ought
to have known about

A

B. Innocent misrepresentation by a personal insurance customer

98
Q

Nichola’s policy has a clause which says that her insurer must give her 7 days’ notice
of cancellation if she has breached her duty of good faith. Her insurer discovers a
material fact which has not been disclosed, but they ignore this for 30 days. Can they
then contact her and cancel the policy?
A. No, because their delay means that they are stopped from enforcing their rights
B. No, because they must not have made sufficient enquiries before accepting the
policy
C. Yes, they can cancel the policy
ab initio
D. Yes, they can cancel the policy from 7 days after they found out about the breach

A

A.No, because their delay means that they are stopped from enforcing their rights

99
Q

In the case of Carter v. Boehm (1766), how did the judge argue an underwriter would
act if an insured did not disclose a material fact about a particular risk?
A. Exclude cover for this type of risk
B. Estimate the risk as it does not exist
C. Make further enquiries
D. Charge an uplift in premium for potential undisclosed risks

A

B. Estimate the risk as it does not exist

100
Q 
The practice, in English law, of following a principle set down in a previous case, is
called:
A. contract law
B. judicial precedent
C. case law
D.
consensus ad idem
A

B. Judicial precedent

IF1 Study for exam (14 decks)

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